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I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 11

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. What is the additional time available for the d. Double sampling results in more
performance of an activity in PERT and CPM inspection than single sampling if the
calculated on the basis that all activities will incoming quality is very bad
start at their earliest start time, called? 7. Which one of the following statements is not
a. Slack correct?
b. Total float a. A linear programming problem with 2
c. Free float variables and 3 constraints can be solved
d. independent float by Graphical Method.
2. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per b. In big-M method if the artificial variable
month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, can not be driven out it depicts an optimal
holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per month. what solution.
is the EOQ? c. Dual of a dual is the primal problem.
a. 12 d. For mixed constraints either big-M
b. 144 method or two phase method can be
c. 24 employed.
d. 28 8. In Order for a transportation matrix which has
3. Which one of the following is correct? In tile six rows and four columns not to degenerate,
basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from what is the number of occupied celled in the
5 to 10 days, the EOQ will matrix?
a. double a. 6
b. decrease by a factor of two b. 9
c. remain the same c. 15
d. The data is insufficient to find EOQ d. 24
4. Which one of the following statements is not 9. In a single server queuing system with arrival
correct rate of ‘’ and mean service time of ‘’ the
a. Work sampling is a technique of work expected number of customers in the system is
measurement 
.
b. Method study is a technique aimed at
evolving improved methods.   
c. Synthetic data is not a technique covered What is the expected waiting time per
under pre-determined motion time systems customer in the system?
d. ‘Select’ is the first step of method study 2
a.
  
5. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be
set A job is rated at l20 percent, it takes 30
seconds to enter each record and the b.   
allowances are 15%. What is the normal time? 1
a. 25 seconds c.
b. 30 seconds  
c. 36 seconds
d.
  
d. 40 seconds 
6. Which one of the following statements is not 10. Match List-I with List-II and -select the
correct? correct answer using the code given below the
a. The operating characteristic curve of an lists:
acceptance sampling plan shows the List-I
ability of the plan to distinguish between (Components)
good and bad lots. A. Control unit
b. No sampling plan can give complete B. Arithmetic unit
protection against the acceptance of C. Memory
defective products. D. Output device
c. C chart has straight line limits and U chart List-II
has zig-zag limits. (Functions)
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1. Logical checks and calculations probability that the project will be
2. Stores instructions and data completed in 24moths?
3. Converts results and presents to the user a. 15.85 %
4. Converts instructions to codes b. 68.3 %
5. Receives instructions and per forms c. 84.2 %
operations d. 95.50%
Code: 17. Common contact ratio of a pair of spur pinion
A B C D and gear is
a. 2 1 4 3 a. Less than 1.0
b. 5 3 2 1 b. equal to 1
c. 2 3 4 1 c. between 2 and 3
d. 5 1 2 3 d. greater than 3
11. The Central Processing Unit of a mini 18. In case of am p disc clutch, if n1 is the
computers uses which of the following blocks: nurnberofdiscicni1hedriving-shaft and n2 is the
1. Memory Unit number of discs on the driven shaft, then what
2. Control Unit is the number of pairs of contact surfaces?
3. Arithmetic Unit a. n1 + n2
4. Output Unit b. n1 + n2 – 1
Select the correct answer using the code given c. n1 + n2 + 1
below: d. n1 + 2n2
a. 1 and 2 19. For roller chain drive with sprocket having 10
b. 1 and 3 teeth, the velocity of the driven shaft with
c. 2 and 3 respect to that of drive will be approximately
d. 1 and 4 a. same
12. Which one of the following statements about b. 5% above to 5% below
FORTRAN is not correct? c. 5% above
a. GO TO 999 d. below
b. CONTINUE 999 20. Which of the following in-line engines
c. PRINT 999 working on four-stroke cycle is completely
d. DIMENSION A (999) balanced inherently?
13. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred a. 2 cylinder engine
in casting because b. 3 cylinder engine
a. it enables rapid filling of mould cavity c. 4 cylinder engine
b. it is easier to provide in the mould d. 6 cylinder engine
c. it provides cleaner metal Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
d. it reduces splashing and turbulence answer using the code given below the lists:
14. The pattern adopted for those castings where List-I
there are some portions which’ are structurally (Key/spline)
weak and are likely to break by the force of B. Gib head key
ramming are called: C. Woodruff key
a. Loose piece pattern D. Parallel key
b. Follow board pattern E. Spline
c. Skelton pattern List-II
d. Single piece pattern (Application)
15. Which of the following casting processes does 1. Self aligning
not/do not require central core for producing 2. Facilitates removal
pipe? 3. Mostly used
1. Sand casting process 4. Axial movement possible
2. Die casting process Code:
3. Centrifugal casting process A B C D
Select the correct answer using the code given a. 1 2 3 4
below: b. 1 2 4 3
a. 1 and 2 c. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 only d. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 and 3 21. Eight bolts are to be selected for fixing the
d. 3 only cover plate of a cylinder subjected to a
16. If critical path of a project is 20 months with a maximum load of 980 175 kN. If the design
standard derivative 4 months, What is the stress for the bolt material is 315 N/mm2, what
is the diameter of each bolt?
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a. 10 mm c. is less than radius of Mohr’s circle
b. 22 mm d. could be any of the above
c. 30 mm 27. Maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of
d. 36 mm length l carrying uniformly distributed load w
22. Consider the following statements: per unit length will be:
1. The amount of interference needed to a. Wl 4/ (EI)
create a tight joint varies with diameter of b. Wl 4/ (4 EI)
the shaft. c. Wl 4/ (8 EI)
2. An interference fit creates no stress state in d. Wl 4/ (384 EI)
the shaft. [Where E = modulus of elasticity of beam material and I
3. The stress state in the hub is similar to a moment of inertia of beam cross-section]
thick-walled cylinder with internal 28. In I-section of a beam subjected to transverse
pressure. shear force, the maximum shear stress is
Which of the statements given above are developed
correct? a. at the centre of the web
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. at the top edge of the top flange
b. 1 and 2 only c. at the bottom edge of the top flange
c. 2 and 3 only d. None of the above
d. 1 and 3 only 29. In case of a beam of circular cross-section
23. Consider the following statements: subjected to transverse loading, the maximum
A nomenclature 50 H8/p8 denotes that shear stress developed in the beam is greater
1. hole diameter is 50 mm. than the average shear stress by
2. it is a shaft base system. a. 50%
3. 8 indicates fundamental deviation. b. 33%
Which of the statements given above is/are c. 25%
correct? d. 10%
a. 1, 2 and 3 30. A structural member subjected to an axial
b. 1 and 2 only compressive force is called
c. I and 3 only a. beam
d. 3 only b. column
24. Consider the following: c. frame
V-belts are specified by their d. strut
1. nominal inside length in mm 31. Structure of a polymer is:
2. nominal pitch length a. Long chain
3. belt cross section symbol b. Rhombic
4. weight/unit length of the belt c. Cubic
Which of the above are correct? d. Closed pack hexagonal
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 32. Consider the following statements:
b. 1 and 2 only 1. Metal forming decreases harmful effects
c. 1 and 3 only of impurities and improves mechanical
d. 3 and 4 only strength.
25. Consider the following statements: 2. Metal working process is a plastic
Maximum shear stress induced in a power deformation process.
3. Very intricate shapes can be produced by
transmitting shaft is
1. directly proportional to torque being forging process as compared to casting
transmitted. process.
2. inversely proportional to the cube of its Which of the statements given above are
diameter. correct?
3. directly proportional to its polar moment a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 on1y
of inertia.
Which of the statements given above are c. 2 and 3 only
correct? d. 1 and 3 only
a. 1, 2 and 3 33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
b. 1 and 3 only answer using the code given below the lists
c. 2 and 3 only List-I
(Forging Technique)
d. 1 and 2 only
26. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s Circle A. Smith Forging
a. is equal to radius of Mohr’s circle B. Drop Forging
b. is greater than radius of Mohr’s circle C. Press Forging
D. Machine Forging
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List-II 2 2
(Process) d. M  M  T
1. Material is only upset to get the desired 40. The ratio of torque carrying capacity of a solid
shape shaft to that of a hollow shaft is given by:
2. Carried out manually in open dies a. (1-K4)
3. Done in closed impression dies by b. (1-K4)-1
hammers in blows c. K4
4. Done in closed impression dies by d. 1/K4
continuous squeezing force Di
Where K
Code: D0
A B C D Di = Inside diameter of hollow shaft
a. 2 3 4 1 D0 = Outside diameter of hollow shaft Shaft materials are
b. 4 3 2 1 the same.
