MASS TRANSFER

1. In a binary liquid solution of components A and B, if component A exhibits positive deviation from Raoult s law, then component B a) exhibits positive deviation from Raoullt s law b) exhibits negative deviation from Raoullt s law c) obeys Raoullt s law d) may exhibit either positive or negative deviation from Raoullt s law 2. Assume that benzene is insoluble in water. The normal boiling points of benzene and water are 80.1C and 100C. respectively. At a pressure of 1atm, the boiling point of a mixture of benzene and water is a) 80.1 C b) less than 80.1 C c) 100 C d) greater than 80C but less than 100 C

3. The absorption factor is defined as a) L/mG b) G/mL c) mL/G d) LG/m

4. At 750K and 1 atm, the approximate value of the Schmidt number of air is a) 0.01 b) 0.1 c) 1 d)10

5. For the nth tray (counted from the bottom of a distillation column), the Murphree tray efficiency is given by a) yn+1 - yn/y*n - yn-1 b) yn - yn-1/y*n - yn-1 c) yn-1 - yn/yn+1 - yn d) y*n - yn-1/y*n - yn+1

6. The McCabe L law states that the a) molar heats of vaporization of components are nearly equal b) linear crystal growth rate depends on the degree of super saturation c) linear crystal growth rate does not depend on the crystal size d) linear crystal growth rate depends on the crystal size 7. The individual mass transfer coefficients (mol/m2.s) for absorption of a solute from a gas mixture into a liquid solvent are kL=4.5 and kG=1.5. The slope of the equilibrium line is 3. Which of the following resistance(s) is (are) controlling? a) liquid-side b) gas-side c) interfacial d) both liquid-side and gas-side

8. In a laboratory test run, the rate of drying was found to be 0.5x10-3 kg/m2.s when the moisture content reduced from 0.4 to 0.1 on a dry basis. The critical moisture content of the material is 0.08 on a dry basis. A tray drier is used to dry 100kg (dry basis) of the same material under identical conditions. The surface area of the material is 0.04m2/kg of dry solid. The time required (in seconds) to reduce the moisture content of the solids from 0.3 to 0.2 (dry basis) is a) 2000 b) 4000 c) 5000 d) 6000

9. Solvent used in extractive distillation a) is of low volatility c) forms a high-boiling azeotrope d) does not alter the relative volatility of the original components 10. The recovery of penicillin from the acidified fermentation broth is done by a) distillation b) evaporation c) absorption d) liquid extraction b) forms a low-boiling azeotrope

11. Penetration theory states that the mass transfer coefficient is equal to (where De is diffusivity and t is time) a) (Det)1/2 b) (De/t)1/2 c) [4De/( t)]1/2 d) (4De/t)1/2

12. An alkaline solution is used to reduce the concentration of carbon dioxide in a stream from 10% to 0.1% by absorption with irreversible chemical reaction. The overall number of transfer units based on gas phase is a) 9.21 b) 4.605 c) 100 d) 0.001

13. If two gases of different compositions initially at the same temperature are allowed to diffuse together, a transient temperature gradient results from the ordinary diffusion. This phenomenon is called a) Soret effect b) Dufour effect c) Knudsen effect d) Seebeck effect

14. If a temperature gradient is applied to a homogenous solution, a concentration gradient is usually established. This phenomenon is called a) Dufour effect b) Soret effect c) Knudsen effect d) Seebeck effect

15. The substance on the surface of which adsorption takes place is called .(a) and the substance adsorbed is known as .(b) . a) (a) adsorbate (b) adsorbent c) (a) absorbent (b) absorate b) (a) adsorbent (b) adsorbate d) (a) absorbate (b) absorbent

16. The process of desorption can be brought about by (a) . the temperature or by .(b) . the pressure. a) (a) increasing (b) increasing c) (a) decreasing (b) increasing b) (a) decreasing (b) decreasing d) (a) increasing (b) decreasing

17. Water vapors are (a) by anhydrous Calcium chloride and these are .(b) .by silica gel. a) (a) adsorbed (b) absorbed c) (a) adsorbed (b) adsorbed b) (a) absorbed (b) adsorbed d) (a) absorbed (b) absorbed

18. The dimensionless group in mass transfer that is equivalent to Prandtl number in heat transfer is a) Nusselt number b) Sherwood number c) Schmidt number d) Stanton number

19. The Reynolds analogy for momentum, heat and mass transfer is best applicable for a) gases in turbulent flow c) liquids in turbulent flow b) gases in laminar flow d) liquids and gases in laminar

20. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid a) gas side mass transfer coefficient should be increased b) liquid side mass transfer coefficient should be increased c) liquid side mass transfer coefficient should be decreased d) mass transfer coefficients must be kept constant 21. The mass transfer coefficient for a solid sphere of radius a , dissolving in a large volume of quiescent liquid, in which D is the diffusivity of the solute, is a) D/a b) D/2a c) proportional to (D)1/2 d) dependent on the Reynolds number

22. In an interphase mass transfer process, the lesser the solubility of a given solute in a liquid, the higher are the chances that the transfer process will be a) liquid phase resistance controlled c) impossible b) gas phase resistance controlled d) driven by a nonlinear driving force

23. If the Prandtl number is greater than the Schmidt number, a) the thermal boundary layer lies inside the concentration boundary layer b) the concentration boundary layer lies inside the thermal boundary layer c) the thermal and concentration boundary layers are of equal thickness d) the hydrodynamic (i.e., momentum) boundary layer is thicker than the other two 24. Molecular diffusivity of a liquid a) increases with temperature b) decreases with temperature

c) may increase or decrease with temperature d) is independent of temperature 25. For turbulent mass transfer in pipes, the Sherwood number depends upon the Reynold s number (Re) as a) Re0.33 b) Re0.53 c) Re0.83 d) Re-0.20

26. According to the film theory of mass transfer, the mass transfer coefficient is proportional to a) D b) D2 where D is the molecular diffusivity. 27. The Knudsen diffusivity is dependent on a) the molecular velocity only c) the molecular mean free path only b) the pore radius of the catalyst only d) he molecular velocity and pore radius of the catalyst c) D0.5 d) 1/D

28. Gas A diffuses to the surface of a catalyst where it is converted into B according to the chemical reaction 3A B. The product B diffuses back. The ratio of molar flux of A to B at steady state is a) -3 b) -1/3 c) 3 d) 1/3

29. Diffusion coefficient in a binary gas mixture at low pressure varies with pressure as a) P b)P2 c) 1/P d) independent of P

30. Mass transfer coefficient according to penetration theory varies with mass diffusivity as a) D0.5 b) D c) 1/D d) D1.5

31. According to penetration theory, the mass transfer coefficient (kL) depends on the exposure time (te) of an eddy to the solute. Select the correct dependence a) kL Te b) kL 1/te c) kL 1/(te)1/2 d) kL (te)1/2

32. The z-component of the total mass flux of a composition A in a binary mixture of A and B is given by a) [(CA/CT)(NAZ+NBZ)]-[DAB ( CA/ Z)] b) [CA(NAZ+NBZ)]+[DAB ( CA/ Z)] c) DAB ( CA/ Z) d) (CA/CT)(NAZ+NBZ)

33. The Reynolds analogy for mass transfer is given by (a) . and is applicable when Schmidt number is .(b) .. a) (a) kc = f/2, (b) 1 b) (a) kc / v = f/2, (b) 1 c) (a) Nsh = f/2, (b) 100 d) (a) Nsh = f/2, (b) 0.1

34. Which of the following dimensionless numbers for a flow in a pipe can be expressed as the ratio of the concentration gradient at pipe wall to the overall concentration difference a) Sherwood number b) Schmidt number c) Peclet number d) Reynolds number

35. A gas bubble at a pressure of Pg is passed through a solvent with a saturation vapor pressure of Ps. If the time of passage of the bubble is long and air is insoluble in the solvent, the mole fraction of solvent in the bubble will be equal to a) Ps/(Ps+Pg) b) Ps/Pg c) Ps/(Pg+Ps) d) Pg/Ps

36. Use of Raschig rings in place of crushed stones as packing in packed beds (other things being same) a) increases pressure drop, increases surface area b) increases pressure drop, decreases surface area c) decreases pressure drop, increases surface area d) decreases pressure drop, decreases surface area 37. Kremser-Brown-Sonders equation is used to calculate a) height of a transfer unit c) plate spacing in plate column b) number of transfer units d) number of ideal plates in a plate column

38. The number of ideal plates required for specified separation in a plate column can be calculated by the use of a) Kremser-Brown-Sonders equation c) Murphree equation b) Underwood equation d) Rayleigh equation

39. The enthalpy of Chemisorption is of the order of (a) .kJ/mol while for physical adsorption it is of the order of .(b) kJ/mol a) (a) 20, (b) 200 b) (a) 200, (b) 20 c) (a) 200, (b) 200 d) (a) 20 (b) 20

40. Adsorption of gases on solids a) increases with increasing temperature c) decreases with increasing temperature b) decreases with increasing pressure d) remains constant with increasing temperature

41. The diffusion rate of ammonia from an aqueous solution to the gas phase is 10-3kmol/m2s. The interface equilibrium pressure of NH3 is 660N/m2 and the concentration of NH3 in gas phase is 5%. If the total pressure is 101N/m2, the temperature is 295K and diffusivity of NH3 is 0.24cm2/s, the gas film thickness in mm is a) 0.006 b) 6 c) 0.0006 d) 0.6

42. Fick s second law of diffusion in one dimension is a) JA = -DAB ( CA/ Z) c) JA = -DAB ( 2CA/ Z2) b) ( CA/ d) CA/ ) = -DAB ( 2CA/ Z2) = DAB ( 2CA/ Z2)

43. For a system forming maximum-boiling azeotrope, the equilibrium curve intersects the diagonal line at the azeotropic point with a slope a) less than unity b) more than unity c) equal to unity d) equal to zero

44. For a system forming minimum-boiling azeotrope, the equilibrium curve intersects the diagonal line at the azeotropic point with a slope a) equal to zero b) equal to unity c) less than unity d) more than unity

45. The relative volatility of a binary mixture at the azeotropic composition is a) zero b)infinity c) unity d) either less than or more than unity

46. The concentration and hydrodynamic boundary layers over a flat plate are of equal thickness if Schmidt number equal to a) zero b) unity c)infinity d) one-half

47. For laminar flow over a flat plate of length L, the local mass transfer coefficient at a distance L from the leading edge is 1.5x10-2 m/s. Then the average mass transfer coefficient for the plate is a) 2x10-2 m/s b) 1.5x10-2 m/s c) 0.75 m/s d) 3x10-2 m/s

48. For the nth tray (counted from the top of a distillation column), the Murphree tray efficiency is defined by, a) yn yn+1 / y*n yn+1 b) yn yn-1 / y*n yn-1 c) y*n yn+1 / yn yn+1 d) yn yn+1 / yn yn-1

49. The deviation of the equilibrium curve for an ideal binary solution from the diagonal line except at x=0 or 1 a) remains constant with increase in relative volatility b) increases with increase in relative volatility c) decreases with increase in relative volatility d) passes through maximum with increase in relative volatility 50. The number of theoretical trays to absorb 99 mol% of solute from a dilute mixture of solute and carrier gas by the use of pure solvent for absorption factor by unity is a) 99 b)9 c)111 d) 11

51. Hydrogen sulphide can be removed from natural gas using monoethanol amine solution since the hydrogen sulphide is readily absorbed at .(a) temperatures and easily stripped at ..(b).. temperatures a) (a) low, (b) low b) (a) high, (b) high c) (a) low, (b) high d) (a) high, (b) low 52. Which solvent is used for removing benzene from coke-oven gas? a) water b) caustic soda c) soda ash d) hydrocarbon oils

53. If the solute (gas) absorbed in the solvent (liquid) forms an ideal solution, the solubility of the gas is the same in terms of mole fraction for all the solvents. But it is greater in terms of weight fraction for the solvent of a) higher molecular weight c) higher boiling point b) lower molecular weight d) lower boiling point

54. The number of theoretical trays required to desorb 99 mol% of solute from a dilute solution of solute and non-volatile solvent by the use of superheated steam for stripping factor of unity is a) 9 b) 11 c)99 d) 111

55. Usually absorption operations are .(a) . and stripping operations are .(b) . a) (a) exothermic, (b) exothermic c) (a) endothermic, (b) exothermic b) (a) endothermic, (b) endothermic d) (a) exothermic, (b) endothermic

56. In gas liquid contact operation the number of ideal stages N = [(xa-xb) / (xb-x*b)]. This is true when the stripping factor S is a) S>1 b) S<1 c) S=1 d) S=

57. For stripping of a gas in a countercurrent stripper, the operating line a) lies above the equilibrium curve b) lies below the equilibrium curve

c) can lie above or below the equilibrium curve d) is always parallel to the equilibrium curve 58. A pure gas is absorbed in a solvent in which the gas is highly soluble. The controlling resistance is a) in the gas film b) in the liquid film c) in the interface d) any of the above 59. In absorber the equilibrium curve is always a) parallel to the operating line c) below the operating line b) above the operating line d) a straight line

60. In continuous countercurrent packed absorber operating on very dilute concentrations, the volumetric gas mass transfer coefficient is proportional to G0.8, where G is the gas flow rate in moles per unit time per unit empty area. If G is doubled what will be the ratio of height of gas transfer unit at the increased gas flow rate to the one at the original gas flow rate? (Assume the flow rates are below the flooding point.) a) 20.8 b) 20.2 c) 2-0.8 d) 2-0.2 61. If the equilibrium curve is concave upward, then the minimum liquid gas ratio for absorption a) is zero b) corresponds to an exit liquid concentration in equilibrium with the incoming gas c) corresponds to an exit liquid concentration in equilibrium with the leaving gas d) corresponds to an entering liquid concentration in equilibrium with the entering gas 62. A component of gas mixture absorbed in a solvent is usually desorbed to reuse the solvent. Two methods used to desorb the absorbed component are (a) . and .(b) .. a) (a) pressure reduction, (b) temperature reduction b) (a) pressure increase, (b) temperature increase c) (a) pressure increase, (b) temperature reduction d) (a) pressure reduction, (b) temperature increase 63. A very low values of liquid to gas ratio are best handled in (a) column and high values of this ratio are best handled in (b) . Column a) (a) tray, (b) packed c) (a) packed, (b) packed b) (a) packed, (b) tray d) (a) tray, (b)tray

64. Consider the following statements: 1. For values of absorption factor less than unity, the fractional absorption of solute is limited, even for infinite theoretical trays. 2. For values of absorption factor more than unity, any degree of absorption is possible if sufficient trays are provided. 3. For values of absorption factor less than unity, any degree of absorption is possible if sufficient trays are provided. 4. For a fixed degree of absorption from a fixed amount of gas, as absorption factor increases beyond unity, the number of trays decreases. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1,2 and 4 b) 2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4 d) 3 and 4

65. In absorption of a solute gas from a mixture containing inerts in a solvent, it has been found that the overall gas transfer coefficient is nearly equal to the individual gas film transfer coefficient. It may therefore concluded that a) the process is liquid film controlled b) the gas is sparingly soluble in the solvent

c) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the thickness of the liquid film d) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the thickness of the gas film 66. The desired properties of liquid solvents for the extraction of solute from a liquid solution include a (a) distribution coefficient and a selectivity towards solute of (b) a) (a) low, (b) more than zero c) (a) low, (b) unity b) (a) high, (b) more than unity d) (a) high, (b) zero

67. Which of the following solvents has a maximum distribution coefficient at 20 C for the extraction of acetic acid from acetic acid-water system? a) n-Butanol b) Ethyl acetate c) Toluene d) n-Hexane

68. Consider the following statements: 1. The enthalpy of air-water vapour mixture can be increased by increasing the temperature at constant humidity 2. The enthalpy of air-water vapour mixture can be increased by increasing the humidity at constant temperature 3. The enthalpy of air-water vapour mixture can be increased by increasing both the temperature and the humidity Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1,2 and 3

69. If Y is the molal absolute humidity of air-water vapor mixture, the mole fraction of water vapor in the mixture is a) 1 / (1+Y) b) Y / (1+Y) c) (18/29)Y / [1+(18/29)Y] d) (18/29) / [(18/29)+Y]

70. If Y is the absolute humidity of air-water vapor mixture, the mole fraction of water vapor in the mixture is a) Y / [(18/29)+Y ] b) Y / (1+Y ) c) 1 / (1+Y ) d) [(18/29)Y ] / [(18/29)+Y ]

71. If Y is the molal absolute humidity of air-water vapor mixture, the mass fraction of water vapor in the mixture is a) Y / (1+Y) b) 1 / [1+(18/29)Y] c) 1 / (1+Y) d) [(18/29)Y] / [1+(18/29)Y]

72. If Y is the absolute humidity of air-water vapor mixture, the mass fraction of water vapor in the mixture is a) Y / [(18/29)+Y ] b) (18/29) / [(18/29)+Y ] c) Y / (1+Y ) d) 1 / (1+Y )

73. Adiabatic saturation process of atmospheric air is a process of constant a) wet-bulb temperature b) dew-point temperature c) relative humidity d) dry-bulb temperature

74. The vapor pressure of benzene at 50 C is 275 mmHg. What is the relative saturation of a mixture consisting of 12.5 mol% benzene and 87.5 mol% nitrogen at 800 mmHg and 50 C? a) 36.36% b) 27.27% c) 14.28% d) 34.37%

75. The vapor pressure of benzene at 50 C is 275 mmHg. What is the percent saturation of a mixture consisting of 12.5 mol% benzene and 87.5 mol% nitrogen at 800 mmHg and 50 C? a) 36.36% b) 27.27% c) 14.28% d) 34.37%

76. For an unsaturated air-water vapor mixture, the ratio of the percent saturation and relative saturation is always a) equal to one b) more than one c) less than one d) equal to or more than one

77. The volume of a vapor (A) gas (B) mixture is equal to the product of its humid volume and a) mass of vapor A c) total mass of vapor A and dry gas B b) mass of dry gas B d) average molecular weight of vapor (A) gas (B) mixture

78. For the air-water system under the adiabatic conditions, the adiabatic saturation temperature and the wet bulb temperature are nearly equal, because a) water has a high latent heat of evaporation c) they are always equal under all circumstances d) solubility of the components of air in water is very small 79. At the bottom of a countercurrent cooling tower, where the water temperature is below the drybulb temperature of air, the sensible heat flows from (a) to (b) and latent heat flows from (c) to (d) (fill in interface, water, air, water and air) a) (a) air (b) interface (c) water (d) water and air c) (a) air (b) water (c) water and air (d) interface 80. Lewis number =1 signifies a) NPr=NSc b) NPr=NRe c) NSc=NRe d) NSt=NSh b) (a) air (b) water (c) interface (d) water and air d) (a) air (b) interface (c) water and air (d) water b) Lewis number is close to unity

81. Assume that toluene is insoluble in water. The normal boiling points of toluene and water are 110.6 C and 100 C, respectively. At a pressure of 1 atm, the boiling point of a mixture of toluene and water is a) 110.6 C b) 100 C c) less than 100 C d) greater than 100 C but less than 110.6 C

82. In a binary liquid solution of components A and B, if component A exhibits negative deviation from Raoult s law, then component B a) exhibits negative deviation from Raoullt s law b) exhibits positive deviation from Raoullt s law c) obeys Raoullt s law d) may exhibit either positive or negative deviation from Raoullt s law

83. If the McCabe-Thiele assumptions are valid, the molal flow rates of liquid stream in the enriching and stripping sections are equal for a) subcooled liquid feed c) saturated vapor feed b) saturated liquid feed d) superheated vapor feed

84. If the McCabe-Thiele assumptions are valid, the molal flow rates of vapor stream in the enriching and stripping sections are equal for a) superheated vapor feed c) saturated liquid feed b) saturated vapor feed d) subcooled liquid feed

85. What is the value of inertial reflux ratio if a distillation column is operating under total reflux condition? Assume that McCabe-Thiele assumptions are valid. a) b) 0 c) 1 d)1/2

