398

398
THEORY QUESTIONS

1. Mention two types of drills. 2. Give two advantages of AC welding machine over DC machine 3. State two effects of excess oxygen and acetylene in welding of stainless steel. 4. Mention four methods of detecting imperfection in the weld. 5. State five advantages of M.G. welding over metal arc welding process. 6 a. State four safety precautions to be observed during and after welding operations. b. Explain briefly two types of fumes evaporation that should be given serious consideration during arc welding. 7 a. Name three basic power supplies used in the Tig welding process. b. List three basic kinds of tungsten alloys used for the electrode Tig welding. 8. With the aid of neat sketches show the following defects in welding: (i) Undercut (ii) Lack of fusion (iii) Slags inclusion

(iv) Porosity (v) Blow holes 9. State five safety precautions that should be observed in an engineering workshop. 10 a. Name types of mallets and hammers b. Mention where they can be useful in engineering workshop. 11 a. State two methods of striking on metals. b. List five reasons why will coated flux with electrode 12 a. What is safety precaution? b. State five safety precaution to be observed under general in the fabrication workshop. 13 a. State the differences between the wiring, swaging and jenning in fabrication workshop. b. Give five reasons for carrying out test on materials. 14 Give two safety precautions to be observed when operating a welding machine.
399

399 15 a. Sketch and describe the uses of cutting board or bench hook. b. Make a freehand sketch of a Tenon saw and name its main parts. Write out other two names of a Tenon saw. c. Make a neat sketch of pincers showing how to remove nail which has become bent while driving. What steps would you take to protect the job while removing the nail? d. Sketch a try-square, describe how it is used when

squaring a line round a piece of prepared wood before cutting off the waste. 16 a. Sketch top part of circular sawing machine and label five main parts. Sketch and describe the uses of the following: (i) Push stick (ii) Sliding bevel square (iii) Spoke shave (iv) Compass saw (v) Rasp 17 a. Sketch and describe the uses of cutting board. b. Name, sketch and describe the uses of five important wood work hand tools. c. What is the use of compass saw? Illustrate one with sketches. d. Sketch a meter try-square, describe how it is used when squaring a line round a piece of prepared wood before cutting off the waste. e. List five workshop safety habits. Briefly comment on each. 18 a. Describe with the aid of sketches the operational sequence of your workshop practical work for the current semester showing the members apart. b. When would you use a mortise gauge in preference to the working gauge. c. Describe the difference between mitre try-square and the sliding bevel. State their uses. d. Sketch a firmer chisel and name its parts. e. Sketch a claw hammer, name its parts, explain how to

extract nails with it.

400

400 19 1. What is the advantage of tube compared to solid sections? 2. With the aid of simple diagrams explain how metals could be used as part of your project.
401

401
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BENCH VICE

1. The bench vice is mounted on the edge of the bench to: (a) _______________ make it easier to use. (b)_______________ permit clamping long pieces of work.
(c) _______________ hold small parts.

(d)_______________ all of the above. (e) _______________ none of the above 2. ___________________ are used to protect work that will be damaged by the serrations on the vice jaws. 3. The vice ______________ is determined by the width of the jaws. 4. The ______________ is used to hold pieces together while they are being worked on. The ______________ determines its size. 5. Make a sketch of a typical C-clamp and a parallel clamp.
WELDING

6. Welding is a method of joining metals by heating to a suitable temperature to cause them to ________________. 7. Oxyacetylene welding requires the following equipment: (a) _____________ stores the gases. (b) _____________ regulates and controls gas flow. (c) _____________ carries the gases to the point of use. (d) _____________ mixes and controls the gases when welding 8. The acetylene hose is coloured _______________, the oxygen hose is coloured. 9. The torch is lit with a _______________, never a match. 10. Gas welding rod is frequently copper plated to prevent it from __________. 11. Brazing rod is made of ___________ or ____________. 12. Flux is needed when brazing to _____________________. 13. List the five (5) basic types of weld joints. Make a sketch of each below the name listed. (a) _________________ (b) __________________ (c) __________________ (d) _________________ (e) ___________________
402

402 14. The torch may be held in one of two different positions: _______________ usually used for joining thin metal ________________ for joining heavier sections
JIG SAW

(Questions 15 24) 15. The saw should be operated at approximately ___________ RPM with a blade having _____________ teeth per inch when cutting a piece of pine lumber. 16. IF saw cuts are rough and ragged the speed should be _______________. 17. When using the _____________ type blade both chucks are used. 18. The work is held snug to the table by the _____________, _____________ and _______________. 19. For general purpose sawing a blade having ____________teeth per inch is recommended. 20. The blade should be inserted so that sawing is completed on the _____________ stroke. 21. When using the sabre saw blade only the __________ chuck is used. 22. Proper blade tension is accomplished by adjusting the _________________. 23. To increase speed if the saw is designed with 4-step motor and drive pulley the belt should be moved to a ______________ position on the motor and a ____________ position on the drive cone pulley.

24. Saw cuts should be made on the _______________ side of the line.
403

403
WOODWORK

25. _________ can be defined as the material that forms the trunks and branches of trees. (a) Timber (b) Wood (c) Lumber (d) Trunk 26. The wood cutting from the trunk is known as (a) Lumber (b) Plywood (c) Timber (d) Bamboo 27. The type of wood that is suitable for the construction of houses and furniture is (a) Bamboo (b) Lumber (c) Heartwood (d) Timber 28. The wood used to make model aeroplanes is (a) Plywood (b) Lumber (c) Balsa (d) Balasa 29. The type of wood that much more permeable to liquid

and susceptible to decay is called (a) Earthwood (b) Heartwood (c) Sapwood (d) Coolwood 30. The paler outer zone that shows after cutting down a tree is (a) Lumber (b) Sapwood (c) Soapwood
404

404 (d) Timber 31. ____________ serves a purpose of providing storage space for the reserve food materials that trees store up during summer (a) Rays (b) Roughages (c) Raw (d) Reams 32. Timber has lost its market value because (a) It is too expensive (b) It is very heavy to carry (c) There is no adequate precautionary measure to prevent it from decay (d) There is no available market place for it 33. ___________ is very versatile material that has been used for a

great variety of purpose. (a) Wood (b) Rays (c) Reams (d) Plastics 34. The following are the qualities to consider when designing and choosing the materials to be used for a structure except (a) Strength (b) Stability (c) Homogeneity (d) Durability 35. Softwoods are more preferred to hardwoods for most structural purposes because (a) They are cheaper and easier to work on (b) They are voluminous and easy to carry (c) They are friendly and cheaper to transport (d) All of the above 36. The following are the most commonly used softwood for building timbers but one
405

405 (a) European redwood (b) European yellowwood (c) European whitewood (d) Western hemlock 37. Hardwoods are more variable to use therefore one must take greater care to select

(a) The right volume for a particular job (b) The right weight for a particular job (c) The right specimen for a particular job (d) The right species for a particular job 38. The following are simply the traditional timbers for building ships and large boats except (a) Sleak (b) Oak (c) Elm (d) Teak 39. The European oak can best be used for the following (a) Frames (b) Stringers (c) Tent (d) Keels 40. ______________ is regarded as an ideal wood for frames (a) Timber (b) Oak (c) Rock elm (d) Mountain elm 41. A good substitute for teak wood because it is expensive is (a) Afrormosia (b) Afennism (c) Afredmism (d) Americasm 42. ____________ is most often made of African mahogany. (a) Planking

406

406 (b) Afrormosia (c) Plating (d) Placating 43. The ideal wood to use in decking a boats is (a) Sleek (b) Afrormosia (c) Teak (d) Larch 44. One of the following are the two types of casks (a) Those made to contain chloride and solvent (b) Those made to contain iron and those intended to contain liquid (c) Those made to contain liquid and those intended for solids (d) Those that contain chemiron and those intended for solible. 45. The two kinds of casks can also be called (a) Wet or tight cooperage and dry or slack (b) Dry or wet cooperage and wet or tight (c) Tight or slack cooperage and wet or dry (d) Slack or cool cooperage and soaked or dry 46. Beer casks were formerly made of (a) African or American white oak (b) European or African white oak (c) European or American white oak (d) Asian or European white oak 47. The best wood for the purpose of making a dock gates and marine piling is

(a) Douglas fir (b) Oak (c) Creosoted (d) Lumber 48. The two types of flooring are (a) One that is exposed to all the wear and the one that is clean (b) One that is exposed to all the wear and one that is hard (c) One that is exposed to all the wear and one that is covered with
407

407 carpets (d) One that is exposed to the sun and one that is covered with cloth 49. The following are the timber suitable for domestic floors. (a) Oak (b) Beech (c) Lumber (d) Maple 50. The following hardwoods have been used for flooring successfully except (a) Birch (b) Danta (c) Lumber (d) Iroko 51. The floors that receive much heavier wear woods usually require generally about (a) 500kg/m2

(b) 600kg/m2 (c) 100kg/m2 (d) 800kg/m2 52. These can be used for floors that ca receive much heavier wear woods except (a) Green heart (b) Muhuhu (c) Oak (d) Okan 53. The traditional timber for Windsor chair is (a) Oak (b) Elm (c) Lumber (d) Okan 54. Oak can be used to make the following (a) Tables (b) Chairs (c) Chests
408

408 (d) Flooring 55. The traditional timber for fencing posts and pilings are (a) Oak and Okan (b) Oak and Lumber (c) Oak and Larch (d) Oak and Iroko 56. The antique pieces of furniture made of exotic timbers such as a satin wood is (a) Collectors pieces

(b) Collected woods (c) Collected oak (d) Collected timber 57. The mahogany from the West Indies was the favourite furniture timber in the (a) Eighteen century (b) Fifteen century (c) Nineteenth century (d) Seventeenth century 58. Round poles consist almost entirely of (a) Heartwood (b) Earthwood (c) Sapwood (d) Tapwood 59. The western red cedar timber can be used for the following (a) Dutch lights (b) Greenish lights (c) Beehives (d) Seed boxes 60. The timbers meant for joinery should be property (a) Straighten (b) Strength grained and free from large knot (c) Smoothen and free from large oak (d) Reserved and free from red cedar mixture
409