c. 2 1 4 3 41. The principal stresses at a point in two-
d. 4 1 2 3 dimensional stress system are 1 and 2 and
34. A cylindrical vessel with flat bottom can be corresponding principal strains are 1 and 2. If
deep drawn by E and V denote Young’s modulus and
a. shallow drawing Poisson’s ratio, respectively, then which one
b. single action deep drawing of the following is correct?
c. double action deep drawing a. 1  E 1
d. triple action deep drawing
E
35. Which one of the following methods is used b. 1  1  V  2 
for the manufacture of collapsible toothpaste 1V 2
tubes? E
a. Impact extrusion c. 1  1  V  2 
b. Direct extrusion 1V 2
c. Deep drawing d. 1  E (1  V  2 )
d. Piercing 42. A point in a two dimensional state of strain is
36. Small amount of carbonaceous material subjected to pure shearing strain of magnitude
sprinkled on the inner surface of mould cavity y radians. Which one of the following is the
is called maximum principal strain?
a. Backing sand a.  xy
b. Facing sand
c. Green sand b.  xy / 2
d. Dry sand
37. In automobiles, Hook’s joint is used between c.  xy / 2
which of the following? d. 2 xy
a. Clutch and gear box
b. Gear box and differential
c. Differential and wheels
d. Flywheel and clutch
38. In a flat belt drive the belt can be subjected to 43.
a maximum tension T and centrifugal tension Consider the Mohr’s circle shown above:
TC. What is the condition for transmission of What is the state of stress represented by this
maximum power? circle?
a. T = TC a. x = y  0, xy = 0
b. T= 3 TC b. x = y = 0, xy  0
c. T = 2TC c. x = 0, y = xy  0
d. T = 3 TC d. x  0, y = xy = 0
39. A shaft is subjected to combined twisting 44. What is the relationship between the linear
moment T and bending moment M. What is elastic properties Young’s modulus (E),
the equivalent bending moment? rigidity modulus (G) and bulk modulus (K)?

a. ½  M 2 T2  a.
1 9 3
 
E K G
3 9 1
b. M 2 T2 b.  

 
E K G
c. ½ M  M 2 T2 9 3 1
c.  
E K G
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9 1 3 48. What is the shape of the shearing stress
d.   distribution across a rectangular cross- section
E K G
beam?
45. A 100 mm x 5 mm x 5 mm steel bar fee to
a. Triangular
expand is heated from 150C to 400C. What
b. Parabolic only
shall be developed?
c. Rectangular only
a. Tensile stress
d. A combination of rectangular and
b. Compressive stress
parabolic shape
c. Shear stress
49. A solid shaft transmits a torque T. The
d. No stress
46. allowable shearing stress is . What is the
diameter of the shaft?

3
16T
a.

3
32T
b.
The shearing force diagram for a beam is 
shown in the above figure. The bending
3
16T
moment diagram is represented by which one c.
of the following? 
3
T
a. d.

50. Which one of the following expresses the
stress factor K used for design of closed coiled
b. helical spring?
4C  4
a.
4C  1
4C  1 0.615
b. 
c. 4C  4 C
4C  4 0.615
c. 
4C  1 C
4C  1
d.
4C  4
d.
Where C = spring index
51. A helical coil spring with wire diameter ‘d’
and coil diameter ‘D’ is subjected to external
load. A constant ratio of d and D has to be
47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
maintained, such that the extension of spring is
answer using the code given below the lists
independent of d and D. What is this ratio?
List-I
(Formula/theorem/method) a. D3 / d 4
A. Clapeyron’s theorem
b. d 3 / D4
B. Maculay’s method
C. Perry’s formula D 4/3
c.
List-II d3
(Deals with topic)
1. Deflection of beam d 3 4
d.
