after afer area Code : 094P-E aden feta as Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code Series : HRS(P) PATA ATA Z Problem Solving Assessment NY ratte ara: ah ad aM - IX / Class - 1K ‘ae.00 Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximui 0 ge ater gfe 2O ye ye tte ren ae a atl or em are ewe fore ET TE | ‘This Test Booklet contains 20 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asl do so. ‘ugerpot fra / Important Instructions : 1. gee one ex atin gta & sick 2 | oa syst afer gftren ated & fae Alea fer om, wa om on Re, 1 ate y-2 Soaet Atevferret ate enge ta erect 2 aft wt The Answer Sheet i Inside this Test BooKe. When you ae directed to open the Test Booklet, jer Sheet and filin the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with Blue/Black ball point pen oniy. 2 se star ger fore when gran ahs DA & | ave mur & ae ate or a fis er ir he ah are SW gu Hee a ste fe He a Fa A Ht Se, a ean A se ae ek ARN st TE | ‘The Test Booklet Code for this Test Booklet is D4. The candidate should check carefully {he of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on the Test Booklet. In case of aiscrepancy, ‘matter tothe Invgilatr for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer: 3. a ar 60 me Ee, oh ak af a aval Ph #1 tent at el anal Kehoe after | woe UH 2d wee, aE a A 189 she wes fh 18 me HL ae U: aes aren (Se 1 2 24), 3 oe ah Red IM ay SH re Bw a, amet sree wh (ver 25 842), ae ah : RTS Te (Ge 49 8 60). ‘The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three Sactions A Sections. There are 24 questions in Section A, 18 questions in Sec Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) to be Section B : Quaiilative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42), Sectior 4. ft de are 4 aelteet we (MCQo #1 Tei Ta go (MCQs) € | ei 8 arta ue & oe Aes £, Fai Sa vere de dion & ame we #1 Al the three Sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCs). Sdipé of these questions are passage based MCQs, whereas others ‘are stand-alone MCs. Each ofthese questions has four options oUt of which only ONE option is corect. A candidate has to select the corrct option and fil the corresponding number in the Answer Shoot against the question number. Booklet Code printed on Side-2 te should immediately report the ©. A candidate is required to attempt all the three leatons in Section C. ‘rom English Language or from Hind! Language, Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60. arate agit (MCQs) a taal at aon aefieeh oF AR | rae a we eel fed way wrt ote Ae He SR 5 wees oes Uw sis ar BL ree mA oe Fe, ‘a wai der fre ot rer lrg eee, ease adh rer se st ger swat & fer ai sie wel ett Each question carries one mark. For each the candidate will get one mark. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question eng na mark 6 eS i art ae a atten Fides ah ter anaes: #1 sreafiel wt ar uber Gere ore ara a A A r (On completion of the test, the cans candidates are allowed to take: 7. mrafdt oh sre set we Fan ihe va ees ea bg fe ha ee eh rg #1 AR eT 3 aaa eae 5 Fane TT Fh ‘eho 8, Ba ret) age erect ma ste eR arcane A ae ‘The candidates should nat leave the Eémination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet. Ca 2 candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet or the Answer Sheet has not been handed over to the Invigitator shall infar means case, 8. wage fern fred sft eran ath a sis ah fey oa Aer ate ge tA oT | MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the roomhall, The Booklet with them, Use Blue/Blactgball point Per only for writing particulars on this page and writing or marking responses on the Answer Sheet 9. refit wt ara aft PTH HG BRN TT MATT a BAT CE A fe es 3 ae | The candi sure thatthe Answer Sheet is nol folded or damaged. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. * 10, sex Se meson ad cra were eof Fran te faa @ ana BA | eghra aed @ east woh ae wn PERT ate & Seal es a ge | The ca ‘are govemed by all Rules and Regulations ofthe Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases, of nf mean wl be deat has per Rules and Rgulation of he Board ‘horn soa/Registration No.; (LS ¥ —¥- ‘e fer 1 / Candidate's Name : ANF Fidiew % weaen/Invigilator’s Signature faardl & wearer/ Candidate's Signature094P-E-D4 (2) Tsu: ANA ara (TEA 1S 24) wttenfefat & ferg Rider: 1. ae wus a7 faenfttat & ferg @ a rv SITET (Language Convention) GS % ae a7 sree B | 2 seas Ht Rr24 Teghe sere | woh ver siflart & ste weds TH are 3. wh TH aT OMR Ta TH Bi silva wT | Fe aGeTF Bg Va TT. oe Radar : Frerterieaa wet (1 — 16) F weiter a feng wae 4 te 8 ath se a feo) aA | : 1. Samet aE RE at Se fener at eR, wae wert sro: @) aaa ts oer Al Sas, aa, 3a ear a | area Hara 8 OY ae 4 ta Al e we (3) wean ahh str Tah et 4) aC pi cea arat (3) aie wear 2, ‘ei seit Gren too ge 8 @) Rarer SV 6. mera wat Sar wa 8 Pare tata ae @) NS z @ (2) area fren 4) SS (2) faatsor (3) ear-faster 3. oe sr a A ceuterayentt @ wis a @ wm / Svea fader (oe Qa(3) Ww 4 diet sat dt wa aga wee at ne | Ralf & Ferg sage gered eT @ wager o/ ee (3) Rega fro @ ort set ar Sean Sen Ter, 1 TER Q@ Wage (2) Faaran @ ware ag a fz 10. BRT wea TER facia Tel a wae? A @) Gaaferer ® waren Ss afl & | tified Haare 8 w % Ke @ & OT iL. ae 094P-E-D4 @) fren ag set, sat @ MS 13, Yaar ray (3) Fe IT BT SST | 15. fom core 3 fare seep aera eT @) ae Rare (2) rate 12, SR ad wa ad 2 fe Gt a a ae aa ?’, cof HBA HER a1 a) ot Cres Se we, ara ara FE eI @ a8 ST | @ at gat 4) aretha aTeT exe (3) Brett aed é "AY (3) aaa te em, ‘ Cah aa at emai 2 adeans, gata aft? of sid frame Ad} 16. Fal ay ated (4) Bre094P-E-D4 Aiden : Prakaliaa ageia at TEAR TET HET 17 H 24 & Bre sagen Feed ar 71 FIFA | were aaa A ford cera a TATE ar aren @ 1 ees amr a ar _is_feterat eT Bae str 19 FAS sar ahs eet ae ar eat sin ai tat 1g A_20_ 2, den GT! aT seavigght aca ete at St sat & tte arate afar H on Rau | ai a I HRT TTB aT TET att ak F ywar 8 | ea weer &, Tet te 22 om, wet ak 23 FA Go og ar ten ways sere aaa wel fire TT | (a) 20. fen TI 19H FAT ATT ? () Sua aK 17. fom Fa 23H FA ATT? a) fem, bare @ we 3, fren Fa 24 ET SATE? ema (a) are ote SV @ ad 18, fe Fars 21 ET ATT oa a far os Q (4) en (3) aR fae a fon Ta a ) Q fer Ga 17 KT ATT? @ = Fe @) fra @(5) 094P-E-D4 Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) Note : This section of the question paper contains 24 questions in the English Language. The ™) who have opted for English Language are required to attempt all the 24 questions. . Directions : (Questions 1 to 8). Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage. 1 Once upon a time there was an old man who had seven sons. 2 He lived with them in their good farm and they were considerably well settled as to money and the other necessities of life. 3 He had worked hard alll his life and had been aman of means always. 4 A good fortune was yet at his hands and as he was now growing old he wished to make some kind of a settlement before going into A great beyond and he gave it much thought. 5 As he thought about the matter he had to come to no other conclusion but that his syns were always querrelling and nevertadld s to agree on anything amongst sHemselv’ 6 — This worried the old man g lot atdgt last he thought he could try ssl ‘method of| showing them how 4they ld not gain anything by arguing amohg themselves as it udge otlérs to gain what 7 So at la ‘them all before him as they ca the field after work. 8 — Hefad the'Youngest of them all to go gather him sticks of small size and he placed them alPtogether and tied them. 9 He then asked his sons to break the bundle of sticks. 1 4, In sentence 6, the word encourage\ be replaced with () forget: 2) persuade av (8) discourage (4) target © In seffteiiee 2, which of the following words egnnot repisée the word considerably ? eo} tly, &)fonumentally (8) significantly (4) noticeably In sentence 4, which of the following words cannot replace the word yet? (1) uptill now (2) ‘so far (3) beyond (4) hitherto In sentence 3, the phrase a man of means could best be replaced with (1) wealthy (2) pauper (3) labourer (4) farmer094P-E-D4 5. ca Which of the following should be the sentence 10 in the above story ? (1). The sons still did not remain united. (2) The sons realized the importance of being united. (3) The sons opened the bundle and broke the sticks one by one. (4) The sons could not understand the message given to them by their father. In sentence 7, the contextual meaning of the word field is QJ farm land (2) turf (3) lawn (4) playground Which of the following words sho@s\the correct spelling of the underlined Yniss} word in sentence 5 ? (2) quarrellig QP quarreling “\) (3) quarreleng Kz (4) qeurrelling A In sentence J, rression once upon a time isa (1) prpyerb (2) A claw (4) (6) Directions : (Questions 9 to 12). Complete this [passage by selecting the most suitable word /phrase [from each list to fill the corresponding gap. True Lies 9 American (Hollywood)ilm sRowing a perfect blend of comedy and advion, and comes under the eee picture, domestic comedy, id tical thriller, True Lies 10 _ directo mes Cameron, and produced by him alk with Stephanie Austin. The “he been 11 gues have been written by aiid Randall Frakes. The plot of __12__ borrowed from a French film Aga Totale (1991). screenplay of James Cameron, a Which of these fits gap 11? 