• •

PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF

EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATlVE/COMMITTEE/PROTOCOL OFFICER AND
RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT

h
2t April, 2008

INSTRUCTIONS: •

(i) Write your Roll No. at the appropriate column on the answer sheet. .

(ii) Put ·X' mark only in the correct Box like this {X}. No marks will be given for
responses outside the Box. In case you feel that there is more than one
correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose only one response for each question. Use blue or black pen
only to mark your response.

(iii) In case you want to change your response to any question, fully blacken the
first response like this. and {X} mark in the correct Box.

(iv) All questions carry equal marks.

(v) There will be negative marking for wrong answers. For every three wrong
answers, one mark will be deducted.

(vi) No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before the
scheduled conclusion of the examination.

(vii) At the conclusion of the examination, hand over both the question paper and
the answer sheet to the invigilator.
- (viii) A sheet for rough work has been appended at the end of this question paper.

Time: 2 hours Marks: 150

 1. Wh ich among the follow ing articles of the Constitution of India has the provision proh ibiti ng
ex-post facto law, double j eopardy and self-incrimination?
(A) Arucie 20 (B) Article 21 (C) Art icle 22 (D) Article 23
2. Consider the following statements:
i) The decision of the Governor is fina l regard ing the disqualification of the members of the
State legislature
ii) Before giving decision on any such question the Governor shall obtain the opinion of the
Election Commission of India and shall act accord ing to such opinion
Which among the aforementioned statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) (i) on ly (B) (il) only (C) neither (i) nor (ii) (D) both (I) and (ii)
3. A Public Interest Litigation can be taken up by
(A) Supreme Court only (B) Supreme Court and High Court (C) Supreme Court, High Court
and District Court (D) Any court
4. With reference to the Constitution of India , wh ich one of the following pairs is not co rrectl y
ma tched?
(A) Forest - concurrent list (B) Econom ic and social planning - Union list
(C) Stock exchanges - Union list (D) Public health - State List
5. Which of the following Judgments pronounced th at Art. 368 did not empower the Parliament to
amend the Constitution?
(A) Gopalan Vs. State of Madras (B) Kesavana nda Bharati Vs. State of Ke ra la
(C) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab (D) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
6. Since tabling of the Action Taken report on the Rajinder Sachar Committee's recomm end ati ons
recently in the Parliament, the Government has given shape to an Equal Opportunity Commission
modelled on
(A) The United Nations Relations Act, 1976 IB) The United Kingdom's Race Relations Act, 1976
(C) The United States Race Relati on s Act, 1976 (D) The European Un ion's Ra ce Relation s Act, 1976
7. Ind ian Constitution has made the Centre more powerful than the States. Which of the follow in g
article proves the above statement?
(A) Article 53 (B) Article 74 (C) Article 110 (D) Article 3
8. With regard to money bill which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Rajya Sabha has the power to amend the provisions of money bill (B) II can keep the bill pending
In the House for six months (C) Lok Sabha has the power to reject the proposals sent by Rajya Sabha
(D) If the bill fails to pass the floor of Ralya Sabha then It is considered dead
9. In which of the follow ing country's constitution do you fi nd a provision for a construc tive vote of
no confidence?
(A) France (B) Germany (C) U.S A (D) Canada
10. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created , which one of the follow ing schedu les of the
Constitution must be amended?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Thud (D) Fourth
11 . A foreigner staying in India cannot claim right to
(A) Freedom of trade and profession (B) Equality before the law
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty (D) Freedom of religion
12. Employment of children below the age of 14 years i n any factory , mine or other hazardous work is
violative of
(A) Righ t to Equality (B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (C) Right against Exploitation
(D) Right to Freedom of Trade and occupation
13. What is the maximum period for which a State may be placed under President's r ule under Art icle
356 of Constitution of India
(A) One year (B) Six months (C) Three years (D) Two years
14.
- Under which one of the following the 'Untouchability' has been declared abolished in India
(A) Constitution of India (B) Protection of Civil Rights Act
Scheduled Tribes (prevention of Atrocities) Act (D) All of these
(C) Scheduled Castes anc

15. Hindu Succession (Am endm ent ) Act, 2005 has

I (A) Abolished coparcenary (B) Abolished Joint Hindu Family System
(C) Made father Class I herr (D) Made females as corparceners
16. Wh ich one of the following is not a punishment under Indian Penal Code
(A ) Transportation (B) Imprisonme nt for life (C) Death Sentence (D ) Simple tmpnsonment
17. Competition Act has been enacted to repeal and replace
(A) Consumer Protecti on Act (B) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practi ces Act
(C) Foreign Exchange Maintenance Act (D) Both (a) and (b)
18. Wh ich one of the follow ing is not established under the const it ut ional provisi ons :
(A) Finance Cornrrussion (B) Inter-Slate Council (C) Planning Commission (D) Scheduled Caste Com -nssron
 -~-

19. The judges of International Court of Justice are appointed by

(A) UN General Assembly (B) UN Sec urity Coun cil (C) Permanent members of UN Secu rity Council
(0 ) Genera l As sembly and Security Coun cil of UN
20. W h ich one of the following statements is incorrect
(A) The dispute of disqualification of a member of Parliament is to be decided under article 74 (B) The
question of collective responsibility of Council of Ministers is to be decided as required by article 75
(C) Th e question of age of a High Court Judge is decided as prescri bed by A rticle 2 17 (3) (0) In case 01
co nvictio n of a civil serva nt by a criminal court , no opportunity of hearing is required to be given to him
while dismissing him from service on the basis of same conduct
21. In 1904 " A bhi nava Bharat" , a secret society of revolutionaries was organised by
(A ) Khud iram Bose (B) Shyamji Krishna verma (C) Chapekar Broth ers (0) V.O. Savarka r
22 . Which session of the Indian National Congress la id down the goal of the National Movement as
" Se lf Government or Swaraj "?
(A) 1929 La hore Session (B) 1927 Madras Session (C) 1906 Calcutta Session (0) 1907 Surat Session
23. Ga nd h iji 's famous "Dandi March " took pl ace in the year
(A ) 1927 (B) 1929 (C) 1930 (0) 1932
24. The Battle of Buxar (1764) was f ought be tween the East India Company and the armies of: 1, Mir
Qas im of Bengal 2. Shuja-ud-dau la of Awadh 3. Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor 4. Marathas
Select the correct answer from out of the following :
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1 only (C) 1,2 and 3 (0 ) 1 and 2
25. Match List I (personalities ) w ith List II (organisations/institutions founded by them) and select t he
co rrec t answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
a. Will iam Jones 1. Calcutta Mad rasah
b. Lord Wellesley 2. Sanskrit College, Benaras
c. Jonathan Duncan 3. Fort William College
d. Warren Hastings 4 . Asiatic Society of Bengal •