86. In the design of continuous distillation column for single feed of binary mixture the slope of the operating line for the enriching section depends on a) reflux ratio b) reflux ratio and mole fraction of more volatile components in distillate

c) mole fraction of more volatile component in distillate and q-value of feed d) q-value of feed and reflux ratio 87. Which method will produce distillate richer in more volatile component from the same binary feed? a) single stage flash vaporization b) differential distillation

c) both will produce distillate of the same average composition d) single stage flash vaporization for >1 and differential distillation for 1< <2 88. A binary mixture forms an azeotrope at temperature T and pressure P. The mole fractions of more volatile component in the liquid and vapor phases are x and y, respectively. At an azeotrope, a) dP/dx=0 b) dP/dy=0 c) y=x d) All of these

89. For an ideal binary mixture of propane and butane, the mole fraction of propane in vapor phase in equilibrium with a liquid solution containing 50 mol% propane at a pressure of 101.3 kPa and 1013kPa are 0.845 and y, respectively, where a) y=0.845 b) y<0.845 c) y>0.845 d) y 0.845

90. A liquid solution of pyridine and water is separated using chlorobenzene as liquid solvent. At 25 C the composition of extract and raffinate at equilibrium are given below: Extract, wt.% 2.87 31.55 65.58 Raffinate, wt.% 62.05 36.10 1.85

Water Pyridine Chlorobenzene Selectivity of Chlorobenzene for pyridine is a) 1.21 b) 1.14

c) 6.39

d) 18.89

91. A liquid solution of pyridine and water is separated using chlorobenzene as liquid solvent. At 25 C the composition of extract and raffinate at equilibrium are given below: Extract, wt.% 2.87 31.55 65.58 Raffinate, wt.% 62.05 36.10 1.85

Water Pyridine Chlorobenzene The distribution coefficient of pyridine is a) 1.14 b) 0.88

c) 18.89

d) 1.21

92. A binary mixture consisting of A (more volatile) and B obeys Raoult s and Dalton s laws. The mole fractions of A in the equilibrium liquid and vapor phases, respectively, are x and y. If PsatA and PsatB are the vapor pressures of A and B, respectively, at the system temperature T, the system pressure P for x+y=1 should be a) (PsatA+PsatB) / 2 c) (PsatAPsatB )1/2 b) (2PsatAPsatB ) / (PsatA+PsatB) d) (PsatA-PsatB) / [ln(PsatA/PsatB)]

93. An equimolar saturated vapor mixture of A (more volatile) and B at 1 atm is subjected to equilibrium condensation to yield 50 mol% of the feed as liquid. If the relative volatility ( ) is constant, the mole fraction of A in the equilibrium liquid phase shall be a) / (1+ ) b) c) 1 / (1+ ) d) (1+ )/

94. An equimolar saturated vapor mixture of A (more volatile) and B at 1 atm is subjected to equilibrium condensation to yield 50 mol% of the feed as liquid. If the relative volatility ( ) is constant, the mole fraction of A in the equilibrium vapor phase shall be a) b) 1 / c) / (1+ ) d) (1+ )/

95. According to Fenske equation, what will be the minimum number plates required in a distillation to separate an equimolar binary mixture of components A and B into an overhead fraction containing 99 mol% A and a bottom fraction containing 98 mol% B? [Assume that the relative volatility ( AB=2) does not change appreciably in the column] a) 5 b) 9 c) 12 d) 28

96. The minimum reflux ratio required to separate a binary mixture of constant relative volatility is a) independent of distillation pressure b) zero

c) lower for the lower distillation pressure than that for higher distillation pressure d) higher for the lower distillation pressure than that for higher distillation pressure 97. If q is defined as the moles of liquid flow in the stripping section of distillation column per mole of feed introduced, then for saturated liquid feed a) q>1 b) q<1 c) q=1 d) q=0

98. If q is defined as the moles of liquid flow in the stripping section of distillation column per mole of feed introduced, then for saturated vapor feed a) q=0 b) q=1 c) q<0 d) q>1

99. According to Fenske equation, the minimum number of theoretical plates required to separate a binary mixture of constant relative volatility ( ) into an overhead product of composition xD (mole fraction of more volatile component) and residue of composition xW (mole fraction of more volatile comonent) by distillation does not depend on a) the feed composition b) xD c) xW d)

100. For a fixed number of ideal stages in a distillation column, as the reflux ratio is increased, the difference in composition between the top and bottom product streams a) increases b) decreases c) remains unaffected d) passes through a maximum

101. In distillation column design, the McCabe-Thiele procedure is inadequate and a Ponchon-Savarit procedure is needed when a) saturation feed is not used b) an azeotrope forms

c) the latent heats of vaporization of the more and less volatile components are greatly different d) a total condenser is used

102. In binary distillation, the separation of the components is easier if the relative volatility ( ) is a) >>1 b) <<1 c) =1 d) none of these

103. In distillation columns, the number of bubble caps per tray primarily depends on the a) allowable liquid velocity c) allowable gas and liquid velocities b) allowable gas velocity d) feed composition

104. In binary distillation column, if the feed contains 40 mol% vapor, the q line will have a slope of a) 1.5 b) -0.6 c) -1.5 d) 0.6

105. One mole feed of a binary mixture of a given composition is flash vaporized at a fixed P and T. If the Raoult s law is obeyed, then changing the feed composition would effect a) the product composition but not the fraction vaporized b) the product composition as well as the fraction vaporized c) the fraction vaporized but not the product composition d) neither the product composition nor the fraction vaporized 106. The reason for preferring packed towers over plate towers in distillation practice is that the packed tower operation gives a) low pressure drop and high hold up c) low pressure drop and low hold up b) high pressure drop and low hold up d) high pressure drop and high hold up

107. When a multistage tray tower uses a minimum reflux ratio it implies a) infinite trays and maximum reboiler heat load c) minimum trays and minimum reboiler heat load b) infinite trays and minimum reboiler heat load d) minimum trays and maximum reboiler heat load

108. Starting at the minimum reflux ratio, as the reflux ratio is increased for a given separation, the fixed cost of a fractioning column a) increases b) decreases c) first decreases and then increases

d) first increases and then decreases

109. In azeotropic distillation the third component is added a) to form another azeotrope with one of the components b) to increase the value of relative volatility of the original two components c) to decrease the value of relative volatility of the original components d) to change the value of the vaporization equilibrium constant for two components 110. The number of ideal stages required in a fractioning column is the least at a) minimum reflux ratio b) total reflux c) optimum reflux ratio d) the reflux ratio is zero

111. A binary hydrocarbon liquid mixture of A and B (KA=1.5) containing 60 mol% A is flash vaporized. If 40% of the feed is vaporized, the mole fraction of A in the liquid product is a) 0.6 b) 0.4 c) 0.3 d) 0.5

112. Minimum number of ideal stages are required in a fractioning column when the reflux ratio is equal to a) minimum reflux ratio b) optimum reflux ratio c) zero d) infinity

113. When a multistage tray column uses a minimum reflux ratio, it implies a) infinite trays and maximum condenser heat load b) infinite trays and minimum condenser heat load c) minimum trays and maximum condenser heat load d) minimum trays and minimum condenser heat load 114. Starting at the minimum reflux ratio, as the reflux ratio is increased for a given separation, the operating cost of a fractioning column a) decreases b) increases c) first decreases and then increases

d) first increases and then decreases 115. According to Fenske equation, the minimum number of theoretical plates required to separate a binary mixture of constant relative volatility ( ) into an overhead product of composition xD (mole fraction of more volatile component) and residue of composition xW (mole fraction of more volatile comonent) by distillation does not depend on a) the thermal condition of the feed b) xD c) xW d)

116. The humid volume vH and density of a vapor-gas mixture of mass absolute humidity Y are related by a) = [(1+Y ) / vH ] b) = (Y / vH ) c) = (vH / 1+Y ) d) = (vH / Y )

117. The Optimum value of the absorption factor lies in the range of a) 1.25 2 b) 0.25 1 c) 2 4 d) 5 10

118. It takes 6 hours to dry a wet solid from 50% moisture content on a dry basis to the critical moisture content of 15% (dry basis). How much longer will it take to further dry the solid to 10% moisture content on a dry basis, under the same drying conditions (the equilibrium moisture content of the solid is 5%, the drying rate curve is linear in the falling rate period) a) 15 min b) 51 min c) 71 min d) 94 min

119. Peclet number of (a) corresponds to complete back mixing and Peclet number of (b)... corresponds to plug flow a) (a) infinity, (b) unity b) (a) unity, (b) infinity c) (a) zero, (b) infinity d) (a) zero, (b) unity

120. Air with a dry bulb temperature td1 and a wet bulb temperature tw1 is passed through a heater and then through an adiabatic cooler from which it emerges with dry and wet bulb temperatures td2 and tw2 respectively. Then a) always tw1 > tw2 and td1 > td2 c) always tw1 > tw2 and td1 < td2 b) always tw1 < tw2 and td1 > td2 d) tw1 < tw2 and td1 can be greater than, equal to or less td2

121. Select the correct order of increasing solubility in water at room temperature a) HCl, NH3, SO2 and O2 b) O2, SO2, NH3 and HCl c) SO2, O2, HCl and NH3 d) SO2, HCl, O2 and NH3 122. A batch of material is dried under constant drying conditions. When drying is taking place from all the surfaces, the rate of drying the constant rate period is a) directly proportional to the solid thickness b) independent of the solid thickness

c) inversely proportional to the solid thickness d) directly proportional to the square of solid thickness 123. The temperature of the wet solid to be dried by hot air during the constant rate period in the absence of heat transfer by radiation and conduction is equal to a) the dry-bulb temperature of the air c) the boiling point of water b) the wet-bulb temperature of the air d) the dew-point temperature of the air

124. In the drying of solids, the constant rate period is absent if the initial moisture content of the solid is a) less than the critical moisture content of the solid b) more than the critical moisture content of the solid c) more than the equilibrium moisture content of the solid d) equal to or more than the critical moisture content of the solid 125. In the drying of solids, the falling rate period is absent if the initial and final moisture contents of the solid are a) less than the critical moisture content of the solid b) more than the critical moisture content of the solid c) more than the equilibrium moisture content of the solid d) are lying between the equilibrium and the critical moisture content of the solid 126. The critical moisture content for a given type of solid a) is independent of drying rate and thickness of solid b) increases with increased drying rate and thickness of solid c) increases with increased drying rate and decreases with increased thickness of solid d) decreases with increased drying rate and increases with increased thickness of solid 127. If the solid is dried from all surfaces in the absence of radiation using hot air, the surface temperature of the solid will be equal to a) wet-bulb temperature of the air c) boiling point of water b) dry-bulb temperature of the air d) dew point of the air

128. A method of cooling porous surfaces which are exposed to very hot gases by forcing a cold gas or evaporating liquid through the surface into the gas stream is known as a) transpiration cooling b) evaporative cooling c) Newtonian cooling d) none of the above

129. During the constant rate period in the cross-circulation batch drying of solids by hot air the rate of drying (kg moisture evaporated per unit time per unit area) is independent of a) the moisture content of the solid c) the temperature of the hot air b) the temperature of the solid d) the humidity of hot air

130. A supersaturated solution of a sparingly soluble solute, at a concentration of Co is being fed to a crystallizer at a volumetric flow rate F. The solubility of the solute is Cs. The output rate of solids from an efficient crystallizer is a) FCo 131. Snow is formed by a) freezing of liquid water c) crystallization of solid particles in a vapor 132. All crystals of a definite substance a) have the same interfacial angles b) have the same sizes of the faces b) cooling of ice d) all the above b) FCs c) FCo / Cs d) FCs / Co

c) have the same sizes of the faces as well as the same interfacial angles d) do not have the same interfacial angles 133. Calcium carbonate as calcite occurs in a) ortho rhombic form b) monoclinic form c) hexagonal form d) cubic form

134. Calcium carbonate as aragonite occurs in a) hexagonal form b) monoclinic form c) cubic form d) orthorhombic form

135. Match the items in the left-hand column with the appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Solutropic system (II) Equilibrium moisture content (a) Crystallization (b) Distillation (c) Liquid-liquid extraction (d) Drying a) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) b) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) c) (I)-(b), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(a), (II)-(d)

136. Match the items in the left-hand column with the appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Removal of benzene from coke-oven gas (II) Removal of H2S from refinery gases (a) monoethanol amine (b) water (c) Hydrocarbon oils (d) liquid SO2 a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(c), (II)-(a) d) (I)-(b), (II)-(a)

137. Match the items in the left-hand column with the appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Diffusion coefficient in gases (II) Diffusion coefficient in liquids (a) T0.5 (b) T1.5 (c) 1/T (d) T a) (I)-(a), (II)-(d) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(b) c) (I)-(b), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(b), (II)-(d)

138. Match the dimensionless numbers given in the left-hand column with the appropriate ratio given in the right-hand column (I) Schmidt number (II) Lewis number (a) Momentum diffusivity/Thermal diffusivity (b) Thermal diffusivity/Mass diffusivity (c) Momentum diffusivity/Mass diffusivity (d) Mass diffusivity/Thermal diffusivity a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(a), (II)-(d) d) (I)-(c), (II)-(b)

139. The composite diffusivity DT for the diffusion of gas A through capillary taking place by molecular diffusion and Knudsen diffusion is defined by DT = NAZ / (-dCA/dZ) and is determined by DT = 1 / {[(1- AyA) / DAB] + (1/DKA)} where A=1 - (MA/MB)1/2, yA is the mole fraction of A, MA and MB are molecular weights of A and B, and DAB and DKA are molecular coefficient and Knudsen diffusion coefficient. This equation reduces to the Bosanquet formula 1/DT = (1/DAB) + (1/DKA) for NBZ/NAZ equal to a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d)

140. The Bosanquet formula for the composite diffusivity DT for the diffusion of gas A through capillary taking place by molecular diffusion and Knudsen diffusion is 1/DT=(1/DAB) + (1/DKA) where DAB and DKA are molecular diffusion coefficient and Knudsen diffusion coefficient, respectively. This formula is applicable for a) steady-state equimolal counter diffusion and for very small values of mole fraction of A b) steady-state equimolal counter diffusion and for values of mole fraction of A close to one c) steady-state diffusion of A through non-diffusing B and for very small values of mole fraction of A d) steady-state diffusion of A through non-diffusing B and for values of mole fraction of A close to one 141. Knudsen diffusion coefficient a) depends on temperature and it is independent of pressure b) depends on pressure and it is independent of temperature c) depends on temperature and pressure d) is independent of temperature and pressure 142. The variation of the Knudsen diffusion coefficient (DKA) with the absolute temperature (T) follows a) DKA T b) DKA T3/2 c) DKA T1/2 d) DKA T2

143. If X is the moisture content of the wet solid on dry basis, then the moisture content of the wet solid on wet basis will be equal to a) X b) X / 1-X c) X / 1+X d) 1-X / 1+X

144. If the moisture content of the wet solid on dry basis is twice the moisture content on wet basis, then the moisture content on dry basis should be a) 1 kg moisture/kg dry solid c) 2 kg moisture/kg dry solid b) 0.5 kg moisture/kg dry solid d) 1.5 kg moisture/kg dry solid

145. If the moisture content of the wet solid on dry basis is twice the moisture content on wet basis, then the moisture content on wet basis should be a) 0.5 kg moisture/kg wet solid c) 1.5 kg moisture/kg wet solid b) 1 kg moisture/kg wet solid d) 2 kg moisture/kg wet solid

146. For dilute systems which obeys Henry s law, match the ratio given in the left-hand column with the corresponding value of absorption factor (A) given in the right-hand column (I) NTUOG/NP<1 (II) HETP/HTUOG>1 (a) A<1 (b) A=1 (c) A>1 a) (I)-(a), (II)-(c) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(a) c) (I)-(b), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(b), (II)-(a)

147. For dilute systems which obeys Henry s law, the height of a overall gas-phase transfer unit (HTUOG) and the height equivalent to a theoretical plate (HETP) are related by a) HETP = HTUOG [lnA/(1-1/A)] c) HETP = HTUOG/A where A = absorption factor 148. For dilute systems which obeys Henry s law, the number of overall gas-phase transfer unit (NTUOG) and number of theoretical plates (NP) required for the desired separation are related by a) NTUOG = NP [lnA / {1-(1/A)}] c) NTUOG = NP / [1-(1/A)] b) NP=NTUOG (lnA/(1-1/A)) d) NTUOG = [1-(1/A)]NP b) HTUOG = HETP[lnA/(1-1/A)] d) HETP = A(HTUOG)

149. Consider the following statements in respect of entrainment: 1. The problem of entrainment is less critical for those liquid which are highly foaming 2. Catchall type of entrainment separator has two turns of helical baffles fitted to the central vapor inlet pipe. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2

150. When is the Lewis number of a mixture equal to one? a) the mass diffusivity is equal to the momentum diffusivity b) the mass diffusivity is equal to the thermal conductivity c) the mass diffusivity is equal to the momentum diffusivity d) the mass diffusivity is equal to the 1/thermal diffusivity

151. What is the ratio of the actual equilibrium partial pressure of a component to its ideal value called? a) Fugacity b) Turndown ratio c) Activity coefficient d) Relative volatility

152. Which of the following systems form azeotrope at 1 atm? 1. Hydrochloric acid-water 3. Benzene-toluene a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1,2 and 4 2. Acetone-Chloroform 4. Ethanol-water c) 3 and 4 d) 1,2,3 and 4

153. Consider the following statements: Flash distillation operation is not suitable for separating components which 1. boil at widely different range of temperatures 2. boil in close range of temperatures 3. form maximum-boiling azeotropes 4. form minimum-boiling azeotropes Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 2, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 4

154. When is the slope of the operating line of the rectifying section of a distillation column equal to unity a) Reflux ratio = 0 b) Reflux ratio = c) Reflux ratio = 1 d) Reflux ratio = Rmin

where Rmin is the minimum reflux ratio 155. In a distillation operation, the feed is a saturated liquid with 50 mol% more volatile component A. The distillate is with 75 mol% A. What is the minimum reflux ratio with relative volatility as 2? a) b) 1 c) 2 d)

156. Consider the following statements: Solvent used in extractive distillation 1. is of low volatility 2. alters the relative volatility of the original components 3. must not form azeotrope with the original substance Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3

157. How is overall tray efficiency defined? a) The ratio of the number of real trays required to the number of ideal trays required b) The ratio of the number of ideal trays required to the number of real trays required c) The ratio of the number of overall gas transfer units to the number of ideal trays required d) The ratio of the number of ideal trays required to the number of overall gas transfer units 158. Match items in the left-hand column with those in the right-hand column (I) Packed column (II) Valve trays (III) Batch distillation (IV) Multi-component distillation a) (I)-(d), (II)-(b), (III)-(a), (IV)-(c) c) (I)-(d), (II)-(c), (III)-(a), (IV)-(b) (a) Lower pressure drop (b) large turndown ratio (c) dew and bubble point calculations (d) Rayleigh s equation b) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d), (IV)-(b) d) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d), (IV)-(c)

159. In the context of mass transfer, what happens when tie lines coincides with the operating line? a) minimum number of plates are required c) optimum number of plates are required b) maximum number of plates are required d) no plates required

160. What is the size range of dissolved molecules which can be separated by ultrafiltration? a) >102 microns b) 10-2 102 microns c) 10-3 10-2 microns d) 10-4 10-3 microns

161. Hollow fiber membrane modules have a) poor resistance to fouling c) good resistance to fouling 162. The units of permeability are a) m2/s b) kmol/m2s c) kPa/m d) m3/m2s (kPa/m) b) moderate resistance to fouling d) excellent resistance to fouling

163. Consider the following statements: Electro dialysis can be controlled by 1. ionic exchange of species and potential difference between electrodes 2. electrostatic coupling between species 3. osmotic pressure and trans-membrane pressure Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3

164. How is the average mass transfer coefficient KLav related to the diffusivity DAB of a component A in B, according to the penetration theory? a) KLav DAB b) KLav DAB c) KLav D2AB d) KLav 1/ DAB

165. A large effect of temperature is observed on overall mass transfer coefficient. This indicates a) less resistance in liquid phase c) appreciable resistance in both phases b) no resistance in liquid phase d) more resistance in liquid phase

166. In a unit volume of gas-liquid mixture, the gas hold up is 0.1 with bubble diameter of 6mm. What is the specific surface area? a) 600m2/m3 b) 10m2/m3 c) 100m2/m3 d) 6m2/m3

