Industrial Chemistry MCQ

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View
Part XIII Industrial Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions

Chemistry: Chapter 52 Importance of industrial processes
Section 52.1
1
Which of the following substances is NOT contained in the mixture left from a
chemical reactor?
A. Desired products
B. Unconverted raw materials
C. Coolant
D. By-products
2
Which of the following substances is NOT a synthetic product?
A. Aspirin
B. Petroleum
C. PVC
D. MTBE
3
Which of the following best explains why an understanding of electrolysis has made a
significant impact on the production of synthetic products?
A. Electrolysis does not require an energy source.
B. Electrolysis can be used to split water into hydrogen and oxygen.
C. Electrolysis provides a way to make non-spontaneous reactions occur.
D. Electrolysis can be used to produce aluminium.
4
Which of the following statements about bulk chemicals is INCORRECT?
A. Bulk chemicals are usually simple and basic chemicals.
B. Bulk chemicals are sold thousands of tonnes per year.
Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

C.
D.
Hydrogen is an example of bulk chemical.

All bulk chemicals are made from petroleum and natural gas.
5
Which of the following synthetic materials is usually used to make clothes?
A. Polyester
B. Wool
C. Polyethene
D. Cotton
6
Which of the following substances is a bulk chemical?
A. Water
B. Plastic
C. Petroleum
D. Ammonia
7
Which of the following chemicals can be used to produce nitrogenous fertilizers?
(1) Ammonium chloride
(2) Sulphuric acid
(3) Ammonia
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
8
Which of the following combinations concerning the consumer product and the
chemical of which it is made is correct?

Consumer product
Chemical
A.
Disposable foam food box
PVC
B.
Wrapping film for food
Nylon
C.
Shower curtain
Polypropene
D.
Contact lens
Perspex
9
Which of the following is NOT a bulk chemical?
A. Petroleum
B. Ammonia
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Chlorine
10
Which of the following combinations concerning the chemicals and their production
processes are correct?
Chemical
Production process
(1)
Ammonia
Haber process
(2)
Sulphuric acid
Contact process
(3)
Vitamin C
Reichstein process
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only

(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
(1), (2) and (3)
11
Which of the following substances is NOT a bulk chemical?
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Sodium chloride
C. Water
D. Methanol

12
Which of the following are the general functions of water which is used in an
industrial process?
(1) Coolant
(2) Solvent
(3) Catalyst
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
Section 52.2
13
Which of the following statements is NOT an advantage of using petrochemical
industry for manufacturing products?
A. It increases job opportunities for the people living near the chemical plant.
B. It improves traffic network around the place where the chemical plant is
built.
C. It makes full use of a particular fraction from petroleum.
D. It produces a wide range of products.
14
Which of the following substances is used to produce ethene in petrochemical
chemistry?
A. Ethanol
B. Glucose
C. Petroleum
D. Polyethene

15
Which of the following substances is NOT made from petrochemicals?
A. Detergent
B. Textile
C. Drug
D. Brine
16
Which of the following statement(s) about petrochemical industry is/are correct?
(1) Petrochemical industry is an industry that produces petrol.
(2) Petrochemical industry produces chemicals from petroleum or natural gas.
(3) Ethene, benzene and chlorine are useful petrochemicals to produce synthetic
products.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
17
Which of the following statements are the advantages of using petrochemical industry
for manufacturing products?
(1) Large-scale production lowers the production cost of each product.
(2) Make full use of natural resources.
(3) A wide variety of products are produced.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
Section 52.3
18
Which of the following statements concerning the production of ascorbic acid is

correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reichstein process is the only method for the production of ascorbic acid.
Sucrose is used as feedstock.
Bacteria are used for fermentation in the production process.
Reichstein process is a one-stage process.
19
Which of the following is a method for the manufacturing of vitamin C?
A. Haber process
B. Electrolysis
C. Reichstein process
D. Carbon reduction
20
Which of the following is NOT the symptom caused by the deficiency of vitamin C?
A. Poor wound healing
B. Night blindness
C. Bleeding or inflamed gums
D. Loose teech
21
Which of the following statements about vitamin C is correct?
A. The chemical name for vitamin C is acetic acid.
B. The intermediate compound formed in Reichstein process is called KGA.
C. The overall production cost of vitamin C by two-stage fermentation process
is higher when compared to Reichstein process.
D. The overall yield of vitamin C from glucose in Reichstein process is similar
to that in two-stage fermentation process.

22
Which of the following is the desired product of Reichstein process?
A. KGA
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Sorbitol
D. Sorbose
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of
the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not
the second statement is a correct explanation of the first statement. Then select
one option from A to D according to the following table:
A.
Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation
of the 1st statement.

B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct
explanation of the 1st statement.
C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true.
D. Both statements are false.
Section 52.1
23
Urea-formaldehyde can be used to
build houses.
Urea-formaldehyde is a man-made
polymer.
24
Calcium carbonate is an example of
natural raw material.
Natural raw materials are substances

that are fed into the chemical reactor
and converted to the desired product.
25
Iron ore is an example of natural raw
material.
Oxides of iron can be obtained from

iron ore.

Section 52.2
26
Plastics are made from petrochemicals
only.
Polyethene, polypropene and polyvinyl

chloride are made from petrochemicals.
Chemistry: Chapter 53 Rate equation

Section 53.1
27
Which of the following is the correct unit of rate constant for an overall first order
reaction?
A.
B.
mol1 dm3 s1
s1
C.
D.
mol dm3 s1
mol1 dm3 s1
28
Which of the following statements concerning rate equation is/are INCORRECT?
(1) The orders of reaction with respect to the reactant can be any real numbers.
(2) Rate equation can only be written for irreversible reactions.
(3) Rate equation shows the quantitative relationship between concentration and rate
constant.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
29
What is the overall order of reaction for the following reaction?
H+
2A + B products
A. Zeroth
B. First

C.
D.
Second
Cannot be determined.
Section 53.2
30
An experiment was carried out to study the following reaction:
A+BC
The following data was recorded from the experiment.
[A] (mol dm3)
Rate (mol dm3 s1)
1 103
2 104
2 103
4 104
3 103
6 104
4 103
8 104
Given that [B] is in largely excess in the reaction mixture. Which of the following
conclusions can be drawn from the above data?
A. The rate is directly proportional to [A].
B. The rate is directly proportional to [A]2.
C. The rate is inversely proportional to [A].
D. The rate is inversely proportional to [A]2.
31
The rate equation of a second order reaction was found to be
rate = k[A]2
where k is the rate constant of the reaction. Which of the following statements are
correct?
(1) The rate of reaction increased when the temperature was increased.
(2) When the rate of reaction is plotted against [A]2, a straight line passing through
the origin is obtained.
(3) The half-life of A can be calculated by
A.
B.
C.
0.693
.
k
(1) and (2) only

(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only

D.
(1), (2) and (3)
32
The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 2010 yr. What is the rate constant of the
decay?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.45 105 yr1