Code
(a) (b) (c) (d )
(A ) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C ) 3 4 2 1
( 0) 1 3 4 2
26. The Poona Pact of 1932 was si g ned between the following:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar (B) B.R. Ambedkar and M.C . Rajah
(C) M.R. Jayakar and B.R. Ambedkar (D) Jawan artal Nehru and B.R. Ambe dkar
27. Which of the following was no! one of the features of the Government of India Act of 1935?
(A ) All India Federation (6 ) Bicameral Legislature (C) Provincial Autonomy
( 0 ) Oiarchy at the Centre and in the provinces
28 . Komagata Maru was the na m e of
(A ) A ship (B) A leader of revolution ary movem ent (C) A discriminat ory law ( D) A fam ous place
29. Self-Respect Movement w as started by
(A) E.V. Ram aswamy Naicke r (B) Jo tiba Phule (C) BX Ambedkar (0 ) M .C. RaJa n
30. What was the essence of t he Bas ic Education Schem e or t he Wa rd ha Sc heme propo sed by (,,~~
in 1937?
(A) tea chi ng of art (B) learninq thr ough activ ity (C) brahmacharya (D) technical ed ucat ion
31 . Wh ich o ne of the follow ing is not an ancient Indi an University
(A) Nalanda (B) 'Jikram shila (C) Takshila or Tuxila (0 ) Prayag
•
32. The following question consists of two statemen ts , o ne labelled as th e 'Asse rt ion (A)' and th e
other as ' Reaso n ((R)' . Yo u are to examine t hese two st atem en ts carefully an d s elec t the answer
t o the question using the code g iven below :
Co de
(A ) Bot h A and R are individually true and" is the co rrect exp lanation of A
(8) Both A and R are individually true but R IS not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A IS false but R is true
Assertion (A) : Kutiyattarn rs easi ly the most prom inent surv ivor am ong the forms co nt ain i ng
some esse ntia l elements of th e Sa ns kri t T hea tr e
Re ason (R) : Whi le some 01 Kutiyattarr,s conventio ns (like aspects of the p urvaranga ) belong to
th e SanS kri t trad it ion , others like the nirvahana are its ow n di sti nctive features.
 33. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Al Kalidas : Kumarsambhavam (BI Bharat . Natyshastra (C) Bha sa : Madhyam Vyayog
(D) Harsha . Mnchkatlkam
34. Consider the following statements :
(a) The early Buddhist view of art is strictly hedonistic
(b) Sanskrit literary theory gives a special status to 'Rasa'
(c) What 'sublime' is to tonginus, 'Dhvani' is to Anandvardhana
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) a & b (B) c & b (C ) a & c (D) a, b & c
35. Bhimbetka famous for pre-historic rock paintings is located in the State of
(Al Maharashtra (B) Andhra Pradesh (C ) Madhya Pradesh (D) Orissa
36. Thang-ta is a famous martial art form of
(Al Nagaland (B) M,zoram (C ) Manlpur (D) Andh ra Pradesh
37. With which Indian festival are snake boat races associated?
(A) Vishu (B) Onam (C) Pooram (D) Diwa li
38. What will be the immediate effect if foreign investors buy a large volume of shares in the Bombay
Stock Exchange?
(A) India's fore ign e xchange reserves will increase (B) India's foreign exchang e reserve will decrease
(C) The rupee will apprec iate (D) The rupee will depreciate
39. Which of the following contributes the largest share of India's exports?
(Al Tea (B) Iron ore (C) Gems and Jewelry (D) Garments
40. The "poverty line" in India is defined in torms of a particular level of
(A) Monthly per capita consumption expenditu re of a house hold ( 6) Monthly income of a household
(C) Monthly per capita consumption of foodgrains by a household (D) Average daily wages of worke rs
41, An appreciation of the rupee against the currencies of India's major trading partners
(A I Helps exporters but harms producers of goods that compete with imports (B) Helps exporters as we ll
as producers of goods that compete with Imports (C) Hurts exporters but helps produce rs of goods that
compete with imports (D) Hurts exporters as well as produ cers of goods that compete with imports
42, Match List I (Responsibility) and List II (Authority) and select the correct answer using the code
given below:
List-I List-II
a, Deciding on allegations of false advertising 1. Committee on Agricultural Costs and Prices
b. Regulating cable television services 2. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices
Commission
c. Approving Special Economic Zones 3. Telecom Regulatory Authority of Ind ia
d. Recommending Minimum Support 4. Ministry of Commerce, Government of India
prices for foodgrains
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(Al 1 2 3 4
(B ) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
43. The VVTO Agreement on Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) has required India to
modify its laws dealing with which of the following :
1, Patents 2, Copyright 3, Special Export Zones 4. Recognition offoreign degrees
(A ) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4
44. The complete debt waiver scheme announced in the Indian Union Budget for 2008-09 covers
(A ) All small and marginal farmers (B) All farmers (C) All households in the suicide affected areas
(D) All small and marginal farmers and artisans
• 45. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 mandates that the fiscal deficit be
(A) Redu ced to 2 per cent of GOP by 31 " March, 2008 (B) Reduced to 3 per cent of GOP by 31 " March
2008 (C) Reduced to 3 per cent of GOP by 31 " Ma rch , 2009 (D) Reduced to 2 per cent of GOP by
31" March 2009
46. The Value Added Tax is
(A ) A direct tax (B) an indirect tax (C) partly direct and partly indirect tax
(D) a new type of tax , neither direct nor indrrect
47. Wh ich of the following is true for the government budget?
(A ) The revenue deficit is always less than the budget deficit (B) The revenue deficit IS always less
than or equal to the budget deficit (e) The reve nue deficit IS always more than or equal to the
bUdget oeficit (D) None of these
 · 48. Which of the following is used in calculating the Human Development Index?
(A) Levei of inco me measured by per capita GOP (B) Educational attainment measured by literacy
and school attendance (C) Condrtion of health measured by life expectancy (D) All of these
49. The followi ng question has two statements, one labelled 'Ass ertio n (A)' and the other as ' Reason
(R)'. Examine the two statements ca refully and select the answer as per as the codes given
below:
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R IS true
Assertion (A): Interior Tamil Nadu does not get rains in summer season
Reason (R): It lies in the rain shadow of Sahyadris.
50. The following question has two columns. Match t he two col umns and indicate the best
combination among the four options that follow.
Tribes Region
A. Adivasis 1. Kerala
B. Moplahs 2. Nilgiri Hills
C. Todas 3. Manipur
D. Angamis 4. Madhya Prad esh

(A) A4 . B2. C 1. D3 (B) A4. B1. C2. D3 (C) A4. B1 . C3 02 (D) A4. 83. C2. 0 1
THE FOLLOWING TWO QUESIONS (51 AND 5).) ARE FOLLOWED BY A NUMBER OF POSSIBLE
ANSWERS. INDICATE THE BEST COMBINATION THAT CORRECTLY ANSWERS THE
QUESTIONS :
51 . What is the chief cause of low yields of crops in India?
I. Small size of holdings II. Traditional methods of fanming III. Mass illiteracy am ong farmers
IV. Low level of fa rm mechanization
(A) I. II and III (B) I. II and IV (C) II. III and IV (D) I. III and IV
52. Why are the tropical forests exploited more in India than any other forest ?
1. Only variety of forest in India II. Provides good quality t imber III. Eas ily acces si ble
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I. II and II I
53. Which of the following statements is correct
(A) The distance between meridians decreases as we go north from the equator and decreases as we go
south from the equator (B) The distance between meridians increases as we go south f rom th e
equator and decreases as we go north from the equator (C) The distance between meridians IS a
con stant (D) The distance between latitudes is a constant
54. Which of the follow ing causes winter rainfall in India
(A) Retreating monsoon (B) Southwest Monsoon (C) Western Depression (D) South east monsoon
55. Which of the following rivers does not make a delta
(A) Mahanadl (B) Nanmada (C) Krishna (D) Godavari
56. Stalagamites and stalacatites are associated with
(A) Rive ri ne landforms (B) Gla cial landforms (C) under groun d water (D) wind
57. Mackinder's position regarding political control of the world was centered o n the s upremacy of
(A) East Europe (B) West Eu rope (C) Eurasia (D) Central Asia
58. CAT scanning of body parts is based on the use of
(A) Magnetic f ield (B) Gamma rays (C) X-rays (D) Nuclea r radiation
59. The future generation computers will be based on
(A) Faster processors (B) Smaller size of the CMOS (C) Better inte rconnects (D) Quantum computing
60. Use of plastics is not encouraged because
(A) They can suffocate animals (B) They emit poisonous gases while decomposing
(C) They are not biodegradable (D) Their production is not environment friendly
, 61. Green house effect is related to the
(A) increase of green cover of earth (B) cooling of the ambient temperature of earth
(C) increase in annual rain levels on earth (D) trappi ng of solar heat in earth's atmosphere
62. The mobile phones use the technology based on the pioneering res earch work of
(A) Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose (B) Dr. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar
(C) Prof. C.V. Raman (D) Dr. Satyendra Nath Bose
63. The neutrons
(A) can not penetrate a nucleus (B) interact with paramag netic atoms
(C) do not interact with atomic nucleus (D) encounter columbic repulsion
 64. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) metals have higher melting pom t than semiconductors (8) some inorganic compounds of
meta ls show metallic conduction (e) all meta ls become superconductor at low temperatures
(0) metals have lower melting point than insulators
65. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals w it h
(A) Provisions for Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts (8) Provisions as to tne
administration of Tribal areas in the States of Assam , Megha1aya, Tnpura and Mizoram (C) Provrsons as
to the disqualifications on the ground of defection (D) languages
66. 8rah Mos is the name of
(A) Supersonic cnnse missile (8 ) submarine (C) Air Force Fighter plane (D) Ta nk
67. Which of the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of an article of the Co nstit ut io n of
India?
(A) Election Commission (8) University Grants Comm ission (C) National Human Rights Commission
(D) Central Vig ilance Commission
68. 'Harry Polter' series of books was authored by
(A) John Grisham (8) Stephan Hawkings (C) J.K. Rawlings (D) Jhumpa Lahiri
69. Which is the biggest multi-nation Parliament i n t he world?
(A) Indian Parliament (8) American Parliament (e) Eu ropean Parliament (D) Austria n Parliament
70. Which of the following statement is correct
IA) Kosova IS now an Independent country (8 ) Kosova IS a part of Serbia (C) Kosova is a part 0 '
Russ ia (D) Kosova is struggling for its indepe ndence
71. The book "Unaccustomed Earth" is authored by
(A) Vikrarn Seth (8) Chitra Padmanabhan (C) Arundhati Roy (D) Jhumpa Lahiri
72. 'Florence Nightingale Award ' is being given every year in India for
(A) Social Service (8) Teaching (C) Nursing Service (D) Defence Service
73. 'GEMS' stands for
(A) Global Economic Monitoring System (8) Global Environment Monlto nng System .
IC) Global Ethics Monitoring System (0 ) None of these
74. What is the difference in time between two places which are at a distance of 90 degree longi tud e
from each other?
(A) 3 hours (8 ) 6 hours (C) 9 hours (D) 12 hours
75. Most of the weather phenomena takes place in which of the fo llowing layers of th e at mosphere?
(A) Stratosphere (8) Mesosphere (C) Ion osphere (D) Troposph ere
•

