Sreedhar's CCE - Online Exam RRB Grade-B

7/29/13 Sreedhar' s CCE - Online Exam
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Question Paper for RBI Officers Grade-B Model Test 01
1. As per the 16th Annual Global CEO survey, Mahatma Gandhi figured among the
top three most admired leaders of the world. Who topped the list of 10 most
admired leaders?
Winston Churchill
Steve Jobs
Jack Welch
Abraham Lincoln
Napoleon Bonaparte
2. Who was declared the winner of Venezuela's presidential election in April
2013?
Henrique Capriles
Jorge Arreaza
Nicolas Maduro
Elias Jaua
None
3. Who was appointed as the Chairman of National Association of Software and
Services Companies (NASSCOM) for 2013-14? (He succeeds N.Chandrasekaran,
CEO&MD of TCS)
R.Chandrasekaran (Cognizant)
C.P.Gurnani (Satyam Computers)
Krishnakumar Natarajan (MindTree)
B.V.R.Mohan Reddy (Infotech)
Pramod Bhasin (Genpact)
4. Which of the following stock exchanges launched Carbonex, the first carbon-
based thematic index in India on November 30, 2012? (Carbonex was launched
with the aim of increasing awareness about the risks posed by climate change)
with the aim of increasing awareness about the risks posed by climate change)
NSE
OTCEI
DSE
BSE
MCX-SX
5. After an epic voyage of over six months to South East Asia, which Indian
Navy's sail training ship returned to Kochi on March 25, 2013?
INS Mysore
INS Tabar
INS Sudarshini
INS Varuna
INS Tarangini
6. The Indo-Russian joint military exercise was organized from November 28 to
December 3, 2012. It is called?
Yudh Abhyas
Vajra Prahar
Exercise Malabar
INDRA
None
7. India signed a Bilateral Swap Agreement (BSA) with which of the following
countries on December 3, 2012, that enables both countries to swap their local
currencies?
Japan
Vietnam
China
Sweden
Norway
8. Which country has announced it no longer recognizes the jurisdiction of the
International Court of Justice (ICJ), in The Hague, after the ICJ redrew its
maritime border in the Caribbean in favour of Nicaragua?
Honduras
Cuba
Colombia
Panama
Costa Rica
9. What is India's rank out of 176 countries in Transparency International's 2012
Corruption Perception Index (CPI)?
94
134
132
87
77
10. To mark the 20th anniversary of the ASEAN-India dialogue partnership and the
10th anniversary of ASEAN-India Summit level partnership, which city hosted the
ASEAN-India Commemo-rative Summit on December 20-21, 2012?
Singapore
Phnom Penh
Manila
New Delhi
Mumbai
11. What is the full form of CDR?
Company Debt Rollover
Corporate Debt Rollover
Corporate Deposit Restructuring
Company Deposit Restructuring
Corporate Debt Restructuring
12. Which of the following is not a plant/plant product?
Camphor
Isabgol
Tobacco
Nickel
Jute
13. Monetary Policy is administered by?
Government of India
RBI
SBI
Governments of the respective states
None
14. Which of the following activities are performed by the Business
Correspondents (BCs)?
Disbursal of small value credit
Collection of small value deposits
Sale of micro insurance/mutual fund products/pension products
Both 1 and 2
All 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following organizations provides credit history of commercial and
consumer borrowers?
SEBI
RBI
CIBIL
BCSBI
CII
16. Which of the following awards/prizes is given for excellence in the field of
literature?
Templeton Prize
Abel Prize
Kalinga Prize
Pulitzer Prize
Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
17. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Vice President is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Only a retired Chief Justice of India can be the Chairman of the National
Human Rights Commission
Finance Minister presents the Union Budget in the Parliament every year
Union Budget is normally presented in the month of February
To be chosen as a member of the Lok Sabha, a person must not be less
than 30 years of age.
18. Which of the following is an Inter-Governmental body that devises policies to
combat money laundering and terrorist financing?
FATF
FSDC
ECGC
WTO
IFRS
19. Loans of very small amounts given to low income groups is called?
Overdraft
No frills loans
Micro credit
Rural credit
Cash credit
20. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Durand Cup is associated with Football
Bauxite is an ore of Aluminium
The index of Bombay Stock Exchange is called Sensex
Sikkim is one of the seven Union Territories of India
Mid Day Meal scheme was launched to attract children to school
21. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries?
21. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries?