409 61. Timbers that are moderately durable and treated with a wood preservative can be used for

(a) Internal uses (b) External uses (c) Dominion uses (d) All of the above 62. The following woods can also be used for door in substitution for hardwood except (a) Iroko (b) Opepe (c) Gang (d) Idigbo 63. The requirement quality of timber in manufacturing joinery are specified between BS (a) 1186 of 1971 (b) 1967 of 1187 (c) 1188 of 1973 (d) 1189 of 1972 64. The following are light-coloured wood but one (a) Ash (b) Agba (c) Opepe (d) Ramin 65. The following are the requirement of using wood for making boxes and packing cases but (a) It should be strong enough to protect the contents of the case or crate (b) Able to take nails without spitting (c) Able to absorb water without heavily soak

(d) Should have no deleterious effect on the contents 66. The most preferred timber for poles to carry telephone wires and electrical transmission lines in the UK is (a) The UK redwood
410

410 (b) The American redwood (c) The European redwood (d) The Oceania redwood 67. ____________ are boarded platforms that raise some inches off the ground on bearers or blocks (a) Poles (b) Pallets (c) Pitwood (d) Redwood 68. One of the following are used for rapid handing of goods by forklift trucks (a) Pallets (b) Poles (c) Pitwood (d) Prellets 69. ______________ from pines and spruces are generally used for case making (a) Pallets (b) Softwood (c) Pitwoods (d) Hardwood

70. If pre-treatment with a wood preservative or fire retardant solution is required for pitwoods it must be air-dried to about (a) 30-40 percent moisture content (b) 50-55 percent moisture content (c) 25-30 percent moisture content (d) 30-35 percent moisture content 71. The most suitable timbers for making good and quality paper is (a) Pulp wood (b) Pale coloured softwoods (c) Ash-coloured softwood (d) Greenish-coloured pitwood 72. In Great Britain most of the sleepers on main line trucks are made
411

411 of reinforced (a) Sapwood (b) Concrete (c) Poles (d) Pitwood 73. The solely wood used to make cricket bats is (a) Sapwood (b) Willow (c) Oak (d) Iroko 74. The two notable woods used for making tennis rackets, hockey sticks and the handles of striking tools are (a) Oak and willow

(b) Iroko and sapwood (c) Ash and hickory (d) Jarah and willow 75. The shaping of a piece of wood by revolving it against a stationery-cutting tool is (a) Hockey (b) Turnery (c) Skating (d) Teaming 76. Fermentation vessels breweries are made of (a) Plywood (b) Sapwood (c) Timber (d) Lumber 77. In the olden days, kauri pine was the timber for making (a) Hockey (b) Vats (c) Vessels (d) Pines 78. The vats for spirits is invariably made of
412

412 (a) Plywood (b) Iroko (c) Oak (d) Jarah 79. The following are tropical hardwoods except (a) Pitch pine (b) Douglas fir (c) Larch (d) Redwood

80. The following are the best for utility turnery work (a) Alder (b) Jarah (c) Beech birch (d) Chery 81. Smaller fancy articles are made from valuable (a) Satinwood (b) Larch (c) Redwood (d) Timber 82. The following are the best for ornamental turnery work except (a) Teak (b) Walnut (c) Sleek (d) Mahogany 83. ___________ and ____________ are the two types of turnery (a) Feasible and infeasible turnery (b) Utility and ornamental turnery (c) Ornamental and inferior turnery (d) Utility and luxury turnery 84. Ornamental turnery produces the following articles but one (a) Table lamp (b) Fruit bowls (c) Lamp stand
413

413 (d) None of the above 85. The full meaning of WBP is

(a) Water Proof and Boil Proof (b) Weather Proof and Boil Proof (c) Weather Proof and Burn Proof (d) Water Proof and Bump Proof 86. The classification of glues on their durability basis has been laid down since (a) BS 1205 (b) BS 1208 (c) BS 1203 (d) AB 1209 87. The full meaning of BR is (a) Bump Resins (b) Burn Resins (c) Boil Resin (d) Boil Resistant 88. The development of cohesive based on synthetic resins was in the year (a) 1990 (b) 1993 (c) 1995 (d) 1998 89. The MR abbreviation stands for (a) Materials of Resins (b) Materials Reserved (c) Moisture Resistant (d) Moisture Resins 90. _____________ adhesives are used in joint where the clamping pressure cannot ensure a light fit

(a) Moisture (b) Gap filling (c) Filing

414

414 (d) Cool 91. The rate of curing of synthetic resin adhesives is greatly accelerated by exposing the joints to (a) an isolated temperature (b) an elevated temperature (c) an insulated temperature (d) an heamolasis temperature 92. Gap filling adhesives must be able to fill gaps up to 1.27mm without (a) Cranes (b) Insulation (c) Crazing (d) Sulin inclusion 93. An adhesive can function well if only the wood to which it is applied is at a suitable (a) Moisture of sulin and insulin at correct rate of spread (b) Moisture of BS 1204 and sulin at correct rate of spread (c) Moisture content at correct rate of spread (d) Moisture of oak and BS 1204 at correct rate of spread 94. The moisture content of the wood to be glue should not exceed (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 15%

(d) 40% 95. The production of balance construction that is made up of pipes assembled by gluing is called (a) Plywood (b) Softwood (c) Pitwood (d) Greenwood 96. The importation of plywood into the UK increased from 449,100 to 821,600m3 between (a) 1980 and 1990
415

415 (b) 1970 and 1980 (c) 1960 and 1970 (d) 1960 and 1980 97. Peeling of a round log in making of plies is method used when it wished to show the (a) Grain in different colours (b) Grain when it is not enough (c) Grain in a particular way (d) Grain when selecting the plies from other woods 98. The logs selected for peeling are debarked and then softened by (a) Screening (b) Steaming (c) Beaming (d) Isolating 99. ____________ is transferred to a conveyor where the

veneer is unwound and passed through a guillotine (a) Larchs (b) Teaks (c) Logs (d) Peels 100. The traditional timber for making plywood in Europe is (a) Larch (b) Teak (c) Sleak (d) Beech birch 101. Makore that is being used for plywood can be used to build (a) House (b) Boat (c) Lorry (d) Ship 102. Plywoods are made in a number of thicknesses varying from (a) 5-50mm (b) 2-25mm
416

416 (c) 3-25mm (d) 4-35mm 103. Thin plywood is generally made from (a) Six veneers (b) Three veneers (c) Two veneers (d) Five veneers 104. The following are important of chosen plywood in

place of solid timber except (a) Dimensional stability (b) Rigidity (c) Durability (d) Good resistance to splitting and checking 105. Over a quarter of the total consumption of plywood is used for (a) Boat and house building (b) Ship and container building (c) Boat and container building (d) Joinery and furniture making 106. After the manufacture of plywood it can be impregnated with (a) Solvent and fire retardant solutions (b) Standard wood preservatives or fire retardant solution (c) Solicle wood or fire retardant solutions (d) Mohele woods preservatives or fire retardant solution 107. The British manufacturers produce plywood to (a) BS 1455, 1963 (b) BS 1466, 1973 (c) BS 1456, 1965 (d) BS 1477, 1983 108. The grading of plywoods is done according to the appearance and finish of the (a) Imported faces (b) Exported faces (c) Projected faces
417

417

(d) Exposed faces 109. Blackboard consists of strips of solid wood up to (a) 5.3cm wide (b) 2.5cm wide (c) 3.5cm wide (d) 4.5cm wide 110. The board that has a core of thin strips glued face to face is (a) Latin board (b) Laying board (c) Lamin board (d) Lava board 111. The board that is similar material with block board which it strips core are about 7.5cm wide is called (a) Latin board (b) Battered board (c) Brazing board (d) Batten board 112. One of the following is the purpose of a straight edge. (a) To provide a means of making material stronger (b) To provide a means of marking material that is wider or longer than a steel square (c) To provide a means of marking material that is longer and stronger than a pyramid (d) To provide a means of marking material that is broader and longer than a tri-square triangle 113. The tool used to mark arcs and circles on the work is

known as (a) A ruler (b) A compass (c) A divider (d) A chisel 114. Before using a divider, one must calculate and mark the center of (a) any arcs in the profile or holes to be drilled (b) any cubic in the profile or holes to be drilled
418

418 (c) any segment in the profile or holes to be drilled (d) any circumference in the profile or holes to be drilled 115. A tool that can also be used as a compass in making circular layouts is (a) A Compass (b) A protractor (c) A divider (d) A pencil 116. The tool that has an adjustable blade which permits the setting of the tool to any angle required is known as (a) Bevel square (b) Bevel cube (c) Bevel pyramid (d) Bevel triangle 117. An engineers scriber is about _____________ long (a) Five inches (b) Six inches (c) Ten inches

(d) Seven inches 118. A bevel protractor is used to (a) Set a bevel to a desired angle (b) Compose a square to a correct angle (c) Measure of bevel in the correct length (d) Calculate the angle of a bevel 119. The tool that has blades from 6 to 8 inches in length is called (a) Protractor (b) Scribe (c) Bevel square (d) Bevel cube 120. The T-bevel is useful especially in (a) Metal cutting (b) Wood cutting (c) Rafter cutting
419

419 (d) Shafter cutting 121. The tool that is useful in laying out lines parallel to the sides of the stock or locating a center line for dowels is called (a) Marking gauge (b) Cutting gauge (c) Measuring gauge (d) Drain gauge 122. A gauge that is used exclusively for the layout work connected with dapping or gaining in hinge seats is (a) A butt gauge (b) A measuring gauge

(c) Dapping gauge (d) Marking out gauge 123. A useful layout tool used to locate a point either directly above or directly below a given point is called (a) Plym bob (b) Pump bob (c) Plumb bob (d) Measuring bob 124. A tool that is particularly useful when hanging a door to a rabbeted jamb is known as (a) Rabbeted gauge (b) Marking out gauge (c) Butt gauge (d) Marking gauge 125. The tools that are designed respectively to hood wood bits and drills are (a) Hand bits and hand drills (b) Hand gauge and hand clips (c) Hand braces and hand drills (d) Hand braces and hand drills 126. The hand drill is also called (a) Edge-biter type
420