167. In a water cooling tower, it is desired to cool water from tL2 to tL1 with air having dry bulb temperature tG1 and wet bulb temperature tW1. Which one of the following is correct for a feasible operation? a) tG1<tL1 b) tW1>tL1 c) tW1<tL1 d) tG1>tL1

168. What does a constant underflow in leaching imply? a) the ratio of insolubles to solution varies from 1 to 2 b) the ratio of insolubles to solution<1 c) the ratio of insolubles to solution>2 d) the ratio of insolubles to solution remains constant 169. How is stripping factor defined? a) the product of slopes of the operating line and equilibrium curve b) the reciprocal of the product of slopes of the operating line and equilibrium curve c) the ratio of the slope of the equilibrium curve to the slope of the operating line d) the ratio of the slope of the operating line to the slope of the equilibrium curve 170. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of boiling points of two liquids when it a) shows negative deviation from the Raoult s law b) shows positive deviation from the Raoult s law c) shows no deviation from the Raoult s law d) is saturated 171. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling point higher than either of boiling points of two liquids when it a) shows negative deviation from the Raoult s law b) shows positive deviation from the Raoult s law c) shows no deviation from the Raoult s law d) is saturated

172. Relative volatility for a binary system a) has no bearing on the distillation operation b) increases with increase in pressure c) decreases with increase in pressure d) increases with increase in temperature at constant pressure 173. Constant rate period is that drying period during which a) the moisture content of the substance remains constant b) the rate of vaporization per unit of drying surface area is constant c) the rate of vaporization increases with time d) the rate of vaporization decreases with time 174. When hysteresis is observed, the desorption equilibrium pressure a) is always equal to that obtained by adsorption b) is always higher than that obtained by adsorption c) is always lower than that obtained by adsorption d) may be equal to or higher than that obtained by adsorption 175. In solvent extraction operation, the selectivity of solvent a) decreases with decrease in temperature b) increases with decrease in temperature c) is independent of temperature d) increases only linearly with decrease in temperature

176. Consider the following statements: For a fixed extent of extraction in a continuous liquid-liquid extraction plant, 1) the number of stages required is independent of the change in solvent rate 2) the number of stages required is independent of the change in reflux ratio 3) the number of stages required increases with increase in solvent rate and reflux ratio 4) the number of stages required decreases with increase in solvent rate and reflux ratio Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only

177. What is the value of the reflux ratio for which most of the distillation columns are designed? a) 0.2Rmin 0.7Rmin c) 2Rmin 10Rmin b) 1.2Rmin 1.7Rmin d) 3Rmin 5Rmin where Rmin is the minimum reflux ratio 178. Consider the following statements: 1. Murphree tray efficiency can exceed unity 2. Point efficiency cannot exceed unity 3. For liquid in plug flow, Murphree tray efficiency is greater than the point efficiency Which of the statements above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only
G

d) 1, 2 and 3 made up of bubbles of diameter dP,

179. If unit volume of a gas-liquid mixture contains a gas volume then the specific interfacial area is equal to a) 6
G/

dP

b)

/ dP

c) 3

G/dP

d) 12

G/dP

180. In an interface mass transfer process, the larger the solubility of a given solute in a liquid, the higher is the chances that the transfer process will be a) gas phase resistance controlled c) impossible b) liquid phase resistance controlled d) driven by a non-linear driving force

181. For laminar flow over a flat plate of length L, the local mass transfer coefficient at a distance L from the leading edge is kC m/s. Then the average mass transfer coefficient for the plate is a) kC m/s b) (kC/2) m/s c) 2kC m/s d) 3kC m/s

HEAT TRANSFER

1. A steel sphere of radius 0.1m at 400K is immersed in oil at 300K. If the centre of the sphere reaches 350K in 20 min, how long will it take for a 0.05m radius steel sphere to reach the same temperature (at the centre) under isothermal conditions? Assume that the convective heat transfer coefficient is infinitely large. a) 5 min b) 10 min c) 20 min d) 40 min

2. A composite flat wall of a furnace is made of two materials A and B. The thermal conductivity of A is twice of that of component B, while the thickness of layer of A is half of that of B. If the temperatures at the two sides of the wall are 400 and 1200K, then the temperature drop (in K) across the layer of material A is a) 125 b) 133 c) 150 d) 160

3. For turbulent flow in tube, the heat transfer coefficient is obtained from Dittus-Boelter correlation. If the tube diameter is halved and the flow rate is doubled, then the heat transfer coefficient will change by a factor of a) 1 b) 1.74 c) 6.1 d) 37

4. The Grashof number is defined as the ratio of a) buoyancy to inertial forces c) inertial to viscous forces b) buoyancy to viscous force d) buoyancy to surface tension forces

5. A sphere of radius R1 is enclosed in a sphere of radius R2. The view (or shape) factor for radiative heat transfer of the outer sphere with respect to the inner sphere is a) 0 b) R2/(R1+R2) c) 1 d) (R1/R2)2

6. A multiple effect evaporator has a capacity to process 4000kg of solid caustic soda per day when it is concentrating from 10% to 35% solids. The water evaporated in kg/day is a) 28571 b)24000 c) 16000 d) 48000

7. The advantage of backward feed multiple effect evaporator over forward feed is that a) heat sensitive materials can be handled b) there is no additional cost of pumping c) most concentrated liquor is at highest temperature d) equal heat transfer coefficients exist in various effects 8. Indirect contact heat exchangers are preferred over direct contact heat exchangers because a) heat transfer coefficients are high b) there is no risk of contamination c) there is no mist formation d) cost of equipment is lower 9. In a heat exchanger with steam outside the tubes, a liquid gets heated to 45C when its velocity in the tubes is 2m/s. If the velocity is reduced to 1m/s, other things remaining the same, the temperature of the exit liquid will be a) less than 45C b) equal to 45C c) greater than 45C

d) initially decreases and remains constant thereafter 10. A multiple effect evaporator has a capacity to evaporate 1000 kg of water/day when it is concentrating caustic soda solution from 10% to 50% solids. The processing capacity of the evaporator in kg of solid caustic soda per day is a) 4000 b) 14000 c) 25000 d) 2500

11. An organic liquid is cooled continuously in a stirred tank by flowing through a cooling coil. The organic liquid may be considered to be perfectly mixed. Inlet and outlet temperatures of the organic liquid are 50C and 30C, respectively and those of the cooling water are 20C and 25C. The log mean temperature difference for heat transfer through the coil is a) 16.4C b) 14C c) 17.5C d) 7.2C

12. An industrial wall is constructed of 20cm thick fireclay (k=1 W/m.C). This is covered on the outer surface with a 3cm layer of insulating material (k=0.075 W/m.C). The innermost surface is at 940C and the outermost at 40C. The steady rate of heat transfer through the wall is (a) W/m2 and the temperature of the interface between the fireclay and the insulating material is (b) C a) (a) 1500 (b) 640 b) (a) 3000 (b) 340 c) (a) 2250 (b) 490 d) (a) 50 (b) 930

13. The Biot modulus for a 3cm diameter (k for the sphere=5 W/m.C) at 100C subjected to a convective air flow resulting in an average convective heat transfer coefficient from the surface of 30 W/m2C is equal to a) 18 b) 0.18 c) 0.055 d) 5.55

14. A 10cm diameter steam pipe, carrying steam at 180C, is covered with insulation (conductivity = 0.6W/m.C). It loses heat to the surroundings at 30C. Assume a heat transfer coefficient of 8.0 W/m.C for heat transfer from surface to surroundings. Neglect wall resistance of the pipe and film resistance of steam. If the insulation thickness is 2cm, the rate of heat loss from the insulated pipe will be a) greater than that of steam non-insulated pipe b) less than that of steam non-insulated pipe c) equal to that of steam non-insulated pipe d) less than the steam pipe with 5cm insulation 15. 1000kg of liquid at 30C in a well-stirred vessel has to be heated at 120C, using immersed coils carrying condensing steam at 150C. The area of the steam coils is 1.2m2 and the overall heat transfer coefficient to the liquid is 1500W/m2C. Assuming negligible heat loss to surroundings and specific heat capacity of the liquid to be 4kJ/kgC, the time taken for the liquid to reach desired temperature will be a) 15 min b) 22 min c) 44 min d) 51 min

16. Fresh orange juice contains 12% (by weight) solids and rest water. 90% of the fresh juice is sent to an evaporator to remove water and subsequently mixed with the remaining 10% of fresh juice. The resultant product contains 40% solids. The kg of water removed from 1 kg fresh juice is, a) 0.4 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) 0.7

17. If the baffle spacing in a shell and tube heat exchanger increases, then the Reynolds number of the shell side fluid a) remains unchanged c) increases or decreases depending on the number of shell passes b) increases d) decreases

18. A composite wall consists of two plates A and B placed in series normal to the flow of heat. The thermal conductivities are kA and kB and the specific heat capacities are CPA and CPB, for plates A and B respectively. Plate B has twice the thickness of plate A. At steady state, the temperature difference across plate A is greater than that across plate B when a) CPA>CPB b) CPA<CPB c) kA<0.5kB d) kA>2kB

19. A multiple effect evaporator as compared to a single effect evaporator of the same capacity has a) lower heat transfer area c) higher steam economy b) lower steam economy d) higher solute concentration in the product

20. The advantage of using a 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger over a 1-1 shell and tube heat exchanger is a) lower tube side pressure drop c) higher tube side heat transfer coefficient b) lower shell side pressure drop d) higher shell side heat transfer coefficient

21. A long iron rod initially at a temperature of 20C has one end dipped in boiling water (100C) at time t=0. The curved surface of the rod is insulated so that heat conduction is one dimensional in the axial direction. The temperature at a distance 100mm from the dipped end becomes 40C at t=200s. The same temperature is achieved at a distance of 200mm from the dipped end at time a) t=283s b) t=356s c) t=400s d) t=800s

22. The radiation heat flux from a heating element at a temperature of 800C, in a furnace maintained at 300C is 8kW/m2. The flux when the element temperature is increased to 1000C for the same furnace temperature is a) 11.2kW/m2 b) 12.0 kW/m2 c) 14.6 kW/m2 d) 16.5 kW/m2

23. For condensation of pure vapors, if the heat-transfer coefficients in film-wise and drop-wise condensation are respectively hf and hd, then a) hf=hd c) hf<hd b) hf>hd d) hf could be greater or smaller than hd

24. The thermal radiative flux from a surface of emissivity=0.4 is 22.68kW/m2. The approximate surface temperature (K) is a) 1000 b) 727 c) 800 d) 1200

25. In process heat exchangers (a) steam is preferred over (b) steam a) (a) saturated (b) superheated c) (a) wet (b) dry b) (a) superheated (b) saturated d) (a) high pressure (b) low pressure

26. According to the kinetic theory, the thermal conductivity of a monoatomic gas is proportional to a) T b) T0.5 c) T1.5 d) T2

27. In thermal radiation, for a blackbody a) =1, 1 b) 1, =1 c) 1, 1 d) =1, =1

where is emissivity and is the absorptivity 28. At steady state, the temperature variation in a plane wall made of two different solids I and II is shown in the figure below:

Temperature

II I

L
Distance Then, the thermal conductivity of material I a) is smaller than that of II b) is greater than that of II c) is equal to that of II d) can be greater than or smaller than that of II

29. The non-dimensional temperature gradient in a liquid at the wall of a pipe is a) the heat flux b) the Nusselt number c) the Prandtl number d) the Schmidt number

30. In natural convection heat transfer the correlating parameter is a) Graetz number b) Eckert number c) Grashof number d) Bond number

31. The critical radius r of insulation on pipe is given by a) r= (2k/h) b) r= (k/h) c) r=(k/2h) d) r=(h/k)

where k is the thermal conductivity of the insulation and h is the heat transfer coefficient with the ambient.

32. Match the overall heat transfer coefficients for given fluids on vessel and jacket side Jacket side (I) Steam (II) Water Vessel Water Polymer monomer mixture Overall heat transfer coefficient (W/m2K) (a) 30 75 (b) 5000 6000 (c) 285 800 (d) 850 1700 a) (I) (d), (II) (c) b) (I) (c), (II) (d) c) (I) (a), (II) (b) d) (I) (b), (II) (a)

33. Match the dimensionless numbers given in the left-hand column with the appropriate item given in the right-hand column (I) Graetz number (II) Rayleigh number (a) heat transfer in creeping flow (b) thermally developing flow (c) product of Grashof and Prandtl numbers (d) product of Reynolds and Prandtl numbers a) (I) (a), (II) (d) b) (I) (b), (II) (d) c) (I) (b), (II) (c) d) (I) (d), (II) (c)

34. A black body of finite dimensions at 1000K is inserted into an infinite medium at 300K. Given Stefan Boltzmann constant as 1.8x10-8 W/m2K, the radiative heat transfer coefficient is, a) 18 b) 25.7 c) 1.8 d) 2.6

35. For a laminar flow of fluid in a circular tube h1 is the convective heat transfer coefficient at a velocity v1. If the velocity is reduced by half and assuming the fluid properties are constant, the new convective heat transfer coefficient is a) 1.26h1 b) 0.794h1 c) 0.574h1 d) 1.741h1

36. A metal wire of 0.01m diameter and thermal conductivity 200W/m.K is exposed to fluid stream with a convective heat transfer coefficient 1000W/m2K. The Biot number is a) 0.05 b) 0.0125 c) 3.5 d) 0.0035

37. Hot gases at moderate pressure are usually in the (a) side of the shell and tube heat exchangers. At high pressures, however, it is customary to put gas in the (b) side a) (a) shell (b) shell b) (a) tube (b) tube c) (a) shell (b) tube d) (a) tube (b) shell

38. A body at 925K emits energy of 1.42x1011 W/m2 ( is Stefan-Boltzmann constant) in the wavelength band 3m to 4m. The fraction of this energy in the total energy emitted over the entire wavelength range is equal to a) 0.81 b) 0.78 c) 0.19 d) 0.22

39. When a vertical plate is heated in an infinite air environment under natural convection conditions, the velocity profile in air, normal to the plate, a) is linear b) is parabolic c) exhibits minimum d) exhibits maximum

40. The hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers will merge when a) Prandtl number is one c) Nusselt number tends to infinity b) Schmidt number tends to infinity d) Archimedes number is greater than 10,000

41. When the ratio of the Grashof number to the square of the Reynolds number is one, the dominant mechanism of heat transfer is a) free convection b) entry length problem in laminar forced convetion (developing thermal boundary layer) c) mixed convection (both free and forced) d) forced convection 42. The maximum in the emissive power of a surface at an absolute temperatureT1 occurs at a wavelength of 1. If the surface temperature is halved, the maximum in the emissive power would occur at a wavelength of a) 0.5
1

b) 2

c)

d) (ln2)

43. A small blackbody with a surface area A1 having no cavities is surrounded by a large black surface of area A2. Match the view factors (I) F21 (II) F22 (a) 1 (b) 1-(A1/A2) (c) A1/A2 (d) 0 44. Grashof number is associated with a) buoyancy effects b) free convection c) forced convection d) high temperature difference

45. In a finned tube heat exchanger a) only heat transfer area is augmented b) only film coefficient is augmented c) both heat transfer area and film coefficient is augmented d) none of the above 46. A water droplet at 25C is suddenly introduced into an infinite gas medium at 100C saturated with water vapor. At steady state a) the drop attains wet-bulb temperature and vanishes b) the dimensions of the drop remain unaltered and it attains a temperature of 100C throughout c) the drop increases in size and it attains a temperature of 100C throughout d) none of the above 47. Fresh orange juice contains 12% (by weight) solids and rest water. 90% of the fresh juice is sent to an evaporator to remove water and subsequently mixed with the remaining 10% of fresh juice. If the kg of water removed from 1 kg fresh juice is 0.7, the concentration of solids in wt% in the resultant product is a) 12 b) 32.4 c) 29.2 d) 40

48. The disadvantage of using a 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger over a 1-1 shell and tube heat exchanger is a) higher tube side pressure drop c) lower tube side heat transfer coefficient b) higher shell side pressure drop d) lower shell side heat transfer coefficient

49. Match the dimensionless numbers given in the left-hand column with the correct expression given in the right-hand column (I) Stanton number (II) Prandtl number (a) hD/k (b) h/CP V (c) CPk/ (d) CP/k a) (I) (a), (II) (b) b) (I) (a), (II) (d) c) (I) (b), (II) (c) d) (I) (b), (II) (d)

50. Match the dimensionless numbers given in the left-hand column with the correct ratio of resistance given in the right-hand column (I) Nusselt number (II) Biot number (a) (b) (c) (d) a) (I) (c), (II) (b) b) (I) (b), (II) (c)
           

c) (I) (a), (II) (d)

d) (I) (d), (II) (a)

51. Match the geometrical shapes given in the left-hand column with the correct expression for critical thickness of insulation given in the right-hand column (I) Sphere (II) Cylinder (a) h/k (b) 2k/h (c) h/2k (d) k/h a) (I) (d), (II) (b) b) (I) (b), (II) (d) c) (I) (a), (II) (c) d) (I) (c), (II) (a)

52. Match the items mentioned in the left-hand column with the appropriate item mentioned in the right-hand column (I) Multiple effect evaporator (II) Barometric log (III) Extended surfaces (IV) Plate heat exchangers a) (I) (b), (II) (c), (III) (d), (IV) (a) c) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (b), (IV) (a) (a) chilling of milk (b) steam economy (c) condensation at reduced pressure (d) Heating of gases b) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (c), (IV) (d) d) (I) (b), (II) (c), (III) (a), (IV) (d)

53. Match each of the processes given in the left-hand column with the appropriate heat transfer coefficient given in the right-hand column Process (I) Dropwise condensation of steam (II) Boiling water Heat transfer coefficient, W/m2C (a) 1700 50000 (b) 50 1500 (c) 1 5 (d) 30000 100000 a) (I) (b), (II) (c) b) (I) (a), (II) (c) c) (I) (d), (II) (a) d) (I) (a), (II) (d)

54. A composite flat wall of a furnace is made of two materials A and B. The thermal conductivity of A is twice that of component B and the thickness of layer A is twice that of B. If temperatures at the two sides of the wall are 400 and 1200K, then the temperature drop, in K, across the layer of material A is a) 160 b) 640 c) 400 d) 800

55. For turbulent flow in tube, the heat transfer coefficient is obtained from the Dittus-Boelter correlation. If the tube diameter is halved and the mass flow rate through tube is halved, then the heat transfer coefficient will change by a factor of a) 1 b) 2 c) 6.1 d) 1.74

56. When the ratio of the Grashof number to the square of the Reynolds number is more than ten, the dominant mechanism of heat transfer is a) free convection c) combined free and forced convection b) forced convection d) thermal radiation

57. The dimensionless temperature profiles and heat flows in unsteady state heat conduction may be expressed in terms of two dimensionless numbers called the a) Biot and Fourier numbers c) Nusselt and Stanton numbers b) Prandtl and Schmidt numbers d) Grashof and Graetz numbers

58. The Heisler charts for unsteady state heat conduction are applicable for the values of a) the Fourier number smaller than 0.2 c) the Fourier number greater than 0.2 b) the Biot number greater than 0.1 d) the Biot number smaller than 0.1

59. A very low value of the Biot number means that a) internal conduction resistance is negligible in comparison with surface convection resistance b) surface convection resistance is negligible in comparison with internal conduction resistance c) internal conduction and surface convection resistances to heat transfer are nearly of equal magnitude d) internal conduction and surface convection resistances to heat transfer are negligible 60. Prandtl number for liquid metals is of the order of a) 0.7 b) 0.01 c) 10 d) 100

61. According to Duhring s rule, the boiling point of a given solution is a) linear function of the concentration of the solute b) linear function of the boiling point of pure water at the same pressure c) linear function of the pressure d) an exponential function of the boiling point of pure water at the same pressure 62. The ratio of the emissive power of a body to the emissive power of a black body at the same temperature is equal to the absorptivity of the body. This is known as a) Planck law b) Kirchhoff law c) Stefan-Boltzmann law d) Wien s displacement law

63. When radiation strikes a material surface, the reflection is called specular if a) the angle of incidence is 45C b) the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection c) the incident beam of radiation is distributed uniformly in all directions after reflection d) the angle of incidence is 60C 64. The emissivity of a material varies with a) the temperature only b) the wavelength of the radiation only c) the temperature and the wavelength of the radiation d) none of the above