2. Eccentrically loaded column D3
3. Rivetted joints 52. A closed coil helical spring of mean coil
4. Continuous beam diameter ‘D’ and made from a wire of
Code: diameter ‘d’ is subjected to a torque ‘T’ about
A B C the axis of the spring. What is the maximum
a. 3 2 1 stress developed in the spring wire?
b. 4 1 2
8T
c. 4 1 3 a.
d. 2 4 3  d3
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 
16T c. b is inclined to t
b.  
 d3 d. b and t are non-coplanar and non
32T intersecting
c. 60. Which one of the following is correct?
d 3
Malleability is the property by which a metal
64T or alloy can be plastically deformed by
d.
 d3 applying
53. Where does the maximum hoop stress in a a. tensile stress
thick cylinder under external pressure occur? b. bending stress
a. At the outer surface c. shear stress
b. At the inner surface d. compressive stress
c. At the mid-thickness 61. Which of the following elements given below
d. At the 2/3rd outer radius determine (s) the maximum attainable
54. If one end of a hinged column is made fixed hardness in steel?
and the other free, how much is the critical 1. Chromium
load compared to the original value? 2. Manganese
a. 1/4 3. Carbon
b. 1/2 4. Molybdenum
c. Twice Select the correct answer using the code given
d. Four times below:
55. Who postulated the maximum distortion a. 1 only
energy theory? b. 1 and 2
a. Tresca c. 3 only
b. Rankine d. 2 and 4
c. St. Venant 62. Coefficient of Expansion is practically nil in a
d. Mises-Henky particular alloy. What is this alloy?
56. In the atomic hard-sphere model of the a. Hadfield Manganese Steel
ciysta1stureofCopper,whaiisibeede length of b. Invar
unit cell? c. Vitallium
a. 2 x Atomic radius d. Stellite
b.  4 / 3  x Atomic radius 63. Consider the following statements relating to
mechanical properties of ceramics:
c.  2 2  x Atomic radius 1. Tensile strength is theoretically high but in
practice quite low.
d. 2 x Atomic radius 2. Compressive strength is many times lower
57. Which one of the following is correct? than tensile strength.
When “devitrification” of inorganic glasses is 3. Shear strength is high.
done, 4. Transverse strength is easy to ascertain.
a. glass transforms from crystalline to non- Which of the statements given above are
crystanine state correct?
b. glass transforms into a fully transparent a. 1 and 3
material b. 1 and 4
c. glass transforms from non-crystalline state c. 2 and 3
to poly-crystalline state d. 2 and 4
d. glass is relieved of internal stresses 64. Maximum angular velocity of the connecting
58. What is a surface imperfection, which rod with a crank to connecting rod ratio 1:5 for
separates crystals of different orientations in a a crank speed of 3000 rpm is around:
poly-crystalline aggregate, called? a. 300 rad/s
a. Edge dislocation b. 60 rad/s
b. Stacking fault c. 30 rad/s
c. Grain boundary d. 3000 rad/s
d. Screw dislocation 65. In three ball bearings identified as SKF 2015,
59. Which one of the following statements is 3115 and 4215
correct in the case of screw dislocations? a. bore is common but width is increasing
  b. outer diameter is common but bore is
( b = Burgers Vector, t = Imaginary Vector)
  increasing
a. b is perpendicular to t c. width is common but outer diameter is
 
b. b is parallel to t decreasing
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d. bore is common but outer diameter is statements carefully and select the answers to these items
decreasing using the codes given below:
Codes:
66. Which one of the following statements (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
regarding computers is not correct? explanation of A
a. Databases contain fields and records (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
b. The organized set of instructions given to correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but is false
the computer to solve a problem is called a (d) A is false but R is true
program
c. Collection of 8 bits is called a byte
d. Spreadsheet is a term used in FORTRAN 71. Assertion (A): Value Engineering is
language concerned with increasing the quality of the
67. Which one of the following is not a command product even at enhanced Cost to fulfill the
in DBase III? customer requirements.
a. Create Reason (R): Customer requirements are
b. List changing very rapidly and survival of a
c. Sort manufacturing industry is linked with
d. Remove fulfilling the customers requirements.
68. Consider the following statements about 72. Assertion (A): Lever Rule can be applied to
antifriction bearings: determine relative amounts of phases present
1. Their location influences the lateral critical at any temperature.
speed of a rotor. Reason (R): Lever Rule is restricted to
2. Roller bearings are antifriction bearings. estimate relative phases, only if they are solid
Which of the statements given above is/are phases.
correct? 73. Assertion (A): In case of Control Chart for
a. 1 only fraction rejected (p-chart), binomial
b. 2 only distribution is used.
c. Both 1 and 2 Reason (R): In binomial distribution
d. Neither I nor 2 probability of the event varies with each draw.
