Paper : BSNL JTO Model Test Paper For 2009 Examinations If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular

in waveform then the waveform of the current is a) Triangular b) Trapezoidal c) Sinusoidal d) Rectangular Answer: d. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is a) It is dimensionless b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum c) Its value for all substances is less than one d) None Answer: a Pure metals generally have a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient Answer:a For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is a) Air b) Ferrite c) Powdered ion d) Steel Answer: a For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by a) C a V1/3 b) C a V-1/3 c) C a V1/2 d) C a V-1/2 Answer: a A superconductor is a a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature b) A conductor having zero resistance c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value Answer: 2 When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of 2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a a) Thermistor b) Forward biased pn junction diode c) Reverse biased pn junction diode d) FET Answer: b

The location of lightning arrestor is a) Near the transformer b) Near the circuit breaker c) Away from the transformer d) None Answer: a Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is a) Increased b) Decreased c) Neither a nor b d) Both a and b Answer: a Intrinsic semiconductors are those which a) Are available locally b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from c) Have more electrons than holes d) Have zero energy gaps Answer: b The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by a) Channel resistance b) Size of depletion regions c) Voltage drop across channel d) Gate reverse bias Answer: d The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of a) 1010 b) 105 c) 10-4 d) 10-6 Answer: b When biased correctly, a zener diode a) acts as a fixed resistance b) has a constant voltage across it c) has a constant current passing through it d) never overheats Answer: b The current amplification factor adc is given by a) IC/IE b) IC/IB c) IB/IC d) IB/IC Answer: a Compared to bipolars, FETs have a) high input impedance b) low input impedance c) same input impedance d) none Answer: a The source-drain channel of JFET is a) ohmic b) bilateral c) unilateral d) both a and b Answer: d 1. The coupling coefficient between two air core coils depends on

(A) Mutual inductance between two coils only (B) Self-inductances of the two coils only (C) Mutual inductance and self-inductances of the two coils (D) None Ans-C 2. Which of the following is the incorrect statement for a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged-? (A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor. (B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates. (C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates. (D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plats. Ans- C 3. An SCR can only be turned off via its (A) Cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none Ans- B 4. Gold is diffused into silicon PN junction devices to (A) Increase the recombination rate (B) Reduce the recombination rate (C) Make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) Make silicon semi-metal Ans- B 5. How many links can be formed with n nodes and b branches-? (A) (b+n) links (B) (b n +1) links (C) (b -n-1) links (D) (b + n + 1) links Ans- B 6. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45

Ans- B 7. What is the potential energy of an orbiting electron in any atom-? (A) Always positive (B) Always negative (C) Sometime positive, sometime negative (D) Numerically less than its kinetic energy. Ans- B 8. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by (A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction (C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current. Ans- C 9. NPN transistor is properly biased then the electrons from the emitter(A) Recombine with holes in the base (B) Recombine in the emitter itself (C) Pass through the base to the collector (D) Are stopped by the junction barrier Ans- C 10. A Unipolar Junction Transistor can (A) be triggered by any one of its three terminals (B) Not be triggered (C) Be triggered by two of its three terminals only (D) Be triggered by all of its terminals only. Ans- C 11. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans- B 12. as a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are (A) Will become half (B) Will remain unchanged (C) Will become double (D) Cannot be determined unless the circuit

configuration and the values of the resistors are known. Ans- C 13. A iron cored choke is a (A) Linear and active device (B) Nonlinear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only Ans- B 14. Poynting vector wattmeter is based on (A) See beck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect Ans- C 15. Which one of the following is not a transducer? (A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD. Ans- D 16. The term which used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is (A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor Ans- A 17. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is (A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59% Ans- C 18. The maximum frequency deviation in commercial FM broadcasting is normally(A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz

Ans- C 19. Weins Bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is (A) Sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular Ans- A 20. Strain gauge is (A) Not a transducer (B) An active transducer (C) Not an electronic instrument Ans- B 21. A high Q coil has any one of the property from the following(A) Large band width (B) High losses (C) Low losses (D) Flat response Ans- B 22. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scales reading, the percentage limiting error of the instrument is(A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C) 12.45% (D) 0.0018% Ans- C 23. The h parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for (A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation. Ans- C 24. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on (A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past (C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) None Ans- B

25. The electrons escape from the hot metal surface because (A) Of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) Of change of state from gas to metal (C) The energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) The energy is greater than Fermi level Ans- C 26. The device used for detection in radio receivers is (A) amplifier (B) Triode (C) Diode (D) Transistor Ans- C 27. The negative point in a circuit of a full wave rectifier is (A) cathode (B) Anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) Plate. Ans- C 28. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will (A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise (D) Not effect the noise Ans- B 29. Quantum effects have to be taken into account in determining the properties of materials if (A)EF = 3/2kT (B) EF < 3/2kT (C) EF > 3/2kT (D) EF >> 3/2kT Ans-(D) 30. The difference between the number of atoms in a unit cell of a bcc crystal and an fcc crystal is (A)1 (B)2 (C)4 (D)6 Ans-(B)

31. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively (A) High and high (B) Low and high (C) High and low (D) Low and low Ans-C 32. Which of the following materials are piezoelectric-? (A)Mica and quartz (B)Mica, barium titanate and quartz (C)Mica and diamond (D)Barium titanate and quartz Ans-D 33. A 1ms pulse can be stretched to 1 s pulse by using (A)an astable multivibrator (B)a monostable multivibrator (C)a bistable multivibrator (D)a Schmitt trigger circuit Ans-B 34. A tunnel diode is (A)High resistivity p-n junction diode (B)A slow switching device (C)An amplifying device (D)A very heavily doped p-n junction diode Ans- D 35.What is the typical value for the ratio of current in a p-n junction diode in the forward bias and that in the reverse bias? (A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 1000 Ans- D 36. Which one of the following is not LED material? (A) GaAs (B) GaP (C) SiC (D) SiO2 Ans-D 37. A vertical wire of length carries a current of 1A at 10MHz.The total radiated power is nearly

(A) 0.13W (B) 0.88W (C) 7.3W (D) 73W Ans-B 38.The radiation field of an antenna at a distance r varies as (A) 1/r 2 (B) 1/r 3 (C) 1/r 4 (D) 1/r Ans- A 39.The common mode error voltage in a DVM can be eliminated by using at its input (A) a differential amplifier (B) a wide band amplifier (C) a tuned amplifier (D) a low-pass filter Ans-A 40. Very small displacements are effectively measured using (A) LVDT (B) Strain gauge (C) Thermistor (D) Tachogenerator Ans-A

(A) Kerala (B) Rajasthan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu Ans- A 44. The term Ashes is associated with (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these. Ans- B 45. Which of the following is a specimen of The Kailash Temple at Ellora(A) Gupta architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D)Chola architecture Ans- D 46. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by (A) Joint sitting of the two Houses (B) President of India (C) Prime Minister of India (D) BY a special committee for the purpose Ans- C 47.Which of these is not work of kalidasa?

PART 2 41. Satyameva Jayathe have been taken from which of the following(A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E)None of these Ans- A 42. Neutron bomb was firstly developed in which of the countries(A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan Ans- A 43.Kathakali dance is connected with (A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara Ans- D 48. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of (A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji Ans- A 49. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new era of(A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year

Ans- A 50. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad. (A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy Ans- D 51. Stare:glance so gulp: (A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire Ans- A 52. He hardly works means (A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D)He work very little. Ans- D 53. Whats the opposite of word for pulchritude (A) Antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor Ans- B 54. Nanometre is which part of metre(A) Millionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionths Ans- B 55. Malaria affects(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs Ans- B 56. Sindhu Rakshak is a an(A) Aircraft carrier (B) Submarine

(C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun Ans- D 57. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is associated with which subject(A) Best film director (B) Best musician (C) Best documentary (D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry Ans- C 58. Branch of mathematics,Calculus was developed by whom(A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes Ans- C 59. Kanha Part situated in which state(A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal Ans- B 60. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day? (A) 24th October (B) 4th July (C) 8th August (D) 10th December Ans- A BSNL JTO 2009 Question Paper with Answer PART I 1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of (A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar 2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the (A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D)x-ray region 3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectricloss should be respectively (A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low. 4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front

end is used suppress (A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component 5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on (A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none 6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is (A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor. (B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates. (C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates. (D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates. 7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to (A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization 8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion (A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony 9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess (A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point. 10. An SCR can only be turned off via its (A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none 11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to (A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate (C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal 12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have (A) (b+n) links (B) b n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links 13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45

14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is (A) always positive (B) always negative (C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy. 15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no (A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate 16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that (A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) its cost is low 17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by (A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction (C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current. 18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter (A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself (C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier 19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at m0 bias is (A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt 20. A UJT can (A) be triggered by any one of its three terminals (B) not be triggered (C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only. 21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and inform charge density in vacuum is

23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if its radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be (A) R/2 O (B) R O (C) 2R O (D) 4R O 24. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include (A) TE111 and TM111 (B) TE011 and TM011 (C) TE022 and TM111 (D) TE111 and TM011 25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency will be nearly (A) 0.19 (B) 0.81 (C) 0.97 (D) 1.19 26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is (A) 0.812 (B) 0.286 (C) 0.693 (D) 0.782

27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal then if d is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then (A) d = 1.5 cm (B) d is less then 1.5 cm (C) d is greater then 1.5 cm (D) d = 3cm 28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give (A) an output power which is one quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one-half of the input power (C) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage. (D) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power. 29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer (A) the terminals are kept shorted (B) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals (C) the terminals are kept open circuited (D) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals. 30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2? 1.R1 = 147 O 2. R1 = 153 O 3. R1 = 1.5 O 4. R1= 3750 O (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294 H/m and capacitance 60pF/m is (A) 49 O (B) 60 O (C) 70 O (D) 140 O 32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network 1. Z11 =Z22 2. h12 = h21 3.Y12 = -Y21 4.BC AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct. 34. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are (A) will become half (B) will remain unchanged (C) will become double (D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known. 35. A iron cored choke is a (A) Linear and active device (B) Non linear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only 36. Poynting vector watt-meter is based on

(A) Seebeck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect 37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense? (A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) voltaic cell (D) LCD. 38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is (A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor 39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is (A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59% 40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally (A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz 41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is (A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular 42. Strain gauge is (A) not a transducer (B) an active transducer (C) not an electronic instrument 43. A high Q coil has (A) large band width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response 44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is (A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45% (D) 0.0018% 45. The h parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for (A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation. 46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on (A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past (C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) none 47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because (A) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) of change of state from gas to metal (C) the energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) the energy is greater than Fermi Level 48. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is (A) (B) triode (C) diode (D) transistor 49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is

(A) cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) plate. 50. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will (A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise (D) Not effect the noise PART II 51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode (A) SCR (B) PCR (C) (D) DCR 52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a (A) constant voltage source (B)constant current source (C) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance 53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of (A) electrons only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only 54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary are respectively (A) ferrite : 20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1 55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse mode is a (A) 1 phase full converter (B) 3 phase half wave converter (C) 3 phase semi converter (D) 3 phase full converter. 56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is (A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave 57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is (A) 100V (B)141.4V (C)200V (D)282.8V 58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying (A) T keeping Ton constant (B) Ton keeping T constant (C) Toff keeping T constant (D) None of the above 59.An ideal consist of (A) Very small output resistance (B) Zero Internal resistance (C) Very large input resistance (D) Very large output resistance 60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by