Iran
Ghana
Libya
Sudan
South Sudan
22. World Food Day is observed on?
October 8
September 16
September 8
October 16
November 8
23. Alicia Coutts of Australia is associated with?
Horse Racing
Swimming
Table Tennis
Cricket
Lawn Tennis
24. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
Love
Hoops
Back Hand
Penalty Stroke
Leg Break
25. Which of the following is the name of the Airborne Early Warning and Control
System (AEWACS) developed by Israel?
Eagle
Kite
Phoenix
Phalcon
Sphinx
26. Which of the following is not a capital city?
Riyadh
Helsinki
Sydney
Wellington
Copen Hagen
27. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the?
CAG
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
President of India
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
28. The Planning Commission was established in?
1947
1950
1948
1951
1952
29. Yellow Revolution is associated with the production of?
Eggs
Fruits
Oil seeds
Vegetables
Gold
30. World Trade Organization (WTO) replaced General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) in?
1990
1990
1997
1999
2001
1995
31. Which of the following is a horticultural crop?
Wheat
Jute
Jowar
Mango
Sugarcane
32. The Human Development Index is developed by?
UNESCO
UNDP
UNICEF
IMF
UNCTAD
33. The headquarters of International Court of Justice (ICJ) is at?
Geneva
Paris
Hague
Berne
New York
34. Tax proceeds are distributed between the Center and the states on the basis
of the recommendations of the?
Planning Commission
Finance Commission
National Development Council
Parliamentary Affairs Committee
Inter State Council
35. Fali S. Nariman is the author of?
Before Memory Fades
Turning Points
A Passage to England
The Great Indian Novel
River of Smoke
36. The final approval to the draft Five Year Plan is given by the?
Parliament
President
Planning Commission
National Development Council
Finance Commission
37. Diabetes Day is observed on?
Nov 14
May 14
July14
June 14
October 14
38. Budapest is the capital city of?
Romania
Ireland
Latvia
Hungary
Lithuania
39. The decimal coinage system was introduced in India in?
1951
1960
1960
1957
1955
1952
40. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in?
1969
1980
1955
1975
1982
41. Which of the following is nuclear capable submarine launched ballistic
missile?
Prithvi
Agni I
Shourya
Sagarika
None
42. The Banking Ombudsman?
Fixes the rates of interest for loans
Is in charge of bank loans
Resolves complaints of customers
Issues licenses for new bank branches
None
43. Who among the following Indian authors was short listed for the 2013 Man
Booker International Prize?
Arvind Adiga
Amitav Ghosh
Jeet Thayil
U.R.Ananthamurthy
Salman Rushdie
44. Roland Garros is associated with which of the following Grand Slam events of
Lawn Tennis?
Australian Open
French Open
Wimbledon
US Open
None
45. Kisan Divas (Farmers' Day) is celebrated on?
March 23
June 23
December 23
September 23
April 23
46. Which of the following is not a food grain?
Rice
Maize
Wheat
Cotton
Jowar
47. Which of the following is not associated with the life insurance business in
India?
LIC
Tata AIG
IDBI Fortis
Bajaj Allianz
GE Money
48. Which of the following indexes is developed to measure life expectancy, level
of literacy and standard of living of people in a country?
of literacy and standard of living of people in a country?
Sensex
Nifty
Inflation
HDI
WPI
49. The full form of BIPA is Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection?
Agreement
Arrangement
Allocation
Association
Approval
50. Which of the following is the best way to get cash immediately from one's
bank account at a time when banks are not working?
Internet Banking
NEFT
ATM
Phone Banking
None
Directions: Pick out the most effective pair of words from the given pair of words
to make the sentence/sentences meaningfully complete.
51. Nothing is impossible in the world of politics. States which were - foes and
had their deadly missiles pointed at each other find themselves __in military
alliances.
implacable ..... partners
intense.......joining
deadly........ approaching
known ........ soliciting
enviable ........ grouping
52. _______ of whether leaders are born or made, it is__ clear that leaders are
not like other people.
Pursuant........manifestly
Pursuant........manifestly
Sequel.........amply
Regardless ...... unequivocally
Instead ....... purely
Inspite ........ normally
53. There is a common talk today that women have made the in many
professions, that they have total freedom of opportunity. But the majority of
women are still left _at their goals and ambitions through an almost unbreakable
glass ceiling.
entry ....... inward
grade........gazing
progress........trying
mark........projecting
achievement........ wondering
54. Inferring attitudes from expressed opinion has many _____. People may__
their attitude and express socially acceptable opinions.
limitation ......... conceal
advantages .......... show
drawbacks ........ support
benefits........avoid
reasons......... acknowledge
55. We should move towards a system where the banks can ______capital in the
market with__ safeguard so that they continue to be public sector banks.