420 (b) Edge-beater type (c) Egg-beater type (d) Edge-beam type 127. The type of tools that has a powerful spring which

permits a continuous push action is called (a) Spring drill (b) Hand drill (c) Hand braces (d) Hand clip 128. A metal use is best adapted to (a) Large objects (b) Small objects (c) Medium objects (d) Measured objects 129. The bench vise is best adapted to _________ which need to be jointed (a) Long pieces of lumber (b) Large pieces of lumber (c) Small pieces of lumber (d) Short pieces of lumber 130. The two types of bench vises are (a) All-aluminium vise and a vise with an adjustable thumbscrew (b) An all-metal vise and a vise with single or double screw shafts (c) An all-metal vises and a bench vises with half screwed shaft (d) An all-mineral vise and a double headed vise 131. The vise that has hardwood faced jaws and useful to the carpenter or cabinet maker is (a) The bench vise (b) An all-metal vise

(c) A vise with single or double screw shafts (d) A measuring vise with double screw shaft 132. Cutting tools include the following except (a) Saws
421

421 (b) Chisels (c) Bench vise (d) Gouges 133. The basic difference between handsaws and ripsaws is in the (a) Colour of the two (b) Cutting power of the two (c) Shape of the teeth of the saws (d) Type of metal used to mode the two 134. The other kinds of saws include (a) Backsaw (b) Coping saw (c) Keyhole saw (d) Front saw 135. Saws are designated by the number of teeth per inch as in (a) 7-point and 8-point (b) 6-point and 5-point (c) 8-point and 10-point (d) 4-point and 6-point 136. The making of two or more pieces from one piece by means of a saw and shaping various parts of a project by means of a chisel or gouge is called

(a) Dapping (b) Cutting fluids (c) Cutting tool (d) Cutting saws 137. The tape commonly used for house construction layout where measurements longer than six feet are made is called (a) Rule tape (b) Metal tape (c) Steel tape (d) Wood tape 138. The rules made used in measuring on a bench or as part of a house that is made of either wood or metal is known as
422

422 (a) Protractor rules (b) Pocket rules (c) Wood rules (d) Metal steel 139. The following are the basic tools used primarily for layout work except (a) Try square (b) Combination square (c) Pocket rules (d) Pocket knife 140. The tool always used instead of a pencil for precision layout work because of sharpness of the knife is known as (a) Pocket knife

(b) Pocket rules (c) Pocket blade (d) Pocket pin 141. The engineering setsquares have (a) One thick side and one large edge (b) One thick side and one thin edge (c) Two thick size and one thin edge (d) Two thick side and two thin edge 142. The two common measuring tools are (a) Zig-zag and pocket rules (b) Pocket rules and ruler (c) Push-pull and zig-zag (d) Pocket rules and steep tape 143. The following are some of the principal categories of hand tools except one (a) Cutting tools (b) Boring tools (c) Holding tools (d) Polishing tools 144. Hand tools used in woodwork are named so because the operator
423

423 using the tools personally supplies (a) All the required weight (b) All necessary information (c) All the required power to operate (d) All the required notice of its performance 145. The board which are used for partitioning and wall lining is

(a) Wall boards (b) Fibre boards (c) Panel boards (d) Hardboard 146. The boards that are used for floor underlying and flush door is called (a) Flush boards (b) Hardboards (c) Panel boards (d) Softboards 147. The intimate association between wood and plastics is known as (a) Brushed wood (b) Creamed wood (c) Improved wood (d) Sealed wood 148. ______________ is made by scraping long stands of wood from small softwood logs (a) Wood whirl (b) Wood heel (c) Wood beam (d) Wood wool 149. The type of board that it wood is booded together with a urea formaldehyde gule is called (a) Band boards (b) Panel boards (c) Soft boards (d) Stand boards

424

424 150. The following are the important component in study of defects in wood (a) Knots failures (b) Teak failures (c) Deviation in the slope of grain (d) Compression failures 151. The severe splits that appear in the ends of logs or in large baulks of timber are called (a) Shackles (b) Shakes (c) Slakes (d) Slayes 152. A crack developing tangentially along a growth ring can cause a (a) Star Shake (b) Ring shake (c) Ring shackles (d) Star shackles 153. When the grain of a wood is interlocked or spirally distorted permanent may occur (a) Filling of board (b) Fixing of board (c) Twisting of board (d) Scraping of board 154. The form of distribution in which boards from the centre of a tree

bend in longitudinal plane without cupping is known as (a) Spining (b) Spring (c) Spreed (d) Scupped 155. Timber sometimes suffer collapse during (a) Face drying (b) Surface drying (c) Keen drying (d) Kiln drying
425

425 156. The stain that is grayish-blue discoloration which develops in sapwood of pines is called (a) Sand-stain (b) Pale-stain (c) Sleep stain (d) Sap-stain 157. Discoloration can occur in light-colured tropical hardwood as (a) Oak and Iroko (b) Obeche and Ramin (c) Ogbeche and Ramin (d) Jarah and Ramin 158. To prevent staining of logs in warm weather it is very necessary to get them_______ (a) Cut from the root (b) Out of the forest fast (c) A cover to cover it from staining

(d) Rap them with a raper in order to prevent stains 159. The three important concepts of measurements are: (a) Sharpness, brightness and interchangeability (b) Accuracy, standard and interchangeability (c) Standard, sharpness and interchangeability 160. An accepted standard is a universally recognized____________________ (a) Instrument (b) Starting point (c) Reference point 161. Measurement is the backbone of engineering design process (a) False (b) True 162. The Micrometer Screw gauge is a measuring instrument particularly used for measuring (a) Length & breath material (b) Shape of a material
426

426 (c) Thickness or diameter of a material (d) Volume of a material 163. The following are parts of the micrometer screw gauge except; (a) Spindle (b) Slot (c) Sleeve (d) Anvils 164. The device that houses the main scale of the micrometer screw gauge is called

(a) Slot (b) Frame (c) Spindle (d) Sleeve 165. The part of the micrometer screw gauge that comes in contact with the material to be measured is called (a) Ratchet stop (b) Lock nut (c) Anvils (d) Thimble 166. The micrometer screw gauge measures to an accuracy of (a) 0.1mm (b) 0.01mm (c) 0.001mm (d) 1.00mm 167. The venier caliper has a higher level of accuracy than the micrometer screw gauge (a) False (b) True (c) Both (d) None of the above 168. The edge of the thimble of a micrometer screw gauge is graduated into (a) 100 divisions
427

427 (b) 10 divisions

(c) 50 divisions (d) 5 divisions 169. The venier scale is divided into _______________equal parts (a) 49
(b) 99

(c) 50 (d) 100 170. The timbers that are made by gluing together boards of seasoned timber with the grain running parallel in each layer is called (a) Larch timbers (b) Utility timbers (c) Ornamental timbers (d)Laminated timbers 171. ___________ covers all panel material manufactured under pressure from particles of wood (a) Lamin board (b) Block board (c) Particle board (d) Permeable board 172. The following are advantage of clipboard over solid wood except (a) Consistent quality (b) Freedom from knots (c) Its moisture content (d) It large sizes of sheets 173. Clip boards can also be made from the following hardwoods except

(a) Khaya (b) Oak (c) Jarah (d) Beech 174. The type of boards that are manufacture from wood by a process basically similar to that employed in making paper or card board is
428

428 called (a) Fibre board (b) Block board (c) Particle boards (d) Permeable boards 175. The types of boards which are used for lining walls and ceiling of roofs to prevent heat loss is called (a) Isolating board (b) Insulating boards (c) Inhaling boards (d) Fibre boards 176. The following are the types of fibre boards except (a) Isolating boards (b) Insulating boards (c) Hard boards (d) Panel boards 177. It is often impossible to season certain timbers that susceptible to sap-stain under (a) Lower humid temperature

(b) High wind temperature (c) Humid tropical conditions (d) Humid forest conditions 178. The total immersion of sawn timber in a solution for a minute or so sufficient to glue protection against (a) Seaming (b) Sap stain (c) Spring stain (d) Sleak stain 179. ___________ causes darkening in many hard woods (a) Base solution (b) Galvanized sponge (c) Alkaline solutions (d) Acidie solution.
429

429 180. The means by which dark-coloured fumed oak is prepared is (a) Exposure of alkaline vapour (b) Experimentation of acid solution (c) Exposuring of alkaline vapour (d) Exposure to base vapour 181. Woods exposed to sunlight with intensive untial-violet radiation becomes (a) Thickness (b) Acidic (c) Darkened (d) Lightened 182. Pinhole bores cause degrade in logs of the in the

following hardwoods (a) Afrara (b) Obeche (c) Iroko (d) Abura 183. Through spraying of all surfaces of log with BHCmiscible oil concentate dluked with water will give (a) 0.5 to 0.85% gamma Bite (b) 0.6 to 0.56% gamma Bite (c) 0.4 to 0.75% gamma Bite (d) 0.7 to 0.88% gamma Bite
FORGING

184. The metal forming process which is carried at elevated temperature by applying compressive force (j) via a hammer, press or upsetting machine is called (a) Heating (b) Hammering (c) Pressing (d) Forging 185. Which of the following options is not one of the advantages of forging?
430

430 (a) Forging enables orderly alignment of micro-structural fibre (b) Forging enables the production of parts having microstructural fibre

aligned in the direction of expected stresses in service (c) a and b (d) None of the above 186. The two basic classifications of forging are: (a) Open-die forging and closed-die forgings (b) Hammering and non-hammering forgings (c) Panel beating and hammering forgings (d) None of the above 187. The act of compressing the workpiece between two flat surfaces in order to increase its cross section within a particular region is called (a) Drawing out (b) Piercing (c) Upsetting (d) Cutting off 188. The act of carrying out a forging operation in order to create a blind or through hole in the workpiece is called (a) Drawing out (b) Upsetting (c) Piercing (d) Bending 189. The act of increasing the length of the workpiece by working along its length is (a) Drawing out (b) Bending (c) Piercing (d) Upsetting 190. The act of cutting the workpiece into two separate

parts by using a forge cutter or chisel is (a) Cutting off (b) Bending (c) Piercing (d) Upsetting
431