(A) ? (B) gamma (C) ? (D) e 61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as (A) 1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D (D) None of the bove 62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures A) Current series feedback (B) Current shunt feedback (C) Voltage series feedback (D) Voltage shunt feedback 63. Class A amplifier is used when (A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest voltage gain is required (C) dc voltages are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired. 64. Identity the correct match for the given transister (A) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B) Depletion type N channel MOSFET (C) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D) Depletion type P channel MOSFET 65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will be (A) Distortion-less (B) Small in amplitude (C) Having higher frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted 66. IC which has quad 2 input AND gates (A) 7411 (B) 7404 (C)7400 (D) 7408 67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as (A) left shift register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above 69. Read the following (i) Routh Herwitzs criterion is in time domain (ii) Root locus plot is in time domain (iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain (iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain. (A) 2,3 and 4 are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are Correct 70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both (A) count pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation (C) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip. 71. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 200 72. On different unit impulse function results in (A) Unit parabolic function (B) Unit triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function

73. watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite (A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 2000 (D) 1000 74. The ripple factor in an LC filter. (A) Increases with the load current (B) Increases with the load resistance (C) Remains constant with the load current (D) Has the lowest value 75. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their (A) Language digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes 76. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because (A) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems (B) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power (C) its use avoids receiver complexity (D) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity. 77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function. (A) 15o (B) 45o (C) 30o (D) 60o 78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is (A) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain (B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action (C) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback (D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action, 79. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function. A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec B 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec D 40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec 80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by K Number of asymptotes of its root loci is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 81. In a closed loop transfer function A. j228 B. j2.28 C. j1.14 D. j114 82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee 1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other 2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm 3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the Harm 4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements

(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct. 83. In 1965 first geostationary was launched called (A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA 84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate we get gate (A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate 85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier (A) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency (B) amplifies the output of local oscillator (C) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (D) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies 86. A duplexer is used to (A) Couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference (B) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator (C) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver (D) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference. 87. Boolean algebra is based on (A) numbers (B) logic (C) truth (D) symbols 88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be (A) linear amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C (D) class untuned Amplifiers 89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on (A) maximum power of the transmitter (B) pulse repetition frequency (C) width of the transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of the radar receiver. 90. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to (A) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace (B) help vertical synchronization (D) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse 91. The frequency range 30MHz 300MHz is (A) medium frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency 92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide (A) TE (B) TM (C) TEM (D) HE 93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at (A) upto 18 kms from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km 94. A two cavity klystron tube is a (A) velocity modulated tube (B) frequency modulated tube (C) Amplitude modulated tube (D) simple triode

95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get. (A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved. 96.Which one is a cross field tube (A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT 97. The degree of coupling depends (A) size of hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole 98. The thermal noise depends on (A) direct current through device (B) resistive component of resistance (C) reactive component of impedance (D) load to connected. 99. The charge on a hole is (A) 1.6 x 10-9 (B) 1.6 x 10-19 (C) 1.6 x 101 (D) 1.6 x 1020 100. Intels 8085 microprocessor chip contains (A) seven 8 bit registers (B) 8 seven bits registers (C) seven 7 bit registers (D) eight 8 bit registers. PART III 101. The words Satyameva Jayathe have been taken from (A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these 102. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb? (A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan 103. Kathakali dance is connected with (A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu 104. The term Ashes is associated with (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these. 105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of (A) Gupta architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola Architecture 106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by (A) Joint sitting of the two Houses (B) President of India (C) Prime Minister of India (D) BY a special committee for the purpose 107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa? (A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara

108. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of (A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji 109. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new (A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year 110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad. (A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy 111. If stare is glance so gulp is (A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire 112. He hardly works means (A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little. 113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude (A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor 114. Nanometre is . part of metre (A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth 115. Malaria affects (A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs 116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an A) Aircraft carrier (B) Submarine (C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun 117. With which subject is Dada Saheb Phalke Award associated. (A) Best film director (B) Best musician (C) Best documentary (D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry 118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus? (A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes 119. In which state in Kanha Part situated? (A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal 120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day? (A) 24th October (B) 4th July (C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December ANSWERS: 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5.(C) 6. (C) 7.(B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10.(B) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13.(B) 14. (B) 15.(C) 16. (A) 17.(C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22.(B) 23. (D) 24.(D) 25. (B) 26.(B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A) 31.(C) 32. (B) 33.(D) 34. (C) 35.(B) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40.(C) 41. (A) 42.(B) 43. (C) 44.(C) 45. (C) 46. (B)

47. (C) 48. (C) 49.(C) 50. (B) 51.(A) 52. (B) 53.(C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58.(A) 59. (B) 60.(D) 61. (A) 62.(A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67.(C) 68. (D) 69.(D) 70. (D) 71.(B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74 (D) 75. (C) 76.(C) 77. (C) 78.(D) 79. (A) 80.(D) 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (C) 85.(C) 86. (C) 87.(B) 88. (C) 89.(B) 90. (C) 91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94.(A) 95. (C) 96.(C) 97. (B) 98.(B) 99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103.(A) 104. (B) 105.(D) 106. (C) 107.(D) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (D) 111. (A) 112. (D) 113.(B) 114. (B) 115.(B) 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119.(B) 120. (A). BSNL JTO Examination Solved Model Test Paper (Part-3) Mark out transferred electron device in the followinga) BARITT dived b) IMPATT dived c) Gunn divde d) Step recovery diode Answer: c) In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are a) syne b) video c) sweep d) sound Answer: c) The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in thea) mains transformer b) vertical output stage c) horizontal output stage d) horizontal deflection oscillator Answer: c) In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is ? Answer: (D12+D22)/x The frquency range for satellite broad casting is a) 30 MHz - 300MHz b) 30 MHz - 3 GHz c) 3 GHz - 30 GHz d) 30 GHz - 300 GHz Answer: c) Iris is used to ? a) Over come power loss b) Over come bending effect

c) Over come mismatch error d) Over come twist effect Answer: c) In schotty barrier diode current flows because of ? a) Majority carriers b) Minority carriers c) Majority and minority carriers d) None Answer: b) Which antennas are used in microwave communication ? a) long wave antennas b) Rhombic antennas c) Parabolaidal antennas d) All of above Answer: c) Among translator & time of sight system capacity ? a) Of translator is more b) Of line of sight is more c) Having equal capacity d) No relation such as Answer: a) No of T-state required for memory read or write operationa) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 Answer: b) In data transfer operation which flag get affecteda) 3140 flog. b) carry flog c) sign flog. d) none Answer: d) While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearinga) each instruction b) after interval of two instruction c) after a subroutine d) at the end of program. Answer: a) 93. In which error check technique of data communication 2?s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with dataa) Even parity b) odd parity c) check scans d) cyclic redundancy Answer: a)

Program execution hierarchy decides which operatora) is most important b) is used first c) is fastest d) operators on largest number Answer: c) (375)10 = (?-)8 a) 550 b) 557 c) 567 d) 577 Answer: c) To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC requireda) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 Answer: d) A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.a) 10001 b) 01110 c)00111 d) 11100 Answer: a) Is the Universal logic gatea) AND b) OR c) NAND d) X-OR Answer: c) A monostable state in multivibrator meansa) which returns itself to its single stable state b) the state used only once in circuit c) the state of circuit can not get changed d) the state of circuit always changing Answer: a) For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred a) T FF b) SR FF c) D FF d) JKFF Answer: c) His handwriting was not ?? so I could not read his note ? a) attractive b) eligible c) clear d) legible Answer: d)

They started to ?? people into the theatre only at six a) enter b) admit c) follow d) accept Answer: a) I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word). a) ending b) ordinary c) durable d) cheap Answer: c) Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ?evident?a) doubtful b) unimportant c) disagreed d) understood Answer: a) I expressed by disagreement ?? him on that issuea) between b) with c) about d) for Answer: b) ?Sugarbowl? of the world is a) India b) Cuba c) Brazil d) USA Answer: b) Palk strait separatesa) India and Srilanka b) India and Burma c) Britain and France d) Malaysia and Sumatra Answer: a) The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element area) 1 b) 5 c) 2 d) 10 Tides in the sea are caused bya) Effect of sun b) Effect of moon c) combined effect of moon and sun d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces Answer: c) The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to

maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is a) 140 b) 200 c) 150 d) 100 Answer: c) Aswan Dam is located ina) Egypt b) Libya c) Sudan d) Iran Answer: a) Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of a)Rajasthan b)Madhya Pradesh c)Uttar Pradesh d)Maharashtra Answer: a) Dry ice isa) Frozen carbon monoxide b) Frozen carbon dioxide c) Frozen ammonia d) None of these Answer: b) East flower river of India is a) Cauvery b) sone c) Narmada d) Tapti Answer: a) The total length of the great wall of China is ? a) 1,400 miles b) 1,500 miles c) 1,300 miles d) 1,400 miles Answer: a) Deficiency of vitamin C may result ina) beriberi b) night blindness c) dermatitis d) Scurvy Answer: d) Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a period of ? a) 11 months b) 2 years c) 18 months d) 15 months Answer: d) Indian local time is based ona) 800 E longitude b) E longitude

c) 1100 E longitude d) 250 E longitude Answer: Can you Answer this? Which one is a good preservative of food? a) Spirit b) Formaldehyde c) Sugar Answer: b) BSNL JTO Examination Solved Model Test Paper (Part-2) The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by ? a) turbine flow meters b) electromagnetic flow meters c) ultrasonic flow meters d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters Answer: d) The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is ? a) an incremental encoder b) an abosolute encoder c) LVDT d) a strain gauge Answer: c) When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be? a) 4800 rpm b) 5400 rpm c) 6000 rpm d) 7200 rpm. Answer: b) 41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to ? a) 1.732 V b) 1.0 V c) 0.7746 V d) 0.5V Answer: b) One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT isa) strain gauge b) pitot tube c) Bourden tube d) Rotameter Answer: c) It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would

be ? a) chromel - constantan b) Iron - constantan c) chromel - alumel d) platinum- rhodium Answer: d) In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI isa) f b) 2 f c) f/2 d) 3 f Answer: b) Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit a) Type A chopper b) Type B chopper c) Type C chopper d) Type D chopper Answer: b) Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated witha) peak point b) valley point c) any point between peak and valley d) after the valley point Answer: a) Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mAa) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR c) B may operate as a transistor d) none of the above Answer: a) In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal toa) zero b) source voltage c) source voltage minus the inductance drop d) average value of the conducting phase voltages Answer: d) Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconvertersa) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation b) step up CC requires no forced commutation c) load commutated CC works on line commutation d) none of the above Answer: a) In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current isa) b)

c) d) Answer: b)1/3(I) In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it givesa) Large voltage gain b) Low output impedance c) Large isolation between the input and the output d) None of the above Answer: c) Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation becausea) it can withstand high temperature b) ensures low PIV of the diodes c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter d) reduces ripple content Answer: a) An amplifier of class A is that in which a) Base is biased to cut ? off b) Ic flows most of the time c) Ie flows all the time d) Vc often raises to Vcc Answer: c) A transistor is in active region whena) IB = bIC b) IC=bIB c) IC=IE d) IC=IB Answer: a) For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it providesa) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch Answer: b) A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will bea) 100 W b) 99.01 W c) 5m W d) 101kW Answer: b) An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of a) 110 MHz b) 112 Hz c) 114 MHz d) 120 MHz Answer: b)