improve ........proper
strengthen....... durable
raise ........ adequate
stimulate ....... effective
provide ....... delicate
Directions: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case. The urgent need of the hour is to 56 up the moral
57 of our society in general and of our student community in particular, if we want
to save ourselves and our society from the present 58 of mass indiscipline and 59
of basic humai values, which has become a 60 phenomenon. We must, therefore,
of basic humai values, which has become a 60 phenomenon. We must, therefore,
61 and practise the most 62 basic human values like co-operation, tolerance
patriotism, generosity, truth, justice and excellence-the ideals which are universal
in nature and which are 63 in themselves and which are worthy of 64 for their own
sake. These ideals are both personally as well as socially 65
56. 56
give
stand
jack
climb
tone
57. 57
fibre
enactment
reconstruction
situation
appreciation
58. 58
polarisation
degradation
chads
provocation
sentiments
59. 59
calamity
focus
realisation
erbsion
criticism
60. 60
durable
universal
perpetual
segmental
prolific
61. 61
incorporate
induce
implicate
inculcate
involve
62. 62
absorbing
cherished
introspective
famous
productive
63. 63
distinctive
appreciated
formative
helping
end
64. 64
evolving
spreading
esteem
wisdom
popularity
65. 65
desirable
manageable
redundant
vulnerable
possible
Directions: Rearrange. the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E). (F)
and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the
questions given below them.
(A) It is obvious from the above that the Commission has accorded highest
priority to securing speedy justice to women.
(B) These members continue to pursue their mandated activities, namely review
of legislation, Intervention in specific individual complaints of atrocities arid
denial of rights.
(C) The functions assigned to the Commission, as per the Act, are wide ahd
varied covering almost all facets of issues relating to safeguarding womens rights
and promotion.
(D) The National Commission for women was set up on 31 st January in pursuance
of the National commission for Women Act 1990.
(E) Towards this end of speedy justice to women, the Commission is organizing
Parivarik Manila Lok Adalats, offering counselling in family disputes and
conducting training programmes for creating legal awareness among women.
(F) They also suggest remedial action to safeguard the interest of women to the
appropriate authorities.
(G) To carry out these functions the Commission has a Chairman, five members
and a Member Secretary, all nominated by the Central Government.
66. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence ?
A
C
D
B
E
67. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence ?
C
D
E
F
A
A
68. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence ?
G
F
D
C
E
69. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence ?
G
B
F
D
C
70. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence ?
C
D
F
E
B
Directions: In each of the following questions four words are given of which two
words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which
are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the
correct letter combination.
71.
(A) Desecrate (B) Describe (C) Damage (D) Descent
B-C
C-D
A-C
A-D
A-B
72.
(A) Asinine (B) Profound (C) Intelligent (D) Cruel
B-C
B-D
A-C
A-B
A-D
73.
(A) Vivacious (B) Weird (C) Rabid (D) Fanatical
A-B
B-C
B-P
C-D
A-C
74.
(A) Feed (B) Avoid (C) Hoick (D) Eschew
B-D
A-B
A-C
A-D
C-D
75.
(A) Stupendous (B) Calm (C) Livid (D) Pretentious
B-D
A-D
A-B
A-C
B-C
76.
(A) Shambles (B) Flexible (C) Periodic (D) Organised
A-D
B-C
A-C
C-D
A-B
77.
(A) Prophetic (B) Strange (C) Poor (D) Sterling
A-B
C-D
B-D
A-D
B-C
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The Working Group on minorities at its Geneva session in May 2002 highlighted
that construction resolution of tensions involving minorities is by way of
integrating diversity. This means that persons belonging to minorities, acting
alone or in community, should be given adequate opportunity to maintain and
develop their distinct identities, while at the same time participating in and
making a contribution to the wider society and respecting the territorial integrity
of the State.
Integrating diversity goes hand in hand with good governance which is firmly
grounded in international human rights law. This requires that States protect the
rights of all those residing within their jurisdiction without distinction of any kind.
It is immaterial whether these persons are recognised by the State as a national
minority.
The Human Rights Committee functioning under the International Covenant on
Civil and Political Rights, 1966 has expressed the view that to secure State
protection, members of the minority community need not be citizens of the
country nor its permanent residents. The protection extends to migrant worker
who constitute a minority.
In order to accord this protection, States should take special measures to ensure
the existence of conditions for minorities to maintain and develop their own
distinct cultural identities. More specifically what is required is : (A) sensitivity to
the needs,, especially linguistic and educational, of persons belonging to
minorities so as to enable each individual to develop his/her identity, (B) allowing
minorities the opportunity to participate effectively in,public life, including the
political decision-making processes, and (C) providing minorities With access to a
political decision-making processes, and (C) providing minorities With access to a
fair share of public goods, including economic opportunity.
