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VITEEE Sample Questions

PART I - PHYSICS 1. Eight charges having the values shown in figure are arranged symmetrically on a circle of radius 0.4m in air. The potential at the centre O is +5C 7C 1C

+15C

+3C

+7C +10C A) 0.507105V 2. B) 6.07105V

5C

C) 60.7105V

D) 6.07104V

In a gravity free region, a positive test charge is placed with zero velocity near a uniformly charged infinite metal sheet. Which of the following statement is correct? A) the test charge will remain at rest B) the test charge will move with constant velocity perpendicular to the plane of the sheet C) the test charge will move with constant velocity parallel to the plane of the sheet D) the test charge will move with constant acceleration

3.

In the circuit below

A) the current through R1 is lower than the current through R2 B) the current through all resistances is equal to 4.5A C) the current through R1 and R2 is higher than the current through R3 D) the current through all resistances is equal to 2A

4.

If a square loop of side a kept in an uniform magnetic field is gradually changed into a circular loop within time t1, then A) the induced emf is non-zero only after the time t > t1 B) the induced emf is non-zero only during the time interval t1 C) the induced emf always remains zero D) there will be induced emf only if there is a change in the magnetic field

5.

In a typical Wheatstones network, the resistances in cyclic order are P = 10, Q = 5, R = 4 and S = 4. For the bridge to balance A) 5 ohm should be connected in parallel with Q B) 10 ohm should be connected in series with P C) 5 ohm should be connected in series with Q D) 4 ohm should be connected in parallel with S

6.

A resistance thermometer, which measures temperature measuring the change in resistance of a conductor, is made of platinum and has a resistance of 50 at 20C. When the device is immersed in a vessel containing melting indium, its resistance increases to 76.8 at _____. [Given : = 3.92 10 3 (C 1 ) ]

A) 147C 7.

B) 175C

C) 157C

D) 162C

An infinitely long solenoid of radius 2cm is uniformly wound with 1mm diameter copper wire in a single layer. If the current carried by the wire is 0.5A, the magnetic field along the axis is approximately A) 500 T B) 6 107T C) 6 104T D) 1 T

8.

A uniform metal ring of area A lying in the x-y plane moves with speed v towards an infinite straight wire carrying current I. Which of the following statement is correct?

y
x

v
I A) an emf will be induced in the ring so that a current is set up in the clockwise direction B) an emf will be induced in the ring so that a current is set up in the anticlockwise direction C) no emf will be induced in the ring D) additional electric charges will be developed on the ring

9.

A given length L of a uniform wire is bent (i) into a single circular turn and (ii) into a coil of n identical circular turns. The ratio of the magnetic fields at the center of the coil when same current is passed through them is A) n : 1 B) 1 : n2 C) n2 : 1 D) 1 : n

10.

Unpolarized light is incident upon three polarizers. The first polarizer has a vertical transmission axis, second has a transmission axis rotated 30 with respect to the first and the third has a transmission axis rotated 75 relative to the first. If the initial light intensity of the beam is Ib, calculate the light intensity after the beam passes through the second polarizer. A)
5 Ib 9 B) 3 Ib 7 C) 5 Ib 7 D) 3 Ib 8

11.

Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 100:1 interfere. The ratio of the intensity between maxima and minima in the pattern is A) 1.69 B) 1.49 C) 1.59 D) 1.80

12.

A screen is separated from a double slit source by 1.20m. The distance between the two slits is 0.030mm. The second order bright fringe (m=2) is measured to be 4.5cm from the centerline. The wavelength of the light is A) 593nm B) 690nm C) 563nm D) 840nm

13.

If a square loop of side a kept in an uniform magnetic field is gradually changed into a circular loop within time t1, then A) the induced emf always remains zero B) the induced emf is non-zero only during the time interval t1 C) the induced emf is non-zero only after the time t > t1 D) there will be induced emf only if there is a change in the magnetic field

14.

In a typical Wheatstones network, the resistances in cyclic order are P = 10, Q = 5, R = 4 and S = 4. For the bridge to balance A) 5 ohm should be connected in parallel with Q B) 10 ohm should be connected in series with P C) 5 ohm should be connected in series with Q D) 4 ohm should be connected in parallel with S

15.

A parallel plate capacitor arrangement as shown in figure is connected to a constant voltage source V. When all the capacitors are filled with vacuum, the capacitances are given to be C1 = C 2 = C 3 = C . If the capacitor C 2 is now filled with a medium of dielectric constant 3 r = , then the total capacitance of the circuit is 2
C1 C2 C3

A)
16.