In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will becomea) OV b) VCC ? IBRB c) Equal to VCC d) None of the above Answer c) See the circuit shown and choose the correct option ? a) Only red will glow b) Only green will glow c) Both red and green will glow d) Neither red nor green will glow Answer: a) A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be ? a) 0.1A b) 0.5A c) 1.0A d) 10.0A Answer: c) A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate ? a) storage time b) turn ? off time c) turn ? on time d) delay time Answer: b) The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is ? a) (A + B)C + DE b) AB + C(D + E) c) (A + B)C + D + E d) (AB + C) . DE Answer: a) Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is ? a) solid iron motor b) squirrel cage rotor c) drag cup rotor d) both b and c Answer: d) Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its ? a) higher bandwidth b) higher output c) higher frequency d) higher gain Answer: d) The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for ? a) addition b) subtraction

c) both addition and subtraction d) multiplication Answer: d) The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is ? Answer: AB+BC+CA A lag compensator is basically a ? a) high pass filter b) band pass filter c) low pass filter d) band elimination filter Answer: c) Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig isAnswer: The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is 4/(S2+4S+4) Mark the correct statement regarding this system 1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4 2. The system type one. 3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite. Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 Answer: d) If the rotor?s resistance and reactant?s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, thenIn a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) isTransfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximatelya) 5850 kHz b) 585 kHz c) 5850 Hz d) 585 Hz Answer: X/R is small but L/D is large The output signals amplitudes for 1?s and 0?s in an ADM transmission systems are ? a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed Answer: d) Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart ? a) Because of atmospheric attenuation b) Because of Output tube power limitations c) Because of the earth?s curvature d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive Answer: c)

The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are calleda) line amplifier b) equalizing amplifiers c) compradors d) repeaters. Answer: d) Diversity reception in used toa) increase receiver sensitivity b) improve receiver selectivity c) overcome degrading effect of fading d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning Answer: c)

BSNL JTO Exam 2007 PART I 1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of (A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar 2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the (A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D) x-ray region 3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively (A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low. 4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress (A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component 5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on (A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none 6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is (A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor. (B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates. (C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates. (D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates. 7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to (A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization

8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion (A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony 9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess (A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point. 10. An SCR can only be turned off via it's (A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none 11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to (A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate (C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal 12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have (A) (b+n) links (B) b - n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links 13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45 14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is (A) always positive (B) always negative (C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy. 15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no (A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate 16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that (A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) it's cost is low 17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by (A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction (C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current. 18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter (A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself (C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier 19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at 0 bias is (A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt 20. A UJT can (A) be triggered by any one of it's three terminals (B) not be triggered (C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only. 21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and

inform charge density in vacuum is 22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by A. * B = 0 B. . B = 0 __ __ __ __ C. * B = p D. . B = p 23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if it's radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be (A) R/2 ohms (B) R ohms (C) 2R ohms (D) 4R ohms 24.In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include (A) TE111 and TM111 (B) TE011 and TM011 (C) TE022 and TM111 (D) TE111 and TM011 25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency will be nearly (A) 0.19 (B) 0.81 (C) 0.97 (D) 1.19 26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is (A) 0.812 (B) 0.286 (C) 0.693 (D) 0.782 27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal then if d is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then (A) d = 1.5 cm (B) d is less then 1.5 cm (C) d is greater then 1.5 cm (D) d = 3cm 28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give (A) an output power which is one - quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one half of the input power (C) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage. (D) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power. 29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer (A) the terminals are kept shorted (B) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals (C) the terminals are kept open circuited (D) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals. 30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2? 1.R1 = 147 2. R1 = 153 3. R1 = 1.5 4. R1= 3750 (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294 H/m and capacitance 60pF/m is (A) 49 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 140 32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the

minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network 1. Z11 =Z22 2. h12 = h21 3.Y12 = -Y21 4.BC - AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct. 34. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are (A) will become half (B) will remain unchanged (C) will become double (D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known. 35. A iron cored choke is a (A) Linear and active device (B) Non linear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only 36. Poynting vector wattmeter is based on (A) Seebeck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect 37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense? (A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD. 38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is (A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor 39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is (A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59% 40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally (A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz 41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is (A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular 42.Strain gauge is (A) not a transducer (B) an active transducer (C) not an electronic instrument 43.A high Q coil has (A) large band width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response 44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is (A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45% (D) 0.0018% 45. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for

(A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation. 46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on (A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past (C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) none 47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because (A) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) of change of state from gas to metal (C) the energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) the energy is greater than Fermi level 48. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is (A)amplifier (B) triode (C) diode (D) transistor 49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is (A) cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) plate. 50.Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will (A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise (D) Not effect the noise PART - II 51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode (A) SCR (B) PCR (C) VCR (D) DCR 52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a (A) constant voltage source (B)constant current source (C) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance 53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of (A) electrons only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only 54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary are respectively (A) ferrite : 20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1 55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse mode is a (A) 1 phase full converter (B) 3 phase half wave converter (C) 3 phase semi converter (D) 3 phase full converter. 56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the

voltage across the capacitor is (A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave 57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is (A) 100V (B)141.4V (C)200V (D)282.8V 58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying (A) T keeping Ton constant (B) Ton keeping T constant (C) Toff keeping T constant (D) None of the above 59.An ideal power supply consist of (A) Very small output resistance (B) Zero Internal resistance (C) Very large input resistance (D) Very large output resistance 60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by (A) (B) (C) (D) 61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as (A) 1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D (D) None of the bove 62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures (A) Current series feedback (B) Current shunt feedback (C) Voltage series feedback (D) Voltage shunt feedback 63. Class A amplifier is used when (A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest voltage gain is required (C) dc voltages are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired. 64. Identity the correct match for the given transister (A) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B) Depletion type N channel MOSFET (C) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D) Depletion type P channel MOSFET 65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will be (A) Distortionless (B) Small in amplitude (C) Having higher frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted 66.IC which has quad 2 input AND gates (A) 7411 (B) 7404 (C)7400 (D) 7408 67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as (A) left shift register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above 68. The expression ABC can be simplified to __ __ __ A. A B C B. AB+BC+CA __ __ __ __ C. AB+ C C. A + B + C 69. Read the following

(i) Routh Herwitz's criterion is in time domain (ii)Root locus plot is in time domain (iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain (iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain. (A) 2,3 and 4 are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are correct 70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both (A) count pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation (C) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip. 71. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 200 72. On different unit impulse function results in (A) Unit parabolic function (B) Unit triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function 73. ........... watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite (A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 2000 (D) 1000 74. The ripple factor in an LC filter. (A) Increases with the load current (B) Increases with the load resistance (C) Remains constant with the load current (D) Has the lowest value 75. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their (A) Language digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes 76.Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because (A) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems (B) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power (C) its use avoids receiver complexity (D) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity. 77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function. 1+6S G0(S) = ______ 1+2S (A) 15o (B) 45o (C) 30o (D) 60o 78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is (A) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain (B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action (C) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback (D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action, 79. Identity slope change at = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function.

A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec B 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec D 40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec 80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by K G(s)H(s)= _____________ S(s+2)(s2+2s+2) Number of asymptotes of its root loci is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 81. In a closed - loop transfer function G(s) 2600 k(s+25) ____ = _____________________________ H(s) s4+125s3+5100s2+65000s+65000 k A. j228 B. j2.28 C. j1.14 D. j114 82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee 1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other 2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm 3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the Harm 4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct. 83. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called (A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat - 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA 84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate we get gate (A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate 85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier (A) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency (B) amplifies the output of local oscillator (C) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (D) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies 86. A duplexer is used to (A) Couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference (B) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator (C) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver (D) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference. 87. Boolean algebra is based on (A) numbers (B) logic (C) truth (D) symbols 88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be (A) linear amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C power amplifiers (D) class untuned amplifiers 89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on (A) maximum power of the transmitter (B) pulse repetition frequency (C) width of the transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of the radar receiver. 90. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to

(A) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace (B) help vertical synchronization (D) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse 91. The frequency range 30MHz - 300MHz is (A) medium frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency 92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide (A) TE (B) TM (C) TEM (D) HE 93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at (A) upto 18 kms from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km 94. A two cavity klystron tube is a (A) velocity modulated tube (B) frequency modulated tube (C) Amplitude modulated tube (D) simple triode 95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get. (A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved. 96.Which one is a cross field tube (A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT 97. The degree of coupling depends (A) size of hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole 98. The thermal noise depends on (A) direct current through device (B) resistive component of resistance (C) reactive component of impedance (D) load to connected. 99. The charge on a hole is (A) 1.6 x 10-9 (B) 1.6 x 10-19 (C) 1.6 x 101 (D) 1.6 x 1020 100. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains (A) seven 8 bit registers (B) 8 seven bits registers (C) seven 7 bit registers (D) eight 8 bit registers. PART III 101. The words Satyameva Jayathe' have been taken from (A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these 102.Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb? (A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan 103. "Kathakali" dance is connected with (A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu 104. The term "Ashes" is associated with (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these. 105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of (A) Gupta architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola architecture www. 106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by (A) Joint sitting of the two Houses (B) President of India

(C) Prime Minister of India (D) BY a special committee for the purpose 107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa? (A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara 108. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of (A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji 109. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new (A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year 110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad. (A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy 111. If stare is glance so gulp is (A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire 112. He hardly works means (A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little. 113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude (A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor 114. Nanometre is ....................... part of metre (A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth 115. Malaria affects (A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs 116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an . (A) Best film director (B) Best musician (C) Best documentary (D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry 118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus? (A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes 119. In which state in Kanha Part situated? (A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal 120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day? (A) 24th October (B) 4th July (C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December ANSWERS 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8.(D) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12.(B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16.(A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25.(B) 26.(B) 27.(A) 28.(A) 29. (B) 30.(A) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33.(D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39(C) 40.(C) 41. (A) 42. (B) 43.(C) 44. (C) 45.(C) 46.(B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61.(A) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69 (D) 70. (D) 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74 (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77.(C) 78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (D) 81. (A) 82. (C)

83. (C) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89.(B) 90. (C) 91.(B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (D) 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (D) 111. (A) 112. (D) 113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (B) 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (A).

Paper : JTO 2005 EXAM SOLVED PAPER OF YEAR 2005 (BSNL) When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of a) Each of them increases b) Each of them decreases c) Copper increases and germanium decreases d) Copper decreases and germanium increases Answer: d) When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used a) VTVM b) Cathode ray oscilloscope c) Moving iron voltmeter d) Digital multimeter Answer: b) When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then ? a) Both will have equal value of resistivity b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium Answer: d) When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be ? a) s = 0; s = -6 b) s = 0; s = -3 c) s = 0; s = -1 d) s = -3; s = -4 Answer: b) For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes ? a) drop back to acceptor impurity states b) drop to donor impurity states c) Virtually leave the crystal d) recombine with the electrons Answer: d)

The location of lighting arrestor is ? a) Near the transformer b) Near the circuit breaker c) Away from the transformer d) None Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is ? a) Increased b) Decreased c) Neither a nor b d) Both a and b Answer: a) Telemetering is a method of ? a) Counting pulses sent over long distances b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance d) None Answer: c) When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1? 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be a) 2W b) 3W c) 4W d) 1W Answer: d) As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current ? a) Becomes zero b) Abruptly decreases c) Abruptly increases d) Remains constant Answer: d) 11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is ? a) Thermocouple b) Piezoelectric pick up c) Photo-Voltaic cell d) LCD Answer: d) When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is ? a) Common base b) Common collector c) Common emitter d) Emitter follower Answer: a)

In a JFET gates are always ? a) forward biased b) reverse biased c) unbiased d) none Answer: c) The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of ? a) insulated gate b) electrons c) channel d) P-N junction An SCR conducts appreciable current when ? a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is a) An indirect band gap semiconductor b) A direct band gap semiconductor c) A wide band gap semiconductor d) A narrow band gap semiconductor An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be ? a) 111V b) 100V c) 90.09V d) 70.7V Answer: b) When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is ? a) 5W b) 10 W c) 15 W d) 20 W Answer: a) In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be Answer: Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network

containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements ? a) Z11 = Z22 b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22 c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21 d) Z12 = Z21 Answer: d) While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are ? a) replaced by opens b) replaced by ?shorts? c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources d) converted into equivalent voltage sources Answer: a) Maxwell?s loop current method of solving electrical networks ? a) uses branch currents b) utilizes kirchhoff?s voltage law c) is confined to single-loop circuits d) is a network reduction method Answer: b) A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 ? j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be a)(30 + j40 ) ohms b)( 30 ? j40 ) ohms c)(50 + j40 ) ohms d)(50 ? j40 ) ohms Answer: b) For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will bea) Elliptically polarized b) Linearly polarized c) Right circularly polarized d) Left circularly polarized Answer: b) A yagi antenna has a driven antennaa) Only b) With a reflector c) With one or more directors d) With a reflector and one or more directors Answer: d) The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is ? a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) 1 Answer: b)

