Test Paper : I

Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER

Test Subject Code : A-00-01
Test booklet Code : W
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.

(Figures as per admission card)
Hall Ticket No. ___________________________
(In words)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature: ___________________________________
Paper : I
Subject : GENERAL PAPER
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions,
out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50)
questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than
fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate
would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to
open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the Answer
Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,
which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable
to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
., ......:....
1. .,. . ,.. ,.... . ... . .. . . . ..... ......
2. .. .... ... (60) ... .. ..... .. :... .. .... .,.
.. .:, (50) ..... ..:..... ...... .,. .:, .....
... ..... ..:.... ...... ... ..... .:, ..... .....
..:... ..:..... .........
3. .. ..,.... ...... ... ,........ ..... -..
. ,. .... : _..._...... .:. .-. .:.. .-.... .._..:.
.:.:...'-..
(i) .. ...... .:... ..... ..... :. .., '.....
...... . .. '.... ...... ,.... .. :. ........
... ......... .
(ii) ....'.e...._c-....:..-_...-:_.. ._.....'.'..
.-,. . . .:. .. _ .. . .-,. . .:. : ...'-. . '.. .-,. .
.-.-c-....` ..:.-...-,.'_.. ...` ...,..` ..._..
....,..` ._.. .._.......'.` ...,..` .:......-...
.-. .',.,:...._.. ._...-....... .....,.'.:_
.. . _ . ... .:... .... .. .... .:. . _ .. ._... ...'-. .
...-..-_.. ._.....:.........,.... .-......
(iii) . .. ...:.... . .... ..,.. OMR .... .
.. .. OMR .... ..,.. ...... . . , . ...
..... ...
4. . .... .... ..:.. ....... (A), (B), (C) ...... (D)
.. ,... .... ..... ... ....... ... . .. ... ..
OMR ..... . .. ..,.. ,.... .... . . ...
....... .:... . .. ..... .. . .. ... ..
.,.....
.. .- : A B C D
(C) ... ..... ....
5. ..... ........ ...... ,.... OMR .... ..
,.... ... .,... ...... .... ..:.. ... ... ..
... . ..... ..:..... ........
6. .. .... ... ,.. .:..... . ......
7. . . . .. . . .. .. . ,.. , . .. ... . .:..
8. OMR .... . . .... .:....... .... ... ,. ....
. ....,.. .. .. . ... ..... . . ,. ..... .. ..
.... ... . ..... .. .....,...
9. .. .,. .... . . .. . . ..... OMR . ...
.. ....... ,... .. .. . ...... ....... .:....
10. .:...-.... ....-. ...:_..... :.-.:.
11. ..:,...` ... ,.:...` ....,:.....:..............:_.c.'
.. :.-..-.',.-.
12. ....:......:.....-.,.` ...
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1. Teaching is best described as a
(A) Occupation
(B) Vocation
(C) Profession
(D) Career
2. The chief objective of teaching is
(A) Transmission of existing knowledge
(B) Stimulate curiosity of students to
discover knowledge
(C) Help children to do well in
examinations
(D) To facilitate research
3. A Good learner is one who
(A) Listens attentively to teachers
(B) Has a questioning frame of mind
(C) Spends considerable time in library
(D) Prepares well for examination
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1. ..... .... : :. ....:
(A) .. (occupation)
(B) (vocation)
(C) (profession)
(D) .... (career)
2. ..... .. .
(A) .. .. . ....
(B) .. ..... .. .....
..::. ....
(C) . .. .. . . . . . .. . .. ..
. . .
(D) ...... .,...
3. .:... .,.....
(A) . .. .... . ,. :.. . . .
...
(B) .. .. .....
(C) ,.. .. . . . . .. . . .
(D) ... . .......
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GENERAL PAPER
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Paper I
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4. Identify any three factors which contribute
to effective teaching
(i) Art of communication
(ii) Subject mastery
(iii) Smart and handsome looks
(iv) Rapport with students
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
5. Programmed instruction is based on the
principles of learning which is known as
(A) Software learning
(B) Motivation
(C) Reinforcement
(D) Systematic programming
6. Sentence completion tests are objective
type of tests which measure
(A) Recognition ability
(B) Sentence knowledge
(C) Association skill
(D) Recall ability
4. ,.. ..... .. .:.. .....
.. . .
(i) , .. .
(ii) ,.. .
(iii) ., .. ...
(iv) .... ...
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) ..... (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) ..... (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
5. ., .. .:. . .. . . .. . .. ..
..... . ....
(A) ,. .,..
(B) .
(C) ,....
(D) .... ......
6. . ,. .,.. : :. .. ..
.,..
(A) ... ..
(B) . ..
(C) ... .,
(D) . .. .... ..
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7. Three of the following four attributes
characterise research. Identify the one
which is not an attribute of research
(A) Research is purposive
(B) Findings of research can be
generalised for all contexts
(C) Research is logical and objective
(D) Research is based on accurate data
8. Match the following :
I II
(a) Experimental (p) Continuity of
Method observations
over time
(b) Descriptive (q) Internal
Method criticism of data
(c) Historical (r) Stratified
Method sample
(d) Longitudinal (s) Equivalence of
Method groups
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)
(B) (br), (cq), (dp) and (as)
(C) (cp), (dq), (as) and (br)
(D) (dq), (cp), (bs) and (ar)
7. .: .. ..... .:..... ....
.... .... . .. ....
(A) .... ...,...:
(B) .... ,.... . .....:
.......
(C) .... .., ..
(D) .... ,... .. ....
...:
8. .: . ....
I II
(a) . : . (p) .. .. :.
. . .... ..
(b) . . . (q) . . . .
..
(c) .. . . (r) . .. . .:.
(d) :. .. . (s) . .:.. . .
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) ... .. (dp)
(B) (br), (cq), (dp) ..... (as)
(C) (cp), (dq), (as) ... .. (br)
(D) (dq), (cp), (bs) ... .. (ar)
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9. Reorganise the following in an
appropriate sequence
(i) Analysis and interpretation of data
(ii) Preparation of Research Report
(iii) Identification and selection of a
problem
(iv) Formulation of a research design
(v) Collection of data
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) and (v)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (v) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (ii)