7 C 5

B)

3 C 2

C)

2 C 3

D)

5 C 7

An AC generator consists of eight turns of wire, each having area A=0.009m2, with a total resistance of 12. The loop rotates in a magnetic field of 0.5T at a constant frequency of 60Hz. The maximum induced emf is A) 134V B) 127V C) 136V D) 143V

17.

The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane is varying according to the relation: = 4t 3 + 5t 2 + 8t + 5 weber. If the resistance of the coil is 3.1, the induced
current through the coil at t = 2s is A) 2.452A B) 2.859A C) 28.59A D) 24.52A

18.

When a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 2 state the wavelength emitted for the first Balmer line is A) 706nm B) 840nm C) 658nm D) 690nm

19.

In Ruby Laser the output is A) a continuous mode of wavelength 5934 C) a continuous mode of wavelength 6934 B) an intense pulse of wavelength 6934 D) an intense pulse of wavelength 5934

20.

Hologram is the resultant of not only the amplitude distribution but also the phase of the object wave. It works based on the principle of A) diffraction C) interference B) total internal reflection D) polarization

PART II CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following curves correctly represents the variation of the 2p orbital wave function with the distance from the nucleus? A) R B) R

r C) D)

2.

Excess bond energy ( AB ) of a heteropolar bond A-B is related to the corresponding Pauling electronegativity difference as A) ( A B ) AB B) ( A B ) ( AB ) C) ( A B ) log ( AB ) D) ( A B ) AB The correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of Rubidium (z = 37) is
2

3.

A) 5, 0, 0, 1/2 4.

B) 5, 1, 0, + 1/2

C) 5, 1, 1, +1/2

D) 6, 0, 0, + 1/2

First ionization enthalpy of group 16 elements are lower than that of group 15 elements because A) Group 15 elements have half-filled stability B) Group 16 elements show poor shielding C) Group 16 elements have half-filled stability D) Group 15 elements show poor shielding

5.

Some of the phosphorous-oxygen bonds in phosphorus pentoxide are attributed to -back bonding. In such -bond A) an empty p orbital on O atom overlaps with a full sp3 orbital on P B) an empty p orbital on O atom overlaps with a full d orbital on P C) a partly filled p orbital on O atom overlaps with a partly filled d orbital on P D) a full p orbital on O atom overlaps with an empty d orbital on P

6.

A compound formed by element A and B, crystallizes in the cubic structure. When atoms of A are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the face centres, the formula of the compound is A) AB B) AB3 C) A3B D) AB2

7.

The coordination number of Co in [Co ( NH 3 ) 4 ( H 2 O) Cl ]Cl 2 is A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8

8.

The absolute configuration of the chiral centers present in meso tartaric acid is A) 1S, 2R B) 1D, 2L C) 1R, 2R D) 1S, 2S

9.

Which of the following compounds exhibits stereo isomerism? A) 3 methylbutanoic acid C) 2 methylbutene 1 B) 3 methylbutene 1 D) 2 methylbutanoic acid

10.

Simple ethers are considered as derivatives of water in which both hydrogen atoms have been replaced with which of the following? A) Alkyl groups B) Nitrile group C) Hydroxyl groups D) Alkoxy groups

11.

A sodium ion is moved out of the lattice of NaCl causing Frenkel defect. The ion is expected to occupy a site with in the NaCl structure and posses a coordination number of A) three B) four C) six D) eight

12.

A compound formed by element A and B, crystallizes in the cubic structure. When atoms of A are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the face centres, the formula of the compound is A) AB B) AB2 C) A3B D) AB3

13.

The coordination number of Co in [Co ( NH 3 ) 4 ( H 2 O) Cl ]Cl 2 is A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8

14.

The reaction A B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B? A)1 hour B) 0.25 hour C) 0.5 hour D) 2 hours

15.