I
 - 5~

48. ' Which of the following is used in calculating th e Human Development Index?
(A) Level of income measured by per capita GDP (B) Educational attain ment measured oy literacy
and school attendance (C) Condition of health measured by life expectancy (D) All of these
49. The following question has two statements, one labelled 'Asserti on (A)' and the other as ' Reas on
(R) '. Examine the two statements c aref ully and select the answer as per as the codes given
below:
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): Interior Tamil Nadu does not get rains in summer season
Reason (R): It lies in the rain shadow of Sahyadris.
50. The following question has two columns. Match the two columns and indicate the best
combination among the four options that follow.
Tribes Region
A. Adivasis 1. Kerala
B. Moplahs 2. Nilgi ri Hills
C. Tadas 3. Manipur
D. Angamis 4. Madhya Pradesh

(A) A4 . B2. C 1. D3 (B)A4 .B1 ,C2. D3 (C) A4, B1. C3 D2 (D) A4. B3.C2, D1
THE FOLLOWING TWO QUESIONS (5 \ AND 5).) ARE FOLLOWED BY A NUMBER OF POSSIB LE •
ANSWERS. INDICATE THE BEST COMBINATION THAT CORRECTLY ANSWERS THE
QUESTIONS:
51. What is the chief cause of low yields of crops in India?
I. Small size of holdings II. Traditional methods of farming III. Mass illiteracy among farmers
IV. Low level of farm mechanization
(A) I, II and III (B) I. II and IV (C) II . III and IV (D) I. III and IV
52. Why are the tropical forests exploited more in India t han any other forest ?
1. Only variety of forest in India II. Provides good quality t imber III. Easil y ac ces sible
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I. II and III
53. Which of the follOWing statements is correct
(A) The distance between meridians decreases as we go north from the equator and decreases as we go
south from the equator (B) The distance between meridians increases as we go south from the
equator and decreases as we go north from the equator (C) The distance between meridians is a
constant (D) The distance between latitudes is a constant
54. Which of the following causes winter rainfall in India
(A) Retreating monsoon (B) Southwest Monsoon (C) Western Depression (D) South east monsoon
55. Which of the following rivers does not make a delta
(A) Mahanaoi (B) Narmada (C) Krishna (D) Godavari
56. Stalagamites and stalacatites are associated with
(A) Riverine landforms (B) Glacial landforms (C) under ground water (D) wind
57. Mackinder's position regarding political control of the w orl d was centered on t he supremac y of
(A) East Europe (B) West Europe (C) Eurasia (D) Central Asia
58. CAT scanning of body parts is based on the use of
(A) Magnetic field (B) Gamma rays (C) X-rays (D) Nuclear radiation
59. The future generation computers will be based on
(A) Faster processors (B) Smaller size of the CMOS (C) Better interconnects (D) Quantum computing
60. Use of plastics is not encouraged because
(A) They can suffocate animals (B) They emit poisonous gases while decomposing
(C) They are not biodegradable (D) Their produc tion is not env ironment friendly ,
61. Green house effect is related to the
(A) increase of green cover of earth (B) cooling of the ambient temperature of earth I
(C) increase in annual rain levels on earth (D) trapping of solar heat in earth 's atmosphere
62. The mobile phones use the technology based on the pioneering research w ork of
(A) Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose (B) Dr. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar
(C) Prof. CV Rama n (D) Dr Salyendra Nath Bose
63 . The neutrons
(A) can not penetrate a nucleus (B) interact with paramagnetic atoms
(C) do not interact wit h atomic nucleus (D) encounter columbic repulsion
 76 . Two pipes can separately fill a tank in 5 and 10 hours. The full tank can be emptied by an exit
pipe in 20 hours. While the two taps were filling the tank simultaneo.usly, the exit pipe remained
open by chance. In what time the tank could have been filled to capacity
(A) 3 hours (B) 4 hours (C) 4'" hours (0) S h.ours .
77 . In the following figures, there are two squares ABCD and paRS each having side length 2a. P is
the centre of the square ABCD.

":--

If the point P is fixed and the square paRS can be moved freely about it, which of the following
statements is appropriate?
(A) T he area of toe sh ad ed re gion incre ase s a s the length ax increases (8) Th e area of the shade d
reg.on decreases as the le ngth BX increases (C) There w ill be no cha nge in the area of the shaded
regio n with the change in the iength of BX (0) The re will be a change in the area of the shaded
region but not like the one mentioned under A and B above .
78 . Which one of the following quantities is the smallest? •
(A) 'I, (B) 'I, (C) 076 (0) 'I,
79 . tn a certain code, PRACTICE is written PARTCCIE. How is TRAINS written in the same code?
(A) TAR INS (B) TANRIS (e) TAIRNS (0 ) TARNIS
80 . At what time between 4 and 5 o'clock, the minute hand will cross the hour hand? .
(A I 21 'I"minutes past 4 o 'clock (B) 5 'I"
minutes past 4 o'clock
(C) 7 'I"minutes past 4 o'clock (0) 4 'I"
minutes past 4 o'clock
81 . Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades . Mr. A sits
oppos ite to the cook. Miss B sits right to the Barber. The washerman is on the left of the ta ilor.
Miss 0 sits opposite to Mr. C. What are the trades of A and B?
(A) Tauor and barber (B) Barber and cook (C) Ta ilor and cook (0 ) Ta ilor and washerman
8 2. A bag contaf ns o-n equal number of one rupee , 50 paise and 25 paise coins . If the total value is
Rs . 35, how many coins of each type are there?
(A ) 1S (B) 18 (C) 20 (0) 25
83. From the g iven graph :

i
II c
We can conclude :
(A ) The pe rson covers dista nce 80 in time AC , (B) The person wa lks a certa in dista nce with a certam
speed and comes back to the starting point at a higher speed (C) The pers on wa lks a ce rtain dista nce
with a give r: speed a nd comes back to the starting point at a lower speed (D ) The distance cove red
by the ma n is indica ted by the a rea ABC in the graph
84 . The graph line AS represents the equation
- 'j
11/--1--
F

II
• --.-'<
(A I Y = c (Bj y e x (C) x = c (0 ) None of the se
85 . If + means minus, • means multiplied by, + means plus and X means divided by , what is the value
of 15 - 3 + 10 )( 5 + 5
(A) 52 (B) 38 (C) 22 (0) 5
 -cc-
86. Which of the fo llowing graphs represents an object moving at constant speed?
(A) (B) ~) (D)

1
..::,
A
'-;;,,----
"Tl ........
87. Al l students are boys . All boys are dancers . Which of the following inferences, definitely fo llows
from the above two statements
(A ) All dancers are boys (B) All boys are da ncers (C) All dancers are stuc ents
(D) All students are dancers
88 . The population of a city increases at the rate of 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of
1% in the population due to the influx of job seekers . The percentage increase in the population
after two years is
(A ) 10 (B) 1025 (C ) 1050 (D) 10.7 5
89 . Find the w rong numbe r in the series 3, 8, 15, 24 , 34, 48
(A ) 8 ( B) 15 (C ) 24 (D) 34
90. Insert the missing number i n the following :
8,24,12, -. 18, 54
(A) 26 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 32

D IRECT ION~ FOR Q UESTION NOS. 91 AND 92~

THE FOLLOWING GRAPH GIVES THE MARK S
SCORED BY A ST UDENT IN DIFFERENT SUBJECTS - ENGLISH, HINDI, MATHEMATICS, SCIENCE
AND SOCIAL SCIENCE IN AN EXAMINATION:

.
f'1 ~
,.
.-- 'oS
•

91. Tne marks scored in Eng lish , Science and Social Science exceed the marks scored in Hindi and
Mathematics by
(Al l 0 % (B) 10 '/, % (C) 11% (D) l l ' /, %
92 . Assuming that the tota l marks obtained for the examination are 540 , the subject in which the
student scored 105 marks is
(A) English (B) Hindi (C) Mathematics (D) Sc ience
93 . Ins ert the m issing number