Such measures do not constitute preferential treatment. Their aim is to achieve
equal and meaningful enjoyment of above rights in Order to ensure de facto
equality.
78. What is the meaning of the term integrating diversity as used in the
passage?
Achieving national solidarity and integration
Achieving the objectives of Human Rights Committee
Giving linguistic and educational independence to backward communities by
making them empowered and bringing them into the national mainstream.
Giving minorities sufficient chances to maintain and develop their distinct
identities.
None
79. To achieve protection from the , State, a member of the minority
community.....-
must be a citizen of the country
should be below the poverty line
can be even a migrant worker
must be a permanent resident of the state
must be ready to stick to its minority status
80. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning as the word de facto as used
in the passage.
actual
primary
superficial
profound
latent
81. With which of the following does Integrating diversity go well ?
Proper distribution of wealth
Secularism as a political creed
Observance of political and social morality
Providing educational opportunities to all
None
None
82. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word accord
as used in the passage.
constitute
withdraw
precipitate
suppress
abandon
83. What should the States do to protect the rights of the minorities ?
They should create institutional set up to monitor the integration of diverse
subcultures of minorities.
They should allow the Working Group on Minorities to come to the States
and evaluate the conditions of minorities.
They should allow and facilitate minorities to maintain and develop their
own distinct Cultural identities.
They should join hands in eradication of poverty among minority
communities.
None
84. Which of the following statement/s is/are true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The Working Group on Minorities had met at Geneva in May 2002.
(B) Integrating diversity means national solidarity and secularism.
(C) Integrating diversity and good governance are the two sides of the same
coin.
Only A
Only B and C
Only A and B
Only A and C
All A, BtandC
85. What special measures should the State take to accord protection to
minorities?
Giving them preferential treatment
Giving them social and political rights
Giving them social and political rights
Providing them basic necessities of life
Inculcating in them the national pride and sentiment
Bringing them above the poverty line .
86. The term integrating diversity suggests that-
minorities have been subjected to social discrimination.
minorities should make contributions to the wider society.
conflicts involving minorities must be legalised.
minorities should be given preferential treatment.
members of the minority community must be citizens Of the country.
87. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the
passage?
Linguistic and educational needs of minorities should be recognised.
Minorities should be allowed to participate effectively in public life.
Minorities should be involved in political decision making process.
Minorities should be allowed to maintain their own distinct political
identities.
Minorities should be given preferential treatment.
88. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning as the word covenant as
used in the passage?
agreement
meeting
conference
reforms
objective
89. Which of the following is the specific measure to be taken by the States to
protect the rights of minorities ?
Making them the permanent citizens of the state
Including their names in the voters list
Providing them fair share of economic opportunities
Providing them free educational and medical facilities
Building their self-confidence and self-esteem
Building their self-confidence and self-esteem
90. What is required of the State while maintaining integrating diversity?
Protect the right of all those residing within their jurisdiction without
distinction of any kind.
Provide employment opportunities to- all as per the provisions in the
constitution.
States should clearly state their policies with regard to minorities.
Formulate Human Rights! Committee to supervise the status of minorities,
Safeguard their territorial integrity.
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5) . (Ignore errors
ofpunctuation, if any)
91. Handsome is usually used(1)/of men but beautiful is not(2)/usually used to
talk(3)/about mans appearance,(4)/No error.(5)
Handsome is usually used
of men but beautiful is not
usually used to talk
about mans appearance,
No error.
92. Payal kept her drum(1)/besides her(2)/always and(3)/she played wisely,(4)/No
error.(5)
Payal kept her drum
besides her
always and
she played wisely,
No error.
93. Either you(1)/or your friend(2)/has stolen(3)/my wrist watch,(4)/No error.(5)
Either you
or your friend
has stolen
my wrist watch,
No error.
94. My son has(1)/bought four pens(2)/who are(3)/red in colour,(4)/No error.(5)
My son has
bought four pens
who are
red in colour,
No error.
95. If you look up tea in a cookery book(1)/you may find a little
instructions(2)/that give you no help(3)/ on several important points,(4)/No error.
(5)
If you look up tea in a cookery book
you may find a little instructions
that give you no help
on several important points,
No error.
96. The Chinese tea is(1)/not very costly(2)/and we can drink(3)/it without milk,
(4)/No error.(5)
The Chinese tea is
not very costly
and we can drink
it without milk,
No error.