3.45 104 yr1
4.98 105 yr1
4.98 104 yr1
33
Hydrogen iodide gas decomposes on a hot gold surface at high pressures:
2HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)
It is found that the reaction rate is independent of the concentration of HI(g). We can
deduce that the reaction is
A. first order with respect to HI(g).
B. zeroth order with respect to I 2 (g).
C.
D.
first order with respect to H 2 (g).

zeroth order with respect to HI(g).
34
Which of the following statements concerning rate constant are correct?
(1) It is temperature dependent.
(2) A smaller value of rate constant indicates a slower reaction.
(3) Its value may be equal to the rate of reaction.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
35
10

Which of the following statements concerning the rate constant at a certain

temperature is/are correct?
(1) It depends on the temperature of reaction.
(2) It depends on the size of reactants.
(3) It depends on the concentration of reactants.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
36
The rate equation for a reaction was found to be
rate = 3.36 102[A]
Which of the following graphs concerning the reaction is correct?
A.
B.
Rate
Rate
[A]
C.
[A]
D.
Rate
[A]2
Rate
[A]
37
11

The decomposition of SO 2 Cl 2 (l) to SO 2 (g) and Cl 2 (g) is a first order reaction. The
rate constant of the decomposition is 0.169 hr1. What is the half-life of SO 2 Cl 2 ?
A. 0.2 hr
B. 0.4 hr
C. 4.1 hr
D. 8.2 hr
38
A reaction was found to be a third order reaction. Which of the following is the
correct unit of rate constant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
mol dm3 s1
dm3 mol1 s1
dm6 mol2 s1
mol2 dm6 s2
39
For a first order reaction, the half-life of the reactant is found to be 30 min. What is
the rate constant of the reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.31 102 s1
2.31 102 hr1
3.85 104 s1
3.85 104 hr1
40
The rate constant of a second order reaction is found to be 3.78 dm3 mol1 s1 at a
certain temperature. What will be the rate constant if the concentration of one of the
reactants is halved at that temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.945 dm3 mol1 s1

1.89 dm3 mol1 s1
3.78 dm3 mol1 s1
7.56 dm3 mol1 s1
12

41
rate = k[H 2 (g)][NO(g)]2
Which of the following statements concerning this reaction MUST be correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The chemical equation for the reaction is H 2 (g) + 2NO(g) products.

The reaction is a one-step reaction.
The reaction is a second order reaction.
The reaction is a third order reaction.
42
The half-life of 214Bi is 19.7 min. If there is 0.001 g of 214Bi initially, what is the mass
of 214Bi after 59.1 min?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.25 104 g
2.50 104 g
3.33 104 g
5.00 104 g
43
The half-life of radioactive 55Cr is 1.8 hr. The delivery of a sample of this isotope
from the reactor to your laboratory requires about 10.8 hr. What is the minimum
amount of such material that should be shipped, so that you can receive 1.0 mg of
55
Cr?
A. 128 mg
B. 64 mg
C. 32 mg
D. 11 mg
44
At 100C, nitrogen dioxide decomposes to nitrogen monoxide and oxygen according
to the following equation:
13

NO 2 (g) NO(g) +
1
O 2 (g)
2
A plot of rate of reaction against [NO 2 (g)]2 is shown below.

Rate
[NO 2 (g)]2
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The reaction is a first order reaction.
B. The reaction is a second order reaction.
C. The rate constant can be determined from the slope of the line.
D.
The unit of rate constant is mol1 dm3 s1.
45
The rate equation of the reaction, 2NO(g) + Cl 2 (g) 2NOCl(g), is
rate = k[NO(g)]2[Cl 2 (g)]
The value of rate constant can be increased by
(1) increasing the temperature.
(2) increasing the concentration of NO(g).
(3) increasing the concentration of Cl 2 (g).
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
46
14

3
2
The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[C] . If the rate of reaction is 0.020 mol
dm3 s1 when [C] = 1.0 mol dm3, what is the rate of reaction when [C] = 0.60 mol
dm3?
A. 0.0093 mol dm3 s1
B. 0.012 mol dm3 s1
C. 0.033 mol dm3 s1
D. 0.040 mol dm3 s1
Section 53.3
47
You are given some information about the following reaction at 298 K:
X + Y products
Experiment
Initial concentration (mol dm3)
Initial rate
[X]
[Y]
(mol dm3 s1)
0.9
0.9
R1
0.9
3.6
R2
1.8
0.9
R3
1.8
1.8
R4
If the rate equation of this reaction is: rate = k[X]2[Y], where k is the rate constant.
Which of the following sequences is correct?
A. R 1 < R 2 = R 4 < R 3
B. R 1 < R 2 = R 3 < R 4
C. R 1 < R 4 < R 3 < R 2
D. R 3 < R 4 = R 2 < R 1
48
You are given some information about the following reaction at 298 K:
X + Y products
Experiment
Initial rate
[X]
[Y]
(mol dm3 s1)
2.25
2.00
12.0
4.00
3.00
54.0
15

The rate equation of this reaction is: rate =
1
k[X] 2
[Y]z, where k is the rate constant.
Deduce the order of reaction with respect to Y.

A.
1
4
B.
1
3
C.
D.
3
4
49
The rate equation for a reaction is found to be:
rate = k[A]x[B]y
Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) The overall order of reaction is x + y.
(2) If [A] is largely greater than [B], and if y equals zero, the graph of rate against
[B] will give a horizontal straight line.
(3) If [A] is doubled while [B] is halved, the rate of reaction must remain
unchanged.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
50
The rate equation for a reaction was found to be:
rate = k[A]x
when the concentration of A was doubled, the rate of reaction quadrupled. Deduce the
value of x.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
16

51
Consider the following reactions:
A + B products
The rate equation for the reaction was found to be:
rate = k[A][B]2
Which of the following statements concerning this reaction is INCORRECT?
A. It is a third order reaction.
B. The reaction is first order with respect to [A].
C. A graph of rate against [B] is a straight line passing through the origin.
D. Under the same [A] and the temperature, the reaction rate nonupled (i.e.
increased by nine times) when [B] was tripled.
52
rate = 0.357[A]2[B]3
Assume the unit of reaction rate is mol dm3 s1. Which of the following statements
MUST be correct?
A. The reactant side of the chemical equation is 2A + 3B.
B.
C.
D.

The reaction rate doubled when [A] was doubled while keeping [B]
constant.
The reaction rate remained unchanged when [A] was increased by three
times and that of [B] was decreased by half.
53
The rate equation for a reaction was
rate = 5[X][Y]2
Assume the unit of reaction rate is mol dm3 s1. Which of the following statements
MUST be correct?
A. The half-life of the reaction is 1.39 hr.
B. A plot of [Y] against time is a straight line.
C. The reaction rate increased by six times when both [X] and [Y] were
doubled.
17

D.
54
You are given some information about the following reaction at 298 K.
A+B+C D+E
[A]
[B]
[C]
Initial rate ( 105

mol dm3 s1)
0.10
0.05
0.04
0.48
0.20
0.05
0.08
1.92
0.10
0.15
0.04
1.44
0.20
0.10
0.02
0.24
Experiment
What is the rate equation for the above reaction?