The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is a) 72 W b) 144W c) 288 W d) 216W Answer: 1/r When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it?s power is increased by a)100% b)150 % c)50% d)0% Answer: c) On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest a) During morning hours b) Around mid-day c) During nights d) In the afternoon Answer: c) TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR a) System B b) System I c) System M d) System X Answer: b) For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to ? a) 1k ohm/volt can be used b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used Answer: d) In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is ? a) Electrical conduction b) Electrical ? capacitive c) Absorption of radiation d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity Answer: a) The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by ? a) turbine flow meters b) electromagnetic flow meters c) ultrasonic flow meters d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters Answer: d)

The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is ? a) an incremental encoder b) an abosolute encoder c) LVDT d) a strain gauge Answer: c) When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be? a) 4800 rpm b) 5400 rpm c) 6000 rpm d) 7200 rpm. Answer: b) 41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to ? a) 1.732 V b) 1.0 V c) 0.7746 V d) 0.5V Answer: b) One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT isa) strain gauge b) pitot tube c) Bourden tube d) Rotameter Answer: c)

It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be ? a) chromel - constantan b) Iron - constantan c) chromel - alumel d) platinum- rhodium Answer: d) In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI isa) f b) 2 f c) f/2 d) 3 f Answer: b) Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit

a) Type A chopper b) Type B chopper c) Type C chopper d) Type D chopper Answer: b) Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated witha) peak point b) valley point c) any point between peak and valley d) after the valley point Answer: a) Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mAa) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR c) B may operate as a transistor d) none of the above Answer: a) In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal toa) zero b) source voltage c) source voltage minus the inductance drop d) average value of the conducting phase voltages Answer: d) Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconvertersa) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation b) step up CC requires no forced commutation c) load commutated CC works on line commutation d) none of the above Answer: a) In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current isa) b) c) d) Answer: b)1/3(I) In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it givesa) Large voltage gain b) Low output impedance c) Large isolation between the input and the output

d) None of the above Answer: c) Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation becausea) it can withstand high temperature b) ensures low PIV of the diodes c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter d) reduces ripple content Answer: a) An amplifier of class A is that in which a) Base is biased to cut ? off b) Ic flows most of the time c) Ie flows all the time d) Vc often raises to Vcc Answer: c) A transistor is in active region whena) IB = bIC b) IC=bIB c) IC=IE d) IC=IB Answer: a) For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it providesa) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch Answer: b) A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will bea) 100 W b) 99.01 W c) 5m W d) 101kW Answer: b) An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of a) 110 MHz b) 112 Hz c) 114 MHz d) 120 MHz Answer: b) In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will becomea) OV b) VCC ? IBRB c) Equal to VCC

d) None of the above Answer c) See the circuit shown and choose the correct option ? a) Only red will glow b) Only green will glow c) Both red and green will glow d) Neither red nor green will glow Answer: a) A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be ? a) 0.1A b) 0.5A c) 1.0A d) 10.0A Answer: c) A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate ? a) storage time b) turn ? off time c) turn ? on time d) delay time Answer: b) The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is ? a) (A + B)C + DE b) AB + C(D + E) c) (A + B)C + D + E d) (AB + C) . DE Answer: a) Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is ? a) solid iron motor b) squirrel cage rotor c) drag cup rotor d) both b and c Answer: d) Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its ? a) higher bandwidth b) higher output c) higher frequency d) higher gain Answer: d) The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for ? a) addition

b) subtraction c) both addition and subtraction d) multiplication Answer: d) The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is ? Answer: AB+BC+CA A lag compensator is basically a ? a) high pass filter b) band pass filter c) low pass filter d) band elimination filter Answer: c) Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig isAnswer: The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is 4/(S2+4S+4) Mark the correct statement regarding this system 1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4 2. The system type one. 3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite. Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 Answer: d) If the rotor?s resistance and reactant?s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, thenIn a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) isTransfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximatelya) 5850 kHz b) 585 kHz c) 5850 Hz d) 585 Hz Answer: X/R is small but L/D is large The output signals amplitudes for 1?s and 0?s in an ADM transmission systems are ? a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed Answer: d) Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart ? a) Because of atmospheric attenuation

b) Because of Output tube power limitations c) Because of the earth?s curvature d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive Answer: c) The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are calleda) line amplifier b) equalizing amplifiers c) compradors d) repeaters. Answer: d) Diversity reception in used toa) increase receiver sensitivity b) improve receiver selectivity c) overcome degrading effect of fading d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning Answer: c) Mark out transferred electron device in the followinga) BARITT dived b) IMPATT dived c) Gunn divde d) Step recovery diode Answer: c) In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are a) syne b) video c) sweep d) sound Answer: c) The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in thea) mains transformer b) vertical output stage c) horizontal output stage d) horizontal deflection oscillator Answer: c) In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is ? Answer: (D12+D22)/x The frquency range for satellite broad casting is a) 30 MHz - 300MHz b) 30 MHz - 3 GHz

c) 3 GHz - 30 GHz d) 30 GHz - 300 GHz Answer: c) Iris is used to ? a) Over come power loss b) Over come bending effect c) Over come mismatch error d) Over come twist effect Answer: c) In schotty barrier diode current flows because of ? a) Majority carriers b) Minority carriers c) Majority and minority carriers d) None Answer: b) Which antennas are used in microwave communication ? a) long wave antennas b) Rhombic antennas c) Parabolaidal antennas d) All of above Answer: c) Among translator & time of sight system capacity ? a) Of translator is more b) Of line of sight is more c) Having equal capacity d) No relation such as Answer: a) No of T-state required for memory read or write operationa) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 Answer: b) In data transfer operation which flag get affecteda) 3140 flog. b) carry flog c) sign flog. d) none Answer: d) The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequencea) last in first out b) first in first out c) random in random out d) none In flowchart which figure represents process like

subroutine|||| While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearinga) each instruction b) after interval of two instruction c) after a subroutine d) at the end of program. Answer: a) 93. In which error check technique of data communication 2?s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with dataa) Even parity b) odd parity c) check scans d) cyclic redundancy Answer: a) Program execution hierarchy decides which operatora) is most important b) is used first c) is fastest d) operators on largest number Answer: c) (375)10 = (?-)8 a) 550 b) 557 c) 567 d) 577 Answer: c) To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC requireda) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 Answer: d) A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.a) 10001 b) 01110 c)00111 d) 11100 Answer: a) Is the Universal logic gatea) AND b) OR c) NAND d) X-OR Answer: c)

A monostable state in multivibrator meansa) which returns itself to its single stable state b) the state used only once in circuit c) the state of circuit can not get changed d) the state of circuit always changing Answer: a) For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred a) T FF b) SR FF c) D FF d) JKFF Answer: c) His handwriting was not ?? so I could not read his note ? a) attractive b) eligible c) clear d) legible Answer: d) They started to ?? people into the theatre only at six a) enter b) admit c) follow d) accept Answer: a) I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word). a) ending b) ordinary c) durable d) cheap Answer: c) Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ?evident?a) doubtful b) unimportant c) disagreed d) understood Answer: a) I expressed by disagreement ?? him on that issuea) between b) with c) about d) for Answer: b)

?Sugarbowl? of the world is a) India b) Cuba c) Brazil d) USA Answer: b) Palk strait separatesa) India and Srilanka b) India and Burma c) Britain and France d) Malaysia and Sumatra Answer: a) The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element area) 1 b) 5 c) 2 d) 10 Tides in the sea are caused bya) Effect of sun b) Effect of moon c) combined effect of moon and sun d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces Answer: c) The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is a) 140 b) 200 c) 150 d) 100 Answer: c) Aswan Dam is located ina) Egypt b) Libya c) Sudan d) Iran Answer: a) Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of a)Rajasthan b)Madhya Pradesh c)Uttar Pradesh d)Maharashtra Answer: a) Dry ice isa) Frozen carbon monoxide b) Frozen carbon dioxide c) Frozen ammonia d) None of these Answer: b) East flower river of India is a) Cauvery

b) sone c) Narmada d) Tapti Answer: a) The total length of the great wall of China is ? a) 1,400 miles b) 1,500 miles c) 1,300 miles d) 1,400 miles Answer: a) Deficiency of vitamin C may result ina) beriberi b) night blindness c) dermatitis d) Scurvy Answer: d) Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a period of ? a) 11 months b) 2 years c) 18 months d) 15 months Answer: d) Indian local time is based ona) 800 E longitude b) E longitude c) 1100 E longitude d) 250 E longitude Answer: Can you Answer this? Which one is a good preservative of food? a) Spirit b) Formaldehyde c) Sugar Answer: b) RRB JUNIOR ENGINEERS PRACTICE QUESTIONS Railway Engineering Exam Solved Questions: 1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is: (a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm Ans : A 2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine? (a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box Ans : B 3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on: (a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents Ans : B 4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is: (a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m Ans : B

5. Generally the shape of fish plate is: (a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular Ans : B 6. The track capacity can be increased by: (a) Faster movement of trains on the track (b) By using more powerful engines (c) All the above (d) None of the above Ans : C 7. Detonating signals are used: (a) for noisy engines (b) during foggy and cloudy weather (c) for deaf drivers (d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only Ans : B 8. Wider gauge permits: (a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load (c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves Ans : C 9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called: (a) terminal station (b) flag station (c) way side station (d) junction station Ans : D 10. Points and crossings are provided for change of .on permanent ways. (a) gauge (b) direction and gradient (c) direction (d) gradient Ans : C 11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as: (a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart (c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart Ans: C 12. The most common system of signaling in India is the system. (a) automatic block (b) section clear system (c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system Ans : C 13. The feeder gauge . is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc. (a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m Ans : A 14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called: (a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve (c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve Ans : B 15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called: (a) branch track (b) points and crossing (c) main or through track (d) all above Ans : C 16. An expansion gap of . is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature. (a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm (c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm

Ans : C 17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track: (a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt Ans : B 18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called: (a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient Ans : B 19. In locomotive hunting is: (a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track (b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track (c) Motion after brakes have been applied (d) Combination of A and B above Ans : D 20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called: (a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails (c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails Ans : A 21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be: (a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m Ans : B 22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than: (a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 Ans : A 23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be: (a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm Ans : C 24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is: (a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM (c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM Ans : B 5. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called (a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient Ans : D 26. The latest system of signaling introduced is: (a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system (c) section clear system (d) automatic block system Ans : A 27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is: (a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400 Ans : D 28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called: (a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance (c) friction (d) Tractive resistance Ans : D 29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6 Ans : A

30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called: (a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway (c) Railway (d) Tube railway Ans : D 31. The creep in rails is measured in: (a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm Ans : B 32. The art of providing an outward slope of . to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels. (a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20 Ans : D 33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are: (a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers (c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable Ans : C 34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as: (a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard (c) marshalling yard (d) station yard Ans : C 35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life? (a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine (c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine And : B 36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as: (a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare Ans : A 37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than ., should not be used on any track under any circumstances. (a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20% Ans : C 38. A dynamometer car is used for: (a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities (c) Inspection of administrative officers (d) Recording the condition of track Ans : D 39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as: (a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct Ans : C 40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as: (a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch (c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch Ans : B 41. In railways, super elevation is provided to: (a) facilitate drainage (b) counteract the centrifugal push (c) counteract the centripetal pull