431 191. What is the type of forging that is being applied in the manufacture of large motor shafts, flange coupling, rings and rolls? (a) Close die forging (b) Open die forging (c) Upsetting forging (d) Piercing 192. Which of the following options is/are open-die forging operations? (a) Bending (b) Piercing (c) Drawing out (d) All of the above 193. If high dimensional accuracy product is used, the operation that is used for finishing is called (a) Forging (b) Machining (c) Drilling (d) Smoothing and filling 194. The process of shaping the hot stock in cavities impressed by machining in the two sections of a die set is

(a) Closed die forging (b) Open die forging (c) Bending (d) None of the above 195. The technique employed to raise the forging ram and allowed it to fall under gravity (or drop), releasing its energy on the workpiece is (a) Drop forging (b) Machining (c) Dropping (d) Energy forging 196. The process of applying forging force by steadily advancing the ram slowly using a hydraulic or crank press is called (a) Drop forging (b) Press forging
432

432 (c) Inertial forging (d) Energy forging 197. One of the following options best explains why lubrication is necessary in the two main classifications of forging (a) To enable free flow (b) To improve surface quality (c) To prevent product from sticking to the die and also reduce die wear (d) All of the above 198. Which of the following options best describe the capacity of the

metal to undergo deformation without failure? (a) Forging (b) Forgeability (c) Malleability (d) Malleable 199. Which of the following options is best described as a measure of readiness to undergo deformation without fault or defect? (a) Malleability (b) Forging (c) Forgeability (d) b and c 200. Which of the following factors is one of the factors that cause defects on a forged product? (a) Material process (b) Tool design (c) Forging temperature (d) All of the above 201. Which of the following forging defects is caused by buckling? (a) Folds (b) Improper section (c) Cracking (d) None of the above 202. Which of the following defects is caused as a result of misdirection of metal flow?
433

433 (a) Improper section

(b) Folds (c) Cracking (d) Damaging 203. Which of the following defects occurs as a result of the propagation of an initial stress? (a) Cracking (b) Folds (c) Improper section (d) None of the above SHEET METAL WORKING 204. Sheet metal products are the following except (a) Aircraft bodies (b) Automobile bodies (c) Fan blades (d) None of the above 205. Sheet metal working that involves the application of pressure by a press-hydraulic, crank of friction screw press is called (a) Press-working operation (b) Shape forming operation (c) Bending operation (d) None of the above Use the following to answer questions 3(i) Shearing (ii) Notching (iii) Cut-off (iv) Bending (v) Embosing 206. Which of the following is a press-working operation process? (a) i, iv, v (b) i, ii, v (c) i, ii, iii (d) ii, iii, v

207. Which of the following is a shape forming operations process? (a) i, iv, v (b) iv, v (c) i, ii, iii
434

434 (d) i, ii, v 208. The type of sheet metal working process that involve plastic deformation and flow of some regions of the blank relative to other regions necessary for the formation of the desired shape is (a) Shape forming operations (b) Press-working operations (c) Bending operations (d) None of the above 209. The sheet metal working process where applied pressure causes a bending moment which makes the material to undergo plastic deformation is (a) Shape forming operations (b) Bending operation (c) Press-working operation (d) None of the above 210. Which of the options give the two regions in which a sheet subjected to bending is divided into? (a) Convex surface and concave surface (b) Conved surface and concaved surface

(c) Convex surface and concax surface (d) Convexed surface and concave surface 211. The region of tensile stress and a region of compressive stress is separated by (a) Neutral plane (b) Neutra plane (c) Nutra plane (d) Nuetra plane 212. In the diagram above, X is called
X 435

435 (a) Tension plane (b) Neutra plane (c) Compression plane (d) Neutral plane 213. The part labeled P in the diagram above is (a) Compression (b) Tension (c) Neutra (d) None of the above 214. The term elastic recovery effect can also be described as (a) Sprin back effect (b) Spring back effect (c) Dynamo effect (d) Spring effect 215. The process whereby not all regions of a material undergoing a plastic deformation is actually deformed is called

(a) Elastic recovery effect (b) Hookean effect (c) Hookes laweffect (d) Elastic law effect 316. Spring back effect can be checked by one of the following options (a) Over-bending (b) Over-turning (c) Over-twisting
P

436

436 (d) Over-rolling 217. Which of the following options is one of the methods overcoming spring back? (a) by forcing the immediate neighbourhood of the plane to undergo plastic deformation (b) by twisting the immediate neighbourhood of the plane to undergo deformation (c) by rolling the immediate neighbourrhood of the plane (d) a and b 218. The answer in question 14 can be achieved by (a) Using a punch (b) Using a trammel (c) Using a hemmer (d) None of the above DIAGRAM 219. In the diagram above, the total blank length is

computed as: (a)

180 TR 180 L L L T2 1R1 2 2 2
321

++++

(b)
180 RT 180 L L L R2 1T1 1 1 1
231

++++

(c)
180 TR 180 L L L T1 1R1 2 2 2
1 2 31

++++

(d)
180 TR 180 L L L T2 2R2 1 2 2
1 2 31

++++

220. The method applied in the production of deep cup-like products using sheet metal is

(a) Hollow drawing (b) Cup-like drawing (c) Deep drawing (d) Sheet metal moulding DIAGRAM
437

437 Use the diagram above to answer questions 18-20. 221. In the diagram above, punch can be identified as: (a) B (b) C (c) A (d) D 222. In the diagram above, die can be identified as (a) C (b) D (c) A and B (d) A 223. In the diagram above, sheet metal can be identified as (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A 224. At the beginning of the operation shown in the figure above, the sheet metal undergoes what operation? (a) Twisting (b) Rolling (c) Cracking (d) Bending 225. What is the effect of increasing the load?

(a) It causes the bent region to straighten out (b) It causes the bent region to roll out (c) It causes the bent region to expand (d) It causes the bent region to twist 226. In the mechanics of deep drawing when the load increases, the frictional force reduces thus creating? (a) Enhancement in the plastic flow of the blank (b) Unilateral motion (c) Biaxial compression (d) Uniaxial tension
438

438 227. What is the effect of inward radial flow of the blank in the plane of the blank in the mechanics of deep drawing? (a) It results in compression (b) It results in circumferential plane (c) It results in circumferential compression in the plane of the blank (d) None of the above 228. In the mechanics of deep drawing, the vertical flow among the straight vertical potion will result in (a) Uniaxial tension (b) Biaxial tension (c) Sheet metal forming (d) Neutra tension 229. Which of the following options is/are stages recognized in deep drawing process?

(a) Compression (b) Straightening (c) Frictions (d) All of the above 230. How many stages are recognized in deep drawing process? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5 231. In blank estimation, the diameter of the blank can be computed as (a) D = d2 + 4h (b) D = d2 + 4d (c) D = d2 + 4hd (d) D = d2 + hd 232. The defect that is caused as a result of inadequate proportionality in the geometric parameters of the blank is called (a) Buckling
439

439 (b) Wrinkling (c) Toughening (d) Blankening 233. How could buckling be eliminated in buckling operation? (a) By using a bank holder (b) By using a blank holder (c) By wrinkling (d) All of the above

234. The result of higher frictional forces in deep drawing is as a result of (a) Inadequate lubrication (b) Adequate lubrication (c) Inadequate smoothing (d) Adequate smoothing 235. Which of the following options is not one of the process variables in deep drawing variable? (a) Drawing ratio (b) Punch end radius (c) Lubrication (d) Die corner radius 236. Which of the following options is not one of the geometrical variables in deep drawing variables? (a) Punch end radius (b) Lubrication (c) a and b (d) Drawing ratio 237. If the drawing ratio (R) is greater than two it results into (a) Bad products (b) Good products (c) Medium products (d) None of the above 238. If the drawing ration (R) is less than two it results in (a) Bad products
440

440 (b) Good products

(c) Medium products (d) None of the above 239. Percentage reduction (r) is being computed as (a) x 100%
r r-d

(b) x 100%
D D-d (c) x 100% D D-r (d) x 100% r r-D

240. If r < 50% then, (a) R < 2 (b) R > 2 (c) R = 2 (d) R 2 241. If r > 50% then, (a) R < 2 (b) R > 2 (c) R 2 (d) R 2 242. The process of deep drawing an already deep drawn product is called (a) Drawing (b) Hollow drawing (c) Re-drawing (d) Reversing

DRAWING 243. The operation shown above is identified as (a) Redrawing operating (b) Reverse operation
441

441 (c) Drawing operation (d) Turning operation DRAWING 244. The operation identified above is called (a) Redrawing operation (b) Reverse operation (c) Drawing (d) Turning operation 245. Which of the following is one of the products of redrawing process? (a) Stepped cups (b) Conical shape cups (c) Domed cups (d) All of the above 246. The defect that occurs as a result of compressive stress on the undrawn blank which makes it to buckle is called. (a) Wrinkling (b) Tearing (c) Surface marks (d) Earing 247. The defect that occurs when metal flow is obstructed is (a) Tearing (b) Wrinkling

(c) Surface marks (d) None of the above 248. The defect that occurs as a result of non-uniform thickness around the product is (a) Surface irregularities (b) Earing (c) Tearing (d) Wrinkling 249. The defect that occurs as a result of poor lubrication or
442

442 inadequate punch die clearance results in draw-marks, steprings and burnishing is called (a) Surface marks (b) Tearing (c) Wrinkling (d) Earing 250. The defect that shows up as hills and valleys at the free end of the deep drawn product is (a) Earing (b) Tearing (c) Wrinkling (d) Surface marks 251. Which of the following options is high-energy rate forming techniques - HERF? (a) Explosive (b) Electrohydraulic