A.
Rate = k[A][B][C]
B.
Rate = k[A] 2 [B]2[C]
C.
Rate = k[A]0[B][C]2
D.
Rate = k[A] [B][C]
1
2
55
An experiment was carried out to study the following reaction.
X(g) + Y(g) Z(g)
The table below lists the results of the experiment.
Experiment
Initial rate
[X(g)]
[Y(g)]
(mol dm3 s1)
0.400
2.00
6.20 103
0.800
2.00
2.48 102
0.400
4.00
1.24 102
0.500
1.50
To be calculated
Calculate the initial rate of reaction in Experiment 4.

A.
4.36 103 mol dm3 s1
B.
C.
5.81 103 mol dm3 s1

7.28 103 mol dm3 s1
18

D.
9.69 103 mol dm3 s1
56
The rate equation for the reaction, 2H 2 (g) + 2NO(g) N 2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l), is
rate = k[H 2 (g)][NO(g)]2
If [H 2 (g)] is halved and [NO(g)] is doubled, the rate of reaction will
A. increase by four times.
B. remain the same.
C. increase by six times.
D. increase by two times.
A.
Section 53.1
57
The order of reaction with respect to a
reactant must be an integer.

particular reactant is equal to the
stoichiometric coefficient of that
reactant in the chemical equation.
58
The overall order of reaction is the sum

19

reactant can be a fraction.
of the orders of reaction with respect to

each reactant in the chemical equation.
Section 53.2
59
Rate constant is inversely proportional
to half-life for the first order reaction.
The half-life is independent of the

initial concentration of reactant for the
first order reaction.
Chemistry: Chapter 54 Activation energy

Section 54.1
60
Which of the following statements about exothermic reaction is/are correct?
(1) Energy is required to break bonds of the reactants and start the reaction.
(2) The energy of the products is greater than that of the reactants.
(3) The activation energy of exothermic reaction is higher than that of endothermic
reaction.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
Energy
61
The energy profile for a single step reaction, A
B is shown below:
A
B
Reaction coordinate
20

What is the activation energy of the reaction B A?

A. 30 kJ mol1
B. 20 kJ mol1
C. 30 kJ mol1
D. 50 kJ mol1
62
Which of the following is the correct energy profile of an exothermic reaction?
Energy
A.
Reaction coordinate
Energy
B.
Reaction coordinate
Energy
C.
Reaction coordinate
21

Energy
D.
Reaction coordinate
63
Which of the following statements concerning activation energy is/are correct?
(1) Itisthemaximumenergyrequiredforachemicalreactiontooccur.
(2) Itisthedifferenceinenergybetweenthereactantsandthetransitionstate.
(3) Itisthedifferenceinenergybetweentheproductsandthetransitionstate.
A. (1)only
B.
C.
D.
(2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
64
Whichofthefollowingstatementsaboutthespeciesthatexistsatthepointof
maximumenergyintheenergyprofilearecorrect?
(1) It contains partially broken and completely formed bonds.
(2) It is very unstable and can never be isolated.
(3) It is formed in the transition state of a chemical reaction.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1),(2)and(3)
65
22

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Activation energy determines the rate of a reaction.
B. When the reactant particles collide at sufficiently high speed, reaction
occurs.
C. A reversible reaction possesses one single value of activation energy.
D. Activation energy determines the amount of energy in breaking and forming
bonds.
66
Which of the following statements concerning an energy profile is INCORRECT?
A. It shows the energy change of chemical species during a reaction.
B. The enthalpy change of the reaction can be obtained from the energy
profile.
C. Only one transition state is observed.
D. The activated complex cannot be isolated.
67
Consider the following reaction,
2SO 3 (g)
H = 196 kJ mol1
2SO 2 (g) O 2 (g)
A. The energy of the reactants is less than that of the product.
B. The activation energy of the backward reaction is greater than that of the
forward reaction.
C. The activation energy is lower when the temperature is lower.
D. The rate constant of backward reaction is larger than that of the forward
reaction.
68
Which of the following statements concerning the energy profile is correct?
A. The x-axis represents energy, while the y-axis represents reaction
coordinate.
23

B.
C.
D.
The species that exists at the point of maximum energy is called the
activated complex.
The activated complex contains partially broken bonds only.
The difference in energy between the reactants and the transition state is the
enthalpy change, H of the reaction.
69
A reaction is endothermic when
A. the energy of the reactants is greater than that of the products.
B. the energy of the reactants is less than that of the products.
C. the activation energy of the reaction is greater than that of the reactants.
D. the activation energy of the reaction is less than that of the reactants.
70
Which of the following are the requirements for a reaction to occur?
(1) The reactant particles have to collide.
(2) The reactant particles must be correctly orientated to one another.
(3) The reactant particles have to posses energy equal to or greater than the
activation energy.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1),(2)and(3)
71
Which of the following statements concerning a one-step exothermic reaction are
correct?
(1) The energy of the products is less than that of the reactants.
(2) The energy of the activated complex is greater than that of the products.
(3) The activation energy is the energy difference between the reactants and the
transition state.
A. (1) and (2) only
24

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1),(2)and(3)
Section 54.2
72
WhichofthefollowingstatementsconcerningtheareaunderMaxwellBoltzmann
distributioncurveiscorrect?
A. Itisequaltothetotalnumberofparticlesinthesystem.
B. Itisequaltothetotalenergyofparticlesinthesystem.
C. Itisequaltotheaveragenumberofparticlesinthesystem.
D. Itisequaltotheaverageenergyofparticlesinthesystem.
73
Which of the following statements concerning the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
curves at different temperatures, i.e. T 1 > T 2 is INCORRECT?
A. Theareasunderthetwocurvesarethesame.
B. ThemostprobablekineticenergyatT 2 ishigherthanthatatT 1 .
C. Theaveragekineticenergyisontherightofthemaximumpointofboth
curves.
D. ThemaximumkineticenergyofparticlesatT 1 ishigherthanthatatT 2 .
74
What is the activation energy of the following backward reaction?
N 2 O 4 (g)
2NO 2 (g)
(Given: H = +54.0 kJ mol1 and E a = 57.2 kJ mol1)
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.2 kJ mol1
54.0 kJ mol1
57.2 kJ mol1
111.2 kJ mol1
25

75
WhichofthefollowingstatementsabouttheMaxwellBoltzmanndistributioncurve
is/arecorrectwhentemperaturerises?
(1) Theareaunderthecurveincreases.
(2) Thecurveisflattened.
(3) Thenumberofparticleswiththemostprobablekineticenergyincreases.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) only
(2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2)and(3)only
76
Which of the following statements concerning the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
curve is correct?
A. The most probable kinetic energy is on the right of the average kinetic
energy.
B. The curve can be symmetric.
C. The area under the curve represents the total energy of the particles.
D. The maximum point of the curve is shifted to the left and gets higher when
temperature decreases.
77
A. Activation energy of an endothermic reaction becomes lower when
temperature decreases.
B. The area under the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve increases at a
higher temperature.
C. The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction.
D. An increase in reaction rate with a rise in temperature is mainly due to the
increase in chance of collisions between particles.
26

78
When temperature increases, the rate of reaction increases because
A. the chance of collisions between the reactant particles increases.
B. the number of reactant particles possessing energy equal to or greater than
the activation energy increases.
C. the reaction is endothermic.
D. the reaction is exothermic.
79
Which of the following statements about the following Maxwell-Boltzmann
distribution curve is INCORRECT?
Number of particles
T1
T2
Kinetic energy
A.
B.
C.
D.
T 2 is higher than T 1 .
The activation energy of the reaction at T 1 is different from that at T 2 .
More reactant particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation
energy at T 2 .
The areas under the curves at T 1 and T 2 are the same.
80
Consider the following Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curves at T 1 and T 2
respectively, where T 1 < T 2 .
27

Number of particles
T1
T2
Ea
Kinetic energy
Which of the following statements about the curve are correct?