(A) 25 (8 ) 32 (C) 160 (D) 52

94 . What was the day of the wee k on 1" January, 2001?
(A) Fri day (8 ) Tu esday (C) Sunda y (D) W ednesday
- 95. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the numbers 17, 19, 20, 9. 8 stand fo r
(A ) PLANE (B) MOPED (C) MOTOR (D) T ONGA
96 . In the following

The missing number is

(A ) 9 (B) 8 (C ) 6 (D) 5
 97. The total age of A, Band C is 55 years . B is 10 years younger to C and A is three times as Ol~ a;9
C . The age of A is (A) 42 (B) 33 (C) 36 . ( ) .
98 . The least number of square tiles required to pave the floor of a room measuring 5 m 20 em by 3 m I S
(AI 460 (B) 540 (C) 390 I D) 360
99 . The value of (0 .125)1/3 is equal to
(A) 0 25 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.05 (D ) 25
100 . = = =
If 5472 9, 6342 6 and 7584 6, what is 9236?
IA) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 . .
101 . A car goes 15 kms on one litre of petrol when it is driven at 50 km/hour. When the car IS driven at
60 kmlhour, it only goes 80% as far. How many litres 01 petrol will it take to travel 120 kms dnvinq
at 60 km/hour? (A) 6 4 htres (B) 8 litres (C ] 96 htres (D) 10 litres
102 . In an examination 25% of the candidates, failed in Mathematics and 12% in English. If 10% fai led
in both the subjects and 292 candidates passed in both the subjects , the total number of
candidates appeared in the exam ination was
(A ) 300 (B) 400 (Ci 460 (D) 500
103 . The least number which when divided by 8,9 ,12 and 15 leaves the same remainder 1 i n each case,
is (A ) 179 (B) 18 1 (C) 359 (D) 36 1
104. If a rectangle were called iii circle, iii circle iii point, a point iii triangle and iii rectangle iii square, the
shape of the wheel is (A ) Rectangle (B) Circle (C ) Point (D) Tn angie
105 . F is brother of A , C is daughter of A, K is sister of F and G is brother of C. Who is the uncle of G?
(A) A (Bl C (C I K (D) F
106 . A pole is 21 feet high above the surface. A monkey takes iii 3 feet high jump in one minute an d i n
the next one minute slips down 1 foot along the pole. How much time the monkey will take to
reach Ihe top of Ihe pole? (A ) 18 minutes (B) 19 minutes (C) 20 minutes (D ) 2 1 minu tes •
107. The h ighest power of 2, dividing the number 1+3 X 5 X 17 X 257 X 65537 is
(A ) 30 ( B) 31 (C ) 32 (D ) 33
108 . If july 10 , 1977 was a Sunday, then what day was 31" July, 1970?
(A ) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturcay (D) Sunda y .
109 . In a school , there are two c lubs, mathematics club and the science club, having their combined
membership 122 students . What is the total membership of the science club if 50 students are
members of the Mathematics club and 28 studenls are members of both the clubs?
(A) 78 (B) 100 (C) 72 (D) 94
11 0. Anil sold his puppy to Babloo for Rs . 60 . Babloo look 60% profit and sold i t to Chintoo w ho sol d it
back to Anil at a loss of 60 %. In this process, Ani!
(A ) made some profit (B ) made ne ither profit nor lost any money (C) lost some money
(D) is unable to know the profitlloss in the transaction
11 1. A horse and a mule, both heavily loaded , were going side by side. The horse complained of its
heavy load . "What are you complaining about?" replied the mule, " If I take one sack off yo ur
back, my load w ill become twice as heavy as yours. But if you take one sack from my bac k , you r
load will be the same as mine". How many sacks the mule was carrying?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 8
112. Sunny moves slra ight 5 kms from P and reaches awhere he takes r ight turn at 90° and wa l ks 12
kms to reach R where he again takes a rjght turn at 90° and walks 10 kms t o r each S. Ho w fa r is
Sunny from his original position P? That is how much is the distance PS?
(A) 27 kms (8) 22 kms (C) 17 krrs (D ) 13 km s
113 . Cons idering the diagrams g iven below, which of the following statements is true?

(A) all ru ra t people are professors (6 ) there are some rural people who are post graduate s ana
pro fe ssor s (C ) a ll rural people are post graduates (0) all crctesscrs are rural people but not pos t gradua te s
 -1 0 -
114. The re are three circles with four numbers outside them . While in the fi rst two ci rcles a number
has been filled according to a rule, in the third circle the mark ? is given. Find it.

21

\\

(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 49 (D) 36

115. B is twice as o ld as A but twice yo unger than F. C is half the age of A b ut is t wi ce o lder than D.
Which two persons form the pair of oldest and the youngest
(A) B and 0 , (B) F and A (C) F an d D (D) Band F
116. Six persons P, Q J R, S, T and U are sitting in tw o rows of three in each . T is not at the en d of any
row. S is second to the left of U . R , the ne ighbour of T is sittin g diagonally o ppos ite to s. a is
neighbour of U.
Who are sitting diagona lly opposite to each other?
(A) U and R (B) Sand P (C) P and R (0) P and U
117 . Three wheels making 60 , 36 and 24 revolutions in a minute, start w ith a certa in point in their
ci rcum ferenc e downwards. Find when they will again come together in the s ame positio n
(A) 6 sec (B) 5 sec (C) 10 sec (D) never
118. The land area of Austra lia is 7,682,300 km ' and its population i s 16,260,400. S ingapore has a land
area o f 580 km ' and a populati'¥' of 2,645,400. Which of the following is correct .
(A) Si ngapore has a pop ulation density over 200 l imes as gre at as tha t of Au stralia (B) Singapore has
a population dens ity over 400 tirnee as great as that of Au stralia (C ) Singapore has a population
density over 2000 times as grea t as that of A ustralia (D) None of these
119. If the numbers in 34 2 x 0.052 are approximated to on e significant num be r then the es timated
prod uc t is
(A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 14 (D) 15
120. The number of prim e num bers less than 100 is
(A ) 22 (B) 24 (C) 25 (0) 23
121. The entrance fee to the plan etarium is Rs . 50. When the price of the t icket was lowered, t he
number of visitors increased by 60 % and the box office collec tion recorded an increa se of 36%.
Find the reduction in the t icket price.
(A ) Rs. 12.50 (8) Rs . 5 (C) Rs. 7.50 (D) Rs 6
122 . A certain city has a circular wall around it , and this wall has fou r gates north , south , e ast and
west. A house stands ou tside the city, three kms north of the north gate, and it can j ust be seen
from a p oint nine kms east of south gate . What is the diameter o f the wall that surro un ds the
city ?
(A ) 6 km (B) 9 km (C) 12 km (D) 8 km
123. When you re verse the d igits of the number 13~ the number inc reases by 18. Ho w many othe r two
d igit numbers increase by 18 when their digits are reversed ?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 6 (0) 8
124. If a man cycles at 10 km /hr, then he arrives at a certai n place at1 p.m. if he cycles at 15 km/h r, he
will arrive at the same place at 11 a.m . At what speed must he cycle to get there a t noon ?
(A l 11 krn/hr (B) 12 km/hr (C) 13 km/hr (D) 14 km/hr
125. x, y, z are th ree mathemati cal symbols among (+, -, x, + ) so that the calculation (105 x 7) Y 3 z 7 =
38 . Then
(A) x = x . y = + (B)x= +,y = - (C)y = + . z = - (D) x = + , z = -
- 126. Wh ich one of the following ph rases complete the sentence?
The government has introduced : (A) a children's clothes lax (B) a tax on children clothes
(C) a ch ildren clothes tax (D) a lax on cnildren's clothes
127. Wh ich one of the foll owing sentences is gram m atically correct?
(A) S ne lives a t Pert h: she own s a house on the Swan River (8 ) She li ve s at Perth; she owns a hou se in
the Swa n River (C ) She lives in Perth: she owns a house at the Swan R ive r (D) She lives
in Perth; she own s a house on th e Swan R ive r
128 Which one o f the following words is synonymous with 'm ulish'?
(A) hard work ing (B) ob stinate (C) sturdy (0 ) carefree
129. Which one of the following phrases is the correct definition of 'dys lexia'?
(A) a medical problem (B) a learning d isability (C) a ne OJOUS disorder (D) an infectious disease
 -II -
130. Wh ich one of the following phrases conveys the correct meaning of 'chiaroscuro'?
(A) a small breed of dog (B) a technique used In photography (C) a black and white effecl in drawing
(0 ) a pencil sketch
131. Wh ich one of the given words/phrases is most appropriate for the blank in the following sentence?
We should use _ time we have available to discuss Rohan 's proposal.
(A) a little of (6) the lillie (C) the few (0 ) lillie
132. Which one of the following phrases would complete the following sentence most suitably?
She tried to _-:-
(A) talk me the plan out of It (6 ) talk out of me the plan (C) talk me out of the plan
(0) talk out me the plan
133. Wh ich one of the following is the most suitable definition of 'epigram' ?
(Al a short satirical poem (6 ) a short-poem (C) a satirical poem (0) a poem
134. A person who burns his or her candle at both ends, is
(A) a spendthrrtt (B) a hoarde r (C) a careful spender (0 ) a wise person
135. Wh ich of the following words means the same as the phrase 'a child born after the death of its
father'?
(A) posthumous (6) premature (C) post-dated (0 ) post mortem
136. Which of the following words fits the definition 'an abnormal dread of being shut up in a small
room'?
(A) zoophobia (B) xenophobia (C) claustrophobia (0 ) paedophilia
137. Wh ich of the given alternatives has the same meaning as the following sentence?
Actions speak louder than words.
(A) speak less loud than actions (B) do not speak as loud as actions
(C) speak as loud as actions (0) are spoken louder than act ions
138. Which of the given alternatives best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiomatic phrase in
the following sentence?
He is easily deceived by a man with an oilv tonQ!!£.
(A) sweet words (B) clever words (C) angry words (0) flattering words ,
139. From the four alternatives given below, which one best expresses the meaning of the given word
in bold letters.
Gruesome (A) dark (B) rude (C) painful (0) horrible
140. Out of the four options given below, select one which is not a modal:
(A) will (B) can (C) might (0) soon
141 . Out of the four options given below, select the one which uses the correlatives correctly
(A) He neither cares for his Wife nor children (B) He cares neither for his Wife nor children
(C) He neither cares for his wrte or children (0) He cares neither for his Wife or children
142. Out of the four words given betow, select the one which is not a synonym of 'Thesaurus'
(A) Lexicon (B) Glossary (C) Word list (0) groce ry
143. Out of the four given options, select the one which follows the correct word order
(A) She boug ht a blue long ribbon (B) She bought a long blue ribbon
(C) She bought a tong ribbon blue (0) She bouqht a ribbon blue long
144. Out of the four given words, select one word which is not a synonym of 'Apat hy'
(A) indifference (B) ennui (C) tedium (0) excess
145. Out of the given four words, select one word which is not a synonym of 'Discretion'
(A) perspicacity (B) judgment (C) carefulness (0) intact
146. Out of the four words given below, select one word which is an antonym of 'Chide'
(A) commend (B) rebuke (C) reprove (0 ) repri mand
147. Out of the given four options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to 'c ross'
(A) across (B) angry (C) pleased (0 ) annoyed
148. Out of the four options given below, select the correct antonym of 'i ns olence'
(A) reveren ce (B) impudence (C) impertinence (0) brazenness
149 , The path of _ IS the way of glory Out of the given four options, select the correcl one
• (A) god (B) worship (C) duty (0) hard work
150. Prosperity gains friends, tries them. Out of the given four options, select the correct one
(A) misfortune (B) calamity (C) hardsh ip (0 ) adversity
 •

PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATIVE/COMMITTEE/PROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
23'· AUGUST, 2008

GENERAL STUDIES

INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written either in English or in Hindi.

Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

Ques: I. Expand and explain the following (in about 20 words each): (2x5=10 Marks)

a. WTO b.ILO c. WIPO d. ICCPR e. RTI

Ques: 2 Answer the following (in about 20 words each): (2x I5=30 Marks)

a. What is 'Usage "!

b. What is 'Data Didding'?
c. What is 'Web Jacking'?
•
d. What is 'Esrnail Bombing' ?
e. What is 'ADR ' ?
f. What is 'Disability'?
g. What is the difference between a Statute and an Act of Parliament?
h. What is the difference between a Court and Tribunal?
•
I. What is 'e-Contract' ?
j. What is Curative Petition?
k. What is Sting Operation?
I. ' ISRO' connotes what?
m. What connotes JCRC?
n. What is 'Ozone Layer"?
o. What is •Asian Brown Cloud'?

Ques: 3 Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): (30 Marks)

a. Explain analytically the impact of quota system in India on ed ucatio n and

employment.
b. In your opinion what should be the hasis offoreign policy ofa country like India ,

Ques:4 Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each): (15x2 =30 'larks)
•
a. Explain Media Trial and its advantages and disadvantages.
h. Write in brief about Speaker's role in Lok Sabha.
I c. What are the main features of 'Earth Summit (1992) '"
 •

-2--

Ques: 5 Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): (30 Marks)

a. Why has globalisation - a force that has brou ght so much good - becom e so
controve rsial? Elucida te criticallv.
•
b. What suggestions would you like to give to curb or to decrease the recent glo bal
fo od crisis?

Ques: 6 Answer any two of the following (in about 125 words each): (lOx2=20 Marks)

a. What is ' No Co nfi dence Motion ' ? What arc the major impli cati on s of this process?
b. Do we have in India the provi si on of ' Dual C itizenshi p'? Can a fore igner acquire
Indian citize nship by vi rtue of marrying an Ind ian in lndia?
c. Is there any difference between the express ion ' Equali ty of Law' and 'Equal
Protection of Law'?

Ques: 7 Answer anyone ofthe following (in about 250 words): (30 Marks)

a. What is Public Interest Litigati on? How is it different from Publicity lnterest
Litigation? Is there any relation between SAL & I'l L? •
b. Do you agree with the stateme nt that the ' Panchayat i Raj in Ind ia' has failed to
provide good governance at grass root level? Discu ss w ith examples.
•
Ques: 8 Answer both the question s (in about 150 words each ): (5x2 = 10 Marks)

a. Statem ent: The hi gher education in India needs maj or mod ifications
Assumptions: I. Present educat ional system is not up to the mark for hi gher
education
2. Higher education system in India need s maj or change s

A. Onl y assumpti on ( I) is implicit

B. Onl y assumption (2) is implicit
C. Neither assumpti on ( I) no r assumption (2) arc imp licit
D. Both assumptions ( I) and (2) are implicit

b. Pradip is 5 times older than her sister Kavita wh ose age is 2 yea rs less than her
brother Ankit. If Anki t is 8 years old then what w ill be the age of Prad ip.
A. 30 •vears
B. 24 •vears
C. 40 years
D. 28 years
•

Ques: 9 Write short notes on the following (in about 20 words each ) : (2x5= 10 Marks)

a. Discuss the causes of fl ood every year in some parts of India.

b. Who introduced the Nano car in India for the first time and why"
c. Which country of the Asia got readmi ssion to Co mmo nwea lth? When and why?
d. " Maitree Ex press"
e. What is 'Environmental Performan ce Index"?
 •

Ques: 10 Answ er any two of the following (in about 125 words each) (IOx2=20 Marks )

a. What does' EeS ' in bank ing transactio n stand for? Explain the advantages an d
disadvantages of the system .
b. Discuss whether 'Non-Monetarv Gold Movement' is included in the current acco unt
~

oflndia' s Balance ofPavmcnt. Give reasons ,

~

c. What is the meaning of the term 'Curre ncy Swa p'? Recentl y Ind ia entered into a
'Currency Swap Deal with Japan '. What are the implication s o f thi s deal ?

Ques: 1t Answer any two of the following (in about 125 words each): (lOx2 = 20 Marks)

a. What are the reasons for having hard disk in a computer? Specify at least four mai n
•
reasons.
b. What is 'E L N ino '? What are its major effects on the earth?
c. What measures would you suggest to sto p Terrorism a ll o ve r the wo rld?

Ques: 12 Answer anyone ofthe following (in about 250 words) : (30 Ma rks)

a. What is ' 123 pact with USA ' ? What are its imp licat ions/const raints and
advantages?
b. What major efforts have been made at nati onal and intern ati on al level to provide
•
social justi ce to children in India?