10. One of the following behaviour does not
confirm to research ethics. Identify the
behaviour
(A) Copying passages from a book along
with acknowledgement
(B) Arriving at a generalisation which the
researcher feels as truth even though
data do not support it
(C) Formulating hypothesis which is not
confirmed by review of literature
(D) Using statistical techniques in
qualitative research
9. ... ... .: . ....
(i) .. .,, ,
(ii) .... :. .:.
(iii) ... ..,, .
(iv) .... .. .
(v) .. ...
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) ..... (v)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (v) ..... (ii)
(C) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) ..... (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) ..... (ii)
10. .: .... ... .... .. ..:..
.....: ...
(A) .. , . .. . ,,.. .
.... . .... ....
(B) .. ....... ....... ..
.... .. .....
:..
(C) : .. . :, . . . .. . .
. ::. .
(D) .. ..... ,. .. .....
..:..
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11. One of the following forums will be directly
relevant for administrative actions
(A) Seminar
(B) Conference
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium
12. Quality of a good thesis is judged by three
of the following four qualities
(i) Coherence across objectives and
findings
(ii) Consistency between data, analysis
and interpretation
(iii) A comprehensive review of literature
(iv) Number of references cited in the
thesis
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
11. .... ..... .: ,... ... ...
.. :.. :
(A) ....
(B) .. . . .
(C) ..
(D) ... .
12. .. .:.. .. . ... .: ....
:. .:.. .......
(i) ... ,.. .. :.
(ii) .., .,, ,.. .. ..
(iii) : .. ..
(iv) .. .. .. .:, ....
.,
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) ..... (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) ..... (iv)
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Read the following passage and answer
question numbers from 13 to 18 :
Often, as I (Nehru) wandered from meeting to
meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India
of ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old
Sanskrit name derived from the mythical
founder of the race.
Sometimes as I reached a gathering, a
great roar of welcome would greet me : Bharat
Mata Ki Jai Victory to Mother India. I would
ask them unexpectedly what they meant by that
cry, who was this Bharat Mata, Mother India,
whose victory they wanted ? My question would
amuse them and surprise them, and then, not
knowing exactly what to answer they would
look at each other and at me. I persisted in my
questioning. At last a vigorous Jat, wedded to
the soil from immemorial generations, would
say that it was the dharti, the good earth of India,
that they meant. What earth ? Their particular
village patch, or all the patches in the district
or province, or in the whole of India ? And so
question and answer went on, till they would
ask me impatiently to tell them all about it. I
would endeavour to do so and explain that India
was all this that they had thought, but it was
much more. The mountains and the rivers of
India, and the forests and the broad fields,
which gave us food, were all dear to us, but
what counted ultimately were the people of
India, people like them and me, who were
spread out all over this vast land. Bharat Mata,
Mother India, was essentially these millions of
people, and victory to her meant victory to these
people. You are parts of this Bharat Mata, I told
them, you are in a manner yourselves, Bharath
Mata and as this idea slowly soaked into their
brains, their eyes would light up as if they had
made a great discovery.
.: . .: 13 . .. 18 . . . . . .. .
.:.... ....
..: .. ., ... .. .,.. : . .,. . (.::;
.... .. : ..: ..., :... ...,
,... : .. .:.,..,... . . ...
.. .. ,... ... ....
. .. ... .,.. .... ... .:
,. : . . . .,..... . ......
: ... .. ..., .. . . .. . .. . ...
. ,.: . ....... . ....
... . ... .:.... . . ..
...:, ... ....:, . .:..
.. .. .... . ..... .:......., .
, .:... ... . . ....:. ..... ...
.. .:... .., .. ... .. ....
,:. ..... .... ,:. . .:..
. . .. . .. .. .... : . . : .. .. ... ..
,:. . .. .. . .. .., .,..,
.. ,..... .. ,:. ,. . ..:
....: ...., . .. . . . :. . ...
. . . . .. . . :. . . . . .
... ... . .. ,. . . .. :, .:, . .. .. . ,
. ... .. .. .:. .. ,....
..:, ....:, ..,.:, .... .. ....
. ..: . .... ..... . ....
.., ,. ..., : .... ,:... .
.. ... , ... . . ,. : .. : . .:
.... ,.:.. ... .. : ..... ....
,. : . ,.. .. .. .. . . .. ,. : . :
.... .. ... ..... ..... . ..
,.: ........ ..... .....
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13. How did people greet Nehru when he went
to address them ? They greeted him with
(A) Bharat Mata Ki Jai
(B) Victory to Mother India
(C) Jai Bharat Mata Ki
(D) Victory to Bharat Mata
14. Who was the person that gave the reply :
Bharat Mata means Dharti ?
(A) everybody (B) a Jat
(C) a stranger (D) Nehru himself
15. When the villagers were questioned on
their concept of Dharti, one of the
following answers was not included
(A) Village patch
(B) All patches of the district
(C) Mother Earth
(D) Whole of India
16. Which part of Dharti gives us food ?
(A) Mountains (B) Rivers
(C) Forests (D) Broad fields
17. Victory to Bharat Mata means, victory to
(A) People of the village
(B) All the people of India
(C) Millions of people
(D) Freedom fighters of India
18. What was the great discovery made by the
villagers ?
(A) We are all Bharat Mata
(B) Mother Earth is Bharat Mata
(C) Mountains, rivers, forests and fields
are Bharat Mata
(D) The good earth of India is Bharat Mata
13. ....... .... .::
.... . ...... ...
(A) ,. : . .
(B) .. .. ... ..:
(C) . ,. : .
(D) .. .. ,. :
14. ,. : .. , :. . . : .. . . .
(A) ...: (B) .. ..
(C) .. ..... (D) .::..
15. ,:. .. .. ..... . ....
.: .. ... ...
(A) . ,: ,
(B) ... ,: ,.
(C) ,: :
(D) .. ,. ..
16. .... .. ,:. , :
(A) ...
(B) .....
(C) ..,..
(D) .... ...
17. ,. : . . .. ... ..
(A) . ....
(B) ,. .....
(C) ..: ....
(D) ,. .. .:.....
18. . .. .. . . .. .. ,. . ..
(A) ,. : .. ......:
(B) :,:. ,.:
(C) ..., ....., ..,.., ...
,.:
(D) ,. .., .. ,.:
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19. Effective classroom communication of a
teacher depends upon three of the
following four qualities. They are
(i) Content mastery