(c) Electromagnetic (d) All of the above 252. In the explosive forming technique what is responsible for the force needed for the forming? (a) High pressure gas (b) Low pressure gas (c) Higher energy rate (d) a and c 253. In the stand-off system, the charge, the blank and die are all immersed in (a) Oil (b) Water (c) Paraffin (d) Diesel MACHINING 254. A manufacturing process in which the shape and dimensions of the product are obtained by reducing the dimension(s) of the workpiece
443

443 using a cutting tool is (a) Cutting (b) Manufacturing (c) Machining (d) Reducing 255. Which of the following is a machining process? (a) Turning (b) Milling

(c) Drilling (d) All of the above 256. How many processes does a machining process consist of? (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 7 DRAWING 257. In the diagram above, is (a) Tool angle (b) Rake angle (c) Clearance angle (d) Doubling angle 258. In the diagram shown in question 4, is (a) Clearance angle (b) Tool angle (c) Doubling angle (d) Rake angle 259. In the diagram shown in question 4, is (a) Doubling angle (b) Tool angle (c) Rake angle (d) Clearance angle 260. The value of + + is
444

444 (a) 90o (b) 180o (c) 360o (d) 45o

261. The angle which is included between the side cutting edge and the longitudinal axis of the tool is (a) Lead angle (b) Surface angle (c) Top angle (d) Rake angle 262. Which of the following angles prevent rubbing of the tool against the workpiece machined surface? (a) End cutting-edge angle (ECEA) (b) Side relief angle (c) End relief angle (d) All of the above 263. Which of the following angles control the flow of chips on to the face of the tool? (a) Back rake angle (b) Side relief angle (c) End relief angle (d) End cutting-edge angle (ECEA) 264. The specification of the angles of a tool in a particular given order is known as (a) Tool character (b) Tool signature (c) a and b (d) None of the above
I II III

IV

2o 7o 8o 8o 15o 12o

" 24 1 445

445 Use the information on tool character above to answer questions 12-18. 265. The back rake is known (a) II (b) VII (c) I (d) IV 266. The ECEA is labeled as (a) V (b) III (c) VII (d) I 267. The end relief is labeled as (a) IV (b) III (c) II (d) I 268. The SCEA is labeled as (a) VI (b) III (c) I (d) V
446

446 269. The nose radius is identified as

(a) I (b) II (c) VII (d) VI 270. The side rake is identified as (a) II (b) III (c) IV (d) VII 271. The side relief is identified as (a) IV (b) V (c) VII (d) I 272. Which of the following options is one of the aims of choosing a tool having a particular character for a given operation/ (a) Improved surface finished (b) Reduction in tool wear rate thereby prolonging tool life (c) Reduction in power consumption (d) All of the above 273. What is the angle required by soft ductile materials so as to allow the chips flow freely along the tool face? (a) Positive rake angle (b) Negative rake angle (c) Back rake angle (d) Nose radius angle 274. Which of the following options best give the reason soft ductile materials require large clearance?

(a) To reduce sinking and contact between workpiece and tool flank (b) To prevent damages between workpiece and tool flank (c) To reduce contact between workpiece and tool flank (d) To increase sinking and contact between workpiece and tool flank
447

447 275. Why is negative rake necessary for brittle materials? (a) To enable the tool point be strong enough to withstand the high cutting forces need to machine hard brittle materials (b) To enable the tool point to withstand cutting forces (c) To enable the tool point be averagely strong to withstand the high cutting tools to machine brittle materials (d) To enable the tool point to withstand the low cutting forces need to machine soft brittle materials. 276. What cutting material is suitable for soft materials and for low cutting speeds? (a) Plain carbon steel (b) High speed steel (c) Ceramics (d) Carbides 277. What cutting tool is suitable for low cutting speed operations to keep temperature? (a) Alloy steel (b) Ceramics

(c) Carbides (d) High speed steel 278. What cutting tool material is suitable for relatively high cutting speeds can maintain hardness at temperatures hp to 600oC? (a) High speed steel (b) Low speed steel (c) Ceramics (d) Carbides 279. Which of the following options is one of the properties of ceramics? (a) They can retain their hardness up to temperatures of about 1100oC (b) They have very low thermal conductivities (c) They are made by power metallurgy techniques an process hardness (d) All of the above
448

448 280. Low bending strength, low toughness and high creep sensitivity are characteristics of (a) Ceramics (b) Plastics (c) Carbon steel (d) Pig iron 281. The desire to have tools that can maintain their hardness at

elevated temperature led to the use of one of the following options? (a) Ceramics (b) Carbides (c) Plain carbon steel (d) Pig iron 282. What is the highest temperature cast hard alloys can maintain? (a) 900oC (b) 1000oC (c) 800oC (d) 905oC 283. What is the highest temperature sintered cemented carbides can maintain? (a) 1000oC (b) 900oC (c) 500oC (d) 10000oC 284. Ceramic tools are recommended for what operation? (a) Turning operations (b) Finishing operations (c) Cutting operations (d) Milling operations 285. Why must ceramic tools not be used for machining aluminium? (a) Because of the affinity for oxygen (b) They are highly sensitive (c) They can withstand very high temperature (d) They can withstand very high pressure
449

449 286. Which of the following tool materials can be used to obtain a mirror finish on metals? (a) Diamond (b) Ceramics (c) Plain carbon steel (d) High speed steel 287. The machining time interval from when a newly ground tool starts operation to when operation is stopped due to poor performance of the tool is (a) Tool life (b) Cutting life (c) Tool wear (d) Tool period 288. The maximum permissible flank wear is taken as (a) 1.57mm (b) 1.58mm (c) 1.56mm (d) 1.59mm 289. The maximum permissible flank wear for carbide tools is taken as (a) 0.76mm (b) 1.58mm (c) 0.75mm (d) 0.78mm 290. Which of the following options best affect the rate of wear? (a) Speed

(b) Feed (c) Vibration (d) All of the above 291. Experimental computations of the relationship between cutting speed and tool life is (a) VTn = constant (b) Tn V = constant (c) VTn-1 = constant
450

450 (d) V-1Tn = constant 292. Which of the following options best give how machinability can be determined? (a) Maximum rate of chip removal (b) Energy consumption (c) Attainable surface finish (d) All of the above 293. Machinability index (MI) is best computed as (a)
Cutting speed of the metal to give a tool life of 20mins M.I = Cutting speed of steel SAE AISI 1112 to give a tool life of 20mins

(b)
Cutting speed of steel SAE AISI 1112 to give a tool life of 20mins M.I = Cutting speed of the metal to give a tool life of 20mins

(c)
Cutting speed of the metal M.I = Cutting speed of steel SAE

(d)
Cutting speed of the metal

M.I = Cutting speed of steel

294. The outstanding characteristics of gas-shielded arc welding is its adaptability to (a) Welding abrasion resistance (b) Rapid fusion of seems (c) Rapid transfer of heat (d) Rapid transfer of diluted seems 295. An adequate exhaust system is necessary when welding the following except (a) Brass (b) Bronze (c) Mercury (d) Lead 296. The following are some of the classification of welding except (a) Arc welding
451

451 (b) Automatic welding (c) Plasmal arc welding (d) Platinum arc welding 297. The type of arc welding that is defined as the process which produces coalescence of metals by heating them with arc between a carbon electrode and the workpiece is (a) Manual arc welding (b) Carbon arc welding (c) Carbide arc welding

(d) Electrical arc welding 298. An arc welding process which produces coalescence of metals by heating them with an arc between a covered metal electrode and workpiece is known as (a) Covered arc welding (b) Open arc welding (c) Metal arc welding (d) Plastic arc welding 299. Another name for automatic welding is (a) Coalescence welding (b) Carbon arc welding (c) Coarsing arc welding (d) Submerged arc welding 300. The arc welding process which produces coalescence of metals by heating them with an arc or arcs between a bare metal electrode(s) and the workpiece is known as (a) Metal arc welding (b) Coursing arc welding (c) Automatic welding (d) Carbon arc welding 301. Gas tungsten arc welding can also be called (a) Gas tube arc welding (b) Gas tubule arc welding (c) Gas arc welding (d) Tungsten inert gas welding
452

452

302. The arc welding process which produces coalescence of metals by heating them with an arc between a tungsten electrode and the workpiece is (a) Brazing arc welding (b) Platinum arc welding (c) Gas welding (d) Gas tungsten arc welding 303. ____________ is defined as an arc welding process which produces a coalescence of metals by heating them with a constricted arc between an electrode and the workpiece. (a) Platinum arc welding (b) Plasma arc welding (c) Boron arc welding (d) Gas arc welding 304. ______________ is an arc welding process which produces coalescence of metals by heating them with an arc between a continuous filler metal electrode and the workpiece. (a) Gas tungsten arc welding (b) Gas arc welding (c) Gas metal arc welding (d) None of the above 305. ___________ is a group of welding processes which produces coalescence of materials by heating them to a suitable temperature and

by using a filler metal having a liquidus above 450oC and below the solidus of the base materials. (a) Brazing (b) Grazing (c) Drazing (d) Mazing 306. A group of joining processes which produces coalescence of materials by heating them to a suitable temperature and by using a filler metal having a liquidus not exceeding 450oC and below the solidus of the base materials is known as
453

453 (a) Surfacing (b) Oldering (c) Surfuring (d) Smaching 307. The following are some of other welding processes except (a) Electron beam welding (b) Laser beam welding (c) Thermit welding (d) Laser jet welding 308. The group of welding processes which produces coalescence at temperature essentially below the melting point of the base materials being joined without the addition of a brazing filler metal is

known as (a) Soldering welding (b) Liquid state welding (c) Solid state welding (d) Filing state welding 309. __________ is maximum diameter of work which can be mentioned between centres (a) Lathe size (b) Swing (c) Wing (d) Lathe width 310. _________ is the overall length of the ways (a) Lathe bed (b) Length of the bed (c) Length of the bread (d) Length of the wing 311. ____________ is the rate of rotation of waste that is usually given in surface speed/min (a) Speed (b) Distance (c) Feeds (d) Time
454