Ques: 13 Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): (30 Marks)

a. Accountability of judiciary in India is a major issue. What measu res would you
suggest to tackle thi s problem ?
b. What do you understand by the expression ' Global Warmin g' ? Disc uss in details
about its effect in near future ,

-
 ,

PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATIVE/COMMITIEE/PROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
23'" AUGUST, 2008
ENGLISH ESSAY, PRECIS, COMPREHENSION AND GRAMMAR
Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

1. Write an essay in about 500 words on anyone of the following: (150 Marks)
(a) The Indian response to global warming
(b) The rights of the girl child
(c) Free speech is the foundation of democracy
(d) India's space programme: merits and demerits
(e) The strength of India's cultural and linguistic diversity
2. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions that follow: (5x10=50 Marks)
Prolixity is not alien to us in India. We are able to talk at some length. Krishna Menon's record of the
longest speech ever delivered at the United Nations (9 hours non-stop), established half a century ago (when
Menon was leading the Indian Delegation), has not been equalled by anyone from anywhere. Other peaks of
loquaciousness have been scaled by other Indians. We do like to speak. .
There is, however, a serious question to be asked as to whether the tradition of arguments and
disputations has been confined to an exclusive part of the Indian population-perhaps just to the members of the
male elite. It would, of course, be hard to expect that argumentational participation would be uniformly distributed
over all segments of the population, but India has had deep inequalities along the lines of gender, class , caste and
community. The social relevance of the argumentative tradition would be severely limited if disadvantaged
sections were effectively barred from participation . The story here is, however, much more complex than a simple
generalization can capture.
I begin with gender. There can be little doubt that men have tended, by and large, to rule the roost in
argumentative moves in India. But despite that , the participation of women in both political leadership and
intellectual pursuits has not been at all negligible. This is obvious enough today, particularly in politics. Indeed.
many of the dominant political parties in India - national as well as regional - are currently led by women and have
been so red in the past. But even in the national movement for Indian independence, led by the Congress Party.
there were many more women in positions of importance than in the Russian and Chinese revolutionary
movements put together.

(a) What is the proof that Indians love to talk?

(b) Which has been the dominant voice in India and why?
(c) Have women played any role in the argumentative tradition?
(d) What proof does the author provide of the stellar role of Indian women In
political debate and reform?
(e) Briefly enumerate the key ideas of this passage.

- 3. Make a precis of the following passage in your own words in about 200 to 220 words.
Marks will be deducted if it is longer or shorter than the prescribed limit. State the number of
words used by you in the precis at the end. (50 Marks)
But every one who admits the principle of evolution, must see that the mental powers of the
higher animals, which are the same in kind with those of man, though so different in degree, are
capable of advancement. Thus the interval between the mental powers of one of the higher apes and of
a fish, or between those of an ant and scale-insect, is immense ; yet their development does not offer
any special difficulty; for with our domesticated animals, the mental faculties are certainly variable and
the variations are inherited ...
A great stride in the development of the intellect will have to be followed , as soon as the half-art
and half-instinct of language came into use ; for the continued use of language will have reacted on the
 •
•

-2-

brain and produced an inherited effect; and this again will have reacted on the improvement of
language. As Mr. Chauncey Wright has well remarked, the largeness of the brain in man relatively to
his body, compared with the lower animals, may be attributed in chief part to the early use of some
simple form of language, - that wonderful engine which affixes signs to all sorts of objects and
qualities, and excites trains of thought which would never arise from the mere impression of the
senses, or if they did arise could not be followed out. The higher intellectual powers of man, such as
those of ratiocination, abstraction, self-consciousness probably follow from the continued
improvement and exercise of the other mental faculties.
The development of the moral qualities is a more interesting problem. The foundation lies in the
social instincts, including the family ties. These instincts are highly complex, and in the case of the
lower animals give special tendencies towards certain definite actions; but the more important
elements are love, and the distinct emotion of sympathy. Animals endowed with the social instincts
take pleasure in one another's company, warn one another of danger, defend and aid one another in
many ways. These instincts do not extend to all the individuals of the species, but only to those of the
same community. As they are highly beneficial to the species, they have in all probability been
acquired through natural selection.
A moral being is one who is capable of reflecting on his past actions and their motives-of
approving of some and disapproving of others; and the fact that man is the one being who certainly
deserves this designation, is the greatest of all distinctions between him and the lower animals. I have
endeavoured to show that the moral sense follows, firstly, from the enduring and ever-present nature of
the social instincts; secondly, from man's appreciation of the approbation and disapprobation of his
fellows; and thirdly, from the high activity of his mental faculties, with past impression extremely vivid ;
and in these latter respects he differs from the lower animals.
Social animals are impelled partly by a wish to aid the members of their community in a .general
manner, but more commonly to perform certain definite actions. Man is impelled by the same general
wish to aid his fellows, but has few or no special instincts. He differs also from the lower animals in the
power of expressing his desires by words, which thus become a guide to the aid required and
bestowed. The motive to give aid is likewise much modified in man: it no longer consists solely of a
blind instinctive impulse, but is much influenced by the praise or blame of his fellows. The appreciation
and bestowal of praise and blame both rest on sympathy, and this emotion, as we have seen, is one of
the most important elements of the social instincts. Sympathy, though gained as an instinct, is also
much strengthened by exercise or habit. As all men desire their own happiness, praise or blame is
bestowed on actions and motives, according as they lead to this end; and as happiness is an essential
part of the general good, the greatest ftlippiness principle indirectly serves as a nearly safe standard of
right and wrong. (675 words)

4. (a) Correct the following sentences: (10 Marks)

(i) You should not study if one is tired.

(ii) The flock of sheep were attacked by the wolf.
(iii) None of these students have passed the examination.
(iv) There was very less time to respond to the problem.
(v) You should work more swift.
(vi) Her brother is more taller than her father.
(vii) We live at an Indian metropolis.
(viii) If you will help me I should be grateful.
• (ix) I am thanking you in advance for this favour.
(x) I teach at an University of Hyderabad.

(b) Add the suffix, "able" or "ible" to each of these words and make necessary changes in
spelling. Write out the new words. (5 Marks)
(i) Percept
(ii) Imagine
(iii) Manage
(iv) Present
(v) Reduce
 •
•

(c) Use the following phrases in your own sentences so as to bring out their meaning: (5 Marks)
(i) Between the devil and the deep blue sea
(ii) Bete noire
(iii) Like chalk and cheese
(iv) Grass is greener on the other side
(v) Delusions of grandeur

(d) Fill in the blanks with an appropriate derivative of the word given within brackets and
rewrite the sentences. (5 Marks)
For example "It has been raining (continue) continuously for two days."
(i) With great power comes great (responsible) .
(ii) Despite the armistice, sporadic conflicts continued (abate) .
(iii) Integrity is a (forget) virtue in our times.
(iv) The court ordered him a heavy fine and (Prison), for two years.
(v) One would not expect such (humble) from one so celebrated.

5. (a) Which of the two words w ithin brackets in the following sentences correctly
completes the sentence? (5 Marks)
(i) She kept her hair (lose, loose). •

(ii) Today (their, there) is a great deal to discuss.

(iii) Do you think the employee who lost his job will (sew, sue) the firm?
(iv) (Its, It's) a matter of principle.
(v) God save the sinner's (sole, soul).
(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences , first as a noun and then
as a verb: (10 Marks)
(i) map
(ii) serve
(iii) plant
(iv) honour
(v) bill
(c) Change the following sentences into indirect speech: (5 Marks)
(i) She said , "Please leave me alone."
(ii) The mother asked her daughter, "Do you have any homework today?"
(iii) The policeman told the motorist, "You are driving above the speed limit."
(iv) As he fell into the manhole, the man screamed "Help me! "
•
(v) The jailor said, "Abandon hope, all you who enter here."
(d) Complete the sentences with the correct preposition or article: (5 Marks)
(i) The swimmer was washed .
(ii) The terrorist blew the building.
(iii) I study at __. university in New York.
(iv) She was taken by the sudden reprimand.
(v) Do you have the address of doctor you saw yesterday?
 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVEILEGISLATIVE/COMMITIEE/PROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
th
24 AUGUST, 2008

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION • Paper-l (Administrative Theory)

INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt

at least 2 questions from each section and totalS questions. All questions carry equal
marks.

Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

SECTION-A

1. 'Fo cus on organisational pluralism has added to the scope and significance of
Public Administration in the contemporary period'. Discuss with illustrations
from the developed and developing nations.

2. Define bureaucracy and distinguish between the Marxian and Weberian approach
to bureaucracy.

3. Discuss the importance of cordial relationship between the Headquarters and

field organisations and suggest measures to improve the same. .

4. Maslow and Herzberg have stressed on different aspects of motivation . Whose

approach is more relevant in the present day scenario and why?

c
5. Define Accountability and suggest mechanism for making administration more
accountable and citizen-oriented.

SECTION -B

6. Define work management and discuss its objective, steps and techniques.

7. Discuss meaning, nature, scope and models of Comparative Public

Administration .

,. 8. 'The Structure of administration in developing nations is traditional but its

functions are developmental'. In the light of it, analyse how development
administration can lead to sustainable development.