69. Consider the following statements: 74. Assertion (A): In case of Control Charts for
1. One way of improving vibration isolation variables, the averages of sub-groups of
is to decrease the mass of the vibrating readings are plotted instead of plotting
object. individual readings.
2. For effective isolation, the natural Reason (R): It has been proved through
frequency of the system should be far less experiments that averages will form normal
thank the exciting frequency. distribution curve.
Which of the statements given above is/are 75. Assertion (A): In centralized inspection,
correct? material handling is less.
a. 1 only Reason (R): Less number of gauges and
b. 2 only instruments are required as inspection is
c. Both I and 2 carried out in one location.
d. Neither 1 nor 2 76. Assertion (A): Submerged are welding is not
70. Consider the following statements in respect recommended for high carbon steels, tool
of austenitic stainless steels: steels, aluminium, magnesium etc.
1. Austenitic stainless steels are hardened Reason (R): This is because of unavailability
and strengthened by cold working. of suitable fluxes, reactivity at high
2. Austenitic stainless steels cannot be temperatures and low sublimation
quenched and tempered. temperatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are 77. Assertion (A): The Lewis equation for design
correct? of gear tooth predicts the static load capacity
a. 1 only of a cantilever beam of uniform strength.
b. 2 only Reason (R): According to law of gears
c. Both 1 and 2 interchangeability is possible only when gears
d. Neither 1 nor 2 have same pressure angle and same module.
78. Assertion (A): Elements are classified into
metals and non-metals on the basis of their
Directions:-
Each of the next Twelve (12) items consists of two statements, one atomic weights.
labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You Reason (R): The valence electron structures
are to examine these two contribute to the primary bonding between the
atoms to form aggregates.
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79. Assertion (A): In design of double fillet are extremely complex in
welding of unsymmetrical sections with plates a. job-production shop producing small
subjected to axial loads lengths of parallel number of pieces only once
welds are made unequal. b. job-production shop producing small
Reason (R): The lengths of parallel welds in number of pieces intermittently
fillet welding of an unsymmetrical section c. batch production shop producing a batch
with a plate are so proportioned that the sum only once
of the resisting moments of welds about the d. batch production shop producing a batch
centre of gravity axis is zero. at irregular intervals
80. Assertion (A): A cotter joint is used to rigidly 87. Which one of the following statements is not
connect two coaxial rods carrying tensile load. correct?
Reason (R): Taper in the cotter is provided to a. Schedule chart shows the processing of a
facilitate its removal when it fails due to shear. job on various work centres against time
81. Assertion (A): Two pulleys connected by a b. Load chart shows the processing of
crossed belt rotate in opposite directions. various jobs on a work centre against time
Reason (R): The length of the crossed belt c. Dispatching is the activity related with
remains constant. dispatching of goods to the customers
82. Assertion (A): In steady rotating condition the d. Routing is the activity related with the
journal inside a hydrodynamic journal bearing operations and their sequence to be
remains floating on the oil film. performed on the job
Reason (R): The hydrodynamic pressure 88. What term is used to designate the direction of
developed in steady rotating conditions in the predominant surface pattern produced by
journal bearings balances the load on the machining operation?
journal. a. Roughness
83. Which one of the following statements is not b. Lay
correct? c. Waviness
a. PERT is activity oriented and CPM is d. Cut off
event oriented 89. What symbol is used to indicate surface
b. In PERT, three time estimates are made, roughness?
whereas in CPM only one time estimate is a. =
made b.
c. in PERT slack is calculated whereas in
CPM floats are calculated c. 0.1
d. Both PERT and CPM are used for project d. 
situations 90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
84. A PERT activity has an optimistic time answer using the code given below the lists
estimate of 3 days, a pessimistic time estimate List-I
of 8 days, and a most likely time estimate of (Unconventional machining process)
10 days. What is the expected time of this A. Electro polishing.