(d) have all the effects mentioned above Ans : B 42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as: (a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails Ans : B 43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is: (a) Tapered with flange on outside (b) Parallel with flange on inside (c) Tapered with flange on inside (d) Parallel with flange on outside Ans : C 44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be: (a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable Ans : C 45. Sand is used as ballast incase of: (a) steel sleepers (b) wooden sleepers (c) reinforced concrete sleepers (d) cast iron sleepers Ans : D 46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called: (a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals (c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals Ans : C 47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called: (a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway (c) Mono railway (d) Railway Ans : B 48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using: (a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors Ans : D 49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is: (a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg Ans : A 50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called: (a) running line (b) loop line (c) main line (d) none are correct Ans : B

RRB Engineering Solved Question Papers 1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called: (a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve (c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve Ans : B 2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on: (a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents Ans : B 3. The track capacity can be increased by: (a) Faster movement of trains on the track

(b) By using more powerful engines (c) All the above (d) None of the above Ans : C 4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called: (a) terminal station (b) flag station (c) way side station (d) junction station Ans : D 5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is: (a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm Ans : A 6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as: (a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart (c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart Ans: C 7. The most common system of signaling in India is the system. (a) automatic block (b) section clear system (c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system Ans : C 8. The feeder gauge . is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc. (a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m Ans : A 9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track: (a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt Ans : B 10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called: (a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient Ans : B 11. Points and crossings are provided for change of .on permanent ways. (a) gauge (b) direction and gradient (c) direction (d) gradient Ans : C 12. In locomotive hunting is: (a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track (b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track (c) Motion after brakes have been applied (d) Combination of A and B above Ans : D 13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called: (a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails (c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails Ans : A 14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is: (a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m Ans : B 15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:

(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m Ans : B 16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than: (a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m Ans : A 17. Generally the shape of fish plate is: (a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular Ans : B 18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be: (a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm Ans : C 69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is: (a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM (c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM Ans : B 20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called (a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient (c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient Ans : D 21. The latest system of signaling introduced is: (a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system (c) section clear system (d) automatic block system Ans : A 22. Detonating signals are used: (a) for noisy engines (b) during foggy and cloudy weather (c) for deaf drivers (d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only Ans : B 23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6 Ans : A 24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called: (a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway (c) Railway (d) Tube railway Ans : D 25. The art of providing an outward slope of . to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels. (a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20 Ans : D 26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are: (a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers (c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable Ans : C 27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as: (a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch (c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch Ans : B 28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:

(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard (c) marshalling yard (d) station yard Ans : C 29. Wider gauge permits: (a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load (c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves Ans : C 30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life? (a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine (c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine And : B 31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as: (a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare Ans : A 32. The creep in rails is measured in: (a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm Ans : B 33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than ., should not be used on any track under any circumstances. (a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20% Ans : C 34. In railways, super elevation is provided to: (a) facilitate drainage (b) counteract the centrifugal push (c) counteract the centripetal pull (d) have all the effects mentioned above Ans : B 35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called: (a) running line (b) loop line (c) main line (d) none are correct Ans : B 36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as: (a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails Ans : B 37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is: (a) Tapered with flange on outside (b) Parallel with flange on inside (c) Tapered with flange on inside (d) Parallel with flange on outside Ans : C 38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is: (a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400 Ans : D 39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called: (a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance (c) friction (d) Tractive resistance Ans : D 4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be: (a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable Ans : C 41. Sand is used as ballast incase of: (a) steel sleepers (b) wooden sleepers

(c) reinforced concrete sleepers (d) cast iron sleepers Ans : D 42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called: (a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals (c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals Ans : C 43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called: (a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway (c) Mono railway (d) Railway Ans : B 44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as: (a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct Ans : C 45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using: (a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors Ans : D 46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called: (a) branch track (b) points and crossing (c) main or through track (d) all above Ans : C 47. An expansion gap of . is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature. (a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm (c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm Ans : C 48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is: (a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg Ans : A 49. A dynamometer car is used for: (a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities (c) Inspection of administrative officers (d) Recording the condition of track Ans : D 50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine? (a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box Ans : B

RRB Junior Engineer (Electrical) Model Question Papers 1. A resistance of 10 ohm is connected across a supply of 200V. If resistance R is now connected in parallel with a 10 ohm resistance, the current drawn from the supply gets doubled. The value of unknown resistance R is (a) 5 ohm (b) 20 ohm (c) 10 ohm (d) 15 ohm Ans : c 2. Kirchhoffs first law is also called as

(a) voltage law (b) Current law (c) Mesh Current law (d) All the above Ans : b 3. Find the total resistance when four 3 Ohm resistance are connected in series (a) 3 ohm (b) 12 ohm (c) 14 ohm (d) 8 ohm Ans : b 4. The practical unit of power is (a) Joule (b) Ampere (c) Watt (d) Weber Ans : c 5. Form factor of a sine wave is (a) 1.414 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 1.11 Ans : d 6. The unit of resistance is (a) Mho (b) ohm-m (c) Ohms (d) Amps Ans :c 7. Unit of impedance is (a) Ampere (b) Volt (c) Ohm (d) mho Ans : c 8. The close path of the flux around any current carrying circuit is referred as Circuit. (a) Magnetic (b) Electric (c) Electromagnetic (d) None of these Ans : a 9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is due to the existence of (a) mmf (b) emf (c) Resistance (d) Reluctance Ans : b 10. The magnetic flux flow through a magnetic circuit is due to (a) mmf (b) emf (c) Resistance (d) Reluctance Ans : a 11. The on-line UPS is also called as a. Stand-by UPS b. Line Interactive UPS c. Off line UPS d. Current line UPS Ans. b 12. ________ is used to convert alternating current to direct current. a. Transformer

b. Diode c. Resistor d. Transistor Ans. b 13. The supply voltage varies sinusoid ally and has a frequency __________ Hz. a. 60 b. 50 c. 20 d. 10 Ans. b 14. Expression for magneto-motive force is (a) N/I (b) 1/NI (c) I/N (d) IN Ans : d 15. Unit of mmf is (a) Ampere /Volt (b) Ampere- turns (c) Volt (d) Volt/Ampere Ans : b 16. Magnetic field strength is equal to (a) mmf. L (b) L/ mmf (c) mmf/ L (d) 1/mmf.L Ans : c 17. Peak inverse voltage of bridge rectifier is as that of centre-tap circuit. a. Same b. Twice c. Half d. Four times Ans. c 18. Peak Resistance of the diode is increased when a. Forward biased b. Reverse biased c. Both forward and reverse biased d. Either a or b Ans. b 19. The number of lines of force passing through the secondary coil S when unit current changes in the primary coil P are called (a) Self inductance (b) Mutual inductance (c) Self induction (d) Mutual induction Ans : c 20. Unit of flux (a) Amp- turns (b) Weber (c) Volts (d) Amps Ans : b Engineeers India Limited(EIL) Latest Technical Questions for new Management Trainee Exam -2012 Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is

(A) conductively linked. (B) inductively linked. (C) not linked at all. (D) electrically linked. Ans : B

Ans: A Q.7 The generation voltage is usually (A) between 11 KV and 33 KV.

Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will (A) come to stop. (B) continue to run at synchronous speed. (C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed. (D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed. Ans: B Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because (A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed. (B) it will fail to start. (C) it will not develop high starting torque. (D) all are true. Ans: A Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about (A) 50 Hz. (B) 20 Hz. (C) 2 Hz. (D) Zero. Ans: C Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement (A) can be precisely controlled. (B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller. (C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled. (D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines. Ans: A Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is (A) low at light load only. (B) low at heavy load only. (C) low at light and heavy load both. (D) low at rated load only.

(B) between 132 KV and 400 KV. (C) between 400 KV and 700 KV. (D) None of the above. Ans: A Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces (A) damping torque. (B) eddy current torque. (C) torque aiding the developed torque. (D) no torque. Ans: D Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be (A) A square wave. (B) A sine wave. (C) A triangular wave. (D) A pulse wave. Ans: A Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to (A) Ia . (B) I2a . (C)I/1a (D)1/l2a Ans: B Q.11 In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip s the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is (A) ( ) s 1 Pg . (B) Pg/(1 - s) (C) (1 s) Pg . (D) s Pg . Ans: C Q.12 In a 3 phase induction motor the maximum torque (A) is proportional to rotor resistance r .

(B) does not depend on r . (C) is proportional tosqrt( r ). (D) is proportional to r2 . Ans: B Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is (A) stationary w.r.t. armature. (B) rotating w.r.t. field. (C) stationary w.r.t. field.

zero for a (A) dc machine. (B) 3 phase induction machine. (C) synchronous machine. (D) single phase induction machine. Ans: all options are correct Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through (A) slip rings.

(D) rotating w.r.t. brushes. (B) commutator segments. Ans: C (C) solid connections. Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at (A) unity p.f. (B) leading p.f. (C) lagging p.f. (A) squirrel cage induction motor. (D) zero p.f. leading. (B) wound rotor induction motor. Ans: B (C) synchronous motor. Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of (D) 90'0 ,< 90'0 . Q.21 A hysteresis motor Ans: D (A) is not a self-starting motor. Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be (A) 3.6 V. (B) 2.5 V. (C) 3.0 V. (D) 6.0 V. Ans: C Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer (A) is in phase with the flux. (B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree. (C) leads the flux by 90 degree. (D) is in phase opposition to that of flux. Ans: C Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is (B) is a constant speed motor. (C) needs dc excitation. (D) can not be run in reverse speed. Ans: B Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is (A) a dc series motor. (B) a dc shunt motor. (C) an ac two-phase induction motor. (D) an ac series motor. Ans: B Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the (A) operating voltage. (B) power factor. (C) current to be carried. (D) DC shunt motor. Ans: C (D) carbon brushes. Ans: C Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading powerfactors is the

(D) type of insulation used. Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is (A) electric arc heating

Q.28 A stepper motor is (A) a dc motor. (B) a single-phase ac motor. (C) a multi-phase motor. (D) a two phase motor.

(B) induction heating Ans: D (C) electric resistance heating(C) electric resistance heating (D) dielectric heating Ans: C Q.25 A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor. When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is (A) 1500 r.p.m. (B) 1425 r.p.m. (C) 25 r.p.m. (D) 75 r.p.m. Ans: D NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425 relative speed = 1500 1425 = 75 rpm Q.26 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be (A) less. (B) more. (C) more or less. (D) the same. Ans: B Q.27 Over excitation gives leading power factor and under excitation gives lagging p.f . A ceiling fan uses (A) split-phase motor. (B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor. (C) universal motor. (D) capacitor start motor. Ans: D Q.29 The sheath is used in cable to (A) provide strength to the cable. (B) provide proper insulation. (C) prevent the moisture from entering the cable. (D) avoid chances of rust on strands. Ans: A Q.30 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a (A) dc motor. (B) induction motor. (C) synchronous motor. (D) universal motor. Ans: D Q.31 A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals (A) 0.2 Amp. (B) 5 Amps. (C) 10 Amps. (D) 20 Amps. Ans: A Q.32 A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are (A) 4. (B) 6. (C) 12. (D) 8. Ans: A Q.33 In a 3-phase synchronous motorQ.33 In a 3phase synchronous motor (A) the speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF.