}3. Policy-making is not a simple but a complicated process. Discuss the role of
different actors and agencies in policy formulation and identify gaps between
• policy formulation and implementation.
,,
10. Human resource is the most important resource of an organisation. Discuss I
techniques for qualitative human resource development.
 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVEILEGISLATIVEICOMMITIEElPROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
24t h AUGUST, 2008
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION . Paper-ll (Indian Administration)
INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt at least 2
questions from each section and total 5 questions. All questions carry equal marks.
TIme: 3 hours Marks: 300

SECTION -A

1. Prime Minister is the real head of the Executive of the Union Government. Discuss the
above role of the Prime Minister in the context of the present day coalition government.

2. "Governor is the link between the Centre and the State". Evaluate the above role of
Governor in the context of Centre·State relationship.

3. "Panchayati Raj has become an important instrument in the implementation of rural

development programmes after the 73'" constitutional amendment. " Elucidate.

4. Evaluate the present role of public sector in promoting welfare in the society in the age
of liberalisation. .

5. (a) "National Human Rights Commission is the watch dog of the rights and dignity of
the people of India". Evaluate the role of National Human Rights Commission in the
Light of the above statement.
(b) "Administration during the colonial rule was neither public nor development
administration". Comment.
SECTION - B

6. "Lack of decentralisation is the major problem of Indian Planning". Give your

comments with special reference to planning at district level.

7. Critically evaluate the formation and implementation of the programmes of Union

Government for the welfare of women and children. Find out the major obstacles in the
process of implementation of these programmes.

8. "The training programmes for the Civil Servants need a drastic change in the light of
Iiberalisation and globalisation." In the light of the above observation, critically
examine the training programmes in India and give suggestions to improve the same.

9. (a) "The greatest threat to the life and liberty of the people does not come from the
- society but from the State's law enforcement agency that is the police." In the light
of the above statement, evaluate the role of police in the protection of human rights
of the people in India.
(b) Is parliamentary control over the public expenditure a myth or reality? Discuss.

10. (a) "National Development Council (NDC)

'P
.
" "
_»
provides the federal character to Indian
planning." Explain the statement.
,
(b) "Lack of political will is the sole cause of the failure in implementing administrative
reforms." Discuss.
 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATIVElCOMMITIEElPROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
24'h AUGUST, 2008

POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS - Paper-I (Political Theory and Indian Politics)

INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt at least
2 questions from each section and totalS questions. All questions carry equal marks.

Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

SECTION -A

QI Comment on anv three of the following in about 200 words each:

(a) ' T he city is prior by nature to the household and to each of us.' (Aristotle)
(b) ' W here there is no Common Power, there is no Law: where no Law , no
injustice.' (Hobbes)
(c) 'Over himself, over his own body and mind, the individual is sovereign.' (Mill)
(d) 'The history of all hitherto existing societies is the history of class struggles.'
(Marx)
•
Q2 'Democracy requires participation and participation assumes various forms.'
Evaluate this by drawing upon a comparison between the classical and contemporary
conceptions of democracy.
Q3 'The deep commitments to the values of freedom and toleration makc liberalism a
less rigid ideology.' Comment .
Q4 Critically examine the relationship between rights and duties with reference to th e
ideas of Gandhi and Ambedkar.
Q5 'The masses are atomized, disorganised and incapable of collective action unless led
by the activist minority.' Evaluate this in relation to the elitist perspective on power.

SECTION - B

Q6 Comment on any three of the following in about 200 words each :

(a) Role of women in India 's freedom struggle
(b) Immunities of the Members of Parliament
(c) Recommendations of the Sachar Committee on the Indian Mu slim Community
(d) The political economy of libcralisation
-
Q7 'Following increased political participation and changes in the party sys tem, the
federal base of the Indian polity has strengthened.' Comment.
Q8 'The changing profile of the Indian Parliament has decisively influenced its
functioning.' Comment.
Q9 '.Judicial activism has redefined the role of the Indian judiciary.' Discuss.
QIII Critically evaluate the prospects of grassroot democracy in India after the 73'-d
Amendment Act and make some constructive suggestions to strength en it.
 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVEILEGISLATIVEICOMMITTEE/PROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
24 th AUGUST, 2008

POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS • Paper.1I (Comparative Politics and International Relations)

INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt

at least 2 questions from each section and total 5 questions. All questions carry equal
marks.

Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

SECTION -A

1. "The limitations of the traditional approaches were catalytic to the evolution of

modern approaches to the study of comparative politics in the post Second World
War period." Comment.

2. Analyse the contemporary relevance of the realist approach to the study of

international politics. Give its Marxist critique.

3. What are the emerging characteristics of the post cold war global order? Docs
Non-Alignment have any relevance today?

4. Analyse the role and limitations of geo-political and geo-economic factors in the
determination of foreign policy of a country in today's globalised era.

5. Write short notes on any two of the following:

(a) Sustainable Development
(b) Human Rights as a global concern
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) SAARC

SECTION - B

6. Comment on any two of the following:

(a) India and EU
(b) India and CTBT
(c) Indo-Japanese Relations
• (d) India and UN Peacekeeping

7. Write a critical note on India's role in the Non-Aligned Movement.

8. Discuss the contemporary state of Indo-US relations.

9. Analyse the clements of conflict and cooperation in Indo-Bangladesh relations.

10. Critically analyse the impact of India's role in WTO.

 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVEILEGISLATIVE/COMMITTEEIPROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
27 t h AUGUST, 2008
LAW • Paper-l
INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt
at least 2 questions from each section and total 5 questions. The number of marks carried
by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

SECTION -A

1. (a) 'Federalism in the Indian Constitution is not a matter of administrative

eonvenience but one of the principles, outcome of our own historical process and a
recognition of the ground realities.' Examine critically. (30 Marks)

(b) 'The principle of repugnancy does not apply in all cases of conflict hetween a State
Law and a Central Law. The principle applies only when the above two laws
occupy the same field.' Discuss this observation in the light of the Supreme Cour t' s
decisions. (30 Marks)
•

2. (a) 'One of the methods of control over the exercise of power of delegated legislation is
legislative overseeing of delegated legislation.' Discuss. (20 Marks)

(b) Discuss the constitutional provisions which ensure the independence of judiciary.
Also discuss the importance of consultation by President with Chief Justice of India
before any appointment/transfer. (40 Marks)

3. (a) 'The Central Executive exercises not only executive functions but also in a limited
way judicial and legislative functions.' Comment on the various powers of the
Executive at Centre. (20 Marks)

(b) What are the circumstances that may give rise to a presumption as to the failure of
constitutional machinery in a State and consequent imposition of President's rule'!
Can a presidential proclamation issued under Article 356 be challenged on an y
ground whatsoever? What is the maximum duration of promulgation imposing
President's rule in a State? (40 Marks)

4. (a) "Right to equality is available only against State actions and arbitrariness but since
• the right to equality has very wide application, there has been steady enlargement
of the scope of 'State' for the benefit of people." Discuss. (30 Marks)

(h) In view of the new economic policy adopted hy Government of India since 1991
which seeks to promote market economy and capitalist path of economic
development, Parliament wants to amend the Constitution so as to delete the word
'socialist' from the Preamble. Discuss the constitutional validity of the proposed
amendment in the light of the principles laid down in Keshavanandan Bharati's
case, (30 Marks)
 5. (a) 'All obstructions or impediments, whatever shape they take, to the free flow of
trade or non-commercial intercourse offend Article 301 of the Constitution.'
Critically examine. (30 Marks)

(b) Article 311 (2) lays down that a civil servant cannot be dismissed/removed or
reduced in rank unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity to show cause
against the action proposed to be taken against him. Critically examine the
statement with reference to the Constitution (Forty-second) Amendment Act, 1976.
(30 Marks)

SECTION - B
•

6. (a) "Individual is not a subject of International Law is a 'Legal fossil' and a 'remnant
of legal animism'." 1>0 you agree? (30 Marks)

(b) Examine critically the different theories of recognition of States'! What is the
criterion to determine the granting and withholding of recognition'! (30 Marks)

7. (a) 'A ship bearing the national flag of a State is for purposes of jurisdiction treated as
if it were territory of that State on the principle that it is virtually a floating State.'
Comment and also point out its limits. (30 Marks)

(b) As a result of pressure of war, K, a part of the State X is ceded to Z. another

neighbouring State. I>iseuss its consequences on (i) the public debt of the ceded
part K (ii) treaties and political obligations binding the ceded part and (iii) an
injury in the nature of a tort or delict committed by an official of the ceded part
affecting an alien. (30 Marks)

8. (a) " All treaties are concluded under the tacit condition' Rebus sic stantibus '." l>iscuss.
(20 Marks)
(b) What arc the functions and powers of the Security Council? Give arguments for
and against the 'veto right' of the five permanent members of the Security Council.
(40 Marks)