65. The monochromatic emissive power of the blackbody is a function of the wavelength and the temperature. At constant temperature the monochromatic emissive power of the blackbody a) increases monotonically with increase in the wavelength b) decreases monotonically with increase in the wavelength c) passes through maximum with increase in the wavelength d) passes through minimum with increase in the wavelength 66. The monochromatic emissive power of the blackbody, Eb , at the wavelength and the temperature T is given by Planck law: Eb =[C1
-5

/ e(C2/ T)-1]

where C1 and C2 are constants. At constant wavelength, the monochromatic emissive power of the blackbody a) passes through maximum with increase in the temperature b) passes through minimum with increase in the temperature c) increases monotonically with increase in the temperature d) decreases monotonically with increase in the temperature 67. Heat transfer occurs by natural convection because change in temperature causes differences in a) viscosity b) density c) thermal conductivity d) heat capacity

68. In pipe flow, heat is transferred from hot wall to the liquid by a) conduction only c) forced convection and conduction b) forced convection only d) free and forced convection

69. As the difference between the wall temperature and the bulk temperature increases, the boiling heat transfer coefficient a) continues to increase c) goes through a minimum b) continuous to decrease d) goes through a maximum

70. Gibbs phase rule finds application when heat transfer occurs by a) conduction b) convection c)radiation d) condensation

71. In a heat exchanger, floating head is provided to a) facilitate cleaning of the exchanger c) relieve stresses caused by thermal expansion 72. Rate of heat transfer through a pipe wall is given by b) increase the heat transfer area d) increase a log mean temperature gradient

For cylinders of thin wall, q can be approximated by a) c) b) d)

73. For a countercurrent heat exchanger with Thi=80C, Tco=60C, Tho=50C and Tci=30C, and the temperature difference between the two streams being the same everywhere along z, the direction of flow of the hot fluid, the temperature profile should satisfy a) d2T/dz2>0 b) d2T/dz2=0 c) d2T/dz2<0 d) dT/dz=0

74. Walls of a cubical oven are of thickness L, and they are made of material of thermal conductivity k. The temperature inside the oven is 100C and the inside heat transfer coefficient is 3k/L. If the wall temperature on the outside is held at 25C, what is the inside wall temperature in C? a) 35.5 b) 43.75 c) 81.25 d) 48.25

75. Grashof number is defined as a) g TL3/2 b) g T 2L3/2 c) g DT2L3/

2

d) g

T 3L3/3

76. The heat transfer by radiation from a mild steel surface is to be reduced by reducing the emissivity of the surface. This can be best achieved by a) painting the surface black c) giving the surface a mirror finish b) painting the surface white d) roughening the surface

77. Heat transfer by natural convection is enhanced in systems with a) high viscosity c) low temperature gradients b) high coefficient of thermal expansion d) low density change with temperature

78. The Seider-Tate correlation for heat transfer in turbulent flow in a pipe gives Nu Re0.8 , where Nu is Nusselt number and Re is Reynolds number for the flow. Assuming that this relation is valid, the heat transfer coefficient varies with pipe diameter (D) as a) D-1.8 b) D-0.2 c) D0.2 d) D1.8

79. The overall heat transfer coefficient for a shell and tube heat exchanger for clean surfaces is UC=400W/m2K. The fouling factor after one year of operation is found to be hdo=2000W/m2K. The overall heat transfer coefficient at this time is a) 1200W/m2K b) 894W/m2K c) 333W/m2K d) 287W/m2K

80. The heat flux (from outside to inside) across an insulating wall with thermal conductivity k=0.04W/m.K and thickness 0.16m is 10W/m2. The temperature of the inside wall is -5C. The outside wall temperature is a) 25C b) 30C c) 35C d) 40C

81. The shell side equivalent diameter is needed for the calculation of Reynolds number for the shell side fluid. If do is the outer diameter of tube and PT is the tube pitch, the shell side equivalent diameter for square pitch is equal to a) do b) c) d)

82. If do is the outer diameter of tube and PT is the tube pitch, the shell side equivalent diameter for triangular path is equal to a) do b) c) d)

83. The shell side equivalent diameter is needed for the estimation of the shell side heat transfer coefficient and pressure drop. For the given outside diameter of tube and tube pitch, the shell side equivalent diameter(s) a) are equal to outside diameter of tube for square pitch as well as triangular pitch b) are equal for square pitch as well as triangular pitch c) is larger for square pitch than the value for triangular pitch d) is larger for triangular pitch than the value for square pitch

84. A 5cm diameter steam pipe, carrying steam at 180C, is covered with an insulation (conductivity = 0.6W/m.K). It loses heat to the surroundings at 30C. Assume a heat transfer coefficient of 8W/m2K for heat transfer from surface to the surroundings. Neglect wall resistance of the pipe and film resistance of steam. If the insulation thickness is 2.0cm, the rate of heat loss from this insulated pipe will be, a) equal to that of the un-insulated steam pipe b) less than that of the un-insulated steam pipe c) greater than that of the un-insulated steam pipe d) less than the steam pipe with 2.5cm insulation 85. A 10cm diameter steam pipe, carrying steam at 180C, is covered with insulation (thermal conductivity=0.6W/m.K) of thickness of 2cm. It loses heat to the surroundings at 30C. Assume a heattransfer coefficient of 8W/m2K for heat transfer from surface to the surroundings. Neglect wall resistance of the pipe and film resistance of steam. The surface temperature of the insulation exposed to the surroundings will be a) 30C b) 180C c) 138.1C d) 160.9C

86. A steam pipe of outside diameter do(m) is carrying saturated steam at the temperature of Ts(C). It is covered with an insulation of thermal conductivity k (W/m.K). It loses heat to surroundings at Ta(C). Assume a heat-transfer coefficient of h(W/m2K) for heat transfer from surface to surroundings. The wall resistance of the pipe and film resistance of steam are negligible. If 2k/h is more than do, the rate of heat loss from this insulated pipe will a) equal to that of the un-insulated steam pipe b) less than that of the un-insulated steam pipe c) pass through the maximum with increase in the thickness of insulation d) pass through the minimum with increase in the thickness of insulation 87. Enthalpy of an ideal solution at constant temperature remains constant with change in concentration, expressed in a) mass fraction c) volume fraction b) mole fraction d) either mass, mole or volume fraction

88. Enthalpy of sodium hydroxide-water solution at constant temperature a) remains constant with change in the mass fraction of NaOH b) increases linearly with increase in the mass fraction of NaOH c) is not linear with mass fraction of NaOH d) decreases linearly with increase in the mass fraction of NaOH 89. Steam economy of the evaporator, defined as the ratio of kilograms of steam fed to the evaporator, a) is not affected by the feed temperature b) is not affected by the number of effects c) greater than 1 can be achieved in a single-effect evaporator d) greater than 1 can be achieved in multiple-effect evaporator 90. For a glass, thermal conductivity, density and specific heat are 0.78W/m.K, 2700kg/m3 and 0.84kJ/kgK, respectively. The thermal diffusivity of glass in m2/s is a) 2.91x106 b) 3.44x10-7 c) 2907.7 d) 3.44x10-4

91. A high value of thermal diffusivity of a material results from a (a) value of thermal conductivity and a (b) value of thermal heat capacity a) (a) high, (b) high b) (a) low, (b) low c) (a) high, (b) low d) (a) low, (b) low

92. Thermal diffusivity has units of a) m2/s b) W/m.K c) W/m3K d) W

93. A thermopane window consists of two sheets of glass each 3mm thick, separated by a layer of stagnant air also 3mm thick. What is the percentage reduction in heat loss from this pane as compared to that of a single sheet of glass 3mm thickness? The temperature drop between inside and outside remains same at 15C. Thermal conductivity of glass is 30 times that of air. a) 96.9 b) 48.4 c) 50.8 d) 50

94. Walls of cubical oven are of thickness L and they are made of material of thermal conductivity k. The inside wall temperature is 100C. If the ambient temperature on the outside is 25C and the heat transfer coefficient are 3k/L. What is the wall temperature on the outside? a) 35.5 b) 43.75 c) 81.25 d) 48.25

95. Walls of cubical oven are of thickness L and they are made of material of thermal conductivity k. The temperature inside the oven is 100C and the temperature outside the oven is 25C. The inside and outside heat transfer coefficients are 3k/L. The inside and outside wall temperatures in C are, respectively a) 100, 25 b) 81.25, 43.75 c) 80, 45 d) 85,40

96. An automobile radiator is a device, where hot water passes inside through a bank of tubes and loses heat to the air. On outside of the tubes, extended surfaces receive heat from the tube walls and transmit it to the air by, a) free convection b) forced convection c) radiation d) conduction

97. The absorption of radiation in gas layer is described by a) Beer s law b) Stefan-Boltzmann s law c) Kirchhoff s law d) Planck s law

98. A small disk of area A1 is parallel to a large disk of area A2 and A1 is centered directly below A2. The distance between the centers of the disks is R and the radius of A2 is a. The view factor for radiant heat transfer from A1 to A2 is a) 1 b) c) d)

99. The deposition of dirt, soot and scale on one or both sides of the tubes of heat exchanger (a) resistance to the flow of heat and (b) the overall heat-transfer coefficient a) (a) increases, (b) increases c) (a) increases, (b) decreases b) (a) decreases, (b) decreases d) (a) decreases, (b) increases

100. For a condenser the heat-exchanger effectiveness ( ) and the number of transfer units (N) are related by a) = -ln(1-N) b) = 1c) = d) =

101. Electric current is passed through a wire 1mm diameter and 100mm long. The wire is submerged in liquid water at atmospheric pressure, and the current is increased until the water boils. For this situation, the convection heat transfer coefficient is 5000W/m2C, and the water temperature will be 100C. The electric power supplied to the wire to maintain the wire surface at 110C is equal to a) 5x10-2 W b) 10 W c) 1.25x10-2 W d) 5 W

102. A heat transfer surface area A and emissivity at absolute temperature T1 is completely enclosed by a much larger surface maintained at absolute temperature T2. The net radiant heat exchange is given by a) q = A(T14 T24) b) q = AT14 c) q = A(T14 T24) d) q = A(T14 T24)

103. The design of heat-exchangers based on the heat exchanger effectiveness a) requires inlet and outlet temperatures of the two fluids b) does not require any of the outlet temperatures of the fluids c) does not require any of the inlet and outlet temperatures of the two fluids d) assumes 104. A slurry is being heated by pumping it through a well-stirred heating tank provided with steam coil through which steam is passed. The stirring is sufficiently good and the slurry temperature in the tank is uniform at the level of the outlet fluid temperature. The variation of the slurry temperature is described by a) first-order, linear ordinary differential equation b) first-order, non-linear ordinary differential equation c) second-order, linear ordinary differential equation d) second-order, non-linear ordinary differential equation 105. The resistance for heat transfer offered by an annular wall of inside radius ro and outer radius r1 is


, where L is the length of wall and k is the thermal conductivity of wall material. If r1-ro is very

small, then the resistance for heat transfer is approximately equal to, a)


b)

c)

d)

106. Liquid metals are used as heat-transfer fluid in nuclear reactors due to (a) heat transfer coefficient and (b) heat capacity per unit volume. a) (a) heat, (b) low b) (a) low, (b) high c) (a) heat, (b) high d) (a) low, (b) low

107. The heat-transfer coefficients for liquid metals are high due to their high a) viscosity b) density c) specific heat d) thermal conductivity

108. A hollow sphere is constructed of copper (k = 0.166 W/m.K) with an inner diameter 50mm and an outer diameter of 100mm. The inside temperature is 100C and the outer temperature is 50C. The heat transfer rate is a) 5.21 W b) 20.86 W c) 11.28 W d) 10.43 W

109. The thermal resistance through a hollow spherical shell of inside radius ri and outer radius ro having a thermal conductivity k is equal to
    

a)

b)

c)

d)

110. The Prandtl numbers for liquid metals are low due to their a) high thermal conductivity b) high viscosity c) high specific heat d) low viscosity

111. At the entrance of a pipe in which the fluid is being heated, the heat-transfer coefficient is a) zero due to the absence of temperature gradient b) equal to the heat-transfer coefficient for fully developed turbulent flow c) infinite due to the absence of temperature gradient d) zero due to the zero thickness of boundary layer 112. Near the entrance of a pipe where fluid is being heated, the temperature profile is not fully developed and the local heat-transfer coefficient is a) smaller than the heat-transfer coefficient for fully developed turbulent flow b) infinite c) zero

d) greater than the heat-transfer coefficient for fully developed turbulent flow 113. The condensation of a binary mixture of vapors at a constant pressure occurs a) at a constant temperature and yields a condensate of constant composition b) over a temperature range and yields a condensate of constant composition c) over a temperature range and yields a condensate of variable composition d) at a temperature higher than the dew-point temperature of vapor mixture

114. Match the insulating materials listed in the left-hand column with the corresponding density given in the right-hand column (I) Foam glass (II) Mineral wool (III) Fiber glass (IV) Calcium silicate a) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (c), (IV) (d) c) (I) (b), (II) (c), (III) (d), (IV) (a) a) 100kg/m3 b) 130kg/m3 c) 150kg/m3 d) 200kg/m3 b) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (b), (IV) (a) d) (I) (c), (II) (b), (III) (a), (IV) (d)

115. For one dimensional steady state conduction of heat through a plane wall of thickness L, constant cross-sectional area A and constant thermal conductivity k of wall material whose faces are maintained at T1 and T2, the rate of heat transfer is given by

If k varies linearly with temperature, then the rate of heat transfer is given by

where km is the mean thermal conductivity of the wall material and it is evaluated at a) the arithmetic mean of T1 and T2 c) the harmonic mean of T1 and T2 b) the geometric mean of T1 and T2 d) the log mean of T1 and T2

116. Fourier s law of heat conduction relates the heat transfer rate and the temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow a) at steady state only b) at unsteady state only

c) at steady state as well as unsteady state d) if the thermal conductivity of material is independent of temperature 117. For one-dimensional steady state conduction heat transfer rate of q through a plane wall of constant cross-sectional area A and constant thermal conductivity k of wall material, the slope of the variation of temperature with the length in the direction of heat transfer is equal to a) b) c) d)

118. For one dimensional steady state conduction heat transfer rate of q through a plane wall of constant cross-sectional area A and constant thermal conductivity k of wall material, the magnitude of the slope of the variation of temperature with the length in the direction of heat transfer a) increases with increase in q, A and k b) increases with increase in q and decrease in A and k c) increases with decrease in q and increase in A and k d) increases with increase in q and k and decrease in A 119. The thickness of thermal boundary layer in heat transfer to liquid metals is a) more than the thickness of hydrodynamic boundary layer b) less than the thickness of hydrodynamic boundary layer c) equal to the thickness of hydrodynamic boundary layer d) zero 120. Which of the following dimensionless group is used to compare the thickness of thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic boundary layer formed in a system involving fluid flow and heat transfer? a) Biot number b) Fourier number c) Prandtl number d) Nusselt number

121. Within the thermal boundary layer, a) the temperature is uniform c) the temperature gradient does not exists 122. Peclet number is defined as a) the ratio of Reynolds number and Prandtl number b) the product of Reynolds number an Prandtl number c) the product of Schmidt number an Prandtl number d) the product of Prandtl number, Reynolds number and Schmidt number b) the temperature gradient exists d) the heat flux is zero

123. In a natural convection heat transfer, the Nusselt number depends on a) the Reynolds number and the Prandtl number b) the Grashof number and the Prandtl number c) the Reynolds number and the Schmidt number d) the Grashof number and the Schmidt number 124. In forced convection heat transfer, the Nusselt number depends on a) the Grashof number and the Prandtl number b) the Grashof number and the Schmidt number c) the Reynolds number and the Prandtl number d) the Reynolds number and the Schmidt number 125. The log-mean temperature difference of two temperature differences T1 and T2 is defined by a) b) c)
 

d)

126. A semi-infinite slab occupying in the region x=0 and x= is at an initial temperature To. At time t=0, the surface of the slab at x=0 is brought into contact with a heat bath at a temperature TH. The temperature T(x,t) of the slab rises according to the equation


where x is position and t is time. The total heat conducted into the slab in time t is proportional to a) t-1/2 b) t1/2 c) t d) t3/2

127. A blackbody does not a) emit radiation c) reflect radiation b) absorb radiation d) follow Stefan-Boltzmann s law

128. A heated body emits radiation which has maximum intensity for the wavelength o. The emissivity of the material is 0.5. If the absolute temperature of the body is doubled, then a) the maximum intensity of radiation will be for the wavelength o/2 and the total energy emitted will increase by a factor of 16 b) the maximum intensity of radiation will be for the wavelength 2 o and the total energy emitted will increase by a factor of 16 c) the maximum intensity of radiation will be for the wavelength increase by a factor of 16
o

and the total energy emitted will

d) the maximum intensity of radiation will be for the wavelength o/2 and the total energy emitted will increase by a factor of 8 129. A semi-infinite slab occupying in the region x=0 and x= is at an initial temperature To. At time t=0, the surface of the slab at x=0 is brought into contact with a heat bath at a temperature TH. The temperature T(x,t) of the slab rises according to the equation


where x is position and t is time. The heat flow at the surface x = 0 is proportional to a) b) c) d)

130. A sold at a temperature T1 is kept in an evacuated chamber at temperature T2>T1. The rate of increase of temperature of the body is proportional to a) T2 T1 b) T22 T12 c) T23 T13 d) T24 T14

131. The thermal radiation emitted by a body is proportional to Tn where T is its absolute temperature. The value of n is exactly 4 for a) a blackbody b) all bodies c) bodies painted black only d) polished bodies only

132. Two bodies A and B having equal surface areas are maintained at temperatures 10C and 20C. The thermal radiation emitted in a given time by A and B are in the ratio a) 1:1.15 b) 1:4 c) 1:2 d) 1:16

133. Newton s law of cooling is a special case of a) Planck s law c) Wien s displacement law b) Kirchhoff s law d) Stefan-Boltzmann s law

134. A hot liquid is kept in a big room. Its temperature is plotted as a function of time. Which of the curves shown in the figure (below) may represent the plot?

d b a c

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d

135. Surface condenser and barometric condenser are used to condense the vapors from the last effect of multi-effect evaporator operating under vacuum. Surface condenser is (a) and barometric condenser is (b) a) (a) direct-contact type condenser, (b) indirect-contact type condenser b) (a) indirect-contact type condenser, (b) direct-contact type condenser c) (a) direct-contact type condenser, (b) direct-contact type condenser d) (a) indirect-contact type condenser, (b) indirect-contact type condenser 136. A hot steel ball at temperature To at time t=0 is suddenly immersed into a large bath of cold water at constant temperature T . If the internal conduction resistance is very low compared to external surface convection resistance, the time rate of change of temperature at t=0 is equal to a) b) c) d) (To T )

137. Why is superheated steam not preferred as a heating medium in evaporators? a) Metal tubes cannot withstand high temperature b) metal tubes cannot withstand high pressure c) super-heated steam has very low film coefficient d) because of all the above three factors

138. Consider the following statements Duhring rule is used to solve problem on 1. evaporation 2. crystallization 3. distillation 4. drying

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4

139. Match the services given in the left-hand column with the type of evaporator given in the righthand column service (I) evaporation of caustic soda from 5% to 45% (II) evaporation of clarified orange juice b) rising film evaporator c) long-tube vertical forced circulation evaporator d) falling film evaporator a) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) b) (I)-(d), (II)-(b) c) (I)-(c), (II)-(b) d) (I)-(d), (II)-(a) type of evaporator a) calandria

140. Consider the following statement Use of multi-effect evaporators leads to 1. economy in steam consumption 2. increase in evaporative capacity 3. economy in steam consumption and increase in evaporative capacity Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) none

141. Which one of the following tube configurations in a heat exchanger results in the maximum heat transfer rate? a) triangular pitch b) square pitch c) rectangular pitch d) rhombus pitch

142. Consider the following statements: 1. a blackbody completely absorbs the incident radiation irrespective of wavelength

2. a blackbody is a perfect emitter 3. a black body is a perfectly diffuse emitter Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

143. Which of the following pair are correctly matched? 1. Fourier equation for conduction 2. Newton s equation for shear stress 3. Fick s law of diffusion a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 : Transport of energy : Transport of momentum : transport of mass c) 1 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3