(ii) Clarity in language teaching
(iii) Consistency in presentation
(iv) Completing portions in time
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii), (iv) and (i)
20. Three of the following four attributes of a
teacher will become barriers in effective
communication. Identify them
(i) Pronunciation of the teacher
(ii) Caste status of a teacher
(iii) Facial expressions of the teacher
(iv) Choice of words
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. Match the following behaviours of teachers
with their communication-type
Behaviours Type
(a) Teacher asks a (p) Symbolic
question
(b) Teacher writes a (q) Digital
diagram on the
black board
(c) Teacher shows a (r) Written
CD to children
(d) Teacher beckons (s) Oral
a student to draw a
graph on the black
board
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)
(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) and (dq)
(C) (as), (br), (cq) and (dp)
(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) and (ds)
19. . :. ..... ,.. ,
.. : .: .... ... .:..
.... ...:
(i) ,.. .
(ii) ...,,. .,
(iii) .. .... :.
(iv) . :. .... ,. ....
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) ..... (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv) ..... (i)
20. ,.. , ... ...... .:
.... ... .:.. ......, .
(i) ..... ...
(ii) ..... ... :.
(iii) ..... ..,.....
(iv) .. .
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) ..... (i)
(D) (i), (ii) ..... (iv)
21. .: ...... ..... .
,... ... .. . ....
_...... .. .
(a) ....... (p) ..
. ......
(b) .... (q) . ...
.......
...
(c) ....... (r) ., ,..
.... .. ..
.:..
(d) ....... (s) .,.
.. ....
.. ,
... . ...
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) ..... (dp)
(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) ..... (dq)
(C) (as), (br), (cq) ..... (dp)
(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) ..... (ds)
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22. The technique adopted to find out the level
of acceptabi l i ty of an i ndi vi dual by
members of a group is
(A) Personality testing
(B) Projective techniques
(C) Psychometry
(D) Sociometry
23. Some of the following constraints are
faced by first generation learners in
college and university. Identify them.
(i) Sub-optimal command over English
Language
(ii) Divergences in pronunciation of words
(iii) Not being pro-active in conversations
(iv) Not having proper height and weight
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (iv), (i) and (ii)
24. Who among the following distinguished
scholars is considered as the father of
communication science ?
(A) B. F. Skinner
(B) Jerome Bruner
(C) Wilbur Schramm
(D) Kurt Lewin
25. In a certain code CLOCK is KCOLC. How
is STEPS written in the same code ?
(A) SPEST (B) SPSET
(C) SPETS (D) SEPTS
22. .. . .: :. ., ... .. . . ..
... ....... .... .
(A) . .
(B) . ....
(C) .. .,. .
(D) ,.. .
23. . .... :, . ... ... : . .
., .. ... . ... . . . ... . .
...... . ....
(i) .,, . .:.. ...
(ii) .. .... ,.
(iii) .,,. ..:.. ... .
(iv) . :, ..., .. .
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) ..... (i)
(D) (iv), (i) ..... (ii)
24. .: .... ..... ..:.,. ..
,.. . ..
(A) ..,. ...
(B) ... .:..
(C) .. ..
(D) .. ..
25. .. . ... CLOCK KCOLC .,.:
.. ... STEPS .. . ...
(A) SPEST (B) SPSET
(C) SPETS (D) SEPTS
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26. In the sequence of numbers
5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, ....
the value of X is
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 23
(D) 29
27. The letters in the first set have certain
relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, make the right choice for
the second set
BF : GK : : LP : ?
(A) JK
(B) QU
(C) VW
(D) RQ
28. Select the pair of words which is different
from the others
(A) Hard and soft
(B) Hot and cold
(C) Come and arrive
(D) Right and wrong
29. In an examination 25% of the candidates
failed in Mathematics and 12% in English.
If 10% of the candidates failed in both the
subjects and 292 passed in both the
subjects, the total number of candidates
appeared in the examination was
(A) 300
(B) 400
(C) 460
(D) 500
26. 5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89,.... ..
.,. .... X ..
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 23
(D) 29
27. .... .... ..... .. ... .:. .
.. . .. . .. . . . ... . . ... .
.. . ....
BF : GK : : LP : ?
(A) JK
(B) QU
(C) VW
(D) RQ
28. .. .. .. .. ,... .. ...
.. . .
(A) .,, ...
(B) .,, ..
(C) .., ...
(D) .,
29. .. . . 25% ., . . .. .
.. . . . .. :. ., 12% . . .. . . . .. :. ..
10% .. . .. . . . .. . . . . : .. . . .. 292
.: ... ......: ......... ..
. ... .,... .,
(A) 300
(B) 400
(C) 460
(D) 500
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30. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6 and 7584 = 6, what is
9236 ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
31. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T were
travelling in a car. There were two ladies
in the group. Of the three who knew car
driving, one was a lady. There was one
couple, of which only the wife could drive
the car. P is brother of S. Q, wife of S, drove
at the beginning. T drove at the end.
Who was the other lady in the group ?
(A) T
(B) S
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
32. All the students are boys. All boys are
dancers. Which of the following inferences
definitely follows from the above two
statements ?
(A) All dancers are boys
(B) All boys are students
(C) All dancers are students
(D) All students are dancers
33. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle
a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a
square, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle (B) Circle
(C) Point (D) Triangle
30. 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6 ....
9236 = ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
31. P, Q, R, S, T .. ..... . .. . . . .. .. .. ..
.:...... .. ... '.... ... ...
.. .. . .. .. . . ' . . .. ,., . . .. .:.
: ... ,... :. .........
P S . . . . .. .. Q S . . ,. . . .
. , . .. . . . :. T . .. .. . . . . ..
: ..::. .. '. ..
(A) T (B) S
(C) R (D) ..... ...
32. ......: ...... ......: .....
... .... ... ,... .:
(A) .....: .....
(B) ......: .....
(C) .....: .....
(D) ......: ....
33. :. . .. .:, .. . ,,
.. . ,. . . .:, . . .. . .:
....... .. .. ...
(A) :. .... (B)
(C) ..., (D) .
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34. Manisha is eleventh from either end of a
row of girls. How many girls are there in
that row ?
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 22
35. A student who completes any graduate
studies course shall develop three of the
following four essential attributes. They are
(i) A questioning frame of mind
(ii) Skills of survey techniques
(iii) Good communication skills
(iv) Sensitivity to social problems
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (i), (iv) and (ii)
36. There are 600 students in a college. 325
are boys and 275 are gi rl s, each
represented by a big circle, out of which
50 boys and 40 girls are from rural areas,
represented by a small circle. Which of the
following diagram best represents the
distribution in the college ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
OR
34. .. .... .... ., ..... ....
...:. . .... .: ........
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 22
35. . .. .. .. . ,. . .. ..
.: .... ... .. .:.. .,:
...... .
(i) .. ..
(ii) .. ... .,
(iii) .. , ... ....
(iv) :.. .... . ... .,
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) ..... (i)
(D) (i), (iv) ..... (ii)
36. .. .... 600 ......... 325 .:
....., 275 .: ...... ....., ......
... :. .... . 50 .:,
..... 40 .: . . .:....
. ... .. .:.. . ..:. . :
... .... .... ...
... . :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
. .
*A0001* W
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15 A-00-01
For visually handicapped candidates :
36. Data in tables of a research report show
that 20 out of 60 students in the first year
of B.A. class of a college are girls. On a
particular day of visit it is observed that 12
students are absent of whom 08 are girls.
Attendance behaviour is poorer among girls
than others. This observation is a case of
(A) Deductive logic
(B) Transductive logic
(C) Inductive logic
(D) Inferential logic
37. Which of the following sources of data
can be classified as a primary source of
data ?
(A) Data available in UGC reports
(B) Data collected by interviews of UGC
experts
(C) Data available from socio-cultural
tables of census of India, 2011
(D) Data on Educated unemployment
available in Directorate of
Employment and Training
.,.'.-.......'.-
36. .. .. . . :. . . . . . . ..
.... ... ,. . .: 60 .:
.... 20 .: .... .,:. .....
..... .. . :.. 12 .: .....
......... .... 08 .: .......
... ..:. .... .. .....
... . . . . , :... , .:. : .. . .
:. ..:.. .. ......
(A) .. . (Deductive logic)
(B) .... .
(C) ... . (Inductive logic)
(D) . . . .. .
37. .: .. .... .. ,.. ...
.....:
(A) ..... :.. .,... ..
(B) ..... ,.. ..:. ..
..... ..
(C) ,. ..., 2011 :....
... ... .,... ..
(D) .:, . ...... ..... ...
., .. . . .. . . .. ... .
..:.. ..
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38. External and internal criticism of data is a
standard measure engaged for validation
of data in
(A) Historical Research
(B) Philosophical Research
(C) Descriptive Research
(D) Experimental Research
39. Identify the parameter which does not
measure central tendency among the
following parameters
(A) Statistical mean
(B) Arithmetic mean
(C) Mode
(D) Average deviation
40. Which of the following is not a measure of
dispersion ?
(A) Quartile Deviation
(B) Standard Deviation
(C) Kurtosis
(D) Chi-square
38. .. .... .:, .. .. : ..
.:.... :. ..:.
(A) ... ....
(B) .. ....
(C) ... ....
(D) .:. ....
39. . : .. .. . :. . .. ..
.. . .
(A) ,. ...
(B) .. ...
(C) .:..
(D) ... ...
40. .: .. . :. .:
(A) .... ...
(B) :. ...
(C) ....
(D) . ..
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41. The Uni verse for a research study
comprises of 60000 students from rural
and urban colleges, boys and girls,
students of various social groups. Identify
the best method of sampling.
(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
42. Identify the verbal test from the given
standard tests used i n educati onal
research
(A) Make a Picture Story Test (MAPS)
(B) Kohs Block Design Test
(C) Attitude scale
(D) Ravens Progressive Matrices
43. Match the following activities :
I II
(a) Print media (p) Kuchipudi
Dance
(b) Electronic (q) Telugu
media News Paper
(c) Folk media (r) Tele conferencing
by IGNOU
(d) Mass media (s) Street plays
(A) (aq) (br) (cs) (dp)
(B) (ar) (bp) (cq) (ds)
(C) (aq) (br) (dp) (cs)
(D) (aq) (br) (cp) (ds)
41. .. .... ..... .. . (universe)
.. ., . .... ...,...
. :.. ..:.... .:. 60000 .:
.. ...... ... .... (sampling)
. ....
(A) ... ,.. .... (purposive
sampling)
(B) ... ....
(stratified sampling)
(C) .. ....
(Quota sampling)
(D) ... .:... ....
(stratified random sampling)
42. . ..... ..:. :. .,.
... .,.. .....
(A) ... .,.. .:.. .. . (MAPS)
(B) . .. ... .
(C) ,. :
(D) .. . :...
43. .: .... ....
I II
(a) ... : . :.. (p) . :. ,. .
(b) . . . : . :.. (q) .. . . .
(c) .. . : . :.. (r) IGNOU
. ... .
(d) .. : . :.. (s) : .....
(A) (aq), (br), (cs), (dp)
(B) (ar), (bp), (cq), (ds)
(C) (aq), (br), (dp), (cs)
(D) (aq), (br), (cp), (ds)
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44. 2 GB RAM, 3MB RAM, are common terms
used while checking on the efficiency of a
computer. RAM means
(A) Read All Materials
(B) Random Access Materials
(C) Random Access Memory
(D) Reliable Access Memory
45. You need to send an executive summary
of 12 pages of a report of 120 pages on
ICT in college education to 20 experts in
the field by E-Mail. Identify the appropriate
sequence from the following steps
(i) E-Mail Id
(ii) Attachment
(iii) Send
(iv) Compose
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv) , (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
(D) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)
46. Information Technology is the generic
name performing the following functions
(A) Data storage
(B) Data retrieval
(C) Data communication
(D) All of above
44. 2 GB RAM, 3MB RAM .. . ,..
.. .... .... . ..
.,,... RAM ..
(A) .. .. ......
(B) ... .:.. ......
(C) ... .:.. ....
(D) ....... .:.. ....
45. ... .. -.. .. 120 .. :..
12 .. ..:. .. : .. 20
.: ,.... , ..... .. ..
.: .. .... .: ....
(i) ..... -.
(ii) .....
(iii) ..
(iv) . .
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(B) (iv) , (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i) ..... (ii)