97. Alaripu is an invocatory item(1)/where the dancer(2)/offers salute(3)/to the
lord,(4)/No error.(5)
Alaripu is an invocatory item
where the dancer
offers salute
to the lord,
No error.
98. He served the country(1)/with heart and soul(2)/but he got(3)/only a few
rewards,(4)/No error.(5)
He served the country
with heart and soul
but he got
only a few rewards,
No error.
99. With rise in population(1)/man needed more space(2)/for growing
crops(3)/and for building houses,(4)/No error.(5)
With rise in population
man needed more space
for growing crops
and for building houses,
No error.
100. Which(1)/do you prefer(2)/more meat(3)/or fish?(4)/No error.(5)
Which
do you prefer
more meat
or fish?
No error.
Directions: What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
101.
220
340
240
145
None
102.
102.
0.28
0.27
6.25
0.235
None
103.
0.3375
3.275
32.75
0.0375
None
104.
1.36
2.06
13.90
14.80
None
105.
32
56
23
46
None
Directions: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series?
106. 2 9 30 105 ? 2195
432
426
440
440
436
None
107. 3 4 12 45 ? 1005
152
198
144
192
None
108. 1 3 9 31 ? 651
97
127
129
109
None
109. 5 ? 4 7.5 17 45
3.5
3
2.5
2
None
110. 15 30 ? 40 8 48
10
20
18
12
None
111. What is the difference between total productions of Companies A and C for
all the given years together ?
2,61,00;000 tons
2,61.900 tons
3,31,00,000 tons
3,39,000 tons
None
112. Approximately, what is the percentage rise/fall in total production of all the
Companies together from 2001 to 2002?
4.5% rise
6% rise
3.5% fall
7 fall
7.5% fall
113. During which year is the percentage rise/fall from the previous years in
production of Company F is the highest?
2004
2005
2002
2001
None
114. Production of Companies A & B together in 2002 is approximately what
percentage of the production of Companies E & F together in 2003 ?
90
95
97
86
92
115. What is the difference between average production for the given years
between Companies B & E (in lakh tons rounded off to two digits after decimal) ?
56.50
45.50
45.67
55.78
None
116. The ratio of present ages of Nisha and Shilpa is 7 : 8 respectively. Four years
hence this ratio becomes 9:10 respectively. What is Nishas present age in years?
18
14
17
Data inadequate
None
117. A 300 metre long train crosses a platform in 39 seconds while it crosses a
signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform ?
320 metres
650 metres
350 metres
Data inadequate
None
118.
9
6
4
3
None
119. Mr. Sane invested a total amount of Rs. 16,500 for two years in two Schemes
A & B with rate of Simple interest 10 per cent and 12 per cent respectively. If the
total amount of interest earned was Rs. 3,620, what was the amount invested in
Scheme B ?
Rs. 8,000
Rs. 8,600
Rs. 8150
Data inadequate
None
120. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DETAIL be arranged
in such a way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions ?
120
60
48
32
None
Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and
121. Total how many children are there in the class ?
I. Number of boys and girls are in the respective ratio of 3
II. Number of girls is more than the number of boys by 18.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.
122. What was the population of State A in 1999?
I. Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997
was 1, 20,000.
II. Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year. ,
the question.
123. What is the cost of laying carpet in the rectangular hall?
I. Cost of carpet is Rs. 450/-per square metre.
II. Perimeter of the hall is 50 metres.
the question.
124. What is the rafe of interest per cent?
I. Difference between compound interest and simple interest on an amount of Rs.
10,000 for two years is Rs. 225.,
II. The amount doubles itself on simple interest in 6 years.
the question.
125. What is the two digit number?
I. The number obtained by interchanging the digits is smaller than the original
number by 63.
II. Sum of the digits is 11.
the question.
126. If the criteria for passing is minimum 40% marks only in Maths, how many
students will pass ?
53
107
34
129
None
127. If for passing, the student has to obtain minimum 60% marks on average of
three subjects, how many students will pass?
40
108
68
73
None
128. If for passing, a student has to obtain 40% marks in any one of the three
subjects, what is the minimum number of students who will definitely pass?
107
109
117
108
None
129. How many students will pass in English if minimum passing marks are 40% ?
117
111
119
108
None
130. How many students have obtained 20 or more marks in at least one of the
three subjects?
148
139
129
Data inadequate
None
131. A shopkeeper sold an article offering a discount of 5% and earned a profit of
23.5%. What Would have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was
offered ?
28.5
24.675
30
Data inadequate
None
132. Salaries of A, B and G were in the ratio of 3:5 : 7 respectively. If their
salaries were increased by 50%, 60% and I 50% respectively, what will be the
new respective ratio of their salaries ?