144. For a constant Strouhal number, vibrational frequency a) increase with decrease in shell side velocity b) remains unaffected by change in shell side velocity c) decreases with decrease in shell side velocity d) increases linearly with decrease in shell side velocity 145. What does 1-4 shell and tube heat exchange imply? a) 4 shell side passes and 4 tube side passes b) 4 shell side passes and 1 tube side passes c) 1 shell side passes and 4 tube side passes d) 4 tubes per pass

146. Consider the following statements: 1. Open pan evaporators are preferred when solution is corrosive 2. Open pan evaporators are preferred when solution is highly concentrated 3. Open pan evaporators are preferred when large amount of solution is to be evaporated 4. Open pan evaporators are preferred because it leads to high steam economy Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 d) 3 and 4

147. A heat exchanger was designed on the basis of a fouling factor corresponding to the cooling water of a particular quality. It was later found that the cooling water contained more dissolved solids than expected. Which of the following adjustments of operating conditions will help in reducing scale? 1. Increased cooling water velocity a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 2. Increased turbulence c) 1 and 3 3. Increase of tube length d) 1,2 and 3

148. What is the typical range of liquid velocity in a forced-circulation evaporator? a) 1.5 7m/s b) 4 12m/s c) 6 16.5m/s d) 12 20m/s

149. If the number transfer unit (NTU) for the heat transfer is , then what is the effectiveness? a) 1.2 b) zero c) 1 d) 1/3

150. Natural convection is characterized by a) Grashof number b) Peclet number c) Reynolds number d) Prandtl number

151. Colburn analogy is valid from a) 0.1<Pr<100 b) 0.6<Pr<120 c) 1<Pr<100 d) 1<Pr<50

152. What is the effect of boiling point elevation in a multiple effect evaporator? a) to reduce the capacity c) to increase the steam economy b) to reduce the steam economy d) to increase the capacity

153. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Prandtl number =
                     

2. Peclet number =

3. Stanton number = a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

154. Consider the following statements in respect of condensation process: 1. Presence of non-condensable gases causes the vapor molecules to reach the condensate-vapor interface by diffusion through the vapor-gas mixture 2. Presence of non-condensable gases creates a mass transfer or diffusional resistances besides the heat transfer resistance for condensation Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2

155. Consider the following statements: 1. The emissivity of a body, which is in thermal equilibrium with its surroundings, is equal to its absorptivity 2. Absorptivity of most real surfaces is relatively insensitive to temperature and wavelength Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2

156. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given components of the electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of their wavelength band? a) Gamma rays infrared rays ultraviolet rays microwaves b) microwaves ultraviolet rays infrared rays gamma rays c) Gamma rays ultraviolet rays infrared rays microwaves

d) microwaves infrared rays ultraviolet rays gamma rays

157. Which of the following factors govern the selection of an evaporator? 1. solution viscosity 3. Scaling or fouling characteristics of the solution a) 1and 2 b) 2, 3 and 4 2. Heat sensitivity of the solute 4. Foaming characterisitics d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

158. Consider the following statements in respect of falling film evaporators: 1. The heat transfer rate is low 2. The contact time of the liquid with the hot walls remains low 3. Falling film evaporator is suitable for heat-sensitive materials Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and3 d) 1 and 3

159. The figure below represents the boiling curve when a liquid is heated by an electrically heated wire immersed in the liquid. The curve is drawn between the logarithm of the heat transfer coefficient at the wire surface (hb) and excess temperature Te (difference in the wire temperature and temperature of the saturated liquid). Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

D log hb III C II B V I A 1 10 Te, F regime interfacial evaporation nucleate boiling partial nucleate boiling b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 100 1000 G IV E VI F

section 1. A B 2. B D 3. D E a) 1, 2 and 3

160. Consider the following statements: 1. The allowable fouling resistance in a plate heat exchanger (PHE) is far more than that in a shell-andtube exchanger for similar application 2. A plate heat exchanger (PHE) can be used for evaporation, reboiling or condensing services besides liquid-to-liquid heat exchange Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2

161. Consider the following statements: 1. Plate heat exchanger (PHE) is not suitable for low pressure and high volume gas heating or cooling applications 2. A plate heat exchanger (PHE) requires about one-fifth of the floor space of that required for a shelland-tube unit for the same heat duty Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2

162. Consider the following statements: 1. The NTU method is used for the calculation of the rate of heat exchange attainable with a particular heat exchanger configuration, if the overall heat transfer coefficient and the area of heat exchanger are known. 2. The NTU method is also an iterative method like log mean temperature difference method. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2

163. Match the mode of feed supply to multiple-effect evaporator given in the left-hand column with the characteristic given in the right-hand column Mode of feed supply to multiple-effect evaporator (I) mixed feed Characteristics (a) less chance of deterioration of heat sensitive materials (b) useful for concentration of a highly viscous feed (c) most suitable for use with crystallizers b) (I)-(b), (II)-(c), (III)-(a) d) (I)-(c), (II)-(b), (III)-(a)

(II) parallel feed

(III) forward feed a) (I)-(c), (II)-(a), (III)-(b) c) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(b)

164. What is the value of the Nusselt number in conduction from a spherical droplet to the surrounding fluid film? a) 5 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

165. A hot radiator used for heating a room is a device which transfers heat by a) forced convection b) free convection c) conduction d) all the above

166. The product of Grashof number and the Prandtl number is called the a) Rayleigh number b) Peclet number c) Lewis number d) Graetz number

167. For a practical situation, (NGr/NRe2) > 10 a) forced-convection effects dominate b) free-convection effects dominate c) neither forced-convection nor free-convection effects dominate d) either forced-convection or free-convection effects dominate, depending on the temperature levels involved

FLUID MECHANICS
1. The absolute viscosity of liquids (a) with increase in temperature and the absolute viscosity of gases (b) with increase in temperature. a) (a) decreases, b) decreases c) (a) decreases, b) increases b) (a) increases, b) increases d) (a) increases, b) decreases

2. The rise or fall of a liquid in a capillary tube is caused by a) density of liquid c) surface tension of liquid b) viscosity of liquid d) thermal conductivity of liquid

3. The density of water is 1000kg/m3 at a temperature of a) 0C b) 4C c) 100C d) 15C

4. The density of gases (a) with increase in pressure and it (b) with increase in temperature a) (a) increases, b) increases c) (a) increases, b) decreases b) (a) decreases, b) decreases d) (a) decreases, b) increases

5. If 5.6m3 of oil weighs 46800N, its density in kg/m3 is equal to a) 836 b) 8357 c) 0.852 d) 852

6. A Newtonian fluid of constant density is in a vertical cylinder which is rotating about its axis at a constant angular velocity. At steady state the shape of the free surface will be a) flat b) parabola c) cone d) ellipse

7. The power number for a stirred tank becomes constant at high Reynolds number. In this limit, the variation of power input with impeller rotational speed (N) is proportional to a) N0 b) N1 c) N2 d) N3

8. The operation of a rotameter is based on a) variable flow area c) pressure drop across a nozzle b) rotation of a turbine d) pressure at a stagnant point

9. Applying a pressure drop across capillary results in a volumetric flow rate Q under laminar flow conditions. The flow rate, for the same pressure drop, in a capillary of the same length but half the radius is a) Q/2 b) Q/4 c) Q/8 d) Q/16

10. A Bingham fluid of viscosity = 10 Pa.s, and yields stress 0 = 10kPa, is sheared between flat parallel plates separated by a distance 10-3m. The top plate is moving with a velocity of 1m/s. The shear stress on the plate is a) 10kPA b) 20kPa c) 30kPa d) 40kPa

11. A pipe of ID 4m is bifurcated into two pipes of ID 2m each. If the average velocity of water flowing through the main pipe is 5m/s, the average velocity through the bifurcated pipes are a) 20m/s b) 10m/s c) 5 2m/s d) 5m/s

12. In centrifugal pumps, cavitation occurs when pressure of the impeller eye or vane becomes a) less than atmospheric pressure c) less than liquid vapor pressure b) more than liquid vapor pressure d) more than atmospheric pressure

13. For laminar flow through a packed bed, the pressure drop is proportional to (Vs is superficial liquid velocity and Dp is the particle diameter) a) Vs/Dp2 b) Vs2/Dp2 c) Vs2/Dp3 d) Vs/Dp3

14. For a turbine agitated and baffled tank, operating at low Reynolds number (based on impeller diameter) a) NP NRe b) NP NRe c) NP constant d) NP (1/NRe)

15. Velocity of a small particle of diameter DP at a distance r from the rotational axis of a cyclone rotating at an angular speed is given by (the other symbols are as per standard motion) a) b) c) d)

16. Water is flowing at 1m/s through a pipe (of 10cm ID) with a right angle bend. The force in Newtons exerted on the bend by the water is a) 10 2 b) 5 /2 c) 5 2 d) 5 / 2

17. The stream function relationship is given as =xy. The x-component of velocity is (a) and the ycomponent of velocity (b) a) (a)x, (b) y b) (a) x, (b) -y c) (a)-x, (b) y d) (a)-x, (b) y

18. For a sphere falling in the constant drag coefficient regime, its terminal velocity depends on its diameter (d) as a) d b) d c) d2 d) 1/d

19. In a fully turbulent flow (Re>105) in a pipe diameter d, for a constant pressure gradient, the dependence of volumetric flow rate of an incompressible fluid is a) d b) d2 c) d2.5 d) d4

20. In the laminar boundary layer flow over a flat plate, the ratio ( /x) varies as: a) Re b) Re c) 1/Re d) Re-1/2

where is the boundary layer thickness and x is the distance from the leading edge in the direction of flow. 21. For laminar flow of a shear-thinning liquid n a pipe, if the volumetric flow rate is doubled, the pressure gradient will increase by a factor of a) 2 b) <2 c) >2 d)

22. A low value of Reynolds number means that (a) are large in comparison with (b) a) (a) inertial forces, (b) viscous forces c) (a) viscous forces, (b) inertial forces b) (a) inertial forces, (b) gravity forces d) (a) gravity forces, (b) viscous forces

23. A low value of Froude number means that (a) are large in comparison with (b) a) (a) inertial forces, (b) viscous forces c) (a) inertial forces, (b) gravity forces b) (a) viscous forces, (b) inertial forces d) (a) gravity forces, (b) inertial forces

24. A 30% (by volume) suspension of spherical sand particles in a viscous oil has a hindered settling velocity of 4.44 m/s. If the Richardson-Zaki hindered settling index is 4.5, then the terminal velocity of a sand grain is a) 0.90 m/s b) 1mm/s c) 22.1 m/s d) 0.02 m/s

25. A 1m high bed made up of 2mm particles is to be fluidized by an oil (density=900kg/m3; viscosity=0.01Pa.s). If at the point of incipient fluidization, the bed voidage is 39% and the pressure drop across the bed is 10kPa, then the density of particles is a) 2571kg/m3 b) 3514kg/m3 c) 4000kg/m3 d) 4350kg/m3

26. A free jet of water of cross-sectional area 0.01m2 and a velocity of 20m/s in horizontal direction strikes a vertical plate and then flows in the plane parallel to the plate. The horizontal component of the force on the support is a) 200N b) 400N c) 2000N d) 4000N

27. Stream function (x, y) is defined to represent two-dimensional, steady incompressible flow. It is related to the velocity components vx and vy by a) vx = c) vx = / y, vy = / y, vy = / x / x b) vx = d) vx = / y, vy = / y, vy = / x / x

28. In steady flow, streamlines are the lines defined by a) =constant where b) ( / x) = 0 c) ( / y) = 0 d) ( / x) = ( / y)

is a stream function

29. With increasing flow rate, the hydraulic efficiency of a centrifugal pump a) monotonically decreases c) remains constant b) decreases and then increases d) increases and then decreases

30. For flow past a flat plate, if x is the distance along the plate in the direction of flow, the boundary layer thickness is proportional to a) x b) 1/( x) c) x d) 1/x

31. For turbulent flow of an incompressible fluid through a pipe, the flow rate Q is proportional to ( P)n, where P is the pressure drop. The value of exponent n is, a) 1 b) 0 c) <1 d) >1

32. For an ideal plug flow reactor the value of Peclet number is a) 0 b) c) 1 d) 10

33. The drag coefficient for a bacterium moving in water at 1mm/s will be of the following order of magnitude (assume size of the bacterium to be 1micron and kinematic viscosity of water to be 10-6m2/s) a) 24000 b) 24 c) 0.24 d) 0.44

34. A gas (density = 1.5kg/m3, viscosity = 2x10-5kg/m.s) flowing through a packed bed (particle size = 0.5cm, porosity = 0.5) at a superficial velocity of 2m/s causes a pressure drop of 8400Pa/m. The pressure drop for another gas, with density of 1.5kg/m3 and viscosity of 3x10-5kg/ms, flowing at 3m/s will be a) 8400Pa/m b) 18900Pa/m c) 12600Pa/m d) 16800Pa/m

35. A spherical particle is falling slowly in a viscous liquid such that the Reynolds number is less than 1. Which statement is correct for this situation? a) inertial and drag forces are important c) drag and gravity forces are important b) drag, gravity and buoyancy forces are important d) none of the above

36. As the velocity V and thus the Reynolds number of a flow past a sphere increases from very low values, the drag force for Re<<1 a) increases linearly with V c) decreases as with V2 37. The Weber number can be used to estimate a) ratio of inertial and surface tension forces b) ratio of inertial and compressibility forces c) ratio of inertial and centrifugal forces d) ratio of pressure and surface tension forces 38. A particle A of diameter 10micron settles in an oil of specific gravity 0.9 and viscosity 10poise under Stokes law. A particle B with diameter 20micron settling in the same oil will have a settling velocity a) same as that of A c) twice as that of A b) one-fourth as that of A d) four times as that of A b) decreases linearly with V d) decreases as V0.5

39. Boundary layer separation is characterized by one of the conditions given below, where Re is the Reynolds number for the flow. Select the appropriate conditions a) Re<<1, accelerating flow c) Re<<1, decelerating flow b) Re>>1, accelerating flow d) Re>>1, decelerating flow

40. A globe value is most suitable for applications is which a) the valve is required to be either fully open or fully closed b) flow control is required c) the fluid contains dispersed particles d) one-way flow is required

41. The hydraulic radius for flow in a rectangular duct of cross-sectional dimension H, W is a) b) c) d)

42. At low Reynolds number the power (P) required for agitating a fluid in a stirred tank becomes independent of inertial forces. In this limit, indicate which of the following relations is satisfied: a) Po Re-1.0 b) Po Re0.0 c) Po Re0.5 d) Po Re1.0

where, Po = P/ N3D5 (Power number) Re = ND2/ (Reynolds number) N is the impeller rotational speed, and D is the impeller diameter 43. Toothpaste is a a) Bingham plastic b) Pseudoplastic c) Newtonian liquid d) Dilatent Qn for different

44. The dependence of the volumetric flow rate Q on the pressure drop is given by P flow regimes. Match the exponent n to each of the flow regimes given below (I) Laminar flow (II) Turbulent flow a) n<0.5 b) n=0.5 c) n=1.0 d) n>1.0 a) (I)-(b), (II)-(a) b) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) c) (I)-(d), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(c), (II)-(d)

45. For the laminar flow of a fluid in a circular pipe of radius R, the Hagen-Poiseuille equation predicts the volumetric flow rate to be proportional to a) R b) R2 c) R4 d) R0.5

46. In the low Reynolds number region, the drag force on a sphere is proportional to a) V b) V2 c) V4 d) V0.5

47. The equivalent diameter of an annulus of inner and outer radii Ri and Ro respectively is a) (Ro-Ri) b) c) 2(Ro-Ri) d) Ro + Ri

48. Stokes equation is valid in the Reynolds number range a) 0.01 to 0.1 b) 0.1 to 2 c) 2 to 10 d) 10 to 100

49. For laminar flow of a fluid through a packed bed of spheres of diameter d, the pressure drop per unit length of bed depends upon the sphere diameter as a) d b) d2 c) d4 d) 1/d2

50. A suspension of glass beads in ethylene glycol has a hindered settling velocity of 1.7mm/s while the terminal settling velocity of a single glass bead in ethylene glycol is 17mm/s. If the Richardson-Zaki hindered settling index is 4.5, the volume fraction of solids in the suspension is, a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) none of these

51. A 0.5m high bed made up of a 1mm diameter glass spheres (density = 2500kg/m3) is to be fluidized by water (density 1000kg/m3). If at the point of incipient fluidization, the bed voidage is 40%, the pressure drop across the bed is, a) 4.4kPa b) 2.94kPa c) 3.7kPa d) none of these

52. Fluidised beds are formed when a) fluid friction is zero b) gravity force is less than fluid friction c) pressure forces equal gravity forces d) sum of fluid friction and pressure forces is equal and opposite to gravity forces 53. Bernoulli s equation for steady frictionless flow states that, along a streamline: a) total pressure is constant c) velocity head is constant b) total mechanical energy is constant d) none of the above

54. The pressure drop required for fluidizing a coal bed with a liquid petroleum fraction of viscosity 0.015Ns/m2s is P. The pressure drop required for fluidizing the same bed with an oil of viscosity of 0.03Ns/m2 is a) P b) P/2 c) 2 P d) P2

55. The hydraulic mean diameter of the annular space between pipes of diameter 0.4m and 0.6m is a) 0.5m b) 0.1m c) 0.4m d) 0.6m

56. In power correlations for agitated vessels the effect of Froude number appears a) for baffled vessels and when Reynolds number is less than 300 b) for un-baffled vessels and when Reynolds number is greater than 300 c) when there is no vortex formation d) when the Reynolds number is less than 300 57. Two very small silica particles are settling at their respective terminal velocities through a highly viscous oil column. If one particle is twice as large as the other, the large particle will take .. the time taken by the smaller particle to fall through the same height. a) one-half b) one-fourth c) one-eighth d) one-third

58. To increase the capacity of a commercial packed bed adsorber, the volumetric flow rate of gas entering is increased by 20%. The ratio of pressure drop (new to old) is a) 1.2 b) 1.44 c) 1.73 d) 1.09

59. A particle attains its terminal settling velocity when a) gravity forces + drag force = buoyancy force c) buoyancy force + drag force = gravity force 60. For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is a) 2100 b) 100 c) zero d) infinity b) gravity force = buoyancy force d) drag force = buoyancy force

61. Hydraulic mean diameter for flow through packed bed of spherical particle size DP with porosity is a) DP b) DP c) DP d) DP

62. A suspension of uniform particles in water at a concentration of 500kg of solids per cubic meter of slurry is settling in a tank. Density of the particles is 2500kg/m3 and terminal velocity of a single particle is 20cm/s. What will be the settling velocity of suspension? Richardson and Zaki index is 4.6. a) 20cm/s b) 14.3cm/s c) 7.16cm/s d) 3.58cm/s

63. Bed pressure drop in an air fluidized bed catalyst particles ( P = 2000kg/m3, DP = 0.05cm) of 60cm bed depth and bed porosity of 0.5 expressed in cm of water (manometer) is a) 90 b) 60 c) 45 d) 30

64. A pilot tube indicates 5cm of water (manometer) when it is being used for measuring velocity of air. The velocity of air in m/s is a) 5 b) 14.1 c) 56.22 d) 28.2

65. In an agitated vessel, baffles are used to a) to suppress vortex formation c) to form an emulsion of the drops b) to create flow pattern d) to form a suspension of fine drops

66. For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is a) infinity b) zero c) one d) 2100

67. For pseudoplastic fluids, increase in shear rate a) increases the apparent viscosity c) has no effect on apparent viscosity 68. A particle attains its terminal settling velocity when a) sum of gravity and drag forces is equal to buoyancy force b) sum of drag and buoyancy forces is equal to gravity forces c) sum of gravity and buoyancy forces is equal to drag force d) buoyancy force is equal to drag force 69. For flow through a horizontal system, the ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure is found to be greater than one a) the system is a converging pipeline c) the system is a pipeline of uniform diameter b) the system is a diverging pipeline d) the observation is not possible b) decreases the apparent viscosity d) has unspecified effect