(D) (iv), (ii), (i) ..... (iii)
46. .: .:..... .:. . .. ..
..,. ....
(A) .. ..
(B) .. . ..
(C) .. .
(D)
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19 A-00-01
47. Information is stored in a computer in
(A) Random Access Memory
(B) CD-ROM
(C) Read Only Memory
(D) All of above
48. The best economic method of Data
Processing is
(A) Batch processing
(B) Transaction processing
(C) Distributed processing
(D) Real time processing
49. Of the total energy consumption in India,
domestic consumption is in the range of
(A) 10 to 15 percent
(B) 25 to 40 percent
(C) 40 to 60 percent
(D) 60 to 70 percent
50. Identify from the following the disease
which is independent of pollution
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Bronchitis
(C) Peptic ulcer
(D) Gastroenteritis
47. .,... .:.. ... .. ...
(A) ... .:.. ....
(B) .. ...
(C) .. . ....
(D)
48. .. .... . ... .
(A) .. ..
(B) ... ..
(C) ...:.. ..
(D) .... . ..
49. ,. . . .. . .:. : .
...... .: : .:. ...:
(A) 10 ... 15 .
(B) 25 ... 40 .
(C) 40 ... 60 .
(D) 60 ... 70 .
50. .: ... ..... ... . .
.. . .
(A) . .
(B) .... (.....;
(C) ..., ..... ,..
(D) .. . .
W *A0001*
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51. Identify the fossil fuels from the following
contributors to global warming
(i) Coal
(ii) Oil
(iii) Gas
(iv) Bio-waste
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
52. Match the following :
I II
(a) Hydro-Electric (p) Depleting
source of source of
Energy raw material
(b) Solar Energy (q) Expensive per
unit cost
(c) Thermal Energy (r) Difficult to get
raw materials
(d) Nuclear Energy (s) Sustainable
source
(A) (aq) (br) (cs) (dp)
(B) (ar) (bs) (cp) (dq)
(C) (aq) (bs) (cp) (dr)
(D) (ar) (bp) (cs) (dq)
53. Identify the chief sources of pollution from
the following :
(A) Autori ckshaws, l orri es and coal
operated trains
(B) Food, air and water
(C) Uncovered sewage tracks, tank-beds
of stagnant ponds and public wells
(D) Hotels, hospitals and cremation
grounds
51. , : . .. (Global warming)
:.,.. .:.. ... ...
(i) . .
(ii) .....
(iii) .:. ...,
(iv) . . ....
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) ..... (i)
(D) (i), (ii) ..... (iv)
52. .: . ....
I II
(a) .. .. .. ... (p) ... ......
... .
(b) . . . (q) ..:. ..
,.. ..
(c) ,.. .. (r) ...
.......
.:. .
.,
(d) .. .. (s) .,
...
(A) (aq), (br), (cs), (dp)
(B) (ar), (bs), (cp), (dq)
(C) (aq), (bs), (cp), (dr)
(D) (ar), (bp), (cs), (dq)
53. .: .. .. ..., ...... ....
(A) ....., ...., .. . ..
(B) ..., ., .
(C) .:.. . .... ... .., .. .. ..
..., ..., ...,..
(D) :.., ......, ..:. ....
*A0001* W
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21 A-00-01
54. The slogan A tree for each child was
coined for
(A) Social Forestry Programme
(B) Clean Air Programme
(C) Social Conservation Programme
(D) Environmental Protection Programme
55. Identify any three common problems of
distance education courses from the
following :
(i) Study materi al s are not easi l y
available
(ii) Study centres are not adequately
equipped
(iii) Academic guidance and counselling
by expert teams is inadequate
(iv) There is no regular personal contact
with teachers
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
56. Corporate Governance in Higher
Education means
(A) Governance of Colleges/Universities
by Corporate Houses (industries)
(B) Participation of university faculty in
governance of Colleges/Universities
(C) Inclusion of Corporate Houses as
members on governing councils of
Colleges/Universities
(D) Financing of Universities/Colleges by
Corporate Houses
54. . . . .. . .. .. .. . . . ..
..
(A) :.. ..,. ....
(B) .... . ....
(C) :.. .. ....
(D) .. .. ....
55. . :. ... ... . ... .:. . ..
...... .:. ... ....
(i) ..... . .. ., ...
(ii) ..... .... . .. .
.. ... .
(iii) ,.. .. .. .. :....,
..... . ., ...
(iv) ..... ...... . ...
. . .
(A) (i), (ii) ..... (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) ..... (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) ..... (i)
(D) (i), (ii) ..... (iv)
56. .. .. .... .. ..
(A) . ....,. ... :.. . .. ..
.:.:... .:..
(B) .....,....:. ...
..... ... ..: ,.
(C) .....,....:. .. ....
.. .. . :. :... . ., . .. .
(D) . ....,. ... :.. . ....
.... ... ..... .:..
W *A0001*
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22 A-00-01
57. The famous statement Tolerance, Humanism
and Universal Reason are the values
symbolised by University Education was
made by
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Dr. D.C. Kothari
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
58. Identify the pure discipline of knowledge
as against applied disciplines
(A) Medical Education
(B) Technical Education
(C) Management Education
(D) General Education
59. ICSSR means
(A) Indian Centre for Science and Society
Research
(B) Indian Council of Social Sciences
Research
(C) Indian Conference of Social Sciences
Research
(D) Indian Council for Science, Society
and Rehabilitation
60. NAAC means
(A) National Assessment and
Accreditation Council
(B) National Assessment and
Accreditation Centre
(C) National Aviation and Aeronautics
Centre
(D) National Accreditation and
Accountability Council
57. .:., :., ... .,.. ..
. ... . . . . . . . .. .. .. .
:...:
(A) ..:
(B) .. .... ...
(C) .:.. .::
(D) . .. ., ..
58. .. . . ... . . .,. .. . . . .. . . . .
.. .,
(A) ..
(B) .. .
(C) ..... .
(D) .. .
59. ICSSR ..
(A) .... ... ,. .. .. .. ...
(B) .... .. ., ,. ... ...
(C) .... .... ., ,. ... ...
(D) . . .. .. ,. . . , . . ..
.....,.
60. NAAC ..
(A) .,.. ..... .. ....,. ..
(B) .,.. ..... .. ....,. ...
(C) .,.. ..,. .. .... ...
(D) .,.. ....,. .. ...... ..
___________________
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23 A-00-01
Space for Rough Work
W *A0001*
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24 A-00-01
Space for Rough Work
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY
1 C 26 B 51 A
2 B 27 B 52 C
3 B 28 C 53 A
4 C 29 B 54 D
5 C 30 A 55 A
6 D 31 C 56 B
7 B 32 D 57 C
8 B 33 C 58 D
9 D 34 C 59 B
10 B 35 C 60 A
11 C 36 D
12 A 37 B
13 A 38 A
14 B 39 D
15 C 40 D
16 D 41 D
17 B 42 C
18 A 43 D
19 A 44 C
20 C 45 B
21 C 46 D
22 D 47 C
23 A 48 A
24 C 49 A
25 C 50 C
PAPER I (GENERAL PAPER )
(W SERIES)
Test Paper : II
Test Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Test Subject Code : A-16-02
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.