454 312. The size of a lathe is classified by the (a) Swing height of its bed (b) Swing width of its bed (c) Swing breath of its bed (d) Swing length of its bed

313. __________ are the work holding devices (a) Lathe wing (b) Steadies (c) Feed (d) Lathe 314. Fixed steady has a front elevation with the jaws set at (a) 1500 (b) 2500 (c) 750 (d) 1200 315. ____________ is usually mounted on a lathe machine (a) Travelling steady (b) Bed steady (c) Fixed steady (d) Common steady 316. One can only machine from one end to another is one of the disadvantages of (a) Steady (b) Fixed steady (c) Common steady (d) Machine steady 317. ___________ is mounted on the carriage alongside the cutting tools (a) Travelling steady (b) Fixed steady (c) Machine steady (d) Bed steady 318. __________ is a machine placed on the bench and used for small

455

455 operation (a) Spindle (b) Bench drilling machine (c) Drilling machine (d) Mining machine 319. __________ is the machine that is mounted on multiple tools of different operation on different spindles (a) Tail stock (b) Grangway drilling machine (c) Bench drilling machine (d) None of the above 320. _________ machine head is firmly freed immovable to the column for large operations (a) Radial arm drilling machine (b) Bench drilling machine (c) Pillar drilling machine (d) All of the above 321. ____________ has long column and head in an elevated position (a) Pillar drilling machine (b) Bench drilling machine (c) Grangway drilling machine (d) Multiple spindle drilling machine 322. Which drilling is fixed to the foundation the workshop? (a) Grangway drilling machine (b) Pillar drilling machine (c) Bench drilling machine

(d) Multiple spindle drilling machine 323. Sensitive drilling machine is used for (a) Heavy duty operation (b) Workshop operation (c) Light duty operation (d) Tools operation 324. Deep hole drilling machine is used for
456

456 (a) Shaping of holes in workpiece (b) Continuous drilling of holes in a workpiece (c) Constant drilling of metals (d)Drilling of heavy duty operation ion a workpiece 325. _________ is commonly used for light duty lathe (a) Tail stock (b) Lathe bed (c) Lathe swing (d) Pillar type tool post 326. Further adjustment of a boat piece alters (a) The effective cutting angle (b) The efficient cutting edge (c) The effective cutting tool (d) The effective cutting machine 327. The process of angulations a workpiece is knows as (a) Angular shifting (b) Chamfering (c) Shafting (d) Demarcating 328. __________ is the angle that is made up with horizontal (a) Clean angular shaft

(b) Clearance angle (c) Common angle (d) Cutting angle 329. When there is a small tool the workpiece is likely to (a) Move up (b) Break (c) Remove (d) Curve 330. ____________ are generated during cutting operations (a) Fumes (b) Chips (c) Grills
457

457 (d) None of the above 331. Discontinuous clips can be produced due to fracture if workpiece is (a) Remove (b) Brittle (c) Little (d) Separated 332. The followings are the materials for cutting except (a) Plain carbon steel (b) Ceramics (c) Steelites (d) Cutting edge 333. __________ are brittle that can easily break but are good for cutting

(a) Cutting edge (b) Cutting blade (c) Ceramics (d) Cutting iron 334. _________ cant be used for hard materials (a) Chisel (b) Brittle (c) Steelites (d) Carbide 335. ___________ has 14-22% tungsten carbide in their overall material. (a) Ceramics (b) High speed tools (c) Cutting tools (d) Tools ball 336. ______________ is fixed into the chuck which is fixed into the spindle (a) Tools stock (b) Tang
458

458 (c) Apron (d) All of the above 337. _________ cant perform without mounting the cutting tool which is the drill (a) Cutting operations (b) Shaping operations (c) Drilling operations

(d) Fixing operation 338. ____________ supports the cutting edge of the cutting area. (a) Tools ball (b) Cutting blade (c) Shank (d) Cutting tools 339. ___________ is an angle made by the lower up of the drill (a) Pulling (b) Pance (c) Point (d) Pint 340. ___________ are generated due to loss or presence of carbon in brittle materials (a) Disconnected drills (b) Discontinuous chips (c) Disseminating chips (d) Dismissing chips 341. __________ are generated by the prevailing temperature at the prevailing medium. (a) Brick edge chips (b) Brim edge chips (c) Built edge chips (d) Breeze edge chips 342. Ductile materials generates (a) Built edge chips (b) Disconnected chips
459

459 (c) Brick edge chips (d) Continuous chips 343. ___________ is the main function of a shaping machine (a) Production of well shaped object (b) Production of smooth shaped metal (c) Production of well shaped surfaces (d) Production of flat surfaces 344. Shaping machine has the following as its characteristics except (a) It cuts only in one direction (b) The return stroke although fast, is a wastes stroke (c) It helps to straighten materials e.g. metals (d) It is a relatively slow machine and uses a single point tool 345. The following are the principal parts of a shaping machine but one (a) The table (b) The ram (c) The points chips (d) The base 346. _________ carries all the other parts of a machine and provides the support necessary to minimize the vibration of the machine and that of the workpiece (a) The belt (b) The base (c) The beam (d) The brim

347. An important part of a shaping machine with mutual interrelation with other parts is called (a) The chip (b) The column (c) The compressor (d) The canversebeam 348. ____________ carries the tool edge and travels on ram-ways or guides which give straight line motion to the cutting edge is known as (a) The ram
460

460 (b) The rough edge (c) The rubber cover (d) All of the above 349. _________ can move vertically or horizontally. (a) The tool post (b) The tailstock (c) The table (d) The tap stock 350. For every ram movement the table moves a certain distance called (a) Fading distance (b) Filing distance (c) Firming distance (d) Feeding distance 351. The reciprocating motion of the ram is adjusted according to the

size of a workpiece when increasing (a) The effectiveness of the table (b) The efficiency of the cutting operation (c) The effect of the cutting tool (d) The efficiency of the shaping tool 352. The followings are the advantages of hydraulic system except (a) The movement of the ram by hydraulic system (b) There is an indefinite number of speeds on the ram that can be obtained by adjusting the oil pressure (c ) There is less vibrations as mechanical systems break vibes (d) Most parts of the machine move in oil, lubrication of the parts is guaranteed 353. The followings are types of shapers but one (a) Standard shapers (b) Universal shapers (c) Medium shapers (d) Draw-cut shapers 354. __________ has a plain table which may or may not be supported
461

461 at the outer end. (a) Standard shapers (b) Common shapers (c) Medium shapers (d) Cutting shapers 355. ___________ is of the same construction as the

standard shaper (a) Draw-cut shapers (b) Draw-in shapers (c) Draw-out shapers (d) Draw-down shapers 356. ____________ have the same essential futures of standard shapers (a) Craw-cut shapers (b) Contour shapers (c) Common shapers (d) Vertical shapers 357. _________ has only a vertical movement and a vertical shaper has provision. (a) Vertical shapers/slotters (b) Vertical shapers/slatter (c) Vertical shapers/slain (d) Vertical shapers/slover 358. ____________ is one of the largest reciprocating machine. (a) The perforator (b) The planner (c) The plyer (d) The plain ram 359. ____________ is designed to design to produce plane surfaces which may be vertical, horizontal or inclined. (a) Shaper (b) Vertical/horizontal sharper (c) Ram

(d) Planer
462

462 360. ____________ cuts on both forward and reverse strokes (a) Vertical planer (b) Straight stroke planer (c) Universal planer (d) Star planer 361. The followings are parts of a double housing planers except (a) Tool post (b) Tool head (c) Table (d) Bed 362. Open side planer has the following as it parts except (a) Tool holding assembly (b) Tail stock (c) Side housing (d) Table 363. Which of these planers has its bed stationary and the tool moved over the workpiece? (a) Universal planer (b) Double housing planer (c) Pit-type planer (d) Vertical planer 364. The planer designed for machining the edges of heavy steel plates used for pressure vessels is (a) Universal planer

(b) Conversing planer (c) Vessels planer (d) Plates edge planer 365. _____________ is the angle that the lip edge makes with the perpendicular (a) Rackle planer (b) Rake angle (c) Ram (d) Rough edge shaft
463

463 366. ___________ is the angle that the 2nd lip edge make with the horizontal surface of the tool. (a) Horizontal angle (b) Vertical angle (c) Clearance angle (d) Straight line angle 367. The process of joining metals and producing inter lock atom at the joints is known as. (a) Interlock joints (b) Welding (c) Melting (d) Fussing 368. The purpose of having an edge preparation when welding is to ensure (a) Proper melting of metals (b) Proper joining of metals

(c) Longerbility of metals joined (d) Penetration of the weld 369. Welding has two types namely (a) Fixing and pressing welding (b) Pressure and fusion welding (c) Fusion and melting welding (d) Pressure and fluxes welding 370. Electrodes are coated in order to ensure that (a) Welding is carried out smoothly (b) Friction that exists between electrode and material is increases (c) The pressure on the electrode is reduced (d) Electrode lasts long 371. ____________ molten protects weld (a) Welding guide (b) Fluxes (c) Guiding machine (d) The operation machine
464

464 372. ___________ and ____________ are the two types of joint (a) Bald and single joint (b) Multiple and middle joint (c) Bolt and fillet joint (d) Bolt and particle joint 373. ___________ is categorized into 3 parts. (a) Bald joint (b) Bolt joint (c) Single joint (d) Multiple joint

374. ___________ describes the joint of 2 metals to each other (a) Bolt joint (b) Multiple joint (c) Fillet joint (d) Bald joint 375. One of the principal types of welding defects is (a) Overcutting (b) Stem cutting (c) Surface flaturing (d) Under cutting 376. __________ are liquids applied to the tool and workpiece in metal cutting to facilitate the working operation (a) Cutting fluxes (b) Cutting fluid (c) Cutting grease (d) Cutting balm 377. _________ can be otherwise called cutting oil or lubricant (a) Cutting fluid (b) Cutting edge (c) Cutting rub (d) Cutting ribbon 378. The following are the function of cutting fluid except (a) It cools the tool
465