(1) The most probable kinetic energy at T 1 is smaller than that at T 2 .
(2) More particles have energy equal to or greater than E a at T 2 .
(3) The area under the curve at T 2 is larger than that at T 1 .
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
81
Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) At a higher temperature, the activation energy of a reaction decreases.
(2) The energy profile provides information about the enthalpy change of a reaction.
(3) The activated complex is formed in the transition state of a reaction.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
82
Which of the following statements concerning the Maxwell-Boltzman distribution
curve is INCORRECT?
A. It shows the number of particles with energy equal to or greater than the
activation energy of the reaction.
28

B.
C.
D.
The average kinetic energy is at the maximum point of the curve.

The area under the curve remains unchanged at any temperatures.
It is a plot of the number of particles having a particular amount of energy.
Section 54.3
83
Considerthefollowingreaction:
X 2 2X
Therateconstantsfortheabovereactionat30Cand100Care0.51010s1and
221010s1respectively.
Calculatetheactivationenergyofthereaction.
(Given:R=8.314JK1mol1)
A. 318.0kJmol1
B. 50.7kJmol1
C. 22.1kJmol1
D. 6.10kJmol1
84
Forachemicalreactionat30C,therateconstantandtheactivationenergyare0.5
1010s1and50.8kJmol1respectively.
CalculatethecorrespondingArrheniusconstant.
A. 0.0286
B. 0.0375
C. 0.0497
D. 0.0608
85
Consider the following reaction:
A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)
A series of experiments were carried out to study the reaction rates at different
temperatures. The experimental results are shown in the table below:
29

Temperature (K)
Rate constant (mol dm3 s1)
5000
5.49 106
10 000
9.86 108
15 000
5.57 109
18 000
9.92 109
What is the activation energy of the reaction?

A.
B.
C.
D.
25.9 kJ mol1
51.8 kJ mol1
187.4 kJ mol1
431.1 kJ mol1
86
Whatistheactivationenergyforaparticularreactioniftheratedoubleswhenthe
temperatureisraisedfrom25Cto35C?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.35 kJ mol1
23.0 kJ mol1
34.7 kJ mol1
52.8 kJ mol1
87
The Arrhenius equation, k Ae
Ea
RT
shows the relationship between temperature and
reaction rate. Which of the following conditions will lead to the slowest reaction?
A. high T and large E a
B.
C.
D.
high T and small E a

low T and large E a
low T and small E a
30

88
The activation energy of a certain reaction is 87 kJ mol1. What is the ratio of the rate
constants for the reaction when the temperature is decreased from 37C to 15C?
A.
B.
C.
D.
k 37C
k 37C
k 37C
k 37C
: k 15C
: k 15C
: k 15C
: k 15C
= 1.00 : 1
= 1.12 : 1
= 13.2 : 1
= 379 : 1
89
2N 2 O(g) 2N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
The rate constants of the above reaction at 270C and 350C are 1.3 1011 s1 and
4.5 1010 s1 respectively. What is the activation energy of the reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.0 kJ mol1
54.1 kJ mol1
68.0 kJ mol1
124.5 kJ mol1
90
Many reactions occur more rapidly at high temperatures than at low temperatures.
Which of the following statements concerning the above phenomenon is/are correct?
(1) At lower temperature, the activation energy of the reaction decreases.
(2) At lower temperature, the rate constant of the reaction decreases.
(3) At lower temperature, less reactant particles have energy equal to or greater than
the activation energy.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
31

91
It is known that Arrhenius equation relates temperature, rate constant and activation
energy together. By plotting a graph of log k against
1
, activation energy and
T
Arrhenius constant can be determined from the graph. Which of the following
combinations is correct?
slopeofthegraphisequalto
yinterceptisequalto
A.
E a
B.
Ea
C.
Ea
logA
Ea
2.3 R
logA
D.
92
Usethefollowingdatatodeterminetheactivationenergyforthereactionbelow:
A+BC
Temperature(C)
Rateconstant(moldm3s1)
350
0.096
400
0.400
1
(Given:R=8.314JK mol )
A. 5.20kJmol1
B. 11.95kJmol1
C. 43.21kJmol1
D. 99.38kJmol1
93
The rate of a reaction at 120C is five times faster than that at 80C. What is the
activation energy of the reaction?
A.
B.
C.
3.21 kJ mol1
5.58 kJ mol1
20.2 kJ mol1
32

D.
46.4 kJ mol1
94
AB
If the rate of the above reaction at 520 K was four times faster than that at 500 K,
what is the activation energy of the reaction?
(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.8 kJ mol1
18.0 kJ mol1
65.1 kJ mol1
149.7 kJ mol1
95
At 25C, the rate constant for the reaction
AB+C
is 0.0503 s1. At 60C, the rate constant is 6.71 s1. Determine the activation energy,
E a for this reaction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.0 kJ mol1
13.9 kJ mol1
50.1 kJ mol1
115.2 kJ mol1
96
Which of the following statements concerning the Arrhenius equation are correct?
(1) It relates temperature, rate constant and activation energy together.
(2) It is used to explain the effect of change in temperature on reaction rate.
(3) It is used to determine the activation energy of a reaction.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
33

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1),(2)and(3)
A.
Sections 54.154.3
97
An increase in temperature increases
reaction rate.
Where there is an increase in

temperature, the exponential factor of
the Arrhenius equation increases.
98
An increase in temperature increases
reaction rate.
At higher temperatures, the number of

particles with energy equal to or greater
than the activation energy increases.
99
The Arrhenius equation is applicable to
either exothermic or endothermic
reactions.
The Arrhenius equation indicates that

an increase in temperature increases
reaction rate.
34

Chemistry: Chapter 55 Catalysis and industrial processes

Section 55.1
100
Which of the following statements concerning catalysts is INCORRECT?
A. They do not affect the yield of products.
B. They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a different activation
energy.
C. All catalysts can increase the rate of reaction.
D. The reaction rate increases with increasing amount of catalyst until a limit is
reached where larger amounts of catalyst have no further effect on the
reaction rate.
101
Which of the following statements concerning a catalyst is/are correct?
(1) It reacts with one of the reactants to form a product.
(2) The amount of catalyst remains unchanged at the end of the reaction.
(3) The greater the amount of catalyst used, the faster the reaction.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
102
Which of the following combinations concerning the energy profile of an endothermic
reaction is correct?
Specieswiththehighestenergy
Specieswiththelowestenergy
A.
Theactivatedcomplex
Theproducts
B.
Theactivatedcomplex
Thereactants
C.
Thereactants
Theproducts
D.
Theintermediate
Thereactants
35

Section 55.2
103
The diagram below is the energy profile of a reaction in the absence of a catalyst.
Which of the following quantities indicated in the diagram are NOT affected by the
presence of a catalyst?
Energy
III
II
Reaction coordinate
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
104
Which of the following statements about catalysts is INCORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They are needed in very small amounts.