3:6:7
4:5:7
4:5 : 8
Data inadequate
None
133. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the
ratio of the first number of the second number?.
7 : 3
3 :7
2:5
5:3
None
134. Which of the following values of x will satisfy the inequality x
2
- x - 6 > 0 ?
x < - 2 or x > 3
- 2 < x < 3
-3
x > - 2 or x < 3
None
135. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly
equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four parts is your
answer ?
8517x 110
45x6 + 75x4
45x6 + 75x4
17525x75+ 5
2
36x4 + 2P-7x5
65 x 12-46 x 5
136. Which institute has the highest percentage of students Successful to
enrolled ?
D
E
A
B
None
137. What percent of candidates , from institute D have come out to to be
successful out of the.total candidates enrolled from this institute ?
115
95
80
85
None
138. What is the approximate percentage of students successful to enrolled from
institute A?
92
89
86
96
88
139. What is ratio of candidates successful to enrolled from the institutes B and C
together?
55 : 12
5 :7
135 : 271
3 : 5
None
140. What is the percentage of students successful from institutes E and F
together, over the students enrolled from these institutes together?
76
105
80
74
None
141. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the students in
Science ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
99
82.78
88.72
78.88
None
142. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in all subjects ?
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
72.88
76.28
73.17
72.68
None
143. What are the average marks obtained by all students in English ?
52.5
64.38
56.38
60.5
None
144. What is the ratio between total marks obtained in all subjects by F and G
respectively ?
87:89
89 : 87
67:69
69 :67
None
145. Which student has scored in Maths closest to the average marks in Maths ?
P
Q
T
F
None
146. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customers 12% more than the cost
price. If a customer paid Rs. 14056 for a dining table, what is the cost price of the
dining table ?
Rs. 14000
Rs. 12500
Rs. 13540
Rs. 11550
Rs. 11550
None
147. The difference between 55% of a number and 25% of the same number is
11.10. What is 75% of that number ?
27.75
37
21.25
45
None
148. The product of two successive numbers is 1980. Which is the smaller number
?
34
44
35
45
None
149. Which of the following smallest number should be added to 41116 to make it
exactly divisible by 8?
8
5
4
12
None
150.
25
40
45
50
None
None
151. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DREAMLAND each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet ?
None
One
Two
Three
More than three
152. In a certain code language OMNIPRESENT is written as QJONPTSMDRD. How
is CREDIBILITYwritten in that code?
JEFSDCXSHKH
JEFSDDXSHKH
DSFEJDDXSHKH
JEFSDDZUJMJ
None
153. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
131
133
143
87
57
154. The positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 38271965 are
interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are
interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the third digit from the
right end after the rearrangement ?
2
9
8
6
None
155. Alok walked 30 metres towards east and took a right turn and walked 40
metres. He again took right turn and walked 50 metres. Towards which direction
is he from his starting point ?
South
West
South-West
South-East
None
Directions: Study the following sequence carefully and answer the questions
given below:
M E 5 P B 2 A 7 K N 9 T R U 4 6 I J D F 1 Q 3 W 8 V I S Z
156. How many such numbers are there in the above sequence, each of which is
both immediately preceded by and immediately followed by a consonant?
None
One
Two
Three
More than three
157. If the order of the first twenty letters/numbers in the above \ sequence is
reversed and the remaining letters/ numbers are kept unchanged, which of the
following will be the fourteenth letter/number from the right end after the
rearrangement ?
B
6
2
I
None
158. Which of the following letter/ number is the eighth to the left of the
nineteenth letter/ number from the left end ?
N
T
I
D
D
None
159. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way with regard to their
position in the above sequence and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
WIQ
PAE
NR7
4JR
D16
160. How many such vowels are there in the above sequence, each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a vowel?
None
One
Two
Three
More than three
Directions: Study the following information carefully arid answer the questions
given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members in a family, out of which there are.
three females and four males. There are two managers, two lawyers, one teacher,
one engineer and one doctor. No lady is either a teacher or an engineer. R is a
lawyer and is married to P who is a teacher. V, the engineer is married to S who is
neither a lawyer nor a doctor. No two ladies- have same profession. Q is sister of
W who is a manager.
161. What is Ts profession ?
Manager
Lawyer
Manager or Lawyer
Data inadequate
None
162. Which of the following is the group of males ?
PQVW
PQVW
TVSW
PRTV
PTVW
None
163. What is Qs profession ?
Doctor
Manager
Lawyer
Data inadequate
None
164. Who among them has the same profession as that of W?
R
T
S
Data Indequate
None
165. Which of the following pairs have the same profession ?
PS
RS
TP
WT
None
Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, ,$, # and * are used
with the following meaning as illustrated below :
A @ B means A is not greater than B.