465 (b) It cools the workpiece (c) It reduces friction between the tool and the chip (d) It cools the cutting machine

379. ________ is necessary to prevent metallurgical damage and assist in reducing friction at the tool chip interface (a) Cooling the metals (b) Cooling the fluids (c) Cooling the tools (d) Cooling the workpiece 380. In order to reduce friction between the tool and the chips _______ must be utilized (a) Grease (b) Balm (c) Cutting fluid (d) None of the above 381. _________ is augmented by vapourisation of the fluid (a) Cooling fluid (b) Cutting fluid (c) Cooling action (d) Cooling balm 382. The role the cutting fluid in cooling the working is to prevent (a) Excess pressure distribution (b) Excess fluid distribution (c) Excess terminal distribution (d) Excess thermal distribution 383. A low coefficient of friction along the tool chip interface increases (a) Rake plane angle (b) Cutting fluids (c) Cooling action (d) Shear plane angle

384. ________ forms about 60% of the fluid used in metal cutting (a) Grease oil (b) Petroleum oil
466

466 (c) Gasoline oil (d) Galie oil 385. ___________ are emulsions composed of around 80% or more of H2O with surface active agents and corrosion inhibitors (a) Soluble oils (b) Liquid oils (c) Solid oils (d) Particle oils 386. __________ contain low oiliness and are used ordinarily in sulphurised or chlorinated form to improve their oiliness (a) Lubricant oils (b) Mineral oils (c) Petroleum oils (d) Liquid oils 387. The following are the types of cutting fluids but one (a) Petroleum oils (b) Lubricant oils (c) Mineral oils (d) Fatty oils 388. ___________ includes animal, vegetable or fish oils (a) Solid oils (b) Roughages oils (c) Fatty oil

(d) Mineral oils 389. Cutting fluids has the following as it characteristics except one (a) It should be safe with regard to fire and accidents (b) It should not emit obnoxious odours or vapours harmful to the operator (c) It should not cause skin irritation (d) It should not contain so much cutting oils 390. The following are the type of drilling machines except (a) Bench drill (b) Portable hand drill
467

467 (c) Table hand drill (d) Radial drill 391. __________ has a large base equipped with thin slots (a) Bench drill (b) Thin equipped drill (c) Table hand drill (d) Radial drill 392. ____________ is a widely used drill and has a power driven mechanising for the rotating (a) Radial drill (b) Portable hand drill (c) Upright drill (d) Thin equipped drill 393. __________ is commonly used in small workshop or as a garage workshop tool

(a) Guage drill (b) Portable hand drill (c) Table hand drill (d) Garage workshop drill 394. The head of a drill contains the speed gear box as well as the (a) Fixed gear box (b) Slow gear box (c) Medium gear box (d) Feed gear box 395. Holes up to________ can be produced on a drilling machine (a) 120mm diameter (b) 150mm diameter (c) 60mm diameter (d) 50mm diameter 396. _________ is fixed to the internal taper of a stock spindle (a) Chisel (b) Tapered shank mandrel (c) Tapered shank mandrel
468

468 (d) Tapered shank mandrel 397. _________ is used to hold and machine a workpiece with a threaded hole (a) Tapered shank mandrel (b) Threaded shank mandrel (c) Threaded shank mandrel (d) Threaded mandrel

398. _________ is a plate containing several holes used for clamping the workpiece at any position (a) Shape plate (b) Face plate (c) Flat plate (d) Flame plate 399. __________ are used for supporting long slender works against the pressure of a cut (a) Face plate (b) Steadies (c) Steadies (d) Cutting tools 340. One of these are the two types of steadies (a) Two-jaw fixed and travelling steady (b) Five-jaw fixed and travelling steady (c) Three-jaw fixed and travelling steady (d) One-jaw fixed and travelling steady 341. ___________ is fixed to the carriage and travels with the tool supporting the bar against the thrast of the tool cut (a) One-jaw fixed steady (b) Two-jaw fixed steady (c) Travelling steady (d) Five-jaw fixed steady 342. ________ is clamped to the tool of a lathe and supports to bar from being turned by means of three-jaws at 1200 to one another (a) One-jaw foxed steady

469

469 (b) Travelling steady (c) Two-jaw fixed steady (d) Three-jaw fixed steady 343. ___________ is can also be know as follow rust (a) Travelling steady (b) Four-jaw fixed steady (c) Five-jaw fixed steady (d) Three-jaw fixed steady 344. _________ is used to tame chips (a) Trailing steady (b) Travelling steady (c) Chip breakers (d) Chip tamer
470

470

INDEX
A 471

471 Abestos, 75 Abura, 84 Abrasion and scraping tools, 90 Accuracy 38 35 36

472

472
B 473

473 Barrier bars, 52 Bar clamps, 109

Batten board, 71 Blast furnace 172

474

474 Back gear Bevel, 97 Belt sanders, 119 Bevel square, 94 Bevel protactor, 94 Body protection
C

C-clamp, 118,361,109 Care of equipment, 33 Care of files, 189 Care of hand tools -woodwork, 33 Carriage, 307,308,311 Cabinet maker, 105 Carborundum and oilstones, 121 Care of hand tools -woodwork, 33 Carbon-dioxide extinguishers, 225
475

475 Carbides, 277 Calibrated scale, 42 Cabinet making, 93 Carpenter 105

476

476 Cutting speed, 348, 360 Cutting tools, 90,274 Classification of welding

Circular saws, 27 Cold chisel, 102 Cold steel, 102 COSHH, 32 Care of files Classification of fire Chair, 88 Calipers, 198, 353 Crooking, 79, 85 Crosscut saw, 107 Crosscut, 105 Crosscutting, 125 Creosote, 61,63,66 Combustion, 207 Complex machine tools, 89 Computer numerical controlled (CNC) machine, 89 Combination, 95 Combination pliers, 114 Compass, 95 Composite panel, 74 Compression failure, 77 Cyclic operation, 54
D 477

477 Dados, 124 Dado blade, 389 Dado joint, 163 Dapping, 98,105 Deep hole, 345

Dept guage, 343 Dept cut, 370 Dead woods, 59 Decking of boats leak, 59 Dense hardwoods, 79 Dense laminated wood, 73 Diamonding, 79 Disposable earplug, 23 Die, 190,191,378 Die casting, 288 Die nuts, 191 Dividers, 96,97,95 Draw filing, 188 Drill, 180 Drilling, 180,337 Drill features, 181 Drill guard, 183 Drill press, 380 Drilling operations, 337 Dry cooperage, 59,60 Dry powder extinguisher, 222 Droping forging, 265 Dog lathe, 378 Dock gate, 60 Dock and harbour works and marine pilling, 61 Dowel joint, 162 Dutch buster, 295 Durable hardwood, 63 Dutch lights, 63 Durable timber, 68

E 478

478 Ebony, 66 Eye bolts, 31 Egg beater type, 109 Ear defender, 23 Edge joint, 163 Earthing clamp, 29 Electrical cable, 30 External classing, 73 Electrical defects, 27 External dimension, 40 English elm, 59 Engineers scriber, 97 Engineering, 35 External micrometer, 40 Engineering set squares, 93 Engineering workshop, 39,32 Electrical eye beams, 52 Electrical equipment, 30,223 Electro-sensitive and opto-electronic devices, 54 Electro sensitive devices, 54 Electrical shock, 30 Electrical transmission line, 64 Electrical installation, 73 Emergency isolation buttons, 31 Emergency stop buttons, 31 Emergency practice, 36 Eye protection, 23

Exhaust system, 26 Epoxy resin, 71 Expansive bit, 110,107 External joinery, 63 Extinguisher type, 219 Eye protection
F 479

479 Facing operations, 359 Factories and industrial undertaking, 46 Flash, 289 Feed mechanism, 33 Fencing post and piling, 62 Fencing, 63 Fixed enclosure, 50 Fixed guard, 50 Fibre building boards, 74 Fire triangle, 207 Fire fighting equipment, 33 Foam type extinguisher types, 221 Flash back arrestors, 29 Flammable liquids, 29 Flooring, 61 Flooring wood, 61 Forgeability, 266 Forging defects, 266 Full annealing, 202 Furniture, 62,61,69 Fire accidents Fire resistance, 58

Fixed jaw Fixed guarding, 53 Fumes and dust Face plates Files Fire instruction Fire retardant, 64 Fire outbreak Frames, 59 Fitting practices, 36 Fort controls, 53 Fermentation vessels, 66 Fitting of a chair
G 480

480 Gangways, 30 G-cramps, 117 General safety guidelines, 32 Greenhouse, 63 Gouges and carving tools, 109 Glossary of machining terms, 378 Grinding, 383 Grinding machine or grinder, 383 General safety guidelines Grades of cut of files Grinder Gate of a house
H

Hand-held power tools, 27 Hand scraper, 106

Hand ax, 113 Half-round cabinet rasp, 106 Hardening, 202 Hammers-woodwork, 113 Hearing protection, 23 Housing joint, 143 Hammers Interlocking guards, 50 Improved wood, 74 Hand shears
J

Jig saw, 387 Joinery, 63

L

Larch, 59 Lathe, 307 Laminated board, 71 Laminated products, 72 Laminated timber, 71 Large hole, 343 Lap joint, 162
481

481 Level plump, 119 Log, 59 Lock nut Lubricant, 301

M

Machining, 18,301 Mallet, 109 Masonry, 108

Marking circular layouts, 950 Marking guage, 99,98 Manual handling, 31 Machining processes, 89 Maximum thermal conductivity, 74 Metal drilling, 382 Metal forging, 258, 260 Metal joining, 15 Metal drilling, 55 Measurement, 36,86,96 Measuring tools, 90 Melamine laminate, 72 Moisture content, 68 Moisture-resistant coating, 77 Miter-cut layout, 95 Milling, 323 Milling operations, 323 Mineral oils, 304 Micrometer screw guage, 37 Micrometer screw gauge Mould, 290, 295 Mould pouring, 287 Modern power tool, 119 Monkey wrench, 114 Mortise chisel, 102 Moveable blade, 95
482