(B) the speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF. (C) the speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of rotor MMF is zero. (D) rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other. Ans: D Q34.In a capacitor start single-phase induction motor,the capacitor is connected (A) in series with main winding. (B) in series with auxiliary winding. (C) in series with both the windings. (D) in parallel with auxiliary winding. Ans: B Q35.A synchro has (A) a 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase winding on stator. (B) a 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor. (C) a 3-phase winding on stator and a singlephase winding on rotor. (D) a single-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor. Ans: C Q.36 As the voltage of transmission increases, the volume of conductor (A) increases. (B) does not change. (C) decreases. (D) increases proportionately. Ans: C Q.37 The size of the feeder is determined primarily by (A) the current it is required to carry. (B) the percent variation of voltage in the feeder. (C) the voltage across the feeder. (D) the distance of transmission. Ans: A Q. 38 The boundary of the protective zone is determined by the (A) Location of CT

(B) sensitivity of relay used (C) Location of PT (D) None of these Ans: B Q.39 In a three phase transformer, if the primary side is connected in star and secondary side is connected in delta, what is the angle difference between phase voltage in the two cases. (A) delta side lags by -30. (B) star side lags by -30. (C) delta side leads by 30. (D) star side leads by -30. Ans: C Q.40 This is vector group and has +30 displacement. Therefore, delta side leads by +30. Q.43 To achieve low PT error, the burden value should be ____________. (A) low (B) high (C) medium (D) none of the above Ans: A Q.41 Slip of the induction machine is 0.02 and the stator supply frequency is 50 Hz. What will be the frequency of the rotor induced emf? (A) 10 Hz. (B) 50 Hz. (C)1 Hz. (D) 2500 Hz. Ans:c Q.42 A 4 pole lap wound dc shunt motor rotates at the speed of 1500 rpm, has a flux of 0.4 mWb and the total number of conductors are 1000. What is the value of emf? (A) 100 Volts. (B) 0.1 Volts. (C) 1 Volts. (D) 10 Volts. Ans: D

Q.43 The synchronous reactance of the synchronous machine is ______________. (A) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short circuit current at constant fieldcurrent (B) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open circuit current at constant field current (C) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short circuit current at different field current (D) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open circuit current at different field current Ans. A Q.44 A 3 stack stepper motor with 12 numbers of rotor teeth has a step angle of ____________. (A) 12 (B) 8 (C) 24 (D) 10 Ans. D Q.45 In case of a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by _________. (A) load inertia (B) rotor inertia

(B) continue to run at synchronous speed. (C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed. (D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed. Ans: B Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because (A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed. (B) it will fail to start. (C) it will not develop high starting torque. (D) all are true. Ans: A Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about (A) 50 Hz. (B) 20 Hz. (C) 2 Hz.

(C) both rotor and load inertia (D) Zero. (D) none of the above Ans: C HAL TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ,HAL electronics and electrical questions and answers, Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is (A) conductively linked. (B) inductively linked. (C) not linked at all. (D) electrically linked. Ans : B Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will (A) come to stop. Ans: C Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement (A) can be precisely controlled. (B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller. (C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled. (D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines. Ans: A Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is (A) low at light load only. (B) low at heavy load only. (C) low at light and heavy load both. (D) low at rated load only.

(D) low at rated load only. Ans: A Q.7 The generation voltage is usually

Ans: C Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at (A) unity p.f.

(A) between 11 KV and 33 KV. (B) leading p.f. (B) between 132 KV and 400 KV. (C) lagging p.f. (C) between 400 KV and 700 KV. (D) zero p.f. leading. (D) None of the above. Ans: B Ans: A Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces (A) damping torque. (B) eddy current torque. (C) torque aiding the developed torque. (D) no torque. Ans: D Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be (A) A square wave. Ans: C (B) A sine wave. (C) A triangular wave. (D) A pulse wave. Ans: A Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to Q.11 In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip s the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is Q.12 In a 3 phase induction motor the maximum torque Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is (A) stationary w.r.t. armature. (B) rotating w.r.t. field. (C) stationary w.r.t. field. (D) rotating w.r.t. brushes. Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer (A) is in phase with the flux. (B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree. (C) leads the flux by 90 degree. (D) is in phase opposition to that of flux. Ans: C Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a (A) dc machine. (B) 3 phase induction machine. (C) synchronous machine. (C) synchronous machine. (D) single phase induction machine. Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be (A) 3.6 V. (B) 2.5 V. (C) 3.0 V. (D) 6.0 V. Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of

Ans: all options are correct Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through (A) slip rings.

(A) electric arc heating (B) induction heating (C) electric resistance heating (D) dielectric heating

(B) commutator segments. Ans: C (C) solid connections. (D) carbon brushes. Ans: C Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the (A) squirrel cage induction motor. (B) less than 4.5%. (B) wound rotor induction motor. (C) more than 4.5%. (C) synchronous motor. D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%. (D) DC shunt motor. Ans: C Q.21 A hysteresis motor (A) is not a self-starting motor. (B) is a constant speed motor. (C) needs dc excitation. (D) can not be run in reverse speed. Ans: B Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is (A) a dc series motor. (B) a dc shunt motor. (C) an ac two-phase induction motor. (D) an ac series motor. Ans: B Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the (A) operating voltage. (B) power factor. (C) current to be carried. (D) type of insulation used. Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant. The resulting approximate variation in speed '' and armature current I' ' a will be (A) Both and aI are doubled. (B) is constant and a I is doubled. (C) is doubled while a I is halved. (D) is constant but Ans: B Q.27 A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor. When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Ans: D 1500 r.p (A) 1500 r.p.m. (B) 1425 r.p.m. (C) 25 r.p.m. (D) 75 r.p.m. power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be (A) 4.5%. Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load nand unity

Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is

required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be (A) less. (B) more. (C) more or less. (D) the same. Ans: B Q.29 A ceiling fan uses (A) split-phase motor. (B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor. (C) universal motor. (D) capacitor start motor. Ans: D To give starting torque and to maintain speed. Q.30 A stepper motor is (A) a dc motor. (B) a single-phase ac motor. (C) a multi-phase motor. (D) a two phase motor. Ans: D Stepper motor works on 1-phase-ON or 2-phase ON modes of operation Q.31 The sheath is used in cable to (A) provide strength to the cable. B) provide proper insulation. (C) prevent the moisture from entering the cable. (D) avoid chances of rust on strands. Ans: A

(C) synchronous motor. (D) universal motor. Ans: D Q.33 A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals (A) 0.2 Amp. (B) 5 Amps. (C) 10 Amps. (D) 20 Amps. Ans: A I1= V1 /R1 = 120/600 = 0.2 ( = 100%, losses are zero V1 = VR = I1R1) Q.34 A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at the terminal voltage of 220V. If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line of 20A from 220V supply. The speed of the machine as a motor will be (A) 800 rpm. (B) more than 800 rpm. (C) less than 800 rpm. (D) both higher or lower than 800 rpm.(D) both higher or lower than 800 rpm. Ans: C Ng= Eg (60A / pz) Eg = V + Ia Ra ; in generator Nm= Eb (60A / pz) Eb = V - Ia Ra ; in motor Eg > E b for same terminal voltage Therefore, Ng > N m Q.35 A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are

The sheath in underground cable is provided to give mechanical strength. Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a (A) dc motor. (B) induction motor.

A) 4. (B) 6. (C) 12. (D) 8.

Ans: A N= Ns (1-S) = NS NS x S 1440 = Ns (1-S) Ns = 1440 / (1-S) Ns = (120 f/ p) = 120 x 50/p = 6000 p Nswill be closer to N i.e 1440 When P=2 ; Ns = 3000 rpm , not close to N When P=4 ; Ns = 1500 rpm , it is closer to N Q. 36 In a 3-phase synchronous motor (A) the speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF. (B) the speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF. (C) the speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of rotor MMF is zero. (D) rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other. Ans: D Because, Motor is magnetically locked into position with stator, the rotor poles are engaged with stator poles and both run synchronously in same direction Therefore, rotor & stator mmf are stationary w.r.t each other.

(B) a 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor. (C) a 3-phase winding on stator and a singlephase winding on rotor. (D) a single-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor. Ans: C Synchros : The basic synchro unit called a synchro transmitter. Its construction similar to that of a Three phase alternator. Q.39 As the voltage of transmission increases, the volume of conductor (A) increases. (B) does not change. (C) decreases. (D) increases proportionately. Ans: C Decreases due to skin effect. Q.40 The size of the feeder is determined primarily by (A) the current it is required to carry. (B) the percent variation of voltage in the feeder. (C) the voltage across the feeder. (D) thedistance oftransmission. Ans: A

Q.37 In a capacitor start single-phase induction motor, the capacitor is connected (A) in series with main winding. (B) in series with auxiliary winding. (C) in series with both the windings. (D) in parallel with auxiliary winding. Ans: B To make single phase motor self start. We split the phases at 90 degree. Hence, motor behaves like a two phase motor. Q.38 A synchro has (A) a 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase winding on stator. IOCL PART - I TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is (A) conductively linked. (B) inductively linked. (C) not linked at all. (D) electrically linked. Ans : B Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will (A) come to stop.

(B) continue to run at synchronous speed. (C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed. (D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed. Ans: B Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because (A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed. (B) it will fail to start. (C) it will not develop high starting torque. (D) all are true. Ans: A Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about (A) 50 Hz. (B) 20 Hz. (C) 2 Hz. (D) Zero. Ans: C Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement

(A) between 11 KV and 33 KV. (B) between 132 KV and 400 KV. (C) between 400 KV and 700 KV. (D) None of the above. Ans: A Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces (A) damping torque. (B) eddy current torque. (C) torque aiding the developed torque. (D) no torque. Ans: D Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be (A) A square wave. (B) A sine wave. (C) A triangular wave. (D) A pulse wave. Ans: A Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to (A)1a

(A) can be precisely controlled. (B)12a (B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller. (C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled. (D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines. Ans: A Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is (A) low at light load only. (B) low at heavy load only. (C) low at light and heavy load both. (D) low at rated load only. Ans: A Q.7 The generation voltage is usually (C)1/1a (D)1/12a Ans: B Q.11 In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip s the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is (A)(s-1)Pg (B)Pg/1-S (C)1-SPg-Answer (D)S.Pg. In a 3 phase induction motor the maximum torque (A) is proportional to rotor resistance (B) does not depend on (C) is proportional to

(D) is proportional to Q.13In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is (A) stationary w.r.t. armature.

Ans: all options are correct Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through (A) slip rings.