70. The shear stress-shear rate relationship for a liquid whose apparent viscosity decreases with increasing shear rate is given by a) =-m for n < 1 b) =-m for n = 1

yx

yx

c)

yx

=-m

for n > 1

d)

yx

=-m

71. A Newtonian liquid ( = density, = viscosity) is flowing with velocity V in a tube of diameter D. Let P be the pressure drop across the length L. For a laminar flow, P is proportional to a) LPV2/D b) DPV2/L c) L V/D2 d) V/L

72. Prandtl number is the ratio of a) mass diffusivity to thermal diffusivity c) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity b) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity d) thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity

73. For a fluidized bed, with the increase in expansion of the bed up to solids carry over from bed, the pressure drop across the bed a) increases rapidly c) first increases then decreases b) decreases rapidly d) remains essentially constant

74. Consider a duct of square cross-section of side b. The hydraulic radius is given by a) b/8 b) b/4 c) b/2 d) b

75. A rotameter, through which air at room temperature and atmospheric pressure is flowing, gives a certain reading for a flow rate of 100cm3/s. If helium (molecular weight 4) is used and the rotameter shows the same reading, the flow rate is a) 26cm3/s b) 42cm3/s c) 269cm3/s d) 325cm3/s

76. A bed consists of particles of density 2000kg/m3. If the height of the bed is 1m and its porosity is 0.4m, the pressure drop required to fluidize the bed is a) 25.61kPa b) 11.77kPa c) 14.86kPa d) 21.13kPa

77. A fluid A of specific gravity 1.0 and viscosity 0.001Ns/m2 flows through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section. The fluid B of specific gravity 2 and viscosity 0.002Ns/m2 flows through an identical pipe, with the same average velocity as fluid A. For fluid B pressure drop per unit length of pipe is a) half that of A b) same as that of A c) thrice that of A d) twice that of A

78. The equilibrium position of the float in a rotameter is determined by the balance of three forces. These are a) buoyancy, drag and gravity forces c) buoyancy, gravity and centrifugal forces b) buoyancy, gravity and centrifugal forces d) pressure, gravity and centrifugal forces

79. Two steel spheres of diameter d1 and d2, where d2=2d1, are dropped from rest at the free surface of a deep well. If their drag coefficients are independent of Reynolds number, the ratio of their terminal velocities ut1/ut2 is a) 1/2 b) 2 c) 1/ 2 d) 1

80. Dynamical similarity is said to exist between two fluid flows when at corresponding points there are a) geometrical similarity and similarity of forces involved b) kinematical similarity and geometrical similarity c) interactions of inertia and viscous forces d) interactions between inertia, viscous and pressure forces 81. A jet of water with a velocity V1 figure shown below and cross-section A1 enters a stream of slow moving water in a pipe of area A2 and velocity V2. The two streams enter with the same pressure p1. After thoroughly mixing in the pipe the stream emerges as a single stream with velocity V3 and pressure p2. If there are no losses in the flow, p2 p1 for V1 = 20m/s, V2 = 10m/s, A1 = 0.01m2, A2 = 0.02m2, density of water = 1000kg/m3 is

V2 A1 V1 V3 A2

V2 a) 25kPa b) 25kPa c) 0 d) 50kPa

82. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column. (i) Gear pump (ii) Air-lift pump a) suspension b) concentrated sulphuric acid c) viscous oil d) toluene a) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a) b) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c) c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a) d) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b)

83. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) 1/7 the power law (II) Hagen- Poiseuille equation a) irrotational flow b) turbulent flow c) inviscid flow d) laminar flow in pipes a) (I)-(b), (II)-(d) b) (I)-(a), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) d) (I)-(c), (II)-(b)

84. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Reynolds number a) b) c)
               

(II) Froude number

(III) Prandtl number

d) a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c) c) (I)-(b), (II)-(c), (III)-(a)

b) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d) d) (I)-(b), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)

85. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (i) Venturi meter (ii) Wet gas meter a) static head b) kinetic energy c) volumetric displacement d) fluid drag force a) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c) b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c) c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a) d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c)

86. Match the expression given in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column. (i) (ii) (iii)


P=

a) Kozney-Carman equation b) Kick s law c) Power number

(iv)

d) Froude number e) terminal settling velocity in stoke s regime f) terminal settling velocity in Newton s law regime g) Hagen-Poiseuille equation h) Rittiger s law

a) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(f) c) (i)-(g), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(f) 87. Potential flow is the flow of a) an ideal or inviscid fluid c) an incompressible fluid around a sphere

b) (i)-(g), (ii)-(h), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(e) d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(h), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(e)

b) a viscous fluid d) a compressible fluid around a sphere

88. The velocity components for a flow field are as follows vx = x2 y2, vy = 2xy The stream function for this flow is equal to a)


where C is a constant

b)

c)

d)

89. A packed bed is composed of cylinders having a diameter D = 0.2m and a length h = D. The bulk density of the overall packed bed is 960kg/m3 and the density of the solid cylinders is 1600kg/m3. The void fraction is equal to a) 0.02 b) 0.98 c) 0.4 d) 0.6

90. If is the void fraction in a packed bed and a is the ratio of total surface area in the bed to total volume of bed (void volume plus particle volume), the hydraulic radius for flow through the packed bed is equal to a) /a 91. A fluid a) is a substance that does not permanently resist distortion b) in equilibrium is not free from shear stresses c) is called ideal if its density is zero d) is called incompressible if its viscosity is little affected by moderate changes in temperature and pressure 92. Pressure a) is a surface force exerted by a fluid against the walls of its container b) does not exist at every point within a volume of fluid c) has the units of kg/m2 d) and shear stress have different units 93. The average interstitial velocity in the bed, v, is related to the superficial velocity v based on the cross section of the empty container by a) v = v 94. An ideal fluid a) is compressible and has zero viscosity c) has zero density and zero viscosity 95. The flow of an ideal fluid is called a) potential flow 96. Power law, =-m b) laminar flow c) sonic flow d) turbulent flow b) is incompressible and has zero viscosity d) has a density of 1kg/m3 and a viscosity of 1kg/m.s b) v = v c) v = v d) v = v [ /(1 )] b) 4 /a c) a/ d) 4a/

yx

, is used to describe the behavior of pseudoplastic and dilatent

fluids. For pseudoplastic fluids, n is (a) unity and for dilatent fluids, n is (b) unity. a) (a) less than, (b) less than c) (a) more than, (b) less than b) (a) more than, (b) more than d) (a) less than, (b) more than

97. At any constant rate of shear the apparent viscosity of a thixotropic fluid a) remains constant with time c) increases with time to some maximum value b) decreases with time to some minimum value d) passes through a maximum with time

98. At any constant rate of shear the apparent viscosity of a rheopectic fluid a) remains constant with time c) increases with time to some maximum value b) decreases with time to some minimum value d) passes through a minimum with time

99. With increase in the shear rate the apparent viscosity of pseudoplastic fluids (a) and the apparent viscosity of dilatent fluids (b) a) (a) decreases, (b) decreases c) (a) decreases, (b) increases 100. Bingham plastic a) flows when the shear stress exceeds the yield stress b) flows when the shear stress is of smaller magnitude than the yield stress c) follows Newton s law of viscosity d) follows power law 101. The volume rate of laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid of constant density in a circular tube of diameter d at steady state is proportional to a) d2 b) d4 c) d3 d) d b) (a) increases, (b) increases d) (a) increases, (b) decreases

102. Hagen-Poiseuille law is applicable for the (a) flow of a (b) fluid of constant density in a circular tube at steady state a) (a) laminar, (b) Newtonian c) (a) turbulent, (b) Newtonian b) (a) laminar, (b) non-Newtonian d) (a) turbulent, (b) non-Newtonian

103. In fluid flow past immersed solids the total drag is the sum of wall drag and form drag. The wall drag is caused from (a) and the form drag is caused from (b) a) (a) pressure, (b) shear stress c) (a) pressure, (b) pressure b) (a) shear stress, (b) pressure d) (a) shear stress, (b) shear stress

104. Which is an example of reciprocating pump? a) gear pump b) screw pump c) lobe pump d) diaphragm pump

105. Which is an example of rotary pump? a) gear pump 106. Piston pump a) can develop pressures of more than 1500atm b) contains check values at the inlet and discharge c) is an example of rotary pump d) contains a chamber which moves from inlet to discharge and back to inlet 107. Gear pump a) is an example of reciprocating pump b) contains a chamber which is stationary cylinder c) can develop pressure of more than 1500atm d) does not contain check values 108. Diaphragm pump a) can handle small to moderate amount of toxic and corrosive liquids b) is an example of rotary pump c) does not contain check values d) uses a fixed diaphragm of metal b) plunger pump c) piston pump d) diaphragm pump

109. Match the equations given in the left-hand side with the characteristics given in the right-hand side (i) The continuity equation (ii) The Euler s equation (iii) The Navier-Stokes equation (iv) The steady flow energy equation a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) a) is not applicable to viscous flow b) must be satisfied for any fluid flow c) is a consequence of the first law of thermodynamics d) is a kinematic equation b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a) d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)

110. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? The displacement thickness for a boundary layer 1. represents the momentum deficit in a flow 2. represents the mass deficit in a row 3. must be less than the momentum thickness a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1and 3 c) 2 only d) 1 only

111. Consider the following statements: A boundary layer 1. may exist near a solid boundary only 2. may exist near any boundary wall, center-line or any one of them 3. may not form for some fluids Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 3 b) 2and 3 c) 2 only d) 1only

112. Consider the following statements: Measurement of velocity without any obstruction to the flow can be made by 1. Pitot static probe 3. hot-film anemometer 2. hot-wire anemometer 4. laser-doppler anemometer

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 4 only c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 4

113. Match the dimensionless number given in the left-hand side with the field of use given in the righthand side (i) Grashof number (ii) Froude number (iii) Euler number (iv) Mach number a) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)- (d), (iv)-(c) c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)- (d), (iv)-(a) 114. Consider the following statements: 1. Priming is necessary in a centrifugal pump but not in a reciprocating pump 2. For a centrifugal pump, the discharge varies inversely as the speed 3. The operating point of a pump installed in a pipe-line is decided by the speed of the pump Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 a) compressible flow b) free convection c) free surface flow d) Pressure variations in flow b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)- (b), (iv)-(a) d) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)- (b), (iv)-(c)

115. Schlieren flow visualization technique operates by employing a) density variations in flow c) second derivatives of density b) density gradients in flow d) higher derivatives of density

116. A pipe is replaced by two parallel pipes, each with half the cross section of the original pipe. Then the discharge will a) remain the same c) decrease by more than 10% 117. The Euler s equation of motion a) can be derived from the Navier-Stokes equation b) is a statement of energy balance c) is a preliminary step to derive the Bernoulli s equation d) cannot be applied to fluid at rest b) increase by more than 10% d) change by less than 5%

118. Match the fluid given in the left-hand side with the characteristics given in the right-hand side Fluid (i) Ideal fluid (ii) Newtonian fluid (iii) Perfect gas Characteristics (a) inviscid and incompressible (b) compressible (c) viscous (d) incompressible only a) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a) c) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a) 119. Manometers are used to measure a) flow rate b) viscosity c) pressure difference d) atmospheric pressure b) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b) d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b)

120. A U-tube manometer is filled with mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) and the liquid above the mercury is carbon-tetrachloride (specific gravity = 1.6). What is the pressure difference over the manometer in kPa if the manometer reads 200mm? a) 26.7 b) 23.5 c) 29.8 d) 25.5

121. The value of hf appearing in the Bernoulli equation


a) laminar flow b) turbulent flow c) potential flow

is zero for d) rotational flow

122. Friction generated in un-separated boundary layers is called (a) and friction generated in separated boundary layers is called (b) a) (a) skin friction, (b) skin friction c) (a) form friction, (b) skin friction b) (a) form friction, (b) form friction d) (a) skin friction, (b) form friction

123. For laminar flow of Newtonian fluids through circular pipes, the kinetic energy correction factor is (a) and the momentum correction factor is (b) a) (a) 2, (b) b) (a) 4/3, (b) c) (a) 2, (b) 4/3 d) (a) 4/3, (b) 2

124. For laminar flow of liquids through pipes, the ratio of maximum velocity and average velocity is a) 0.5 for Newtonian fluids c) less than 2 for dilatent liquids b) more than 2for pseudoplastic liquids d) equal to 2 for Newtonian liquids

125. For laminar flow of liquids through pipes, the ratio of the maximum velocity and the average velocity is more than 2 for a) Newtonian liquids b) Pseudoplastic liquids c) dilatent liquids d) all the above

126. For laminar flow of liquids through pipes, the ratio of the maximum velocity and the average velocity is less than 2 for a) dilatent liquids b) pseudoplastic liquids c) Newtonian liquids d) all the above

MECHANICAL OPERATIONS
1. The sphericity of a cylinder of 1mm diameter and 3mm length is a) 0.9 b) 0.78 c) 0.6 d) 0.5

2. The solution of the differential equation

leads to Rittinger s law for K = Kr and a) n = 1 b) n = 1.5 c) n = 2 d) n = 0

3. The solution of the differential equation

leads to Kick s law for crushing and grinding for K = Kk and a) n= 0 b) n = 1 c) n = 1.5 d) n = 2

4. The solution of the differential equation

leads to Bond s law for crushing and grinding for K = Kb , a feed of infinite size and a) n = 0 b) 1 c) n = 1.5 d) n = 2

5. Bond s law for crushing and grinding states that the work required to form particles of size DP from very large feed is proportional to a) DP b) DP2 c) 1/ DP d) DP

6. The gross energy requirement in kWh per ton of feed needed to reduce a very large size to such a size that 80% of the product passes a 100 m screen is known as a) the work index for crushing c) Rittinger s law b) crushing efficiency d) Kick s law

7. The work required for crushing a given mass of material is constant for the same ratio of the initial particle size to the final particle size. This is known as a) Rittinger s law b) Kick s law c) Bond s law d) Janssen s law

8. The work required to form particles of desired size from a very large feed is proportional to the square root of the surface-to-volume ratio of the product. This is known as a) Bond s law b) Kick s law c) Rittinger s law d) Janssen s law

9. The work required for crushing of solids is proportional to the new surface created. This is known as a) Rittinger s law b) Kick s law c) Bond s law d) Janssen s law

10. For crushing of solids, Kick s law states that the work required for crushing a given mass of material is a) proportional to the new surface created b) constant for the same reduction ratio c) proportional to the square root of the surface-to-volume ratio of the product d) proportional to the square root of the equivalent diameter of the product 11. Bond s law for crushing and grinding of solids states that the work required to form particles of given size from very large feed is a) proportional to the square root of the volume-to-surface ratio of the product b) proportional to the square root of the surface-to-volume ratio of the product c) proportional to the new surface created d) constant for the same reduction ratio 12. Work index is defined as the gross energy requirement in kWh per ton of feed needed to reduce a very large feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes a a) 200 m screen b) 100 m screen c) 80 m screen d) 150 m screen

13. The power required to crush 1000tons/h of limestone (work index for limestone = 12.74) if 80 % of the feed passes a 50.8mm screen and 80% of the product passes a 3.175mm screen, is a) 169.6kW b) 1696kW c) 1189kW d) 11169kW

14. The power required to crush 100tons/h of limestone from 100mm to 6.25mm is 170kW. An estimate of the power required (using Kick s law) to crush 100tons/h of limestone from 50mm to 3.125mm is a) 170kW b) 240.4kW c) 340kW d) 120.2kW

15. The power required to crush 100tons/h of limestone from 100mm to 6.25mm is 170kW. An estimate of the power required (using Rittinger s law) to crush 100tons/h of limestone from 50mm to 3.125mm is a) 170kW b) 120.2kW c) 240.4kW d) 340kW

16. If dP is the equivalent diameter of a non-spherical particle, vP its volume and sP its surface area, then its sphericity S is defined by a)
S

= 6vP/dPsP

b)

= vP/dPsP

c)

= 6dPsP/vP

d)

= dPsP/vP

17. Arrange the following size reduction equipments in the decreasing order of the average particle size produced by each of them a) Jaw crushers, Ball mills, Fluid energy mills b) Ball mills, Jaw crushers, Fluid energy mills c) Fluid energy mills, Jaw crushers, Ball mills d) Fluid energy mills, Ball mills, Jaw crushers 18. What is the critical rotational speed, in revolutions per second, for a ball-mill of 1.2m diameter charged with 70mm diameter balls? a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 2.76 d) 0.66

19. A sand mixture was screened through a standard 10-mesh screen. The mass fraction of the oversize material in feed, overflow and underflow were found to be 0.38, 0.79, and 0.22 respectively. The screen effectiveness based on the oversize is a) 0.50 b) 0.58 c) 0.68 d) 0.62

20. The work index in Bond s law for crushing of solids has the following dimensions: a) no units (dimensionless) c) kW/ton b) kWh/ton d) kWhm1/2/ton

21. The distribution given by microscopic analysis of powder is a) number b) length c) area d) volume

22. For crushing of solids, the Rittinger s law states that the work required for crushing is proportional to a) the new surface created c) the change in volume due to crushing b) the size reduction ratio d) none of these

23. Which of the following is used to produce talcum powder? a) Ball mill b) Hammer mill c) Jet mill d) Pin mill

24. In gyratory crusher the size reduction is effected primarily by a) compression b) impact c) attrition d) cutting action

25. The sphericity of a solid particle of cubical shape is a) b) ( /6)1/3 c) ( /6)1/2 d) /3

26. Disintegrators contain a) two smooth rolls turning at different speed b) two smooth rolls turning at same speed c) two corrugated rolls turning at different speed d) two corrugated rolls turning at same speed 27. In a disintegrator the size reduction is effected by a) compression only c) cutting action b) compression, impact and shear d) attrition only

28. Jigging is a technique by which different particles can be a) separated by particle size c) separated by particle shape 29. A fluid energy mill is used for a) cutting b) grinding c) ultra grinding d) crushing b) separated by particle density d) mixed

30. The size reduction is effected primarily by (a) in a smooth-roll crusher and by (b) in a toothedroll crusher a) (a) impact, (b) attrition c) (a) compression, (b) compression, impact and shear b) (a) impact, (b) compression d) (a) compression, (b) cutting

31. The surface area of a unit mass of particles a) decrease as the particle size is reduced b) increases as the particle size is reduced c) remains constant as the particle size is reduced d) decreases as the square root of the equivalent diameter of particle 32. A ball mill is used for a) cutting b) grinding c) ultra grinding d) crushing

33. The energy required per unit mass to grind limestone particles of very large size to 100 m is 12.7kWh/ton. An estimate (using Bond s law) of the energy to grind the particles from a very large size to 50 m is a) 6.35kWh/ton b) 9.0kWh/ton c) 18kWh/ton d) 25.4kWh/ton

34. The energy required per unit mass to grind hematite particles of very large size to 80 m is 14.3kWh/ton. An estimate (using Bond s law) of the energy to grind the particles from a very large size to 40 m is a) 10.1kWh/ton b) 28.6kWh/ton c) 7.15kWh/ton d) 20.2kWh/ton

35. Crushing efficiency is defined as a) the ratio of the surface energy created by crushing to the energy fed to the machine b) the ratio of the surface energy created by crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid c) the ratio of the energy absorbed by the solid to the energy fed to the machine d) the ratio of the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by crushing 36. A hammer mill is used for a) crushing b) grinding c) ultra grinding d) cutting

37. Crushing rolls are used for a) cutting b) crushing c) grinding d) ultra grinding

38. Kick s law for crushing and grinding of solids is based on a) the constant crushing efficiency b) the constant crushing efficiency which is independent of sizes of feed and product for a given machine and feed material c) the stress analysis of plastic deformation within the elastic limit d) none of these 39. Rittinger s law for crushing of solids is based on a) the stress analysis of plastic deformation within the elastic limit b) the constant crushing efficiency which for a given machine and feed material is independent of sizes of feed and product c) the constant crushing efficiency d) none of these 40. Ultrafine wet grinding is done in a) fluid energy mills b) hammer mills c) agitated mills d) all of these

41. Coulter counter is a device for the measurement of a) sizes of fine particles c) area of coarse particles b) mass of coarse particles d) volume of coarse particles