activity? B. Electrochemical machining
a. 5.0 days C. Abrasive jet machining
b. 7.5 days D. Electrical discharge machining
c. 8.0 days List-II
d. 8.5 days (Basic process)
85. Consider the following steps in production, 1. Thermal Mechanical
planning and control: 2. Mechanical
1. Capacity planning 3. Electro-chemical
2. Material requirement planning 4. Chemical
3. Purchasing Code:
4. Design decisions A B C D
Which one of the following is the correct a. 4 3 2 1
sequence of the above steps in operations b. 2 1 4 3
management? c. 4 1 2 3
a. 2-3-4-1 d. 2 3 4 1
b. 2-4-3-1 91. In Taylor’s tool life equation is VPn= constant.
c. 4-1-2-3 What is the value of n for ceramic tools?
d. 1-2-4-3 a. 0.15 to 0.25
86. Which one of the following is correct? b. 0.4 to 0.55
Production, planning and control functions c. 0.6 to 0.75
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d. 0.8 to 0.9 c. bolts
92. What are the reasons for reduction of tool life d. clutch liners
in a machining operation? 97. What is the process by which two or more
1. Temperature rise of cutting edge chemically different monomers are
2. Chipping of tool edge due to mechanical polymerised to form a cross link polymer
impact together with a by-product such as water or
3. Gradual wear at tool point ammonia, known as?
4. Increase in feed of cut at constant cutting a. Addition polymerization
force b. Co-polymerisation
Select the correct answer using the code given c. Linear polymerisation
below: d. Condensation polymerization
a. l, 2 and 3 98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 answer using the code given below the lists:
c. 1, 3 and 4 List-I
d. 1, 2 and 4 (Principal/Method)
93. Which machining processes are used for gear A. Klein’s construction
manufacture? B. Kenaedy’s theorem
1. Form milling C. D’Alembert’s principle
2. Broaching D. Grubler’s rule
3. Roll forming List-II
4. Hobbing (Corresponding Application)
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Instantaneous centers in linkages
below: 2. Relative acceleration of linkages
a. l, 2and 3 3. Mobility of linkages
b. l, 3 and 4 4. Dynamic forces in linkages
c. 1, 2 and 4 Code:
d. 2, 3 and 4 A B C D
94. Consider the following statements: a. 4 1 2 3
In an orthogonal cutting the cutting ratio is b. 2 3 4 1
found to be 075. The cutting speed is c. 4 3 2 1
60 m/mm and depth of cut 24 mm. d. 2 1 4 3
Which of the following are correct? 99. Which mechanism produces intermitted rotary
1. Chip velocity will be 45 m/min. motion from continuous rotary motion?
2. Chip velocity will be 80 m/min. a. Whitworth mechanism
3. Chip thickness will be 18 mm. b. Scotch Yoke mechanism
4. Chip thickness will be 32 mm. c. Geneva mechanism
Select the correct answer using the code given d. Elliptical trammel
below: 100. A journal bearing with hydrodynamic
a. 1 and 3 lubrication is running steadily with a certain
b. 1 and 4 amount of minimum film thickness. When the
c. 2 and 3 load and speed are doubled, how does the
d. 2 and 4 minimum film thickness vary?
95. Cold forging results in improved quality due to a. Remains unchanged
which of the following? b. Gets doubled
1. Better mechanical properties of the c. Gets reduced to one-fourth of original
process. value
2. Unbroken grain flow. d. Gets reduced to half of original value
3. Smoother finishes. 101. Interference between an involute gear and a
4. High pressure. pinion can be reduced by which of the
Select the correct answer using the code given following?
below: 1. Increasing the pressure angle of the teeth
a. 1, 2 and 3 in the pair, the number of teeth remaining
b. 1, 2 and 4 the same.
c. 2, 3 and 4 2. Decreasing the addendum of the gear teeth
d. 1, 3 and 4 and increasing the same for the pinion
96. Which one of the following is correct? teeth by the corresponding amount.
Babbitts are used for Select the correct answer using the code given
a. gears below:
b. bearings a. 1 only
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b. 2 only A hydrodynamic slider bearing
c. Both 1 and 2 develops load bearing capacity mainly because
d. Neither 1 nor 2 of
102. Which one of the following is correct? a. slider velocity
When two teeth profiles of gears are b. wedge shaped oil film
conjugate, the sliding velocity between them c. oil compressibility
a. is always zero, all through the path of d. oil viscosity
contact
b. is zero, at certain points along the path of
contact 108.