They are very specific in action.
They increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy of the
reaction.
They remain chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction.
105
Which of the following species is the one at the trough between two transition states
in an energy profile of a reaction?
A. Reactant
B. Activated complex
C. Intermediate
D. Product
36

106
Which of the following statements concerning a reaction in the presence of a catalyst
is correct?
A. The most probable kinetic energy on the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
curve shifts to the right if a catalyst is used in the reaction.
B. The activation energy of the uncatalysed reaction is lowered.
C. The yield of the reaction increases.
D. The reaction proceeds through a different pathway.
107
Which of the following statements concerning catalysts is/are correct?
(1) They can increase the yield of a reaction.
(2) They do not affect the enthalpy change of a reaction.
(3) They are in solid phase only.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
Section 55.3
108
Which of the following curves represents the effect of positive catalyst on the
equilibrium reaction?
37
Concentration of product

Reaction without catalyst

C
D
Time
109
Which of the following are the effects of catalyst on an exothermic reaction?
(1) It speeds up the reaction.
(2) It slows down the reaction.
(3) It increases the yield of products.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
110
Which of the following quantities of an equilibrium reaction are NOT changed in the
presence of a catalyst at constant temperature?
(1) The activation energy of the reaction without the presence of the catalyst.
(2) The equilibrium concentrations of the products.
(3) The enthalpy change of the reaction.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
38

111
Consider an exothermic reversible reaction. After adding a catalyst to the reaction,
A. the rate of forward reaction is increased by a larger extent.
B. the reaction becomes more exothermic.
C. the equilibrium concentrations of the reactants remain unchanged.
D. the rate of backward reaction rate is decreased.
112
Which of the following statements concerning a catalyst is INCORRECT?
A. It increases the rates of both forward and backward reactions in an
equilibrium to the same extent.
B. It shortens the time for the reaction to reach equilibrium.
C. It does not affect the enthalpy change of the reaction.
D. It lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
113
Which of the following statements concerning the catalysts is/are correct?
(1) They remain chemically unchanged during a reaction.
(2) They increase the rates of forward and backward reactions in an equilibrium to
the same extent.
(3) They do not affect the equilibrium position.
A. (1) only
B.
C.
D.
(2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
Section 55.4
114
Which of the following statements concerning homogeneous catalysts are correct?
(1) They are in the same phase with the solvent.
39

(2) Concentrated sulphuric acid used in the esterification is one of the examples of
homogeneous catalysts.
(3) They can alter the rate of reaction by providing alternative reaction pathway with
a different activation energy.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
115
In a catalytic converter, the poisonous gaseous pollutants are converted to harmless
gases. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?
(1) Platinum is used as a homogeneous catalyst in the conversion.
(2) The catalyst provides a surface for the absorption of the reactants.
(3) The harmless gases are carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
116
Propan-1-ol can be converted to propene by passing its vapour over a heated catalyst
at around 350C. Which of the following statements concerning the heated catalyst
are correct?
(1) It is an aluminium oxide.
(2) It acts as a heterogeneous catalyst in the reaction.
(3) It provides a surface area for the adsorption of the reactants.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
40

117
Which of the following statements about the reaction below is correct?
2
Fe2+(aq)
S 2 O 8 (aq) + 2I (aq) 2SO 4 2(aq) + I 2 (aq)

A. Fe2+(aq) is oxidized to Fe3+(aq) at the end of the reaction.
B. Fe2+(aq) is a heterogeneous catalyst.
C.
D.
Fe2+(aq) is reduced by S 2 O 8 2(aq) to Fe(s).

Fe2+(aq) is regenerated at the end of the reaction.
118
Which of the following statements about a catalytic converter are correct?
(1) It converts gaseous pollutant, nitrogen monoxide to nitrogen.
(2) It contains platinum which is a heterogeneous catalyst.
(3) It is installed in the exhaust system of the cars.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only

(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
(1), (2) and (3)
119
Which of the following reactions involves the use of a homogeneous catalyst?
A. Contactprocess
B. Decompositionofhydrogenperoxidesolutionintowaterandoxygen
C. Reactionbetweenperoxodisulphateionsandiodideions
D. Reactionbetweenhydrogenandpropene
120
A two-step reaction is shown below:
Step 1: X + Y Z
Step 2: Y + Z W + X + V
Which of the following are correct?
(1) X is a catalyst.
41

(2) Z is an intermediate.
(3) The overall chemical equation is 2Y W + V.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
121
Which of the following reactions involve(s) the use of homogeneous catalysts?
(1) S 2 O 8 2(aq) + 2I(aq) 2SO 4 2(aq) + I 2 (aq)
(2) CH 2 =CH 2 (g) + H 2 (g) CH 3 CH 3 (g)
(3) CH 3 COOH(l) + CH 3 CH 2 OH(l)
CH 3 COOCH 2 CH 3 (l) + H 2 O(l)
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
122
Which of the following species can catalyse the reaction between iron(III) ions and
vanadium(III) ions in aqueous solution?
Fe3+(aq) + V3+(aq) Fe2+(aq) + V4+(aq)
(1) Cu+(aq)
(2) Cu2+(aq)
(3) Cu(s)
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
123
Which of the following reactions can be speeded up in the presence of iron(II) ions?
(1) S 2 O 8 2(aq) +2I(aq) 2SO 4 2(aq) + I 2 (aq)
42

(2) CH 2 =CH 2 (g) + H 2 (g) CH 3 CH 3 (g)

(3) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
2SO 3 (g)
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
124
Which of the following chemical bonds is/are broken during the hydrogenation of
ethene in the presence of nickel?
(1) HH bonds
(2) C=C bonds
(3) CH bonds
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
Section 55.5
125
Which of the following processes involves the use of homogeneous catalysts?
A. Haber process
B. Contact process
C. Esterification
D. Hydrogenation of ethene
126
Which of the following equations represents the catalytic cracking of a petroleum
fraction?
Al 2 O 3
A.
C 16 H 34 (l) C 16 H 34 (g)
B.
C.
nC 2 H 4 (g) [ CH 2 CH 2 ] n
Al 2 O 3
C 16 H 34 (l) C 7 H 16 (l) + 3C 2 H 4 (g) + C 3 H 6 (g)
Al 2 O 3
43