1) seen by 2) read by BY done by (4) scripted by 10. Which of these fits gap 9? (1) used to be an isan (3) falls as (4) criticize AL, Which of these fits gap 12? (1) generously (2) smilingly (3) urgently (4) scarcely 12. Which of these fits gap 10? () canbe (2) has been (3) have been (4) would be(7) Directions : (Questions 13 to 16). Read the passage and select the correct form of the missing word/phrase to complete it (in Questions 13 to 15) and select the correct option for Question 16. We got there 13 _ and saw alll the stalls and the grounds. I was surprised at how large the grounds 14. They seemed much smaller from the outside. We ate sandwiches which we had brought ourselves. ‘Then of course it started to rain. We 15 brought any umbrellas so we bought some from a not. little stall near the building, We were not the only ones! 18. Which of these fits gap 15? (1) had been (2) have (8) do (OY had NY, Which of these fits gap “tS @) is 14, (2) were (8) are Ss gr we A) a fits gap 18? as (3) early &) 15. later 094P-E-D4 16. ‘We were not the only ones ! means (1) All of them did not have any umbrella. ‘They (the narrator sof eio had umbrellas. ‘They did not have wea S. Cd not brought any (2) @) “Many other: me Direct ind D)stions 17 to 20). Complete this passag. ine jg the most suitable word [phrase from ic ist t fill the corresponding gap. ty cliture 17 three distinct Khanty s, known as the Northern, Southern and m Khanty. These groups can easily be recognized by 18 in the way they speak. Khanty live their life to the full, and as a part of 19 celebration. On the successful hunting of 20 bear, culture they have many oceasions for they perform The Bear Celebration, which may prolong up to five-six days exceeding more than three hundred songs and performances in many forms. 17. Which of these fits gap 18? (2) devastating (2) ignoring the differences (8) Aocating the differences (4) forgetting094P-E-D4 ¢ 18. Whit ich of these fits gap 17? _(Dcomprise () 3) (4) 19. Whic @ (2) 3) denotes plays gives ich of these fits gap 20? one the an of 20. Which of these fits gap 19? w 3) @ Directions : (Questions 21 to 24). Cor our there lete passage by selecting the most suitable Iphrase from each list to fill the corresy Questions Questions Scientists in 21 & 22 and select the correct opfion for 23 & 24. have _21 bree op resources will disappear in 30 ys ’ ti tensive research and development oz _ 22 es for future have already beg. energies are important because of the Migimal impact they have on the environment\The datomobile industry has shows pri 1 Jalternative energies are concerned. government will introduce rebates on road = move and its shows the government's s-sightedness. ouring green vehicles. This is a very 8) 21. Which of these fits gap 22? a various (2) alternative (8) alternated . (4) alternate 22, Which of these fits gap 21 QD predicted (2) called (3) calls =r (4) means © Based on the reading of the passage, say ch of the following statements is nof true ? (D) A government is said to have far-sightedness when it discourages the use of cars by all. (2) A government is said to have far-sightedness when it encourages green vehicles. (3) A\ government is said to have far-sightedness when it bans all polluting vehicles. (4) A government is said to have far-sightedness when it encourages use of ‘more and more cars. 24. There is one error in the passage. Find from the given option. (2) had shows (2) has shows (3) had shown (4) has shown(9) 094P-E-D4 Section B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42) Directions : (Questions 25 to 30). Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : Community Radio has completed 68 years of its journey in the world, According to the data given by UNESCO, more than twenty thousand community radios were established all over the world by the year 2011. The first community radio named the “Minor Radio” was started in 1947 in Bolivia, a Latin American country, as a voice against poverty and social injustice. In Asia, it made its beginning in Sri Lanka in the decades of 1960. This was the era when Radio Ceylon and Vividh Bharati were very popular in India. The role of the Hindi service of Radio Ceylon in linking the people of South Asia through the medium of entertainment, is unforgettable. The beginning of the community radio in India can be traced back to the decade of| 1990s but its transi id use on a large scale could be possible only after the implementation of the Community Policy 2006 of the Government of| India. Community Radio is an invisible od remarkable medium for providing voice to the suppressed sections of the society. Communit Radio Station (CRS) can make the rat process smooth by broadcasting ifyrmatiot/on contemporary issues like community ment, health, education, nutrition, jure, wefnen and child development, Panchayatt and other subjects. It is proving to, be a Deweyful medium to encourage the debate the”government and people besides e the)Janguages spoken by ‘e, sports, arts, culture wns. In this context, Bertolt m}ke the radio a medium of two various communities, lit and popular i Brecht says tha way dialé@ue, there Should be an attempt to make it, truly democratic in order to ensure the actual participation of citizens in public affairs, CRS has been playing an important role in the arets-affes by tsunami, flood, earthquake, cyclone and other calamities. Every year since 2012, 13* Feb observed as the World Radio Day. 25. Select the nearest ‘transmission’ used in, © ropdcasting e word 1g for (@) Enriching (2) Implement (3) Beginning os sad the following three statements and select corr}}t option given at the end : A community radio made its late entry in India due to the popularity of Vividh Bharati and Radio Ceylon in India. ‘The delayed arrival of community radio in India was due to the implementation of the Community Policy of the Government of India as late as in 2006. ‘The late arrival of community radio in India was due to the lack of scientific and technological developments. @ @) (3) Band C are correct _ $9 Only B is correct Only Cis correct Aand B are correct094P-E-D4 (10) 27. What was the purpose of introducing the first|80. Community radio has been named so because Community Radio ? it serves (Q) To safeguard against the natural G)Afle community engaged in the same calamities occupation (2) To elevate the knowledge level of the (2) the people of a ridge society area To draw attention of everyone to social (3) the people of ain religious issues and concerns community, (4) To voice the interests of minorities in (4) the c ity speaking the same society language Directions stions 31 to 36). Read the 28, 13th February is declared as World Radio Day’ | following-passageVand answer the questions that to acknowledge : the role of Community Radio’ in society (2) the role of ‘Radio Ceylon’ in li the | people of South Asia { (3) the role of ‘Vividh rat \ entertaining people (4) the role of ‘Minor Radio’ as a medium against social ~Y The statement by It Brecht given in the passage emphasizes @ radio jinfort in creating new the ple of radio in initiating a debate (3) “Whe role of radio in bringing about Cc popular participation of people a ome of radio in providing information about natural calamities fol fy was conducted in Rajasthan villages the following was reported as a case study by archer. “Sometime in 2007, I went to a small village in Dausa district of Rajasthan, close to Jaipur, to study rural unemployment. I met the Sarpanch and asked him why the villagers do not invest in formal education for their children. The Sarpanch called Gangaram, a B.A., and his brother, an M.A. Both were idle while their family worked in the fields. ‘The Sarpanch asked me to help them get jobs. When Tasked for their specialisation, both had specialised in Political History in Hindi medium. Then, Gangaram told me something that blew my mind. The first bus from the village reached Jaipur at 10 a.m., while the last bus left Jaipur for the village at 8 p.m. In between, Political History in Hindi medium was the only course available at the University. This is the time I realised how our higher education is not helping much in getting employment. The brothers refused to work in the fields because they were graduates. Girls in Dausaqa) are not encouraged for higher studies and are made to get married after class 10. The Sarpanch is already on the lookout for a bride for his elder son. Making the educated graduates like those from Dausa employable through training is need of the times.” 