c. is never zero anywhere on the path of
contact
d. can be made zero by proper selection of
profiles At a given instant, a disc is spinning with
103. For a speed ratio of 100 smallest gear box is angular velocity  plane at right angles to the
obtained by using which of the following? paper, (see the figure) and after a short interval
a. A pair of spur gears of time t, it is spinning with angular velocity
b. A pair of bevel and a pair of spur gears in + and the axis of spin has changed
compound gear train direction by the amount .
c. A pair of helical and a pair of spur gears in In this situation what is the component of
compound gear train acceleration parallel to OA?
d. A pair of helical and a pair of worm gears a. d/dt
in compound gear train b. (d/dt)
104. Among the following four designs of a
c. d/dt
flywheel with given mass M(kg) and external
d. d/d
diameter D(m), which is the one with the
109. Which one of the following is correct?
highest energy storage capacity?
When a nut is tightened by placing a washer
a. Plain circular disc of uniform thickness
below it, the bolt will be subjected to
b. Double conical disc thicker at the centre
a. compression only
and thinner at the periphery
b. tension
c. Double conical disc thinner at the centre
c. shear only
and thicker at the periphery
d. compression and shear
d. Circular ring with spokes
110. Which material is used for bushes in the
bushed-pin type of flexible coupling?
a. Gun metal
105.
b. Plastic
c. Rubber
d. Aluminium
111. The balls of the ball bearings are manufactured
from steel rods. The operations involved are:
The figure above shows the schematic of an
1. Ground
automobile having a mass of 900 kg and the
2. Hot forged on hammers
suspension spring constant of 81x104 N/m. If it
3. Heat treated
travels at a speed of 72 km/hr on a rough road
4. Polished
with periodic waviness as shown, what is the
What is the correct sequence of the above
forcing frequency of the road on the wheel?
operations from start?
a. 10 Hz
a. 3-2-4-1
b. 4 Hz
b. 3-2-1-4
c. 1.5 Hz
c. 2-3-1-4
d. 20 Hz
d. 2-3-4-1
106. Which one of the following mechanisms
112. Weekly production requirements of a product
represents an inversion of the single slider-
are 1000 items. The cycle time of producing
crank chain?
one product on a machine is 10 minutes. The
a. Elliptical trammel
factory works on two shift basis in which total
b. Oldham’s coupling
available time is 16 hours. Out of the available
c. Whitworth quick return mechanism
lime about 25% is expected to be wasted on
d. Pantograph mechanism
break downs, material unavailability and
107. Which one of the following is correct?
quality related problems. The factory works
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for 5 days in a week. How many machines are 116. Consider the following characteristics
required to fulfill the production requirements? of assembly line balancing:
a. 2 1. apportionment of sequential work
b. 3 activities into work stations
c. 4 2. high utilization of equipment
d. 6 3. minimization of idle time
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
113. a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
117. In the production of a product the fixed costs
are Rs. 6,000/- and the variable cost is Rs. 0/-
Consider the above network. Activity times per product. if the sale price of the product is
are given in number of days. The earliest Rs. 12/-, the break even volume of products to
expected occurrence time (TE) for event 50 is: be made will be:
a. 22 a. 2000
b. 23 b. 3000
c. 24 c. 4000
d. 25 d. 6000
114. Which one of the following is not a technique 118. The inter-arrival times at a tool crib are
of Long Range Forecasting? exponential with an average time of 10
a. Market Research and Market Survey minutes and the length of the service time is
b. Delphi assumed to be exponential with mean 6
c. Collective Opinion minutes. The probability that a person arriving
d. Correlation and Regression at the booth will have to wait is equal to:
115. Using the exponential smoothing method of a. 0.15
forecasting, what will be the forecast for the b. 0.40
fourth week if the actual and forecasted c. 0.42
demand for the third week is 480 and 500 d. 0.6
respectively and  = 0.2 119. If A is greater than B then it is expressed in
a. 400 FORTRAN as:
b. 496 a. A > B
c. 500 b. AGTB
d. 504 c. A.GT.B
d. AGT.B