D.
C 7 H 16 (l) + 3C 2 H 4 (g) + C 3 H 6 (g) C 16 H 34 (l)
127
Which of the following statements about Haber process is INCORRECT?
A. Finely divided iron is used as a homogeneous catalyst.
B. Adsorption of N 2 and H 2 molecules onto the surface of the iron catalyst
helps weaken those strong covalent bonds within the molecules.
C. The product, ammonia NH 3 , is the raw material for producing nitrogenous
fertilizers.
D. The volume of N 2 : H 2 is 1 : 3 in proportion.
128
Which of the following chemicals is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of
unsaturated oils to make margarine?
A. Rh
B. V 2 O 5
C. Ni
D. Fe
129
N 2 (g) 3H 2 (g)
2NH 3 (g)
A. The catalyst used is platinum.
B. The kinetic energy of molecules increases after a catalyst is used.
C. The equilibrium constant remains unchanged after a catalyst is used.
D. The equilibrium position shifts to the right after a catalyst is used.
44

130
Which of the following species are used as the catalysts in a catalytic converter?
(1) Rh
(2) Pt
(3) VO 2
A. (1)and(2)only
B. (1)and(3)only
C. (2)and(3)only
D. (1),(2)and(3)
131
Which of the following reactions involve the use of heterogeneous catalysts?
(1) The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
(2) The conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide in the Contact process
(3) The production of ammonia in the Haber process
A. (1) and (2) only
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (3) only

(2) and (3) only
(1), (2) and (3)
132
Which of the following reactions involves the use of a homogeneous catalyst?
A. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
B. Esterification
C. Haber Process
D. Hydrogenation of ethene
133
Which of the following reactions involve the use of transition metals or their
compounds as heterogeneous catalysts?
(1) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
2NH 3 (g)
45

(2) 2CO(g) + 2NO(g) 2CO 2 (g) + N 2 (g)

(3) CH 3 COOH(l) + CH 3 CH 2 OH(l)
CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 (l) + H 2 O(l)
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
134
Which of the following statements concerning Haber process are correct?
(1) It involves a heterogeneous catalyst.
(2) It produces raw materials for the production of nitrogenous fertilizers.
(3) The catalyst should be finely divided to increase its catalytic effect.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
A.
Sections 55.155.2
135
46

The catalysts speed up the reaction by

providing an alternative reaction
pathway with lower activation energy.
Since the activation energy of catalysed

reaction is lower, the number of
particles with sufficient energy to react
increases.
Section 55.3
136
The catalysts remain chemically
unchanged during a reaction.
The catalysts can shorten the time for

the reaction to reach equilibrium.
Section 55.4
137
In hydrogenation, the hydrogen and
alkene molecules are absorbed on the
surface of the catalyst.
The carbon-carbon double bonds of

alkene are weakened and the hydrogen
molecules are broken.
Chemistry: Chapter 56 Industrial processes

Section 56.1
138
Which of the following are the aims of applying a high pressure for the Haber
process?
(1) Shifting the equilibrium position towards the product side
(2) Increasing the rate of reaction
(3) Liquefying the product ammonia gas
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
47

139
A urea fertilizer has to be produced with the equivalent of 25.0 kg of nitrogen N. How
much urea, CON 2 H 4 , should be used?
A. 46.7 kg
B. 53.6 kg
C. 107 kg
D. 127 kg
A.
% yield of ammonia
140
Which of the following graphs correctly shows how pressure and temperature affect
the yield of ammonia produced by the Haber process?
B.
% yield of ammonia
Pressure (atm)
Pressure (atm)
48
C.
% yield of ammonia

D.
% yield of ammonia
Pressure (atm)
Pressure (atm)
141
The Haber process for producing ammonia was developed early in the twentieth
century. What was the major advantage of its development?
A. A government sold the process to other governments.
B. The inventor sold the process for a great deal of money.
C. It provided a source of nitrogen for farming and industry.
D. It provided jobs for many who were unemployed.
142
Four students analysed a sample of fertilizer to determine its percentage of sulphate.
Each student:
weighed a certain amount of fertilizer;
dissolved this amount in 100 cm3 of water;
added aqueous barium nitrate to the solution;
filtered, dried and weighed the barium sulphate precipitate.

Their results and calculations are shown in the table below.
49

Student
Mass of fertilizer
used (g)
Mass of BaSO 4 (s)

weighed (g)
Percentage of sulphate in
fertilizer (%)
11.6
19.5
69.2
10.4
16.9
66.9
10.27
22.61
90.6
11.1
18.2
67.5
The percentage of sulphate calculated by Student C was significantly higher than that
of the other students. Which is the most likely reason for this?
A. Student C did not dry the sample enough.
B. Student C added more Ba(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) than the other students.
C. Student C used a balance capable of measuring weight to more decimal
places.
D. Student C waited longer than the other students for the Ba(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) to
react completely with the sulphate.
143
Which of the following does NOT exist in steam-methane reforming in the production
of syngas?
A. CO
B. H 2
C.
D.
CH 4
C2H4
144
Which of the following elements are particularly important nutrients provided by
fertilizers?
A. Calcium, phosphorus and nitrogen
B. Calcium, sulphur and nitrogen
C. Potassium, phosphorus and nitrogen
D. Potassium, phosphorus and oxygen
50

145
Syngas contains
A. water vapour and carbon dioxide.
B. methane and hydrogen.
C. hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
D. hydrogen and carbon dioxide.
146
What are the optimum conditions for the manufacture of ammonia?
Atmosphere
Temperature
Catalyst
A.
1 atm
100C
Pt
B.
100 atm
25C
Pt
C.
150 atm
200C
Fe
D.
200 atm
450C
Fe
147
Haber process is used to synthesize ammonia.
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
2NH 3 (g)
H = 92 kJ mol1
Which of the following conditions/actions has NOT complied with Le Chteliers
Principle in order to increase the yield of ammonia?
A. Using a high pressure of 200 atm
B.
C.
D.
Using a high temperature of 500C

Adding nitrogen and hydrogen continuously to the catalytic chamber
Removing the ammonia as soon as it is produced in the catalytic chamber
148
The flow diagram of the Haber process is shown below:
51

What is/are the substance(s) used in Route X?