31. Why does the researcher state that higher education is not of much help in getting employment ? (1) The new jobs require people from urban only. new jobs require only English medium candidates. (8) The new jobs require only engineering graduates, Skills learnt in Political History course are not so helpful in getting certain jobs. (4) 32, Which one of the following is causing. maj problem to young people of Dausa for ge good education ? {(2)Buses are not plying for longer hgars (2) Buses are run by private sector (3) They are not getting financial support from the Government (4) They are not allowed £4 travel ifthe bus 33. Which one of the f is an important challenge for the yeung pedp}/of Dausa ? (1) Lack of ielp for agricultural activities ) Th ints do not get them motorbikes to DNpur (3) Lack biiotivation to work in the fields of non-agricultural employment runities 094P-E-D4 84, Why did the Sarpanch ask the researcher to get jobs for his children ? (2) They were engaged in anti-social activities. (2) There was no need for dre) to work on their farms. (3) They were earning a exy low salary in the present jobs. Wa _UT They were not dojng any. . Which of the follow girls in Dausa? 35. not allowed to go for higher hike girls. Q @ able to get jobs quicker than boys. 36 si ssible solutions to the problem of educXted unemployment in Dausa are given below. Which one is not appropriate ? (1) Government should train graduates on non-agriculture activities. (2) Edueated persons may migrate to Jaipur or other cities in search of jobs. Individuals attaining 21 years may be asked to get married. (4) Educated individuals may also be encouraged to work in their farms. 87. Read the two statements given below and ‘answer the question that follows : © Tecuatien soot more tina Potatoes. “Tty P ‘* Onions cost less than Tomatoes. Which one of the following statements is definitely true ? (2) Onions cost less than Potatoes (2) Potatoes and Onions cost equal. (B) Onions are the cheapest. _G Tomatoes are the costliest. eAT094P-E-D4 38, 39. 40. S Which one of the following pairs of words has similar relationship as Teacher : Classroom (1) Pilot : Airport (2) Lawyer : Courtroom (8) Doctor : Pharmacy (4)/Chef : Hotel Read the following brief story and answer the question that follows : It was a very hot summer. All the ponds and lakes had dried up. Two frogs went looking for a new place to live. They found a well. “Let's jump in. There is lots of water here. We can live happily,” said one frog. “No,” said the other. “There is water here now. But if it dries up, we cannot ever come out.” ‘This story attempts to portray that (2) /living happily is not always possible. @ @) wells are not always a safe place to (4) look always for a long term problem. Read the given statements A, B, ©, D and identify the one incorrect option from those that follow : Ravi works as an B. Rahim is a lawy ion toa ©. Romila is a cixil engin’ D. Rohan studied Saw and is engaged as a builder. (2) Ravi dad RohaiVare involved in building wo (2) RaviNRomila and Rohan are involved in uilding works. & la and Ravi are not involved in fstruction works. Rohan and Rahim are connected to law. look always for a short term wintnb problem. a2) 41. Read the following four statements given in jumbled order : A. Ramesh’s father thought he would not do well in his studies. B. Ramesh proved that 7 was wrong, C. He went to the by scoring 90%. D. His mae the opposite. Which of fv Yolloying options presents the above s1 proper sequence ? IY AD.B,C QaBY,D ) Be, D,A A,B, D,C X There are four schools in a town. In School A, 50% of students’ body members are nominated and the rest are elected by all the students, School B conducts students’ body elections in which School C conducts elections but only boys are eligible to vote. School D nominates students to the students’ body based on performance in all