42. Sphericity of a non-spherical particle is defined as the ratio of a) the volume of a sphere, whose diameter is equal to the equivalent diameter of the particle, to the actual volume of the particle b) the surface area of a sphere, whose diameter is equal to the equivalent diameter of the particle, to the actual surface area of the particle c) the surface area of a sphere, whose diameter is equal to the equivalent diameter of the particle, to the actual volume of the particle d) the volume of a sphere, whose diameter is equal to the equivalent diameter of the particle, to the actual surface area of the particle 43. The sphericity of a solid particle of cylindrical shape whose length equals the diameter is a) ( /6)1/3 b) (6/ )1/3 c) (1/3)2/3 d) (2/3)1/3

44. The equivalent diameter of a cylindrical solid particle is equal to the diameter of the cylindrical particle if the ratio of the length to diameter of the cylindrical particle is equal to a) 2/3 b) 1 c) 3/2 d) (2/3)1/3

45. Which of the following is classified as cohesive solid? a) sand b) plastic chip c) grain d) wet clay

46. If the applied pressure and normal pressure in a solid mass are pV and pL, respectively, the diameter of the Mohr stress circle is equal to a) pV + pL b) pV pL c) (pV + pL)/2 d) (pV pL)/2

47. If the applied pressure and normal pressure in a solid mass are pV and pL, respectively, the ratio pL/pV approaches a) unity b) infinity c) zero d) non-zero finite value

48. The angle of internal friction for free-flowing granular materials is a) 0 b) 90 c) between 15 and 30 d) between 45 and 60

49. The ratio K of the normal pressure and the applied pressure in a solid material is related to the angle of internal friction of the solid material, m, by the equation a) c)

 

b) d)

 

50. The coefficient of friction between two layers of solid particles is equal to a) the tangent of the angle of internal friction of the particles b) the tangent of the angle of repose of the particles c) the ratio of the applied pressure and the normal pressure d) the ratio of the normal pressure and the applied pressure 51. If the mass of uniform particles of diameter DP, sphericity total surface area of the particles is equal to a) m/(
P S,

and density

in a sample is m, the

DP

S)

b) (

DP

S)/6m

c) 6m/(

DP

S)

d) (

DP

S)/m

52. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of any screen to that of the next smaller screen in the Tyler standard screen series is a) 2 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1/ 2

53. The ratio of the area of the openings of any screen to that of the area of the openings in the next smaller screen in the Tyler standard screen series is a) 21/2 b) 21/4 c) 21/3 d) 2

54. The pressure exerted by granular solids on the floor of a circular bin with vertical walls is given by a) Rittinger s law b) Kick s law c) Bond s law d) Janssen equation

55. The pressure exerted by granular solids on the floor of a circular bin with vertical walls a) increases monotonically with height of solids b) decreases monotonically with height of solids c) first increases and then decreases with the height of solids d) first increases with the height of solids and then vertically it becomes constant above the height of about 3 times the diameter of bin 56. The notation 8/10 in screen analysis means a) through 8 mesh and on 10 mesh c) on 8 mesh and through 10 mesh 57. For a truly homogenous mass of solids, a) the angle of internal friction of solid material is equal to the angle of repose of solid material b) the angle of internal friction of solid material is more than the angle of repose of solid material c) the angle of repose of solid material is more than the angle of internal friction of solid material d) the angle of internal friction of solid material is equal to 45 58. If the coefficient of friction between the two layers of solid particles is equal to 1/ 3, then the ratio of the normal pressure to the applied pressure is a) b) 1/3 c) 1/ 3 d) 3 b) through 8 mesh and 10 mesh d) on 8 mesh and 10 mesh

59. If the applied pressure in a solid mass is pV and the normal pressure is pL, the pressure at an angle of 30 is equal to a) b) c) d)

60. If the applied pressure in a solid mass is pV and the normal pressure is pL, the pressure at an angle of is equal to a) (pV pL) sin2 + pL b) (pV pL) cos2 + pV c) (pV pL) sin .cos d) pV cos2 + pL sin2

61. When the ball mill is centrifuging, a) maximum grinding is done c) no grinding is done b) optimum grinding is done d) minimum power is consumed

62. The critical speed of the ball mill depends on the a) radii of the mill and the ball b) number of the balls used c) radius and the number of balls d) ratio of the mill and the ball, and the number of balls used 63. In a ball mill the forces acting on the ball are a) gravitational and drag forces c) gravitational and centrifugal forces b) drag and centrifugal forces d) gravitational, drag and centrifugal forces

64. To achieve the desired size reduction, the operating speed of the ball mill must be a) equal to its critical speed c) greater than or equal to its critical speed b) greater than its critical speed d) less than its critical speed

65. If the radii of the ball mill and the ball are R and r, respectively then its critical speed is equal to a) b) c) d)

66. The critical speed of the ball mill depends on the radii of the ball mill and the ball. It (a) with increase in the radius of the ball mill and (b) with increase in the radius of the ball. a) (a) increases, (b) increases c) (a) increases, (b) increases b) (a) increases, (b) increases d) (a) increases, (b) increases

67. A sand mixture was screened through a standard 10-mesh screen. The mass fraction of the oversize material in feed, overflow and underflow were found to be 0.38, 0.79, and 0.22 respectively. The screen effectiveness based on the undersize is a) 0.53 b) 0.58 c) 0.22 d) 0.90

68. A sand mixture was screened through a standard 10-mesh screen. The mass fraction of the oversize material in feed, overflow and underflow were found to be 0.38, 0.79, and 0.22 respectively. The overall screen effectiveness is a) 0.90 b) 0.58 c) 0.53 d) 0.83

69. An ideal screen separates the feed mixture in such a way that the (a) particle in the overflow is just larger than the (b) particle in the underflow a) (a) smallest, (b) smallest c) (a) smallest, (b) largest b) (a) largest, (b) largest d) (a) largest, (b) smallest

70. For any specified conditions of operation the capacity of a screen, in mass per unit time, divided by the mesh size a) is proportional to the cut diameter, DPC c) is proportional to 1/DPC3 b) is proportional to 1/DPC2 d) remains constant

71. For a series of screens of different mesh sizes, the number of openings per unit screen area is proportional to a) DPC b) DPC2 c) DPC3 d) 1/DPC2

where DPC = cut diameter 72. The capacity of a screen, in mass per unit time , is proportional to a) DPC b) DPC2 c) DPC3 d) 1/DPC2

where DPC = cut diameter

73. The general equation for constant-pressure filtration

where V = volume of filtrate collected in time t k, n = constants The value of n for standard blocking mechanism of filtration is a) 1 b) 3/2 c) 2 d) 0

74. The following equation was developed by Hermans and Bredee for all types of constant-pressure filtration

where V = volume of filtered liquid collected in time t k, n = constants The value of n for cake filtration is a) 0 b) 1 c) 3/2 d) 2

75. In cake filtration the liquid passes through two resistances in series: (i) resistance offered by cake, (ii) resistance offered by filter medium resistance. a) are dimensionless b) have same dimensions c) are zero at the start and increase with times as filtration proceeds d) have different dimensions

76. The figure (below) shows a plot of t/V vs. V at four values of P (applied pressure difference) for cake filtration at constant pressure, where V is the volume of filtrate collected in time t. Select the correct relation. p1 p2 t/V p3 p4

V a) p1 > p2 > p3 > p4 b) p1 < p2 < p3 < p4 c) p1 = p2 = p3 = p4 d) p1 p2 p3 p4

77. The specific cake resistance of compressible sludges a) remains constant with change in the applied pressure difference b) decreases with increase in the applied pressure difference c) increases with increase in the applied pressure difference d) decreases linearly with increase in the applied pressure difference 78. The compressibility coefficient s, defined by = o( P)s, where the empirical constant, P is the applied pressure difference, is a) zero for compressible sludges c) positive for compressible sludges is the specific cake resistance,
o

is

b) negative for compressible sludges d) unity for incompressible sludges is the

79. For incompressible sludges the compressibility coefficient s, defined by = o( P)s, where specific cake resistance, o is the empirical constant, P is the applied pressure difference, is a) 0 b) 1 c) d) none of the above

80. Plate and frame filter press is classified as a) continuous pressure filter c) discontinuous pressure filter b) continuous vacuum filter d) discontinuous vacuum filter

81. If the filter medium resistance is negligible, the filtrate flow rate obtained in a continuous vacuum filter of rotary-drum type varies a) inversely with the square root of the viscosity of filtrate b) inversely with the viscosity of filtrate c) directly with the square root of the viscosity of filtrate d) directly with the viscosity of filtrate 82. A rotary-drum filter is used to filter an aqueous slurry of concentration cS kg of solids per m3 of water (density of water = kg/m3). If mF is the mass of the wet cake, including the filtrate retained in its voids and mC is the mass of the dry cake obtained by washing the cake free of soluble material and drying, then the quantity of solids deposited in the filter per unit volume of filtrate, c, is related to cS by the equation a) b)

 

c)

d)

83. A rotary-drum filter is used to filter an aqueous slurry of CaCO3 containing 236 kg of solids per m3 of water (density of water = 1000 kg/m3). If the filter cake contains 50% moisture (wet basis), the quantity of solids deposited in the filter per unit volume of filtrate in kg/m3 is a) 308.9 b) 211.9 c) 236 d) 267.6

84. A rotary-drum filter is used to filter an aqueous slurry of CaCO3 containing 236 kg of solids per m3 of water (density of water = 1000 kg/m3). If the filter cake contains 50% moisture (dry basis), the quantity of solids deposited in the filter per unit volume of filtrate in kg/m3 is a) 308.9 b) 236 c) 180.3 d) 267.6

85. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Ultrafine dry grinding (II) Ultrafine wet grinding (a) agitated mills (b) Ball mills (c) fluid energy mills (d) tube mills a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(c), (II)-(a) d) (I)-(b), (II)-(d)

86. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Grinder (II) Ultrafine grinder (a) Crushing rolls (b) dicers (c) ball mill (d) fluid energy mill a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(b), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(a), (II)-(c)

87. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Blake crusher (II) Disintegrator (a) Gyratory crusher (b) Jaw crusher (c) smooth-roll crusher (d) toothed-roll crusher a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(b), (II)-(d) d) (I)-(c), (II)-(a)

CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING

1. The experimentally determined overall order for the reaction A + B a) reaction is elementary with a molecularity of two b) molecularity of the reaction is 2, but the reaction may not be elementary c) reaction may be elementary with a molecularity of 2 d) reaction is elementary but the molecularity may not be 2.

C + D is two. Then the

2. The reaction A B is conducted in an isothermal batch reactor. If the conversion of A increases linearly with holding time, then the order of the reaction is a) 0 b) 1 c) 1.5 d) 2

3. For liquid phase parallel reactions R; rR = k1CA2; E1 = 80kJ/mol A S; rS = k2CA; E2 = 120kJ/mol the desired product is R. A higher selectivity of R will be achieved if the reaction is conducted at a) low temperature in a CSTR c) low temperature in a PFR b) high temperature in a CSTR d) high temperature in a PFR

4. In a solid catalyzed reactions the diffusional effects are more likely to affect the overall rate of reaction for a) fast reactions in catalysts of small pore diameter b) fast reactions in catalysts of large pore diameter c) slow reactions in catalysts of small pore diameter d) slow reactions in catalysts of large pore diameter 5. The conversion for a first-order liquid phase reaction A B in a CSTR is 50%. If another CSTR of the same volume is connected in series, then the % conversion at the exit of the second reactor will be a) 60 b) 75 c) 90 d) 100

6. The following half-life data are available for the irreversible liquid phase reaction A Initial concentration (kmol/m3) 2 8 The overall order of the reaction is a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 1.5 Half life (min) 2 1

products:

d) 2

7. The first order series reaction A k1 B k2 C is conducted in a batch reactor. The initial concentrations of A, B and C (CA0, CB0, CC0 respectively) are all non-zero. The variation of CB with reaction time will not show a maximum if a) k2CBO > k1CAO b) k1CAO > k2CBO c) CBO > CAO d) CAO > CBO

8. The reaction A B is conducted in an adiabatic plug flow reactor (PFR). Pure A at a concentration 3 of 2kmol /m is fed to the reactor at the rate of 0.01m3/s and at a temperature of 500K. If the exit conversion is 20%, then the exit temperature (in K) is a) 400 b) 500 c) 600 d) 1000

9. The rate controlling step for the heterogeneous irreversible catalytic reaction A (g) + B (g) C (g)

is the surface reaction of adsorbed A with adsorbed B to give adsorbed C. The rate expression for this reaction can be written as a) c) b) d)

10. Overall order of reaction for which rate constant has units of (mol/L)1/2 sec1 is a) 3 /2 b) 2B + C, c) rA = 2rB d) rA = rB/2 c) 3/2 d) 5/2

11. For the reaction A + B a) rA = rB

b) rA = - rB

12. The exit age distribution curve E(t) for an ideal CSTR with the average residence time , is given by a)  b) 


c)

d)

13. An endothermic second order reaction is carried out in an adiabatic plug flow reactor. The rate of heat generation is a) maximum at the inlet of the reactor c) maximum at the center of the reactor b) maximum at the exit of the reactor d) constant throughout the reactor

14. For the liquid phase zero-order irreversible reaction A B., the conversion of A in a CSTR is -1 found to be 0.3 at a space velocity of 0.1min ? Assume that the all the other operating conditions are the same for CSTR and PFR. What is the conversion in a PFR? a) 0.15 b) 0.3 c) 0.6 d) 0.9

15. Consider the nth order irreversible liquid phase reaction A B. Which one of the following plots involving half-life of the reaction (t1/2) and the initial reactant concentration (CA0) gives the straight line plot? a) CA0 vs. t1/2 c) CA0 vs. ln (t1/2) b) ln (CA0) vs. t1/2 d) ln (CA0) vs. ln(t1/2)

16. At a given value of E/R (ratio of activation energy and gas constant), the ratio of the rate constants at 500K and 400K is 2, if Arrhenius law is used. What will be this ratio if transition-state theory is used with the same value of E/R? a) 1.6 b) 2 c) 2.24 d) 2.5

17. In transition-state theory, the rate of the reaction is derived by assuming that the activated complex is in equilibrium with a) the products c) both reactants and products b) the reactants d) none of the above

18. A first order liquid phase reaction is carried out in an ideal continuous stirred tank reactor. If a part of the outlet stream is recycled back to the reactor, the conversion will a) increase b) decrease c) remains unchanged d) may increase or decrease, depending on the value of the recycle ratio

19. The reaction of A and B produces the desired product R as well as the unwanted products. What level of reactant concentrations (high, medium, low) should we use for the following reaction scheme in order to maximize the conversion of A to R? A+B A a) low CA, low CB c) high CA, low CB R ; r1 = k1 CA CB2 S ; r2 = k 2 C A b) high CB, any CA d) high CA, any CB

20. For zero order solid catalyzed reaction having a Thiele modulus equal to one, the value of effectiveness factor is a) 1 b) c) d)

21. A gaseous reaction A 2B + C takes place isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. Starting with a gaseous mixture containing 50% A, rest inert, the ratio of final to initial volume is found to be 1.6 . The % conversion of A is a) 62.5 b) 37.5 c) 30 d) 60

22. The conversion of a reactant, undergoing a first order reaction at a time equal to three times the half life of the reaction is a) 0.875 b) 0.5 c) 0.425 d) insufficient data

23. The units of frequency factor in the Arrhenius equation a) are same as those of the rate constant b) depend on the order of the reaction c) depend on the temperature and pressure of the reaction d) are cycles per unit time 24. If k is the reaction rate constant at an absolute temperature T and if the plot of ln(k) vs. (1/T) is a straight line with a slope of (-E/R), then the rate constant k is related to the temperature by the equation a) k = ko T e-E/RT b) k = koT1/2 e-E/RT c) k = ko e-E/RT d) k = ko T2 e-E/RT

25. If the rate constants of an irreversible reaction at absolute temperatures of T1 and T2 and k1 and k2, respectively, then the energy of activation, E, is given by the equation a) c)




b) d)

 

26. A second order reaction A B is conducted in an isothermal batch reactor for several values of CA0 (initial concentration of A) and its half-life (t1/2) is determined. The plot of ln(t1/2) vs. ln(CA0) is a straight line with a slope of a) 0 b) 1 c) 1 d) 2

27. A reaction A B is conducted in an isothermal batch reactor for several values of CA0 (initial concentration of A) and its half-life (t1/2) is determined. The plot of ln(t1/2) vs. ln(CA0) is a straight line with a slope of 1. The order of reaction is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

28. A reversible liquid phase endothermic reaction is to be carried out in a plug flow reactor. For minimum reactor volumes it should be operated such that the temperature along the length a) decreases c) is at the highest allowable temperature throughout d) first increases and then decreases 29. The residence time distribution of an ideal CSTR is a)  b)  c) d)  b) increases

30. The rate constant of a chemical reaction increases by 100times when the temperature is increased from 400K to 500K. Assuming transition state theory is valid, the value of E/R is a) 8987K b) 9210K c) 8764K d) 8621K

31. A pulse tracer is introduced in an ideal CSTR (with mean residence time ) at time =0. The time taken for the exit concentration of the tracer to reach half of its initial value will be a) 2 b) 0.5 c) /0.693 d) 0.693

32. A batch adiabatic reactor at an initial temperature of 373K is being used for the reaction A Assume the heat of reaction to be 1kJ/mol at 373K and the heat capacity of both A and B to be constant and equal to 50kJ/mol K. The temperature rise after a conversion of 0.5 will be a) 5C b) 10C c) 20C d) 100C

B.