A. N 2 , H 2
B. Catalyst
C. N 2
D. H 2
149
Methane is used to synthesize ammonia gas according to the following equations:
CH 4 (g) + H 2 O(g) CO(g) + 3H 2 (g)
CO(g) + H 2 O(g) CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g)
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
2NH 3 (g)
The percentage yield of NH 3 is 75%. If 5.6 107 L of methane are used, how much
ammonia is synthesized?
A. 1.4 107 L
B. 2.1 107 L
C. 5.6 107 L
D. 1.1 108 L
150
Which of the following statements explain why ammonium nitrate is a more suitable
nitrogenous fertilizer than aqueous ammonia?
(1) Aqueous ammonia is volatile.
(2) Ammonia is alkaline.
(3) Ammonia has an unpleasant odour.
52

A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only

(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
(1), (2) and (3)
151
Which of the following is an intermediate of the ammonium nitrate manufacturing
process?
A. NO 2
B.
C.
D.
NH 4 +
HNO 3
NH 2
152
Which of the following statements concerning the nitrogen fixation process of
nitrogen and hydrogen gas is INCORRECT?
A. Product of reaction can be used directly as fertilizers.
B. Hydrogen gas used in the process is produced in steam-methane reforming.
C. Unreacted N 2 and H 2 in the set-up are reused by recycling pump.
D.
Catalyst in the set-up is used to speed up the chemical reaction.
Section 56.2
153
Which of the following half equations correctly shows the reaction occurring at the
cathode of a flowing mercury cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Na+(aq) + e Na(s)
2Cl(aq) Cl 2 (g) + 2e
2H+(aq) + 2e H 2 (g)
4OH(aq) 2H 2 O(l) + 4e + O 2 (g)
53

154
Which of the following is the major potential hazard of using flowing mercury cell?
A. Algal bloom
B. Heavy metal leakage
C. Acid rain
D. Smog
155
Which of the following is NOT a problem that arises when electrolysis of brine is
carried out in a simple container?
A. Chlorine and hydrogen would mix together.
B. Chlorine would react directly with sodium hydroxide solution.
C. Hydrogen and oxygen would react explosively.
D. The oxygen produced would contaminate chlorine.
156
In the chlor-alkali industry, if an aqueous sodium chloride solution is electrolysed
using a membrane cell, which of the following does NOT happen?
A. The concentration of Na+(aq) ions decreases.
B. Cl 2 (g) is produced at the anode.
C. The solution becomes more alkaline.
D. H 2 (g) is produced at the cathode.
157
Why is chlorine used to treat local water supplies?
A. To make water suitable for swimming.
B. To kill micro-organisms living in the water.
C. To promote sedimentation of finely suspended solids.
D. To precipitate heavy metal ions such as lead and mercury.
54

158
Which of the following about the design of the electrolytic cell for the chlor-alkali
industry is INCORRECT?
A. To separate the anode and cathode reactions of the electrolysis.
B. To prevent the products at the electrodes from mixing together.
C. To allow the anode and cathode reactions to proceed at different time.
D. To let NaOH(aq) formed flow out of the cell continuously.
159
Which of the following is an application of sodium hydroxide?
A. Used as drain cleaner
B. To make margarine
C. To make fertilizer
D. To sanitize swimming pool water
160
What are the materials commonly used as the anode and cathode of a diaphragm cell?
Anode
Cathode
A.
Titanium
Mercury
B.
Titanium
Steel
C.
Nickel
Titanium
D.
Graphite
Titanium
161
Electrolysis of brine will produce several chemicals and the following is the related
equation:
electrolysis
Brine NaOH(aq) + H 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g)

(The equation has not been balanced.)
If the gases produced are used to manufacture 1000 kg of 36.5% concentrated
hydrochloric acid, how much brine is needed?
55

A.
B.
C.
D.
10 kg
585 kg
36 500 kg
63 500 kg
162
Which of the following combinations is correct for describing the reactions at the
anode and cathode of a flowing mercury cell?
Anode
Cathode
A.
2Cl(aq) Cl 2 (g) + 2e
2H 2 O(l) + 2e H 2 (g) + 2OH(aq)
B.
Na(s) Na+(aq) + e
2H+(aq) + 2e H 2 (g)
C.
2Cl(aq) Cl 2 (g) + 2e
Na+(aq) + e Na(s)
D.
Na(s) Na+(aq) + e
2H 2 O(l) + 2e H 2 (g) + 2OH(aq)
163
Which of the following products is made from hydrogen in chlor-alkali industry?
A. Soaps
B. Pesticides
C. Bleach
D. Margarine
Section 56.3
164
Which of the following about methanol is correct?
A. It is added to beer.
B. It is a colourless gas.
C. It has a molecular formula of CH 2 O.
D. It can be used as a solvent.
56

165
Which of the following is NOT a common use of methanol?
A. Production of acetic acid
B. Manufacture of petrol additive
C. Industrial solvent
D. Production of polyethylene
166
Which of the following species are the catalysts used in the production of methanol?
(1) NiO
(2) ZnO/Cr 2 O 3
(3)
Cu/ZnO/Al 2 O 3
A. (1)and(2)only
B. (1)and(3)only
C. (2)and(3)only
D. (1),(2)and(3)
167
Which of the following is the correct descending order of the percentage by mass of
different components in natural gas?
A. Methane > Carbon dioxide > Oxygen > Noble gases
B. Oxygen > Methane > Carbon dioxide > Noble gases
C. Methane > Oxygen > Noble gases > Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide > Oxygen > Methane > Noble gases
168
Which of the following compounds CANNOT be derived from methanol?
A. Acetic acid
B. Dimethyl ether
C. Formaldehyde
D. Diethyl ether
57

Section 56.4
169
Which of the following considerations are needed for choosing a site for building a
chemical plant?
(1) Supply of raw materials to the site
(2) Climate condition around the site
(3) Demand for the product in nearby regions
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
170
Which of the following should be considered when choosing a site to set up a plant
that manufactures methanol?
(1) An oil field nearby
(2) A lake nearby
(3) A residential area with several thousands of people nearby
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
Section 56.5
171
Glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) is a monomer that can form naturally occurring polymers.
Glucose is also a raw material used in certain industrial processes. There are industrial
processes combining several numbers of glucose molecules to form a polymer with
desired length.
The approximate relative atomic masses for the elements which make up glucose are
shown in the table.
58

Element
Approximate relative atomic mass
Carbon
12.0
Hydrogen
1.0
Oxygen
16.0
Using the data from the table, what would be the approximate relative molecular mass
of a polymer made from five glucose monomers?
A. 810
B. 828
C. 882
D. 900
172
Which of the following methods CANNOT be used to reduce the cost of the Haber
process or to reduce the environmental pollution caused by the Haber process?
A. UselowNO x burner.
B. UseZnOasthenewcatalyst.
C. Recyclethecarbondioxideproduced.
D. Usenaturalgasinsteadofpetroleumasthesourcetoproducehydrogen.
A.
Section 56.1
59

173
The absence of impurities in the set-up
of Haber process enhances the product
yield.
The impurities in the Haber process

destroy the reactants (N 2 and H 2 ) used.
Section 56.2
174
Electrolysis of brine using a flowing
mercury cell forms sodium amalgam.
Sodium amalgam is a liquid.
Section 56.3
175
Methanol is drinkable.
Methanol is one of the ingredients in

wine.
Chemistry: Chapter 57 Green chemistry for industrial processes

Section 57.1
176
Which of the following statements show that biosynthesis of adipic acid adopts green
chemistry practices?
(1) Glucose is used as the starting material.
(2) It does not generate any by-products.
(3) It uses cobalt to catalyse the reaction.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
60

177
Which of the following statements concerning carbon dioxide are correct?
(1) It is a greener blowing agent than CFCs.
(2) It does not deplete the ozone layer.
(3) It is non-flammable.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
178
Which of the following are green chemistry practices?
(1) Using TAMLTM catalysts to treat wastewater.
(2) Applying real-time monitoring system in industries.
(3) Using natural gas to produce synthesis gas.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
179
Which of the following are NOT green chemistry practices?
(1) Using DDT as the pesticide to increase the crop yield.
(2) Using solar energy to generate electricity.
(3) Using CFCs as the blowing agent for molded plastic foams.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
180
Which of the following statements concerning atom economy are correct?
61