482
N

Nail sets, 117 Noise, 23

Normalizing, 204 Non-ferrous metal, 166, 168 Non-precision grinding, 383 Notch, 291
O

Odd-legs Outside measuring faces Oxyacetylene welder

P 483

483 Panel board, 73 Pallets, 64 Parallel marking, 95 Particle board, 273 Parting, 323 Parting tool, 324,325 Particle board, 72 Percussion and impelling tools, 90 Permanent distribution, 77 Personal protection Personal safety, 20 Petroband, 298 Petroleum oil, 304 Pinning of files, 188,189 Pitwood, 64 Pith, 37 Pitch. 379 Planes, 99,101,123,137 Plain-sawn lumber, 82 Plumb bob, 98,99

Pliers Plywood, 69 Pocket knife, 98 Porosity, 291 Portable equipment, 25 Portable tools, 27,119 Portable drill, 133 Power hand plane, 119 Power tools, 86,122 Power drill, 108 Portable appliance testing Portable saws, 124 Portable sanders, 132 Pocket chisel, 102 Portable circular saw Portable belt sander, 391 Portable electric drills Pocket cut Pin vice, 199
484

484 Precision grinding, Precise instrument, 37 Precision jobs, 36 Precision layout work, Protection devices, 50 Profile chisel, 102 Process, 234 Prying tool, 119 Push action, 109 Push sticks,

Punch bar, 109

R

Ram operating valve, 53 Rafters, 58 Rafter cutting, 94 Ratchet device, 109 Railway sleepers, 65 Rays, 57 Redwood, 59 Reinforced roofing, 75 Reinforced, 65 Remote control placement, 53 Removable panels, 48 Resistance to chemical attack, 66 Respiratory protection, 27 Ring shake, 102 Ripsaw, 106 Risk assessment Rotation parts, 45 Rotating machines, 33 Round nose chisel, 102 Routers, 126 Router planes, 119 Rulers Ripping Reciprocating saw
S 485

485 Sand casting, 284 Saddle, 307,308

Safety, 298 Safeguarding, 50 Safety guards Safety practices Sharpening a tool Shakes, 80 Shacks, 31 Sapwood, 58 Spanners, 119 Standard 36 Saws, 108,137 Saw blades, 178 Scab, 290 Screw machine, 377 Scribers Scrapers Screwdrivers Set squares Sliding jaw Spanners Stringers keel, 59 Storage and disposal of waste solvents Saw frames Swaying, 266 Sabre saws Sleeve Slings, 31 Steel tapeline, 50 Stellite, 274 Sheet metal work, 16 Stroke, 187

Spindle
486

486 Split die, 190 Softwood, 58 Soluble oil, 304 Solvient, 32 Soldering, 246 Softening, 202 Solid state welding, 247 Stock, 190 Stock bar, 26 Smocks, 20, 22 Shop rule, 343 Shoulder, 355 Spokeshave, 99 Spheriodization, 205
T 487

487 Tap, 191, 192, 379 Taper, 322, 379 Tap magic, 301 Tail stock, 307, 308, 311 T-bevel, 95 Technicians tool box, 97 Tooling, 89 Tool box, 33 Tool bit, 379 Tool geometry, 370 Tool guard, 54

Tool holders, 372 Tool post, 312 Tool room machine, 54 Tool sharping Thimble Timber engineering, 71 Traditional timber, 62 Thermal insulation, 74 Thread, 333 Threading, 333 Trip guard, 54 Tropical hardwood, 66 Through dovetail joint, 148 Tungsten-casbide, 279 Turnery, 321 Turret lathes, 375 Try square, 96 Tweezers Twisting, 79 Two-hand control devices, 54, 55
U

Urea formaldehyde adhesive, 72 Urea resin, 68 Use of file Utility turnery, 65

V 488

488 Vats, 66 Value keys, 29 Vernier calliper, 41,39

Ventilation Vernier scale, 42 Versatile material, 58 Vertical milling machine, 26 Viewing windows, Vinyl monomer, 74
W

Waste coolant, 32 Welder, 234 Welding process, 234 Welding materials, 247 Welding terms, 248-251 Welding types, 238 Welding trolleys, 29 Widening joints, 141 Wood, 57 Wood defects, 79 Wood defects types, 84-86 Wood drill Wood drilling Wood lathe, 386 Wooden sleepers, 65 Wood wool cement board (WWCB), 75 Workshop, 2 Workshop bench Working load, 31 Workshop machinery, 49 Workpiece, 33 Workshop practice, 2 Workshop safety, 20 Workshop supervisory, 49

Wrenches, 116 Wrought iron, 171

489

489 490

490

Chapter sixteen NON-FERROUS METALS

Is nickel a non-ferrous metal?

16.1 Nickel40

Nickel (symbol Ni, atomic weight 58.71, atomic number 28) is a lustrous, silvery-white metal discovered in 1751. It has a melting point of 1453 C, relatively low thermal and electrical conductivities, high resistance to corrosion and oxidation, excellent strength and toughness at elevated temperatures, and is capable of being magnetized. It is attractive and very durable as a pure metal, and alloys readily with many other metals. Reflecting these qualities, nickel is widely used in over 300 000 products for consumer, industrial, military, transport/aerospace, marine and architectural applications. The public may recognise nickel in coins, as it is used for this purpose in pure or alloy forms by many countries, or as bright and durable electrolyticallyapplied

coatings on steel (nickel plating). The biggest use, however, is as an alloying metal along with chromium and other metals in the production of stainless and heat-resisting steels. These are mostly used in industry and construction, but also for products in the home such as pots and pans, kitchen sinks, etc. Stainless steels are produced in a wide range of compositions to meet special industry requirements for corrosion and heat resistance, and also to facilitate a clean and hygienic surface for food and other processing. In fact, about 65 per cent of nickel is used to manufacture stainless steels, and 20 per cent in other steel and non-ferrous (including "super") alloys, often for highly specialized industrial, aerospace and military applications. About 9 per cent is used in plating and 6 per cent in other uses including coins and a variety of nickel chemicals. Nickel occurs in nature principally as oxides, sulphides and silicates. Ores of nickel are mined in about 20 countries on all continents, and are smelted or refined in about 25 countries. Primary nickel is produced and

used in the form of ferro-nickel, nickel oxides and other chemicals, and as more or less pure nickel metal. Nickel is also readily recycled in many of its applications, and large tonnages of secondary or "scrap"
491

491 nickel are used to supplement newly mined metal. Only about 1 million tonnes of new or primary nickel are produced and consumed annually in the world, compared with over 10 million tonnes of copper and nearly 800 million tonnes of steel. Nickel reserves: The nickel reserves relate to proven reserves in land based deposits. Nickel resources (estimated at twice the amount of nickel reserves) which would encompass sub-economic reserves, i.e. not mineable at a profit are not included in the table. The development of new process technologies will result in the conversion of some resources into the reserve base. Ongoing exploration continues to add to both bases. According to some sources, nickel resources on the seabed are many times those located on land. The land resource base is

thought to be in excess of 100 years at the present mining rate. Nickel demand: Nickel demand in Europe and the Americas decreased in the period 1997-2002 while nickel demand increased in Asia and the former East Bloc countries. Nickel demand is expected to continue its growth pattern of 2-3% per annum. First Use: Stainless steels account for about two-thirds of nickel consumption up from one-third in the past three decades. The market for stainless steel is growing at the rate of about 5-6% per annum. Little growth is expected in the other sectors of first use. Nickel production: Strong world economic growth through the midnineties triggered an expansionary drive in nickel capacity by existing producers resulting in a nickel production increase of 30% in the five years 1993-1998. In Europe, expansion in Finland and the United Kingdom accounted for most of the 48% or 60,000t increase in production. In Oceania, Australia and New Caledonia accounted for all of the 39% or 35,000t increase in that area while Japan accounted for most of the 22% increase in production in Asia. New

projects scheduled for completion, mainly in Australia, and further expansions by existing producers indicate significant nickel production increases for 1999 and 2000. Recycling of Nickel-containing products: Industry experts estimate that nickel bearing scrap totalling 4.4-4.6 million tonnes per year is collected
492

492 and recycled. This scrap is estimated to contain almost 350,000t of nickel (or one-quarter of the total demand) annually which is mainly used by the stainless steel industry. The nickel scrap processing industry consists of four or five major companies operating on an international level to ensure that nickel bearing scrap is collected from every corner of the globe. Most of the scrap is stainless steel scrap, resulting from the demolition of obsolete factories, machinery and equipment and consumer goods. Nickel price: The price of nickel has shown its volatility over the past decade. The economic collapse of the former East Bloc countries in the

early nineties led to substantially lower nickel demand, which together with a massive de-stocking of nickel bearing materials pushed exports to the West to an all time high. Nickel prices were driven lower than the cash costs of production resulting in reduced nickel production in the West in 1993. A significant increase in exports from Russia in starting in the last half of 1996 and continuing throughout 1998 reversed the recovery of nickel prices occurring in 1994 and 1995. Environmental issues: All metals and metal compounds have a certain level of toxicity and may cause adverse effects on living organisms. Nickel in certain forms and under particular circumstances, may generate detrimental environmental (including health and safety) effects, notwithstanding the fact that it is considered to be a vital element for public health by some scientist. It appears to be extremely difficult to make a general assessment on the environmental consequences of nickel. However, growing concern on environmental matters worldwide stimulated several countries and/or international

organisations to regulate metals uses, including nickel, according to their chemical and physical features and properties and possible adverse effects that their various applications may cause. Existing as well as new regulations are aimed at protecting workers and consumers (public health approach) whereas others focus on the protection of the environment (ecological approach). For instance regulations on occupational exposure limits intend to protect workers in various industries, while legislation on classification, packaging and labelling of products aims to inform the public on possible adverse health effects. To protect the environment, emission levels for various products have been introduced.
493

493

MACHINING

WARNING: Machine tools present a safety hazard. Improper operation can result in severe injury. These topics are for nonlaboratory study only and are not to be used in conjunction with the operation of any tool or machine described herein. Never use a machine tool without the

supervision of a qualified instructor.