9. (a) Write a short note on amicable means of settling international disputes. Illustrate
your answer with international practice. (30 Marks)

(b) What do you understand by the term 'asylum"! I>istinguish between territorial and
•
diplomatic asylum. Briefly explain the principle of non-refoulement. (30 Marks)

10. (a) I>iscuss the legality of the use of nuclear weapons in International Law. (311 ,\ I a r k s )

(b) 'Aut dedere aut judicare obligation is a common feature of the rcccnt anti-terrorism
conventions.' In the light of this statement explain the rules of International Law
pertaining to extradition of terrorists. (30 Marks)
 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATIVE/COMMITTEE/PROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
27t h AUGUST, 2008
LAW • Paper-II
INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt at least
2 questions from each section and total 5 questions. All questions carry equal marks.
Time: 3 hours Marks: 300

SECTION -A

a.1 Compare and contrast the provisions of Sections 299 and 300 of Indian Penal Code .
a.2 What is res ipsa loquitor? When is this principle applied in tort law?
a.3 (a) Why do we criminalise attempt to commit a particular offence? What are the values involved?
<a) X, a tribal girl of 16 years of age was forced to sit on a bar of a bicycle of Y who was riding the
cycle and his f riend Z, was sitting on the saddle of the cycle. X, was indeed under fear. She
tried to resist. She was badly beaten by Y and Z. Later both Y and Z had taken her into
interiors of the forest and both raped her. What is the offence committed by Y and Z? How is
the consent of victim in rape cases decided?
a .4 <a) What is constitutional tort? Explain the compensatory jurisprudence developed by Indian
•
Supreme Court?
(b) A boy of 14 years went to the river to bathe. X, a fisherman who was regularly catching the
fish in the river water placed a live wire under water on that day with a view to catch fish. The
boy was electrocuted and died in the hospital. Discuss the liability of X.
c .s <a) Critically examine the promise and perfonnance of Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
(b) Define dowry under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961? What are the factors fo r failure of the
implementation of this law and suggest measures for its effective enforcement ?

SECTION· B

a .6 What are the basic requirements of a valid contract? Explain the grounds upon which a contract
may be discharged under the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

a.7 What is arbitration and conciliation? How is it an alternative method to litigation? Discuss in the
light of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

a.8 <a) An advertisement to sell a particular named product at 25 • 50% below the listed price was
announced to the public. Would it amount to offer or invitation to offer? Discuss .
(b) M purchased a wrist watch from N; both believed that it was made with gold plaque. Hence,
M paid a very high price for that. Later it was found that the wrist watch was not gold plated .
State the validity of the contract.

- a .9 <a) Who is an unpaid seller? How do you distinguish unpaid seller's right of lien with right to
stoppage of goods at transit?
(b) A, Band C carried on a business for profit and set up a firm with a special condition that C
I will neither contribute to labour nor money and will not receive any profits. However, C will
lend his name to the finn . State whether C is liable for the debts of the firm?

a.10 <a) A cheque was dishonoured at the first instance and the payee did not initiate action . The
cheque was presented for payment for the second time and again it was dishonoured. State
whether the payee can subsequently initiate prosecution for dishonour of cheque.
(b) A and B, both husband and wife entered into a compromise for divorce by way of mutua l
consent. As a result, B, the wife withdrew the maintenance case by accepting four lakhs.
However, she chose not to withdraw the petition under Section 498·A of IPC. Decide in the
light of latest cases of conciliation in family disputes.
 PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATIVE/COMMITTEE/PROTOCOL
OFFICER AND RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
28t h AUGUST, 2008
AGRICULTURE - Paper-I
INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt at least
2 questions from each section and total 5 questions. All questions carry equal marks.
Time: 3 hours - . .. Marks: 300
SECTION -A
1. Write short notes on any four of the following (about 200 words each):
(a) Climate change
(b) Global warming and agriculture
(c) Soil pollution .
(d) Pesticide residues in crops and human health
(e) Precision farming
2. Describe the major cereal based cropping systems of the different agro-climatic zones of
India. In your opinion which two zones have greater potential for further growth in food .
grain production and why?
3. Discuss the concept of crop diversification. Suggest schemes for diversification for
improving income and soil health for any two agro-climatic zones of India.
•

4. Discuss the role of agro-forestry to maintain ecosystem and improve farmers ' i ncome. List
at least three plant species suitable for agro-forestry in the different agro-climatic zones of
India, with justification.
5. Describe the package of practices for cultivation of any three of the following:
(a) Rose
(b) Ginger
(c) Banana
(d) Grapes
(e) Sugarcane

SECTION - B

6. Describe biological nitrogen fixation. Assess its contribution to Indian agriculture.

Suggest methods to increase the benefits to soil fertility.
7. Describe the characteristics and distribution of sodic soils in India. Suggest different ways
for amelioration of the problem. Also mention cropping system that can be adopted in
saline soils.
8. Write short notes on any three of the following:
(a) Farming system
(b) Role of co-operativism in agricultural economy
- (c) Socio-economic survey
(d) Lab-to-Iand programme
9. Discuss the current position of the (i) Indian farmers in the domestic trade of agricultura l
produce and (ii) Indian agribusiness in global trade of agricultural commodities. Suggest
ways to remove some of the limitations.
10. Indian agricultural scientists have generated excellent technologies for improving farm
incomes and productivity. However, these have not been translated into practice, why?
Suggest an alternative extension system to improve this situation.
 •
•
PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
(JOINT RECRUITMENT CELL)
MAIN EXAMINATION FOR POSTS OF EXECUTIVE/LEGISLATIVE/COMMITTEE/PROTOCOL OFFICER AND
RESEARCH/REFERENCE OFFICER IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT
28'h AUGUST, 2008
AGRICULTURE • Paper-ll
INSTRUCTIONS: Answers must be written in English only. Candidates should attempt at least
2 questions from each section and total 5 questions. All questions carry equal marks.
Time: 3 hours Marks: 300
•• .-

SECTION -A

1. Answer the following in about 200 words each:

(a) Mendel's laws of inheritance and their significance
(b) Significance of linkage and crossing over in crop improvement
(c) Polyploids and their role in evolution

2. Write short notes on any three of the following in 200 words each:
(a) Contribution of N.1. Vavilov
(b) Importance of crop genetic resources
(c) Molecular structure of DNA
(d) Backcross method of breeding
3. Differentiate between any three of the following in about 200 words each:
(a) Nuclear and cytoplasmic inheritance
•
(b) General and specific combining ability
(c) Spontaneous and induced mutations
(d) Male sterility and self incompatibility
4. Answer the following in about 200 words each:
(a) What are the different components of variation? How will you calculate the heritability in the
broad and narrow sense?
(b) What are sex-linked, sex-limited and sex-influenced inheritance? Explain with examples.
(c) What is seed dormancy? Explain various types of seed dormancy and methods/treatments
to overcome this.
5. Explain the following in about 200 words each:
•
(a) Describe osmosis as a specific case of diffusion. Distinguish between osmotic pressure and
osmotic potential.
(b) Explain why transpiration rate tends to be the greatest under conditions of low humid ity,
bright sunlight and moderate wind?
(c) What are the factors affecting the genetic purity of a variety at field level and measures to
control it?
• SECTION - B

6. Answer the following in about 200 words each:

(a) What is a phytochrome? List at least ten responses in plants mediated by the phytochromes.
(b) Enumerate the role of abscisic acid in seed development
• (d) Explain how the guard cells regulate the size of the stomatal aperture?
7. Write short notes on any three of the following in 200 words each:

I (a)
(b)
Mango malformation and its control
Major insect-pests and diseases of tomato and their control
(c) Climatic requirement of okra, apple , maize and roses
(d) Role of vegetables in human nutrition

•
 - 8. Answer the following questions in about 200 words each:
(a) How biotechnological approaches helped to improve the productivity of vegetable crops?
Explain with examples.
(b) What are the diseases and disorders of citrus? How to control them?
(c) What is the present status and the future prospects of floriculture in the Indian economy?

9. Describe any three of the following in 200 words each:

_(a) Major field insect-pests of cucurbits and their control measures
(b) Pheromones and their role in integrated pest management on horticultural crops
(c) Role of bio-pesticides in relation to environment and other health hazards.
(d) Modern classification of insecticides
, . ..
10. Explain any three of the following in 200 words each:
(a) -
Pest-risk analysis (PRA) and role of biological pathway in PRA
(b) Agricultural biosecurity
(c) Integrated Pest Management
(d) Storage -pests of fruits and their control

-
-