A B means A is not less than B
A $ B means A is neither less than nor equal to B.
A # B means A is neither , greater than nor equal to B.
A H B means A is neither greater than nor less than B.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the two conclusions I and II given be-(low them is/are definitely
true?
166. Statements :
M # K, K H D, D @ P
Conclusions:
I. M @ P
II. M H P
If only Conclusion I is true.
If only Conclusion II is true.
If either Conclusion I or II is true.
If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
If both Conclusions I and II are true.
167. Statements :
W T, T $ M, B # M
Conclusions:
I. W $ B
II. M # W
168. Statements :
H H D, D # R, R N
Conclusions:
I.N H H
II. N $ H
169. Statements :
Z@ R, R D, D #T
Conclusions :
I. D # Z
II. Z#T
170. Statements :
Q # P, P@ F, FH M
Conclusions:
I. M $ P
II. PHM
Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You . have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and
171. How is B related to H ?
I. Hs mother is sister of Bs fathers son.
II. B is father ofT.
if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the datain statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question,
while, the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are
if the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to
answer the question, and
if the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer
the question.
172. What is Madhavs birth-date if his sister and mother both are right ?
I. Madhavs sister remembers that his Jbirth-date is before twentieth but after
seventeenth.
II. Madhavs mother remembers that his birth-date is after eighteenth but before
twenty-third.
twenty-third.
the question.
173. Who among M, J, K, P and T is the tallest ?
I. K is taller than M and T but shorter than J and P.
II. P is not the tallest.
the question.
174. M, J, K, N and D are sitting around a circular table facing at the centre. Who
among them is sitting to the itnme1 diate right of K ?
I. J is sitting between M and D and D is sitting to the immediate right of N.
II. J is the second to the left of K and is the second to the right of N.
the question.
175. Which Village is to the Southwest of Village Q ?
I. Village P is to the West of Village N which is to the West of Village Q.
II. Village W is to the South of Village N which is to the West of Village Q.
the question.
Directions: In each of the questions below are given two statements followed
by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
176. Statements :
All tables are boxes.
Some boxes are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are windows.
II. All boxes are tables.
III. No window is table.
None follows
Only either I or III follows
Only either II or III follows
Only I and II follow
None
177. Statements :
No room is tiger.
All tigers are goats.
Conclusions:
I. Some goats are rooms.
II. All goats are rooms.
III. Some goats are tigers.
None follows
None follows
Only either II or III follows
Only either I or III follows
Only II follows
None
178. Statements :
Some cars are roads.
Some roads are buses.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are cars.
II. Some buses are cars.
III. Some buses are roads.
All follow
Only II and III follow
Only I and III follow
None
179. Statements :
Some men are lions.
All foxes are lions.
Conclusions:
I. Some foxes are men.
II. Some lions are men.
III. All lions are foxes.
All follow
Only II follows
Only III follows
None follows
180. Statements :
All birds are flowers.
All flowers are trees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are birds.
II. Some flowers are birds.
III. All birds are trees.
All follow
Only I and III follow
Only II and III follow
None follows
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: sky forward 17 over 95 23 come 40 Step 1 : come sky forward 17 over 95
23 40
Step II : come 95 sky forward 17 over 23 40
Step III : come 95 forward sky 17 over 23 40
Step IV : come 95 forward 40 sky 17 over 23
Step V : come 95 forward 40 over sky 17 23
Step VI : come 95 forward 40 over 23 sky 17
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following questions.
181. Input : machine hire for 19 against 85 21 46
Which of the following will be step II?
against 85 hire machine for 19 2146
against 85 machine 19 hire for 21 46
against 85 machine hire for 19 2146
Cannot be determined
None
182. Input : box at 20 53 62 gift now 32 Which of the following is step IV?
at 62 box 53 gift 32 20 now
at 62 box 53 gift 32 now 20
at 62 box 53 gift 20 now 32
None
183. Input : on at 33 27 42 sky mat 51 Which of the following steps will be the
last ?
VI
VII
VII
V
VIII
None
184. Step III of an input is : bring 63 desk 11 29 together fight 30 Which of the
following steps will be the last but one ?
VI
VII
VIII
V
None
185. Step II of an input is : earn 72 31 46 higher goal 20 more
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
46 72 31 earn higher goal 20 more
20 31 72 46 higher goal earn more
higher 20 31 72 46 goal earn more
None
Directions: In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be
able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong*
arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the
question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may
not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the
question.