(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : II
Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top
of this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet
given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in
the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
., ......:....
1. .,. . ,.. ,.... . ... . .. . . . ..... ......
2. .. .... .:, .... .. ..... .. :...
3. .. ..,.... ...... ... ,........ ..... -..
. ,. .... : _..._...... .:. .-. .:.. .-.... .._..:.
.:.:...'-..
(i) .. ...... .:... ..... ..... :. .., '.....
...... . .. '.... ...... ,.... .. :. ........
... ......... .
(ii) ....'.e...._c-....:..-_...-:_.. ._.....'.'..
.-,. . . .:. .. _ .. . .-,. . .:. : ...'-. . '.. .-,. .
.-.-c-....` ..:.-...-,.'_.. ...` ...,..` ..._..
....,..` ._.. .._.......'.` ...,..` .:......-...
.-. .',.,:...._.. ._...-....... .....,.'.:_
.. . _ . ... .:... .... .. .... .:. . _ .. ._... ...'-. .
...-..-_.. ._.....:.........,.... .-......
(iii) . .. ... : .... . .. . . ..,.. OMR . . .. .
.. .. OMR .... ..,.. .. .... . . , . ... ........
4. . .... .... ..:.. ....... (A), (B), (C) ...... (D)
.. ,... .... ..... ... ....... ... . .. ... ..
OMR ..... . .. ..,.. ,.... .... . . ...
....... .:... . .. ..... .. . .. ... ..
.,.....
.-. .- : A B C D
(C) ... ..... ....
5. ..... ........ ...... ,.... OMR .... ..
,.... .. . .,... ...... .... ..:.. ... ... ..
... . ..... ..:..... ........
6. .. .... ... ,.. .:..... . ......
7. . . . .. . . .. .. . ,.. , . .. ... . .:..
8. OMR .... . . .... .:....... .... ... ,. ....
. ....,.. .. .. . ... ..... . . ,. ..... .. ..
.... ... . ..... .. .....,...
9. .. .,. .... . . .. . . ..... OMR . ...
......... ,... .. .. . ...... ....... .:....
10. .:.. .-........-....:_..... :.-.-:.
11. ...,... ...,.:... ....,... ................:.:_.:.'
.. :.-..-.,.-.
12. .._..:.-.-....:..... -.,. ...
II 1 A-16-02
*A1602*
II 2 A-16-02
*A1602*
II 3 A-16-02
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Paper II
1. If ABCD is a rectangle of size 1 X 2, then
the angle between the diagonals AC and
BD is
(A) Cos
1
(1/5)
(B) Cos
1
(2/5)
(C) Cos
1
(3/5)
(D) Cos
1
(4/5)
2. If A =