students of classes 6—12 vote. examinations. Which school(s) _ follow(s) democratic principles to the maximum extent ? (@ Only A (2) BandC eh oie (4) AandD(43) o94P-8-D4 Section C : Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60) Directions : (Questions 43 to 46). Read the|43, Given below is a bar graph showing the weight the et passage and answer the questions that of an object on different planets and Moon : ‘Many people consider mass and weight as one and the eame physical quantity though these: 72 are not same. The quantity of matter in an object 100 makes its mass. Its value remains the same to 80 whichever place on Earth or even to a different] > 7 heavenly body it is taken. It is also the measure of | = another property of a body called inertia, More is, 3 | 0 the mass of a body, greater is its inertia, Inertia is F Fr actually the property or tendency of the body due to which it continues to be in its own state of rest or of uniform motion until an external force changes this state. On the other hand, weight of a body is the xy of for ienced by it due to fa yf Pet ae x! S aae e ‘ich of the following is correct in accordance wity. Its precise value varies when the b eg nd with this bar graph for another object. of taken fr ne pl: on Earth t nthe a A Soma en are ee weight 60 N on the surface of Moon ? different heavenly body. This happens due to change in the force of gravity at different plages. The force of gravity may increase or decrease depenting/pon (1)/ Its weight on the surface of Jupiter will the location of the new place. Otketwise, welght and pe 850-2. mass are directly proportionglito each difier. Greater its weight. While (2) Its weight on the surface of Mars will be 40-4. is the mass of a body, grt mass is measured in kildgram (kg), weight is cenit el Nawtom. AD, Ancobject of (3) Its weight on the surface of Mercury will mass 1 kg on welhs 98 N and similarly be 185-4 N. another object of maso2-K weighs 19-6 N. Weight of any other ghjs ies exactly by the same factor. (4) Its weight on the surface of Venus will be Also, the weig] object on Moon is about 1/6 of| AEST N. its welg Earth.094P-E-D4 44, A science fiction movie was shown to students of class VIII. In the movie, two aliens XIGO and LIXO came on Earth from two different planets. XIGO weighs 245N while LIXO weighs 392 N on Earth. However, on their own planets XIGO weighs 49 N and LIXO weighs 196N. From this information, students concluded the following : (i) Mass of LIXO is more than that of XIGO. (i) Force of gravity on a given mass on ‘LIXO’s planet is less than that on Earth. Foree of gravity on a given mass will be more on XIGO's planet than(that Earth and LIXO’s planet. Which one of the following is érue)dbout the students’ conclusions ? (1) All conclusjons ) wi} And (iii) are correct. (2) Coneifgions (i)/and (ii) are correct, ¢ ii) is not correct. ¢ nelusions (ii) and (iii) are correct, co}}clusion (i) is not correct. (Ff Conclusions (i) and (iii) are correct, conclusion (ii) is not correct. (14) 45. Which one of the following graphs shows the correct proportionality between mass and weight of abody? * \Y) x Ols a G)— i A body of mass m kg on Earth is taken to Moon. As compared to Earth, on Moon, its tia will remain the same whereas weight will change. @ (2) weight as well as inertia will change. (3) weight as well as inertia will remain the same, (4 weight will remain the same: whereas inertia will change.as) 094P-E_-D4 Directions © (Questions 47 1 50). Read the Final match was played between @ fad following passage and answer the questions that Argentina. Germany became the world champon by follow : defeating Argentina with a score the final match. During the final mgtch, a tot\¥/1601 passes Football is one of the most popular games . ~ i were made of which only 1) completed. In Played. The 20" Federation of International ll, 171 goals were in the tow ent. The Football Association (FIFA) World Cup. football | ™ sa ery = ene last titleholders, ‘ere eliminated at the tournament was organized in Brazil from 12 June to up stage whjle-the host ation finished fourth in 18 July 2014. The participating teams were divided | 7°? 