The figure shows the pH values of some substances Baking soda solution Soap Bleach

Lemon Juice Stomach acid Wine

Distilled Water Milk

Sea water

10

11

12

Which of the following statement about the concentration of hydrogen ions is correct? A) It is twice as great in milk as that in lemon juice B) It is 1000 000 times greater in soap than in wine C) It is three times greater in wine than in bleach solution D) It is 1000 times greater in distilled water than in soap 16. E0 (Zn2+/Zn) = 0.762V, E0 (Pb2+/Pb) = 0.126V. If an electrochemical cell involving Zn2+ (1M) Zn and Pb2+ (1M) Pb is set up such that there is spontaneous conversion of chemical energy to electrical energy, the overall emf will be A) +0.636V and zinc will be deposited C) 0.888V and lead will be deposited 17. B) + 0.888V and zinc will be deposited D) 0.636V and lead will be deposited

If the elementary step A to B has a reaction enthalpy of 60 KJ mol1 and an activation energy of 10 KJ mol1, the activation energy of the reverse process B to A is A) 0 KJ mol1 B) 10 KJ mol1 C) 50 KJ mol1 D) 70 KJ mol1

18.

One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly from 0.02 m3 to 0.2 m3 at 300K. The entropy change of the system is (Data: R = 8.3 J K1 mol1) A) zero J K1 B) 83 J K1 C) 19.1 J K1 D) 8.3 J K1

19.

Anisole reacts with a mixture of conc. sulphuric acid and nitric acid to yield A) ortho nitro anisole C) both ortho and para nitro anisole B) para nitro anisole D) meta nitro anisole and ortho anisole
(ii) H

20.

i ) NaBH 4 The product of the reaction CH 3 CO CH 2 COO C 2 H 5 ( + ? is

A) CH3 CH2 CH2 COOC2H5 C) CH3 (OH) CH2 COOC2H5

B) CH3 CH (OH) CH2 COOC2H5 D) CH3 CH2 (OH) CH2 COOC2H5

PART III MATHEMATICS

1. If A and B are two square matrices such that B = A 1 BA , then ( A + B ) is equal to
2

A) 0

B) A 2 + B 2

C) A 2 + 2 AB + B 2

D) A + B

2.

2 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 3 and B = 5 0 k . If B = 10 A 1 , then k equals Let A = 1 1 0 2 3 1

A) 2 3.

B) 1

C) 2

D) 5

The value of for which the system of equations x + y 2 z = 0 , 2 x 3 y + z = 0 , x 5 y + 4 z = is consistent is

A) 1 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2

4.

The region in the Argand plane defined by z 2 i + z + 2i < 5 is the interior of the ellipse with major axis along A) the real axis C) y = x B) y = x D) the imaginary axis
4

5.

The argument of the complex number (1 + i ) is

A) 135 B) 180 C) 45 D) 90

6.

If = + i , where 0 and z 1 2 satisfies the condition that then the set of values of z is A) {z : z = z }

2 z
1 2z

is purely real,

C) {z : z = 1}

1 B) z : z = 2 1 1 D) z : z = and z 2 2

7.

The point (a, 2a) is an interior point of the region bounded by the parabola y 2 = 16 x and the double ordinate through the focus. Then a belongs to the interval A) a < 4 B) a > 4 C) 0 < a < 2 D) 0 < a < 4

8.

If the foci of the ellipse value of b 2 is A) 1

1 x2 y2 x2 y2 + 2 = 1 and the hyperbola = coincide, then the 144 81 25 16 b

B) 5

C) 7

D) 9

9.

A tetrahedron has vertices at O(0,0,0), A(1,2,1), B(2,1,3) and C(1,1,2) then the angle between the faces OAB and ABC will be 19 A) cos 1 35 B) 90 C) 30
17 D) cos 1 31 3 with the positive 4

10.

If the normal to the curve y = f ( x) at the point (3, 4) makes an angle

x-axis, then f ' (3) is equal to

A) 1 11. B) 1
x

C)

4 3

D)

3 4

The maximum value of (1/x) is A) e

e

B) e

1/e

C) (1/e)

D) e

12.

A spherical balloon is expanding. If the radius is increasing at the rate of 2 inches per minute, the rate at which the volume increases (in cubic inches per minute) when the radius is 5 inches is A) 10 B) 50 C) 200
x+ y x

D) 100
x

13.

The maximum degree of x by which determinant is 5 x + 4 y 4 x 2 x divisible 10 x + 8 y 8 x 3 x A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

14.

If is cube root of unity, then 1 + 2 equals

7

A) 128 15.

B) 128

C) 1282

D) 1282

The region in the Argand plane defined by z 2 i + z + 2i < 5 is the interior of the ellipse with major axis along A) y = x C) the real axis B) y = x D) the imaginary axis

16.