b 3
2 a
has eigen values 2, 3, then
a, b are
(A) 2, 3 (B) 4, 1
(C) 6, 1 (D) 5, 0
3. If

= 0 dr . of

over a closed curve, then

(A) f

= 0 (B)

. f

= 0
(C) f

2
= (D) f

=
4. If f

is a vector of constant magnitude, then

f

d
/dt =
(A) f

(B) 0
(C) normal to f

(D) k f

5. If f(z) = 1/(1 cos z), then the singularity

z=0 is of order
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
6. If A =

4 0
2 1
, A = B + C where B is
symmetric, C is skew symmetric, then B =
(A)

2 1
1 1
(B)

4 1
1 1
(C)

2 1
1 2 / 1
(D)

1 1
1 2
7. = + + + ...
5
1
3
1
1
2 2
(A) 4 / (B) 8 /
2

(C) (D)
2

8. If

<
0 or 1
0 or 1
x f
x f
, f(x) is expanded
in sine series as f(x) =
n
b sin nx, then b
1
=
(A) 1/ (B) 2 /
(C) 4 / (D) 0
9. If f(x) = x for 0 x 2, f(x) is expanded in
Fourier series, then the constant term in
the series is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
10. y
+ y= sin2x, then the particular integral
of the solution is
(A) sin2x / 3 (B) cos2x / 3
(C) 2 /3 sin2x (D) 1/ 3 sin2x
*A1602*
II 4 A-16-02
11. The di stri buti on whose mean and
variance are equal is
(A) Binomial (B) normal
(C) poisson (D) uniform
12. If f(z) is expanded in Taylor series, then
the region of convergence is
(A) annular
(B) circular
(C) entire
(D) upper half of z plane
13. If f(z) = 1/(z a), then the integral dz ) z ( of

over the circle |z a| = 1 is

(A) 2i (B) 2i
(C) i (D) 0
14. If y + y/x = x, then the integrating factor of
the equation is
(A) e
x
(B) x
(C) 1/x (D) Log x
15. If the solutions of a differential equation
are nonintersecting, then the differential
equation could be
(A) exact (B) homogeneous
(C) nonlinear (D) linear
16. A particle moving under the action of
central force, the parameter which remain
constant is
(A) Potential energy
(B) Total energy
(C) Angular momentum
(D) None of the above
17. Compound pendulum is a perfectly rigid
body oscillating under the force of gravity
about
(A) Horizontal axis which does not pass
through the center of gravity
(B) Horizontal axis which passes through
the center of gravity
(C) Vertical axis passing through the
center of gravity
(D) None of the above
18. div B=0, imply that
(A) Magnetic monopoles only occur
(B) Magnetic dipoles only occur
(C) Electric mono and dipole occur
(D) None of the above
19. . B o