(B) rotating w.r.t. field. (B) commutator segments. (C) stationary w.r.t. field. (C) solid connections. (D) rotating w.r.t. brushes. (D) carbon brushes. Ans: C Ans: C Q.14In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at (A) unity p.f. (A) squirrel cage induction motor. (B) leading p.f. (B) wound rotor induction motor. (C) lagging p.f. (C) synchronous motor. (D) zero p.f. leading. (D) DC shunt motor. Ans: B Ans: C Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be (A) 3.6 V. (B) 2.5 V. (C) 3.0 V. (D) 6.0 V. Ans: C Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer (A) is in phase with the flux. (B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree. (C) leads the flux by 90 degree. (D) is in phase opposition to that of flux. Ans: C Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a (A) dc machine. (B) 3 phase induction machine. (C) synchronous machine. (D) single phase induction machine. Q.21 A hysteresis motor (A) is not a self-starting motor. (B) is a constant speed motor. (C) needs dc excitation. (D) can not be run in reverse speed. Ans: B Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is (A) a dc series motor. (B) a dc shunt motor. (C) an ac two-phase induction motor. (D) an ac series motor. Ans: B Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the (A) operating voltage. (B) power factor. (C) current to be carried. (D) type of insulation used. Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the

(A) electric arc heating (B) induction heating (B) induction heating (C) electric resistance heating (D) dielectric heating Ans: C Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be (A) 4.5%. (B) less than 4.5%. (C) more than 4.5%. (D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%. Ans: C POWER SYSTEMS 1. For low head and high discharge the hydraulic turbine used is a) Francis turbine b) Kaplan turbine c) Pelton wheel d) none of the above ans: b 2. A Kaplan turbine is a) In ward flow, impulse turbine b) Outward flow reaction turbine c) A high head mixed flow turbine d) Low head axial flow turbine ans: d 3. An hydro-graph indicates a) The discharge at any time during the period under consideration b) The max. and min. runoff during the period c) The average run off during the period d) all the above ans: d 4. As compared to steam-station ,hydroelectric stations have : a) More cost of installation b) Less maintenance and fuel cost c) both (a) and (b) d) Low depreciation charges. ans: c 5. The rotor used in alternators of hydroelectric station is a) Cylindrical rotor

b) Salient pole rotor c) Non salient pole rotor d) Round rotor with ac excitation ans: b 6. The cost of fuel transportation is minimum in ______ plant. a) Thermal b) Nuclear c) Hydro d) Diesel ans: c 7. Which of the following generating stations has minimum running cost. a) Thermal b) Nuclear c) Hydro d) none of these ans: c 8. Which of the following plants have the highest capital cost a) Nuclear b) Diesel c) Thermal d) none ans: a 9. For harnessing low variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is a) Kaplan b) Francis c) Pelton d) Impeller ans: a 10. In a Thermal power plant, the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using a) H.P. steam b) L.P. steam c) direct heat in the furnace d) flue gases ans: d ANALOG ELECTRONICS 1 11. Notch is also called as a) band-pass filter b) low-pass filter c) high-pass filter d) narrow-band reject filter ans: d 12. The filter which exhibits ac equiripple in the pass-band and monotonic characteristic in stop band is a) Buttorworth b) Chebyshev c) Bessel d) Elliptic ans: a 13. A multiplier which can accept input

voltages of either polarity and can produce output voltage of both polarities is called a) Bi-quadrant multiplier b) four quadrant multiplier c) two quadrant multiplier d) one quadrant multiplier ans: c 14. A multiplier is derived using two logarithmic amplifiers and and antilog amplifier . One more section required is a) multiplier b) adder c) subtractor d) divider ans: b 15. A frequency multiplier usually operates in a) push-pull b) class A c) class B d) class C ans: d 16. FSK demodulation is an application of a) PLL b) timer c) BPF d) none of the above ans: a 17. An oscillator whose frequency is changed by a variable dc voltage is known as a) a crystal oscillator b) a VCO c) an Armstrong oscillator d) a piezoelectric device ans: b 18. The integrated circuit chip NE/SE 566 is a a) Schmitt trigger b) power amplifier c) video amplifier d) voltage controlled oscillator ans: d 19. For a step input , the output of an integrator is a) a pulse b) a triangular waveform c) a spike d) a ramp ans: d 20. The damping factor of a second order active low pass filter to give butterworth response is a) 1.732 b) 1.414 c) 0.707 d) none of the above ans: b ELECTRONIC COMPONENTS AND DEVICES 1 11. The depletion region or space charge region or transition region in a semiconductor P-N junction diode has a) electron and holes. b) positive ions and electrons. c) positive ions and negative ions.

d) no ions, electron or holes. ans. c 12. In a p+ n junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of electric field is maximum at a) the edge of the depletion region on the pside. b) the edge of the depletion region on the nside. c) the p+n junction. d) the centre of the depletion region on the nside. ans. c 13. A p-n junction has a built-in potential of 0.8 V. The depletion layer width at a reverse bias of 1.2V is the 2 micrometer. For a reverse bias of 7.2V , the depletion layer width will be a) 4 micrometer b) 4.9 micrometer c) 8 micrometer d) 12 micrometer ans. a 14. At 300 K for a diode current of 1mA , a certain germanium diode requires a forward bias of 0.1435 V, whereas a certain silicon diode requires a forward bias of 0.718 V, Under the conditions stated above , the closest approximation of the ratio of reverse saturation current in germanium diode to that in silicon diode is a) 1 b) 5 c) 4 x 10 d) 8 x 10 ans. c 15. A silicon PN junction at a temperature of 20 C has a reverse saturation current of 10 pico-Amperes (pA). The reverse saturation current at 40 C for same bias is approximately a) 30 pA b) 40 pA c) 50 pA d) 60 pA ans. b 16. Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction ? a) Junction Capacitance b) Charge Storage-Capacitance c) Depletion Capacitance d) Channel Length Modulation. ans. d 17. As the temperature is increased, the voltage across a diode carrying a constant current a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant. d) may increase or decrease depending on the doping levels in the junction. ans. b 18. Choose proper substitutes of X and Y to make the following statement correct. Tunnel diode and Avalanche diode are operated in X bias and Y bias respectively a) X- reverse ,Y-reverse

b) X-reverse, Y -forward c) X-forward, Y- reverse d) X-forward, Y-forward ans. c 19. Consider the following assertions. S1- For zener effect to occur, a very abrupt junction is required. S2- For quantum tunneling to occur , a very narrow energy barrier is required. which of the following is correct? a) Only S2 is true. b) S1 and S2 are both true but S2 is not a reason for S1 c) S1 and S2 are both true and S2 is a reason for S1. d) Both S1 and S2 are false. ans. a 20. A dc power supply has a no-load voltage of 30 V, and a full-load voltage of 25 V at a full load-current of 1A. Its output resistance and load regulation , respectively are a) 5 ohm and 20 % b) 25 ohm and 20% c) 5 ohm and 16.7% d) 25 ohm and 16.7 % ans. b AC MACHINES 1 11. The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistance load a) is strictly constant with load changes b) increases linearly with load c) increases as the square root of the load d) decreases with increase of load ans: a 12. In a transformer , zero voltage regulation at full load is a) not possible b) possible at unity power factor load c) possible at leading power factor load d) possible at lagging power factor load ans: c 13. A single phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at full load and unity power factor. Efficiency at half load at the same power factor is a) 86.7% b) 88.26 % c) 88.9% d) 87.8% ans: d 14. The main purpose of performing opencircuit on a transformer is to measure its a) copper loss b) core loss c) total loss d) insulation resistance ans: b 15. The desirable properties of transformer core material are a) low permeability and low hysteresis loss b) high permeability and high hysteresis loss

c) high permeability and low hysteresis loss d) low permeability and high hysteresis loss ans: c 16. The all -day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on a) its copper loss b) the amount of load c) duration of load d) both b and c ans: d 17. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design a) reduces the weight per KVA b) increases the weight per KVA c) has no relation with the weight of transformer d) none of the above ans: a 18. What does the the use of higher flux density in the transformer design a) Increase the weight per KVA b) Decrease in weight per KVA c) Reduced iron losses d) Reduced copper losses ans. b 19. Cores of large power transformers are made from which one of the following ? a) Hot-rolled steel b) Cold-rolled non-grain oriented steel. c) Cold-rolled grain oriented steel d) Ferrite. ans. c 20. Grain oriented laminated sheel steel in transformer reduces a) copper loss b) eddy current loss c) hysteresis loss d) none of the above ans. c AC BASICS AND NETWORKS 1 11. Unit of reactive power is a) VA b) watt c) VAR d) ohm ans: c 12. An ac source of 200V rms supplies active power of 600 W and reactive power of 800 VAR. The rms current drawn from the source is a) 10 A b) 5 A c) 3.75 A d) 2.5 A ans: b 13. With the increase in applied frequency , the dielectric loss in a material will a) increase b) decrease c) remains constant d) becomes zero ans: a

14. In a ac series RLC circuit , the voltage across R and L is 20 V, the voltage across L and C is 9 V and voltage and voltage across RLC is 15 V , What is the voltage across C? a) 7V b) 12 V c) 16 V d) 21 V ans: a 15. The quantity (2 + j9) represents the resistive and reactive components of current drawn by an ac circuit. The phase angle between the applied voltage and current is a) 41.4' b) 53.13' c) 36.87' d) 46.86' ans: c 16. Under the condition resonance in R-L-C series circuit, the pf of the circuit is a) 0.5 lagging b) 0.5 leading c) unity d) zero ans: c 17. In a series RLC circuit at resonance , the magnitude of voltage developed across the capacitor a) is always zero b) can never be greater that the input voltage c) can be greater than the input voltage however, it is 90 degrees out of phase with the input voltage d) can be greater than the input voltage and is in phase with the input voltage. ans: c 18. A series R-L-C circuit , the maximum voltage across the capacitor occurs at a frequency a) double the resonant frequency b) equal to resonant frequency c) below the resonant frequency d) none of the above ans: c 19. In a series R-L-C circuit , the voltage across inductance will be maximum a) at resonant frequency b) just after resonant frequency c) just before resonant frequency d) just before and after resonant frequency ans: b 20. For a series R-L-C circuit , the power factor at the lower power frequency is a) 0.5 lagging b) 0.5 leading c) unity d) 0.707 leading ans: d AC BASICS AND NETWORKS 2

21. Q-factor of as series R-LC circuit possessing resonant frequency of 10 Hz and bandwidth of 5 Hz is a) 0.5 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 50 ans: b 22. When Q-factor of a circuit is high , then a) power factor of the circuit is high b) impedance of the circuit is high c) bandwidth is large d) none of the above ans: b 23. A high Q coil has a) large bandwidth b) high losses c) low losses d) flat response ans: c 24. A coil is tuned to resonance at 500 kHz with a resonating capacitor of 36 pf at 250 kHz , the resonance is obtained with resonating capacitor of 160 pf .What is the selfcapacitance of the coil? a) 2.66 pf b) 5.33 pf c) 8 pf d) 10.66 pf ans: b DC MACHINES 1. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electro mechanical energy conversion system act in a direction that tends a) to increase the stored energy at constant flux b) to decrease the stored energy at constant flux c) to decrease the coenergy at constant mmf. d) to decrease the stored energy at constant mmf ans: b 2. For a linear electromagnetic circuit, the following statement is true a) Field energy is equal to the coenergy b) Field energy is greater than the coenergy c) Field energy is lesser than the coenergy d) Coenergy is zero ans: a 3. In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the developed torque depends upon a) stator field strength and torque angle b) stator field and rotor field strengths c) stator field and rotor field strengths and torque angle d) stator field only

ans: c 4. In electro mechanical energy conversion devices , a small air gap is left between the stator and rotor in order to a) reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path b) increase flux density in the air gap c) permit mechanical clearance d) none of the above ans: c 5. A rotating electrical machine having its self inductance of both stator and rotor winding's, independent of rotor position will definitely not develop a) starting torque b) synchronizing torque c) hysteresis torque d) reluctance torque ans: b 6. A circular metallic disc is placed in a vertical magnetic field of constant induction in the downward direction. If the disc is rotated in a horizontal plane , the emf induced will be a) zero b) constant independent of disc size c) increasing radically in the outward direction d) decreasing radically in the outward direction ans: a 7. The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is a) dc b) ac c) dc and ac both d) none of these ans: b 25. A R-L-C resonant circuit has a resonance frequency of 1.5 MHz and a bandwidth of 10kHz . If c= 150pf, then the effective resistance of the circuit will be a) 29.5 ohm b) 14.75 ohm c) 9.4 ohm d) 4.7ohm ans: d ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN 1. For a soft magnetic material there will be a) steeply rising magnetization curve. b) relatively narrow and small hysteresis loop. c) less energy loss per cycle of magnetization. d) all the above. 2. Silicon content in iron lamination is kept within 5% as it a) increases hysteresis loss. b) increases cost. c) makes the material brittle.