(1) It indicates how well a reaction converts the reactant atoms to the desired
product.
(2) The greater the atom economy, the greener is the reaction.
(3) A reaction with 100% atom economy must have 100% product yield.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
181
Which of the following statements concerning biodegradable plastics is/are correct?
(1) They can be decomposed in natural environment.
(2) They do not emit any pollutants to the environment during the decomposition.
(3) Some of them are made of renewable raw materials.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) only
(2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
182
Which of the following are volatile organic compounds (VOCs)?
(1) Benzene
(2) Chloroform
(3) Carbon tetrachloride
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
183
Which of the following is NOT a green chemistry principle?
A. Maximizing atom economy
62

B.
C.
D.
Using catalysts
Producing safer chemical products
Producing derivatives
184
Which of the following is NOT the principle of green chemistry?
A. Maximizing atom economy
B. Increasing by-products
C. Designing degradable chemical products
D. Using catalysts
185
C 6 H 12 O 6 (aq) 2C 2 H 5 OH(aq) 2CO 2 (g)
If CO 2 (g) is considered as the side product, the atom economy of the reaction is
A. 25.56%.
B. 48.89%.
C. 51.11%.
D. 72.21%.
186
What is the atom economy for the production of aspirin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.7%
90.9%
92.8%
100%
63

187
Which of the following shows that Haber process adopts green chemistry practices?
(1) It uses iron catalysts.
(2) It produces ammonia which is the raw material for producing nitrogenous
fertilizers.
(3) It makes use of heat exchanger.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
188
Which of the following statements concerning TAMLTM catalyst is INCORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They catalyse the oxidation of organic substances in wastewater.

They are applied in the paper industry.
They are not degradable.
They can reduce water usage.
189
Which of the following are the disadvantages of using benzene as the starting material
for synthesizing adipic acid?
(1) Benzene is carcinogenic.
(2) The synthesis may cause the disposal of a heavy metal to the environment.
(3) The synthesis produces a greenhouse gas.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
190
In the Haber process, a heat exchanger is used. Which of the following statements
64

concerning the heat exchanger are correct?

(1) It can reduce energy used by heating up the nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas
before they enter the catalytic chamber.
(2) The application of the heat exchanger is a green chemistry practice.
(3) It can either heat up or cool down the substances.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
191
Which of the following is NOT the principle of green chemistry?
A. Producing safer chemical products
B.
C.
D.
Using less expensive chemical syntheses

Using renewable raw materials
Using safer solvents and auxiliaries
192
TAMLTM catalysts are commonly used in the pulp and paper industry to treat
wastewater. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) They provide an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy.
(2) They are non-toxic iron-based catalysts.
(3) They catalyse the oxidation of chlorinated organic substances in wastewater.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
193
Chloroform is a common solvent used in chemical industry. Which of the following
statements concerning chloroform are correct?
65

(1) It is a volatile organic compound.

(2) It can deplete the ozone layer.
(3) It may cause photochemical smog.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
Section 57.2
194
Which of the following about CATIVA process is INCORRECT?
A. Iridium metal is used as a catalyst.
B. Water is required in the process.
C. It produces carbon dioxide and hydrogen as the by-products.
D. It is the industrial process for manufacturing ethanoic acid.
195
Which of the following chemicals can be the starting materials for manufacturing
ethanoic acid?
(1) Butane
(2) Methanol
(3) Naphtha
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
196
Which of the following statements concerning carbonylation of methanol is
INCORRECT?
A. It has an atom economy of 100%.
B. It is a fast reaction.
66

C.
D.
It is greener than naphtha oxidation.

It is a way to manufacture methanoic acid.
197
Which of the following statements about the Wacker process is/are correct?
(1) Ethane is used as the feedstock.
(2) Palladium/copper chloride is used as the catalyst.
(3) Ethanol is produced during the reaction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) only
(2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
198
Which of the following are the advantages of the CATIVA process over the Monsanto
process?
(1) Rhodium metal used in the CATIVA process is cheaper than iridium metal used
in the Monsanto process.
(2) Less water is required.
(3) The energy cost for purifying the product is lower.
A. (1)and(2)only
B. (1)and(3)only
C. (2)and(3)only
D. (1),(2)and(3)
199
Which of the following processes is used to produce acetic acid?
A. Two-stage fermentation process
B. Esterification
C. Direct oxidation of butane
D. Reduction of ethanal
67

200
Which of the following show that Monsanto process adopts green chemistry
practices?
(1) It saves much energy in product separation and purification.
(2) It uses methanol as the starting material.
(3) It converts all the reactant atoms to the desired product.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
201
Which of the following processes use(s) methanol as the feedstock to manufacture
ethanoic acid?
(1) Wacker process
(2) Monsanto process
(3) Fermentation
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only
202
Which of the following methods are used to manufacture ethanoic acid?
(1) Monsanto process
(2) Wacker process
(3) Butane oxidation
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
68

A.
Section 57.1
203
If the yield of a reaction is 100%, its
atom economy must be 100%.
The greater the value of the atom

economy, the better is the reaction to
convert all the reactant atoms to the
desired product.
Section 57.2
204
Wacker process uses palladium/copper
chloride catalyst.
Wacker process produces undesirable

amounts of chlorinated by-products.
205
Monsanto process uses iridium metal
as the catalyst.
Iridium metal is cheaper than rhodium

metal.
69

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HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Part XIII Industrial Chemistry

Multiple Choice Questions

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Hydrogen is an example of bulk chemical.

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Disposable foam food box

Wrapping film for food

(1) and (2) only

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

of the 1st statement.

Natural raw materials are substances

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Oxides of iron can be obtained from

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Polyethene, polypropene and polyvinyl

Chemistry: Chapter 53 Rate equation

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Rate (mol dm3 s1)

(1) and (2) only

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

(1), (2) and (3)

3.45 105 yr1

first order with respect to H 2 (g).

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Which of the following statements concerning the rate constant at a certain

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

0.945 dm3 mol1 s1

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

The chemical equation for the reaction is H 2 (g) + 2NO(g) products.

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

A plot of rate of reaction against [NO 2 (g)]2 is shown below.

The unit of rate constant is mol1 dm3 s1.

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

Initial concentration (mol dm3)

(mol dm3 s1)

Initial concentration (mol dm3)

(mol dm3 s1)

Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

The rate equation of this reaction is: rate =

[Y]z, where k is the rate constant.

Deduce the order of reaction with respect to Y.

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HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

The unit of rate constant is mol4 dm12 s1.

HKDSE Chemistry A Modern View

The unit of rate constant is mol2 dm6 s1.

Initial rate ( 105

Initial concentration (mol dm3)

What is the rate equation for the above reaction?

Rate = k[A] 2 [B]2[C]

Rate = k[A] [B][C]

Initial concentration (mol dm3)