186. Should there be a total ban on all tobacco products in India?
Arguments :
I. No, this will render a large number of people jobless.
II. No, the government will lose huge amount of money as it will not earn by way
of taxes on these products.
if only argument I is strong
if only argument II is strong.
if either I or II is strong.
if neither I nor II is strong ,
if both I and II are strong.
187. Should Hindi language be made compulsory at school level in all the States
in India ?
Arguments :
I. No, students should not be forced to learn any language.
II. Yest, it is the national language, so every-body must learn.
188. Should the retirement age of all government employees in India be made 55
years ? Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help government to offer employment to youth at lower cost and
with higher productivity.
II. No, the government will be deprived of the expertise of the experienced
employees and this will have adverse effect on the productivity.
189. Should India pull out of Commonwealth Confederation ?
Arguments :
I. No, India will lose an international forum to express its opinion on world
matters.
II. Yes, Commonwealth has I lost its relevance in the post cold war scenario.
190. Should all the profit making public sector units be sold to private companies
? Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help the government to augment its resources for implementing
the development programmes.
II. No, the private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.
II. No, the private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.
Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken
for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
191. Statement: Learn computer ! at no cost and make your life more
meaningful Ah adver-tise-ment.
Assumptions:
I. People prefer to join courses without any fees.
II. Knowledge in computer makes life more meaningful.
if only Assu-. mption I is implicit
if only Assumption II is implicit.
if either I or II is implicit.
if neither I nor I II is implicit.
if both I and II i are implicit.
192. Statement: The government has decided to launch food for work programme
in all the drought affected areas.
Assumptions:
I. The government has the machinery to implement the food for work programme
in all the drought affected areas.
II. There is enough food in stock to implement the programmes successfully.
193. Statement :
The head of the organisation has decided to reward those employees who will
help reducing expenditure substantially by suggesting innovative techniques.
Assumptions:
I. The employees may be able to come out with innovative ideas.
II. The employees may be encouraged to apply their mind to earn the reward.
194. Statement: The civic author -ity has advised the residents in the area to use
mosquito repellents or sleep inside nets as large number of people are suffering
from malaria.
Assumptions :
I. Local residents have enough money to arrange for the repellents-or nets.
II. People may ignore and continue to get mosquito bites as they have other
pressing needs.
195. Statement :
If you are intelligent, we are the right people for improving your performance
An advertis-ement of a coaching class.
Assumptions:
I. Brilliant students prefer to join coaching classes.
II. Coaching classes help the students to improve their perfor-mance.
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below :
Following are the conditions for admitting students in an engineering college :
The student must
(i) have secured at least 80 per cent aggregate marks in XII Std, Exam in Science
stream.
(ii) have secured an average of atleast 90 per cent marks in Physics , Chemistry
and Mathematics in XII Std. Exam.
(iii) pay Rs. 20,000/- at the time of admission.
(iv) be atleast 17 years old as on 1st September, 2005.
(iv) be atleast 17 years old as on 1st September, 2005.
However, in the case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria except
(a) at (ii) above, but has secured 95 per cent aggregate marks be referred to
Principal.
(b) at (in) above, but can pay atleast Rs. 15,000/- be referred to Chairman
Admissions. Based on the above criteria and information provided below, make a
decision in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data given are not
enough to take a decision mark your answer as data inadequate*. These cases
are given to you as 1.9.2005.
196. Anup Shrivastava has passed XII Std. Exam in Science stream with 95 per
cent aggregate marks. He was born on December 2, 1987. He has secured 90 per
cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. He can pay Rs.
20,000 at the time of admission.
if the student is to be admitted.
if the student is not to be admitted.
if the case is be referred to the Principal.
if the case is to be referred to Chairman, Admission.
if the data are inadequate to take decision.
197. Sudha Malhotra has secured an average of 95 per cent marks in Physics,
Chemistry and Mathematics. She has secured 75 per cent aggregate marks in XII
Std. Exam in Science stream. She can pay Rs. 20,000 at the time of admission.
She is 18 years old.
198. Ashok Khera has secured 80 per-xent marks, in XII Std. Exam in Science
stream. He can pay Rs. 15,000 at the time of admission. He has secured 90 per
cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
199. Usha Nadkarni was 16 years old as on January 5,2003. She - can pay Rs.
20,000 at the time of admission. She has secured 80 per cent average marks in
Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Her aggregate marks in XII Std. Exam in
Science stream are 96 per cent.
200. Vibha Gadre has secured 90 per cent aggregate marks in XII Std. Exam in
Science stream and 95 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathe-
matics. She was born on April 25, 1987. She can pay Rs. 15,000 at the time of
admission.
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