d) reduces the curie point. ans: c 3. For under frequency operation the eddy current loss a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains unchanged. d) cannot be predicted. ans: a. 4. What is the suitable shape of plunger magnet to give almost flat forcestroke characteristics? a) Flat faced . b) Conical. c) Stepped. d) Tapered. ans: d. 5. In a dc machine " contraction coefficient" is used to take into account the reduction of a) air-gap area due to armature slots. b) iron losses in the teeth due to lower tooth density. c) armature mmf due to armature slots. d) torque due to ventilating duets. ans: a 6. Carter's coefficient is applicable for estimating a) requirements of air-gap mmf. b) flux distribution in air gap. c) length of air gap. d) no-load loss. ans: a 7. A lap wound dc machine has 400 conductors and 8 poles. The voltage induced per conductor is 2 volts. The machine generates a voltage of a) 100 V b) 200 V c) 400 V d) 800 V ans: a 8. The yoke of a dc machine a) must be made of magnetic material. b) should preferably be made of magnetic material but can be of non-magnetic material. c) must be made of non-magnetic material. d) is partially made of magnetic material and partially made of non-magnetic material. ans: a. 9. The pole shoes of a dc machines a) are always laminated. b) are never laminated. c) are sometimes laminated. d) are partially laminated. ans: a

Ans: Greater 10. Poles of a dc machines are often laminated to a) reduce pulsation loss. b) reduce armature reaction. c) reduce iron weight. d) dissipate more heat. ans: a. 1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of a) Short lines only b) Medium lines only c) Long lines only d) Any line Ans: Long lines only 2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of a) BJT and MOSFET b) FCT and GTO c) SCR and MOSFET d) SCR and BJT Ans: BJT and MOSFET 3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the following conditions should be satisfied? a) Half controlled bridge, a 90, source of e.m.f. in load c) Full-controlled bridge, a > 90, source of e.m.f. in load d) Full-controlled bridge, a 90, source of e.m.f. in load 4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching application? a) Power MOSFET b) BJT c) SCR d) UJT Ans: Power MOSFET 5. In a thyristor Latching current is ________ than Holding current a) Equal b) Less c) Greater d) None a) Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding b) Both IW and CW are connected in parallel with Armature winding c) IW connected in series but CW is connected in parallel with Armature winding d) CW connected in series but IW is connected in parallel with Armature winding Ans: Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding 8. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 5mA in a circuit; its bottom control spring snaps out suddenly the meter will now read. a) 5mA b) 10mA c) 2.5mA d) 0 Ans: 0 9. A dc cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at rated speed. If series field is short circuited, then the armature current and speed will a) Both increases b) Both decreases c) Increases and decreases d) Decreases and increases Ans: Both increases 10. Moving coil in dynamometer wattmeter connected a) In series with fixed coil b) Across supply c) In series with load d) Across load 6. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s) when operating as a unity feedback system, the steady state error to a step input will be a) 0 b) 1/11 c) 10 d) Infinity Ans: 1/11 7. Which one of the following statements for a dc machine which is provided with inter pole winding (IW) as well as compensating winding (CW) is correct

Ans: Across supply 11. In an induction machine, if the air gap increased a) Speed will be reduced

a) Inductance, Inductance b) Inductance, Capacitance c) Capacitance, Inductance d) Resistance, Capacitance

b) Efficiency will be improved Ans: Inductance, Capacitance c) Power factor will be lowered d) Breakdown torque will be reduced Ans: Power factor will be lowered 12. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin 314t+45 deg)is examined with a line base settings of 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be a) 0.5 cycles b) 2.5 cycles c) 5 cycles d) 10 cycles Ans: 2.5 cycles 13. A 3-phase 50HZ SCIM takes a power input of 30 KW at its full load speed of 1440 rpm. Total stator losses are 1 KW. The slip and rotor ohmic losses at full load are a) 0.02, 600 W b) 0.04, 580 W c) 0.04, 1160 W d) 0.04, 1200 W Ans: 0.04, 1160 W 14. Thermocouple is used to measure a) AC b) DC c) Both d) None Ans: Both 15. The two watt meters measurement the ratio of two meter readings is (1-sqrt3):( 1+sqrt3) then the power factor is a) 1 b) 0.866 c) 0.707 d) 0 Ans: 0.707 16. Hays bridge is used to measure___________ and Schering bridge is used to measure____________ 17. When sine wave is given as input to Schmitt trigger then its generates a) Sine wave b) Saw tooth wave c) Triangle wave d) Square wave Ans: Square wave 18. In Gauss Seidel method the following factors are influenced for operation a) Acceleration factor b) Selection of slack buss c) Both d) None Ans: Selection of slack buss* 19. i. (X+Y) A. Low-pass filter function ii. (XY) B. Sum iii. (XY) C. NAND D. Carry E.NOR a) i-C, ii-E, iii-D b) i-C, ii-E, iii-B c) i-C, ii-B, iii-D d) i-C, ii-E, iii-A Ans: i-C, ii-E, iii-D 20. The phase lead compensation is used to a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot c) Increase both rise time and overshoot d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot Ans: Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

21. Voltage feed back amplifier is a a) Shunt-Shuntb) Shunt-Series c) Series-Shunt d) Series- Series Ans: Shunt-Shunt 22. In microprocessor the next instruction to be executed is stored in a) Program Counter b) Stack Pointer c) Memory Pointer d) Accumulator

a) b) c) d) Ans: 28. In dielectric measurement, the dielectric loss is proportional to a) F b) V c) I d) Vsqr Ans: Vsqr 29. G(s) = (1-s)/s(s+2) then closed loop transfer function is a) Unstableb) Stable

Ans: Program Counter c) Marginally stable 23. The following element retains it energy after source is disconnected a) Resister b) Inductor c) Capacitor a) Lead net work d) Thermistor b) Lag net work Ans: c) Lag Lead net work 24. In series RLC circuit at resonant d) Lead Lag net work a) Voltage is in phase with current Ans: Lag net work b) Current is maximum 31. Temperature of electrode in Arc furnace is c) Inductive reactance = Capacitive reactance a) 1000 deg d) All of the above b) 1500 deg Ans: All of the above c) 1500 deg to 3500 deg 25.For RC low pass filter R=100 K ohms, C= 5 micro farads then lower cutt of frequency is a) 1 K HZ b) 0 HZ c) 381.3 HZ d) Infinity Ans: a) Critical point 26. V=100Sin (1000t+46 deg), I=2Sin (1000t+80 deg) what are the elements in the circuit a) R=30 ohm, L=30 mH b) R=30 ohm, C=33.3 micro farads c) R=40 ohm, L=30 mH d) R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads Ans: R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads 27. L=10 mH, I=100Sin50t 0 b) Cut-off point c) d) Ans: 33. Nyquest stability is used to determine a) Absolute Stability b) Relative Stability d) 4500 deg Ans: 32. In bode plot the point which separates the lower and upper frequencies is called d) All Ans: Stable 30. G(s) = (1+0.5s)/(1+s) find which type of net work it is

c) Both d) None Ans: Both* 34. When 220V dc shunt alternator generating the voltage at rated value. If direction of rotation is reversed, then alternator will a) Build up its voltage with same polarity b) Build up its voltage with opposite polarity c) No build up of voltage d) None Ans: No build up of voltage 35. Over lap Angle depends on_________ a) Load inductance b) Loa capacitance c) Source inductance d) Source capacitance Ans: Source inductance 36. Area under speed time curve gives a) Time b) Speed c) Distance d) None Ans: Distance 37. The regulation of Short Transmission lines depends up ona) Distance of line b) Frequency c) Power factor d) All Ans: Power factor 38. Which of the following plant is having lowest load factor? a) Diesel Plant b) Pumped storage Plant c) Thermal Plant d) Nuclear Plant Ans: Diesel Plan 39. For SR latch whent the out put is undesirable a) 0, 0 b) 1, 0

c) 0, 1 d) 1, 1 Ans: 1, 1 40. For interrupting capacitive currents which Circuit Breaker (CB) is used a) SF6 CB b) Oil CB c) Vacuum CB d) Air blast CB Ans: Vacuum CB 41. For V/F control, when frequency is increased in transformer a) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current decreases b) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current increases c) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases d) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current increases Ans: Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases 42. In ceiling fan the angle between auxiliary winding a main winding is a) 0 deg b) 90 deg c) 180 deg d) 360 deg Ans: 90 deg 43. In a shaded pole motor, shaded rings are used to a) Field flux production b) c) d) Ans: Field flux production 44. Practical method of improving string efficiency a) Increasing crass arms length b) Using different size of insulators c) Using different insulator materials

d) Using of guard rings Ans: Increasing crass arms length* 45. In which type of fault all 3-phase components are equala) L-G b) L-L

a) Skewing of rotor b) Distribution winding c) Short pitch winding d) All of the above Ans: All of the above

c) L-L-G d) 3-Phase fault Ans: 3-Phase fault 46. 11/220 KV 100 MVA transformers, the primary base voltage rating is 10 KV then secondary base KV is a) 10 KV b) 220 KV c) 220/sqrt3 d) Ans: 220/sqrt3* 47. Water hamming effect is occurs in a) Surge tank b) Penstock c) Turbine d) Reservoir Ans: Penstock 48. Transient stability can be improved by a) By putting series capacitor b) By using dynamic resister c) Auto re-closers d) All of the above Ans: All of the above 49. If sending end voltage is Vs at no-load in a transmission line then receiving end voltage is if ABCD parameters of line is given a) Vs b) Vs/A c) 0 d) Infinity Ans: Vs/A 50. Harmonics are eliminated by using 52. In Induction motor Slip frequency of rotor current, when rotor speed is Nr. Then rotor producing slip field rotates with respect to stator is a) Slip frequency b) Nr c) Nsd) None Ans: Ns 53. Good regulation means a) Less fluctuations from no-load to full-load b) c) d) Ans: Less fluctuation from no-load to full-load 54. At dead short circuit at terminals of Alternator then the current I is a) ZPF Lag b) ZPF lead c) Unity power factor d) 0.8 Power factor lag Ans: ZPF Lag 55. Full scale Ammeter reading is 10 mA, Voltage across Ammeter is 100 mV. Then for 100 A measurements the power loss in the circuit is a) 1 W 51. For parallel operation of transformer at no load, then load shared are equal when a) Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating b) c) d) Ans: Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating

b) 10 W c) 100 W d) 1000 W Ans: 10 W*

d) 1 and 4 Ans: 1 and 4 61. Heat convection, radiation, and conduction all are takes place in a) Ice

56. When Alternator excitation increases and machine is operating at lagging power factor then a) I increase b) I decreases c) No effect on current d) None

b) Boiler c) Refrigerator d) Flue gases in pipe Ans: 62. When moving iron meter is used to measure d.c current what is the disadvantage a) It calibration in rms value

Ans: I increase b) 57. Flue gases coming out from furnace is first going through a) Turbine b) Economizer c) Air pre-heater d) Chimney Ans: Economizer 58. Two alternators rated are 200 KW at 4% regulation, 400 KW 5% regulation operating in parallel at 50HZ , when supply 600 KW the new frequency is a) 50 b) 49 c) 51.3 d) 47.7 Ans: 47.7 59. Va and Vb are negative sequence component voltages the difference angle between Va and Vb with respect to Va is a) 240 b) 120 c) 180 d) 360 Ans: 12060. 4-Quadrent operation of chopper I is positive but V is may be positive are negative operates in which quadrant a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 c) d) Ans: 63. When maximum power transfer to load is a) 20 W b) 50 W c) 100W d) 0W Ans: 0W 64. Find Zbus Parameters a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm b) c) d) Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm 65. Find Z11 and Z12 a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm b) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm Ans: 66. Current in 5 ohm resister is a) 10 A b) -10 A c) 5 A d) -5 A Ans: -10 A 67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+ a) 2 A b) 5 A

c) 7 A d) 10 AAns: 8. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+ a) 0 V b) 2.5 V c) 5 V d) 10 V Ans: 5 V 69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads a) 0 V b) 3 V c) 2 V d) 1 V Ans: 1 V 70. Find Vab a) Zero b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg d) None Ans: 71. Find E in the circuit a) 5 V b) 10 V c) 20 V d) None Ans: None 72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is a) -15 deg b) 240 deg c) 180 deg d) -45 deg Ans: -15 deg*