58 ane the tourna Polombian team won “FIFA in 8 groups of 4-teams each. There were five stages Fair Pil, ‘With the tournament's best of the tournament : LY pftiscip and sportsmanship record, dD ah 0, 1. FirstStoge + Group stage () % nee Second Stage : Roundotig © E544 % Second Stage : Round o AA JE” Wich one of the following diagrams correctly * shws the Percentage of completed and . 7 fi p A S Third Stoge Quarterfinals (7 ompleted passos during the final match? ys 4. Fourth Stage : Semi-finals © Unconptted why iGon i Uncen pone a igor Bo ee - we 19° 5. Fifth Stage: Final vi ( J seid @ ie. ee et Computes “EE Each team in the first stage played one match pass A B against each of the other toams o up) Top Uncomplee two teams from each Sroup quatified for Round of| am 16. Second stage onwards ‘th3 hatches were i knockout games i.e. only team of a match —— will advance to the nexstage-Tn the second stage, D 3 cach team played oni one mal¥h against one of the ‘Aa other teams and/baif th)teams qualified for the @ D : S followed f AF) 13) W's next stage. Same\ridess was followed for Bd ry, advancemey( up ta fifth stage. One extra match was - @ Be » 300 Played between logtrs of semi-finals to decide the , ° third rth place teams. HOuGwD oy ee Se ~ 094P-E-D4 a © oe 48, How many matches must 49. ahammar ie Toa 50. y “Py ‘team have played if they finished fourth in the tournament ? ww @) 4 @) 5 @) 6 What were the average goals scored per match, Q in the tournament ? (1) 3-00 (2) 267 g/m aX 56 How manf tital matches were played in the first st nt? ie « 48 (4) 52 (16) 51. et *, Ce - \ ~ Neha has blocks with numbepd printed on it. She makes a pyramid so th: the two adjacent blocks is equal to the ber on the block placed above them (as shown below). 22, a7 [5 If she applies pyramid the 8 blocks ‘principle to make a shown below, what number zfust replace the question mark (2) ? reg]? | bO ahs | als 6 V/F{[n 11 [4 7) @) 58 (3) 59 7 60 52. In a “Throwball League Match”, a player can earn points as per the following rules : Ifball remains within 10 metres If ball reaches beyond 10 metres but less than 50 metres Ifball reaches beyond 50 metres No points earned 05 points 07 points 6 E A player can throw the ball maximum up to 10 times. Points earned in each throw are added to get the total score of the player. Which of the following scores cannot be a possible total score of any player ? (1) 26 (2) 19 wre (4) 54a7) Rahul used 4 rings on the abacus rod to make numbers. He used-only units and tens place rods to make numbers, hence making the follwing numbers : 4, 13, 22, 31, 40 Represents 4 Represents 31 How many numbers can he make using six rings if he uses only tens Se ee Tn a fair you throw three following dartboard to score a tof of the darts can hit same part of dat more than once. If you score on each dart that you throw, in how mai score a total of 60? ny ways is jt possible to a) V6 wn, § Dn yy SB Ease ar TE Ow jo Se o94P-E-D4 55. ‘Two meh, starting at the same point, walk in opposite directions for 12 metrés> eir left and walk another 5 metres. is the distance between them not x6? om (2) 13 metres (3) 24 mety <7 (4) 34 metre: S a classroom the seating plan of seven stagénts — P, @, R, S, ‘I, U and Vis as follows : Ly P sits in between Q and R. Ly S sits behind T. Ussits between R and T. V sits on the last desk. Qsits in the front. ‘According to the above seating plan, who sits on. V desk number III in the given picture ? Tw ee chan aoa nom wiv ‘gS TR @ P @ R @ T @ Uo94P-E-D4 57. If you have to use all the four mathematical operations (+, -, x) +) only once in the blanks below, what is the maximum number you get if. at no stage you have a fraction or a negative number ? a gr 16 (@) 9 @) 6 (4) 18 58. The following graph shows the medals won by India in Commonwealth Games from 1994 to 2014. BB eS 8 10 4—' Number of medals won —> rears tos suiy 005 Year, —> Deoa BM sitver difference between the ‘and bronze medals In which year was number of gild medi maximum, 14 (1s) 59. Your grandmother counts upto 108 using the fingers and the thumb of her left hand. If she starts counting from the thumb (Marked A) as 1 to the Little finger (marked E) as 5/@nd comes back to the thumb, on which finger she end up after counting 108? B D E ME @ [A fruit seller does not use currency. Instead he uses the following exchange rates : 10 Strawberries = 2 Apples 1 Apple = 2 Bananas 4 Bananas = 1 Mango On the basis of the above exchange rates, how many strawberries are equal to one mango ? a4 @ 8 10 @ 12