33. The gas phase reaction 2A B is carried out in an isothermal plug flow reactor. The feed consists of 80mol% A and 20mol% inert. If the conversion of A at the reactor exit is 50%, then CA/CA0 at the outlet of the reactor is a) 2/3 b) 5/8 c) 1/3 d) 3/8

34. For a first order isothermal chemical reaction in a porous catalyst, the effectiveness factor is 0.3. The effectiveness factor will increase if the a) catalyst size is reduced or the catalyst diffusivity is reduced b) catalyst size is reduced or the catalyst diffusivity is increased c) catalyst size is increased or the catalyst diffusivity is reduced d) catalyst size is increased or the catalyst diffusivity is increased 35. The rate of the heterogeneous catalyst reaction A (g) + B (g) C (g) is,

where KA and KC are the adsorption equilibrium constants. The rate controlling step for this reaction is a) adsorption of A b) surface reaction between adsorbed A and adsorbed B c) surface reaction between adsorbed A and B in the gas phase d) surface reaction between A in the gas phase and adsorbed B

36. Second order consecutive irreversible reactions A k1 B k2 C

were carried out in a constant volume isothermal batch reactor with different initial concentrations. Reactor temperature was same in all cases. In experiments where the ratio of concentration of B to that of A in initial feed was less than 0.5, the concentration of B increased first, reached a maximum and then declined with time. However, for all where this concentration ratio was 0.5 or above, concentration of B decreased monotonically with time right from the beginning. What is the ratio of two rate constants (k1/k2)? a) b) c) 2 R + S is d) 4 d) 4

37. Molecularity of an elementary reaction P + Q a) 1 b) 2 c) 3

38. A spherical porous catalyst particle of radius R is subjected to reactant A which reacts to form B by a zero order surface reaction A B. Film mass transfer resistance is negligible and pore diffusion of A is rate controlling. The effectiveness factor of the catalyst is reported as 7/8. Which of the following statements is true? a) Inner catalyst core of radius R/8 does not participate in reaction b) Inner catalyst core of radius R/2 does not participate in reaction c) Inner catalyst core of radius 7R/8 does not participate in reaction d) effectiveness factor for zero order reaction cannot be 7/8 as it always must be 1. 39. For the reaction P + 2Q a) double of that of Q c) half of that of Q 3R, molar rate of consumption of P is b) same as that of Q d) 2/3 of that of Q

40. The rate expression for a heterogeneous catalytic reaction is given by

where k is the surface reaction rate constant and kA and kR are adsorption equilibrium constants of A and R respectively. If kRpR>>(1+kApA) the apparent activation energy EA is equal to (given E is the activation energy for the reaction and HR and HA are activation energies of adsorption of R and A) a) E b) E + HA c) E + HA HR d) HA + HR

41. For a heterogeneous catalytic reaction A + B C, with equimolal feed of A and B, the initial rate of reaction, rA0 is invariant with total pressure. The rate controlling step is a) surface reaction between adsorbed A and B in the gas phase b) surface reaction between adsorbed A and adsorbed B c) surface reaction between A in the gas phase and adsorbed B d) desorption of C 42. When an exothermic reversible reaction is conducted adiabatically, the rate of reaction a) continuously increases c) passes through a maximum b) continuously decreases d) passes through a minimum

43. When an endothermic reversible reaction is conducted adiabatically, the rate of reaction a) continuously decreases c) passes through a minimum b) continuously increases d) passes through a maximum

44. For an isothermal variable volume batch reactor, the following relation is applicable for a first order irreversible reaction: a) XA = kt c) ln(1 XA) = kt where XA is fractional conversion, rate constant and t is the time.
A

b) d)
A

=k ln(1 XA) = kt

is fractional change in volume for complete conversion, k is the

45. The sequence in which three CSTR s of volumes 5, 10 and 15m3 will be connected in series to obtain the maximum production in a second order irreversible reaction is a) 15, 10, 5 b) 5, 10, 15 c) 10, 5, 15 d) 10, 15, 5

46. For a mixed flow reactor operating at steady state, the rate of reaction is given by a) b) c) d)

47. For a tubular reactor with space time and residence time , the following statements holds: a) and are equal b) = when the fluid density changes in the reactor c) = for an isothermal tubular reactor in which the density of the process fluid is constant d) = for a non-isothermal reactor 48. If the pore diffusion controls in a catalytic reaction, the apparent activation energy Ea is equal to a) the intrinsic activation energy E b) (E + ED) where ED is activation energy due to diffusion c) (E + ED)/2 d) ED/2 49. For the gaseous reaction 2A expansion factor is a) 1 b) 0.5 B where the feed consists of 50mol% A and 50mol% inert, the

c) 0.25

d) 0

50. To maximize the formation of R in the simultaneous reactions A+B A+B we should have a) low CA, low CB c) high CA, low CB b) low CA, high CA d) high CA, high CB R ; rR = 2 CA0.5 CB2 S ; rS = 1.5 CA CB

51. Arrhenius equation describing the effect of temperature on rate constant is a) k = ko e-E/RT b) k = koT1/2 e-E/RT c) k = ko e-2E/RT d) k = ko T e-E/RT

52. Liquids A decompose by first order kinetics in an isothermal batch reactor. 50% of A is converted in 300seconds. The time required for a conversion of 75% is a) 300 x 0.75/0.25 seconds c) 300 ln (0.5/0.25) seconds b) 300 ln(1) seconds d) 300 [ln(0.25)/ln(0.5)] seconds

53. The reaction A B occurs in an isothermal catalyst pellet under steady state conditions. If the diffusion of A into the pellet is the rate controlling step, the rate of diffusion of A is a) faster than the rate of reaction c) slower than the rate of reaction b) equal to the rate of reaction d) may be faster, or slower, depending on the kinetics 2R. The

54. An exothermic gas phase reaction proceeds according to the equation 3A + 2B equilibrium conversion for this reaction a) increases with an increase in temperature c) decreases with an increase in temperature

b) decreases on dilution with an inert gas d) is unaffected by the presence of catalyst

55. What is the exit conversion of reactant A for a zero order reaction taking place in CSTR with the following data (rate constant = 1 mol/min liter; feed concentration = 1 mol/liter, feed flow rate = 0.5 liter/min and reactor volume = 1 liter)? a) 50% b) 75% c) 100% d) 200% R + S, what is the relationship between rA

56. In a homogeneous gas phase reaction A + 2B and rB? a) 2rA = rB b) rA = 2rB c) rA = rB

d) none of these

57. A 10m3 CSTR is used to decompose a dilute solution of A. The decomposition is irreversible with a first order rate constant of 3.45hr-1. If 95% decomposition of A is desired, the required feed rate is a) 1.816m3/s b) 655.5m3/h c) 1.816m3/h d) 655.5m3/h

58. For an ideal mixed flow reactor (CSTR) the exit age distribution E(t) is given by a) a dirac delta function c) a ramp function b) a step function d) none of these

59. The conversion XA and residence time data are collected for zero order liquid phase reaction in a stirred tank reactor. Which of the following will be a straight line? a) XA vs. b) XA vs. ln c) XA/(1 XA) vs. d) XA(1 XA) vs.

60. The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A reaction order is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2

B are (l/g.mole)/min. Therefore, the

d) 3

61. A first order reaction A B occurs in an isothermal porous catalyst pellet of spherical shape. If the concentration of A at the centre of the pellet is much less than that at the external surface, the process is limited by a) diffusion within the pellet c) external mass transfer 62. Arrhenius equation describes the effect of a) composition b) pressure c) temperature d) temperature, pressure and concentration of reactants 63. From collision theory, the reaction rate constant is proportional to a) exp ( E/RT) b) exp ( E/2RT) c) T d) T1/2exp ( E/RT) b) reaction d) none of the above .. on rate constant

64. For a first order chemical reaction in a porous catalyst, the Thiele modulus is 10. The effectiveness factor is approximately equal to a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0.1 d) 0

65. Match the items in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) RTD for laminar flow (II) RTD for CSTR (a) (t )

(b) exp( t/ ) (c) 2/2t3 for /2 t (d) (1/ ) exp( t/ )

a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b)

b) (I)-(b), (II)-(d)

c) (I)-(c), (II)-(d)

d) (I)-(c), (II)-(b)

66. Match the reactions given in the left-hand column with the characteristics given in the right-hand column (I) A (II) A + B B C 2B + C (a) rate of reaction of A shows a maximum with time (b) CB shows a maximum with time (c) CC shows a maximum with time (d) CB continuously decreases with time a) (I)-(b), (II)-(a) b) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) c) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) d) (I)-(d), (II)-(c)

PLANT DESIGN AND ECONOMICS

1. A cylindrical pressure vessel of volume 6 m3 has to be designed to withstand a maximum internal pressure of 10atm. The allowable design stress of the material is 125N/mm2 and corrosion allowance is 2mm. The thickness of the vessel for a length/diameter ratio of 3 will be close to a) 5mm b) 6mm c) 8mm d) 10mm

2. A certain pressure vessel manufacturer avoids doing reinforcement calculations for openings by always providing a reinforcing pad extending up to double the diameter of the opening and of the same material and thickness as that of shell wall. If area compensation is accepted as a code guideline, his approach leads to safe design a) only if the opening is on the spherical vessel b) only if the opening is on a vertical cylindrical vessel c) only if the opening is on a horizontal cylindrical vessel d) irrespective of the shape of the vessel 3. For a cylindrical vessel of moderate height, the weld joint efficiency for joints parallel to the cylinder axis is given as 1.0 while the joints along the girth (circumference) it is given as 0.8 . In calculating the shell wall thickness using code formula, for an internally pressurized vessel, what value of weld joint efficiency should be used? a) 0.8 b) 0.9 c) 1.0 d) (0.8)0.5

4. For a cylindrical internally pressurized vessel, which of the following closure types would withstand highest pressure if each closure is of the same material and thickness? a) hemi-spherical b) ellipsoidal (2:1) c) conical d) flat plate

5. For shell-and-tube heat exchangers, with increasing heat transfer area, the purchased cost per unit heat transfer area a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant d) passes through a maxima

6. A suitable material of construction to use with fuming sulphuric acid is a) carbon steel c) nickel b) stainless steel type 304 d) monel

7. Two iron pipes of the same nominal diameter but different schedule number will have a) the same inside diameter c) the same wall thickness b) the same outside diameter d) none of the above

8. Two 30cm diameter steel pipes are connected by a) threaded joints b) union coupling c) flanges d) sleeves

9. A cylindrical shell A closed at the ends has been provided with 3 circumferential ring stiffners. Shell B is identical to A but is provided with 6 circumferential stiffners. Which vessel can withstand more internal pressure? a) A b) B c) cannot be predicted d) same pressure in both

10. The ends of a cylindrical vessel can be closed by a head, which can be one of the four shapes. For the same thickness, choose the one which can withstand the highest pressure? a) flat plate b) hemispherical c) torispherical d) ellipsoidal

11. A perforated plate has holes of diameter dh arranged in a pitch ph. Each hole has a tube of ID, di, passing through it. The ligament efficiency is given by a) (ph dh)/ph b) [ph (dhdi/2)] / ph c) (ph di)/ph d) (ph dh)/dh
L

12. In a cylindrical vessel subjected to internal pressure, the longitudinal stress circumferential stress h are related by a)
h

and the

=2

b)

c)

L/2

d) no relation exists

13. The refractory bricks in common use are composed of mixtures of a) carbon and alumina c) silica and alumina b) silica and alumina d) iron and carbon

14. Inconel is used primarily for acid resistance at high temperatures. It contains a) Ni, Fe, Cr b) Ni, Mo, Fe c) Cu, Ni d) Cu, Zn

15. For handling concentrated hydrochloric acid a suitable material of construction is a) aluminum b) hastelloy c) stainless steel d) cast iron

16. In the layout plan for a vacuum distillation unit operating at 80mmHg, supported by a barometric condenser, the appropriate place for the location of vacuum drum for collecting the distillate will be a) at ground level c) 5m above ground b) 2m above ground d) 10m above ground

17. Monel is the alloy of Niickel-copper with the metals in the ratio of a) 1:1 18. Monel is the alloy of a) copper and nickel c) copper and tin 19. Hastelloy B contains a) 65% Ni, 28% Mo, 6% Fe c) 70% Cu, 30% Ni b) 76% Ni, 15% Cr, 7% Fe d) 95.5% Al, 4% Cu, 0.5% Mg b) copper and zinc d) aluminum and copper b) 2:1 c) 3:1 d) 4:1

20. Hastelloy C is a good material of construction in chemical process industry since it is a) highly corrosion-resistant and is readily fabricated b) relatively inexpensive although it can be fabricated with some difficulty c) corrosion-resistant to most alkalis, particularly because of its Cu content d) light and resists attack by acids 21. In the stainless steel, chromium is added to improve corrosion resistance in (a) conditions and nickel is added to improve corrosion resistance in (b) conditions a) (a) oxidizing, (b) oxidizing c) (a) oxidizing, (b) non-oxidizing b) (a) non-oxidizing, (b) non-oxidizing d) (a) non-oxidizing, (b) oxidizing

22. Match the alloys given in the left-hand column with the major constituents given in the right-hand column (I) Monel (II) Inconel (a) Al, Cu (b) Cu, Zn (c) Ni, Cr, Fe (d) Ni, Cu a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(d), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(a), (II)-(d)

23. Match the alloys given in the left-hand column with the major constituents given in the right-hand column (I) Brass (II) Bronze (a) Ni, Cu (b) Ni, Zn (c) Cu, Zn (d) Cu, Sn a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(d) c) (I)-(a), (II)-(c) d) (I)-(b), (II)-(c)

24. The total investment in a project is Rs. 10lakhs and the annual profit is Rs. 1.5lakhs. If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return on investment is a) 15% b) 10% c) 1.5% d) 150%

25. If an amount R is paid at the end of every year for n years, then the net present value of the annuity at an interest rate i is a) b) c) d)

26. A company has a depreciable investment of Rs. 36,300 which is depreciated in equal installments in two years. Assume that the tax rate is 50% and interest rate is 10%. The net present value of tax that the company would have saved, if it had depreciated 2/3 of the investment in the first year and the rest in the second year, is a) 0 b) 250 c) 375 d) 500

27. In cost estimation, the effect of inflation on equipment cost is taken care of by using a) cost indices b) six-tenths rule c) lang factor d) turnover ratio

28. Book value of equipment is equal to its original price minus a) current value of the equipment b) amount of money obtainable from sale of the equipment c) amount of money spent on its maintenance d) total depreciation charged 29. An investment of Rs. 100lakhs is to be made for construction of a plant which will take two years to start production. The annual profit from operation of the plant is Rs. 20lakhs. What will be the payback time? a) 5 years b) 7 years c) 12 years d) 10 years

30. An investment of Rs. 1000 is carrying an interest of 10% compounded quarterly. The value of the investment at the end of five years will be a) 1000 b) 1000 c) 1000 d) 1000

31. P is the investment made on equipment, S is its salvage value and n is the life of the equipment in years. The depreciation for the mth year by the sum-of-years-digits method will be

a)

b) 1

c)

(P S)

d)

(P S)

32. A torispherical shape, which is often used as the end closure of cylindrical vessels, is formed from part of a (a) and part of a (b) a) (a) cylinder, (b) sphere c) (a) torus, (b) sphere b) (a) cone, (b) sphere d) (a) torus, (b) cone
L

33. In a spherical vessel subjected to internal pressure, the longitudinal stress stress h are related by a)
h

and the circumferential

b)

=2

c)

L/2

d)

34. Breakeven point is the production rate when (a) becomes exactly equal to the (b) a) (a) total product cost, (b) total income from sale of all product b) (a) operating cost, (b) total income from sale of all product c) (a) annual operating cost, (b) annual depreciation charge d) (a) total product cost, (b) net profit

35. A standard type of heat exchanger with a negligible scrap value costs Rs. 40,000 and will have a useful life of 6 years. Assuming an effective compound interest for 10% per year, the capitalized cost of the heat exchanger will be a) Rs. 60,880 b) Rs. 90,880 c) Rs. 91,880 d) Rs. 81,880

36. A reactor having a salvage value of Rs. 10,000 is estimated to have a service life of 10 years. The annual interest rate is 10%. The original cost of the reactor was Rs. 80,000. The book value of the reactor after 5 years using sinking fund depreciation method will be a) Rs. 70,000 b) Rs. 43,186 c) Rs. 53,186 d) 60,186

37. The total capital investment for a chemical plant is Rs. 1,000,000 and the working capital is Rs. 100,000. If a turnover ratio is 1, the gross annual sales will be a) Rs. 800,000 b) Rs. 900,000 c) Rs. 1,000,000 d) Rs. 1,100,000

38. For a typical project, the cumulative cash flow is zero at the a) end of the project life c) start-up b) breakeven point d) end of the design stage

39. In a manufacturing industry, breakeven point occurs when a) the total annual rate of production equals the assigned value b) the total annual product cost equals the total annual sales c) the annual profit equals the expected value d) the annual sale equals the fixed cost 40. In a torus subjected to internal pressure, the circumferential stress a) varies from a maximum at the inner edge to a minimum at the outer edge b) varies from a maximum at the outer edge to a minimum at the inner edge c) passes through maximum between the inner edge and the outer edge d) passes through minimum between the inner edge and the outer edge

41. In a torispherical head (knuckle radius = Rk, crown radius = Rc) subjected to internal pressure, a) the longitudinal stress depends on Rk only and the circumferential stress depends on Rc only b) the longitudinal stress and the circumferential stress depend on both Rk and Rc c) the longitudinal stress depends on Rk only and the circumferential stress depend on both Rk and Rc d) the longitudinal stress depends on both Rc and Rk and the circumferential stress depends on Rc only 42. In a torispherical head subjected to internal pressure, a) the stress in the torus section will be higher than the spherical section b) the stress in the spherical section will be higher than the torus section c) the stress in the torus section and the spherical section will be equal d) the ratio of the knuckle radius to crown radius should be less than 6/100 to avoid buckling 43.The thickness of a flat plate required to resist a given pressure load P is proportional to a) P b) P c) P2 d) 1/P

44. Match the chemicals with material of construction (I) dilute Sulphuric acid (II) concentrated hydrochloric acid (III) wet chlorine (IV) concentrated caustic soda a) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c), (IV)-(d) c) (I)-(c), (II)-(a), (III)-(d), (IV)-(b) (a) Karbate (b) Nickel (c) Lead (d) Titanium b) (I)-(d), (II)-(c), (III)-(b), (IV)-(a) d) (I)-(c), (II)-(b), (III)-(d), (IV)-(a)

45. Match the items given in the left-hand column with appropriate item in the right-hand column (I) Capitalized cost (II) Unamortized value (III) Payout period (IV) cost index (a) comparing alternative investment choices (b) updating cost data of equipment (c) profitability evaluation (d) cost accounting (e) replacement decisions (f) working capital a) (I)-(a), (II)-(e), (III)-(c), (IV)-(b) c) (I)-(f), (II)-(a), (III)-(e), (IV)-(b) b) (I)-(c), (II)-(a), (III)-(e), (IV)-(d) d) (I)-(e), (II)-(a), (III)-(c), (IV)-(b)

46. Each of the methods given in the left-hand column is closely linked to one of the items listed in the right-hand column. Match each method with the corresponding item (I) Discounted cash flow (II) Declining balance (a) Depreciation (b) Payout period (c) Profitability analysis (d) salvage value (e) annuity (f) working capital a) (I)-(b), (II)-(d) b) (I)-(c), (II)- (a) c) (I)-(a), (II)- (c) d) (I)-(e), (II)- (f)

47. The thickness for a flat plate required to resist a given pressure load is a) directly proportional to the effective plate diameter b) directly proportional to the square root of the internal pressure c) inversely proportional to the square root of the maximum allowable stress d) all the above 48. In an ellipsoidal head with major axis 2a and minor axis 2b, the circumferential stress will be negative (compressive) if a) (a/b) > 2 b) (a2/b2) > 2 c) (a/b) > 1 d) (a2/b2) > 4

49. The pitch of tube holes drilled in a cylindrical shell parallel to its axis is unequal. The number of tube holes of diameter d in length p is n, where p is the total length between contres corresponding to n consecutive ligaments. The efficiency J of ligaments is given by a) J = (p d)/p 50. Inflation a) refers to the increase in the prices of goods and services over time b) affects the time value of money c) does not affect the amount of money required to purchase goods and services d) concept is based upon the fact that physical facilities deteriorate and decline in usefulness with time 51. If the rate of inflation is 5% per year and if the cost of an item is Rs. 100, the cost of the item after one year from now will be a) Rs. 105 regardless of the time value of money b) less than Rs .105 depending on the value of money c) more than Rs. 105 depending on the value of money d) Rs. 100 only 52. The volume capacity of 2:1 ellipsoidal head is a) ( /24)Da3 b) ( /12)Da3 c) ( /18)Da3 d) ( /6)Da3 b) J = (p d)/d c) J = (p nd)/p d) J = (p nd)/nd

where Da = major axis of the ellipsoidal head 53. Which of the following methods for economic evaluation of projects do not consider the time value of money? 1) payback period 3) net present worth a) (3), (4) b) (1), (2) 2) return on investment 4) discounted cash flow rate of return c) (1), (4) d) (2), (3)

54. Which of the following methods for economic evaluation of projects consider the time value of money? 1) payback period 3) net present worth a) (1), (4) b) (2), (3) 2) return on investment 4) discounted cash flow rate of return c) (1), (2) d) (3), (4)

55. Discounted cash-flow analysis is used to calculate a) the present worth of future earnings c) the payback period b) the future worth of present investment d) the life of project

56. The ratio of the volume capacity of 2:1 ellipsoidal head to the volume capacity of hemispherical head of diameter equal to the major axis of ellipsoidal head is a) 2 b) c) 3 d) 1/3

57. The ratio of future worth to present worth, when the compounding is continuous at a rate of r per year for N years is equal to a) erN b) ln (rN) c) erN 1 d) 1 + ln (rN)

58. If the effective interest rate ieff is defined as the rate which, when compounded once per year, gives the same amount of money at the end of 1 year, as does the nominal interest rate r compounded m times per year, then a) c) b) d)

59. The future worth F of a present amount of money P with continuous compounding at a nominal rate of r per year for N years is given by a) F = P(1 + r)N b) F = P(1 + rN) c) F = P(1 + erN) d) F = P erN

60. A cash flow of A per year is received in one discrete amount at the end of each year for N years. For an annual interest rate i compounded annually, the present worth of this cash flow at time zero is equal to a) b) c) d)

61. A cash flow of A per year is received in one discrete amount at the end of each year for N years. For an annual interest rate i compounded annually, the future worth of this cash flow at the end of N years is equal to a) b) c) d)

62. The turnover ratio method is a rapid evaluation method suitable for order of magnitude estimates. This ratio is defined by a) turnover ratio = b) turnover ratio = c) turnover ratio = d) turnover ratio =
             

63. Which of the following materials is most suitable for fabrication of pressure vessels? a) aluminum alloy b) plastic c) plain carbon steel d) copper

64. Which one of the following works as the strongest head for pressure vessels? a) Torispherical head c) flat plate and formed flat head b) ellipsoidal head d) hemispherical head