If P(x, y) is any point on 16 x 2 + 25 y 2 = 400 and F1 = (3, 0), F2 = (3, 0) and then PF1 + PF2 equals A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12

17.

If P is a point on the rectangular hyperbola x 2 y 2 = a 2 , C is its centre and S,S are the two foci, then SP.SP = A) (CS)2 B) (CP)2 C) 2 D) (SS)2

18.

r r r r r r r r r If a = 6 , b = 8 , c = 2 and a + b + c = 0 , then the value of a b + b c + c a is

A) 52 19.

B) 104

C) 52

D) 104

Let a , b and c be three non-zero and non-coplanar vectors and p , q and r be three vectors given by p = a + b 2 c , q = 3 a 2 b + c and r = a 4 b + 2 c . If the volume of the parallelopiped determined by a , b and c is V1 and that of the parallelopiped determined by p , q and r is V2 , then V2 : V1 is equal to A) 2 : 3

B) 5 : 7

C) 15 : 1

D) 1 : 1

20.

The value of

(cos x ) (cos x sec x + log(cos x ) )dx

sin x cos x 0

is

A) 1

B)

C) 0

D) 1

PART IV BIOLOGY
1. The odd one in the given set of inflorescence is A) Corymb 2. B) Cyathium C) Spadix D) Umbel

Which of the following feature cannot differentiate between chordates and non-chordates? A) Notochord C) Pharyngeal gill slits B) Dorsal nerve cord D) Body cavity or coelom

3.

Arrange the following in the increasing order of taxonomical hierarchy A) sapiens, Homo, Anthropoidea, Theria, Homonidae, Mammalia B) sapiens, Homo, Homonidae, Theria, Anthropoidea, Mammalia C) sapiens, Homo, Homonidae, Anthropoidea, Theria, Mammalia D) sapiens, Homo, Anthropoidea, Homonidae, Theria, Mammalia

4.

Source of energy for Urey-Miller experiment was A) glycine B) UV C) Electric spark D) ATP

5.

Which of the following classification system is based on evolutionary relationships? A) Whittakers system C) Chemotaxonomy B) Phylogenetic classification D) Cytotaxonomy

6.

What increases the frequency of occurrence of a certain variation that arises in a population? A) Fitness to the environment C) Abundance of food B) Increase in the population of the predator D) Decrease in the population of the predator

7.

Sites of glycolysis, TCA cycle and electron transport chain are respectively A) Cytoplasm, mitochondrial matrix & inner membrane of mitochondria B) Outer membrane of mitochondria, mitochondrial matrix & inner membrane of mitochondria C) Cytoplasm, outer membrane of mitochondria & inner membrane of mitochondria D) Cytoplasm, inner membrane of mitochondria & mitochondrial matrix

8.

Regulation of gene expression is controlled by the binding of enhancer/repressor to A) Promoter B) Pribnow box C) TATA box D) Operator

9.

Downs syndrome is due to A) Trisomy of chromosome 21 C) Trisomy of X chromosome B) Deletion of X chromosome D) Trisomy of Y chromosome

10.

The dental arrangement of human is A) 2123 2123 B) 2132 2132 C) 1234 4231 D) 3123 3123

11.

Type of chloroplast seen in Oedogonium A) Reticulate B) Spiral C) Stellate D) Cup shaped

12.

In plants the phenomena of guttation happens through A) Lenticels B) Rootcap C) Stomata D) Hydathodes

13.

The present day classification of viruses is based on A) Genetic material C) Presence or absence of capsule B) Protein Coat D) Shape

14.

Theory of inheritance of acquired characters popularly known as A) Neo-Darwinism B) Lamarkism C) Darwinism D) Neo-lamarkism

15.

Source of energy for Urey-Miller experiment was A) Electric spark B) UV C) glycine D) ATP

16.

Which of the following is the site of protein synthesis? A) Lysosome C) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Ribosome D) Plastids

17.

Cross-overs are characteristic of which stage of prophase I in meiosis A) Zygotene B) Pachytene C) Leptotene D) Diplotene

18.

Which cell gives rise to the zygote in embryo sac? A) Polar nuclei B) Synergids C) Egg cell D) Antipodals

19.

Which one of the following is not a mode of asexual reproduction? A) Binary fission C) Formation of gemmule B) Fusion of gametes D) Vegetative propagation

20.

Basic principle in tissue culture is A) Totipotency B) Water potential C) Growth potential D) Plant potential