ds = 0, imply
(A) Gausss law of electrostatics
(B) Gausss law of magnetism
(C) Gausss law of dielectrics
(D) None of the above
20. Wave packets represent particles having
precise values of
(A) Momentum and energy
(B) Position and momentum
(C) Time and energy
(D) None of the above
21. In a quantum oscillator, there is a finite
probability of finding the particle outside the
(A) Parabolic potential barrier
(B) Potential well
(C) Potential hill
(D) None of the above
22. A nibble consist of
(A) Two bits (B) Four bits
(C) Eight bits (D) Sixteen bits
*A1602*
II 5 A-16-02
23. The diffusion capacitance of a p-n junction
is
(A) Inversely proportional to life time of
carriers
(B) Directly proportional to life time of
carriers
(C) Independent of life time of carriers
(D) None of the above
24. Relativistic kinetic energy is the sum of
(A) Non relativistic kinetic energy and rest
mass
(B) Non relativistic kinetic energy and
potential energy
(C) Sum of the squares of non relativistic
kinetic energy and potential energy
(D) None of the above
25. An autonomous non conservative system
is said to be dissipative, then the vibration
is known as
(A) Damped vibration
(B) Un-damped vibration
(C) Self oscillatory
(D) None of the above
26. Lagrange s equati on of moti on i s
described by
(A) Second order differential equation
(B) Energy consideration not by force
(C) Hamiltons principle of conservative
system
(D) All the above
27. In the rel ati vi sti c general i sati on of
Newtons laws
(A) Fourth component of force and
momentum must be introduced
(B) Differentiation cannot be performed
with respect to time
(C) Both A and B are to be considered
(D) None of the above
28. Ti me dependent Schrodi nger wave
equation is not relativistically invariant, since
(A) It has first derivative in time
(B) Second deri vati ve i n space
coordinates
(C) It is relativistically invariant
(D) Both A and B
29. Heisenberg uncertainty principle may be
applied to
(A) Determine ground state of Hydrogen
atom
(B) Determine width of spectral line
(C) Prove the non-existence of electrons
in nucleus
(D) All the above
30. The total energy or Hamiltonian of a
poly-atomic molecule is given by
(A) Translational energy
(B) Vibrational energy
(C) Rotational energy
(D) Sum of the all the above energies
31. The Fermi energy level in a semiconductor
changes with
(A) n type doping
(B) p type doping
(C) concentration of doping
(D) all the above
32. Ideal operational amplifier has
i) High input impedence
ii) High output impedence
iii) Infinite loop gain
(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong
(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong
(C) i) and iii) are correct, ii) is wrong
(D) ii) is correct, i) and iii) are wrong
*A1602*
II 6 A-16-02
33. Choose the correct options from the following:
i) Weighted resistor and R-2R ladder
networks are D/A techniques
ii) Dual sl ope and successi ve
approximation are A/D techniques
iii) Thermocouple and piezo-electric
devices are passive transducers
(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong
(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong
(C) iii) and i) are correct, ii) is wrong
(D) i) , ii) , iii) are correct
34. Identify the order of invention of the
following:
(A) BJT, Diode, FET, Microprocessor
(B) Diode, BJT, FET, Microprocessor
(C) BJT, Diode, Microprocessor, FET
(D) Diode, FET, BJT, Microprocessor
35. Assertion A : Ge, Si cannot be used to
construct LEDs
Reason R : Their E
g
is small
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
36. Choose the correct options from the following:
i) The maximum energy of a free electron
at 0 K is E
f
ii) The average energy of a free electron
at 0 K is (3/5) E
f
iii) The most probable energy of electron
in conduction band of semiconductor
is () KT above the bottom of the band
(A) i) and ii) are correct, iii) is wrong
(B) ii) and iii) are correct, i) is wrong
(C) iii) and i) are correct, ii) is wrong
(D) i) , ii) , iii) are correct
37. SIM refers to
(A) Select interrupt mask
(B) Sorting interrupt mask
(C) Set interrupt mask
(D) None of the above
38. The storage cell in an S RAM is
(A) A flip-flop
(B) A capacitor
(C) A fuse
(D) A magnetic domain
39. The time taken for the data to appear at
the data output of ROMchip after an
address is applied at the address input
lines is
(A) Write time (B) Recycle time
(C) Refresh time (D) Access time
40. Assertion A : The conducting walls of the
wave guide confine the
el ectromagneti c fi el ds
and thereby gui de the
electromagnetic wave
Reason R : When the waves travel
longitudinally down the
guide, the plane waves are
reflected from wall to wall
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) Both A and R are true
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) Both A and R are false
41. Luminescence is because of
(A) Photons emi tted whi l e exci ted
electrons drops down
(B) Knocking out of electrons by photons
(C) Photons stimulated by photons
(D) All
*A1602*
II 7 A-16-02
42. Fluorescence occurs within
(A) 10
5
s (B) 10
5
ms
(C) 10
5
s (D) 10
5
ns
43. The ratio of conduction current density to
displacement current density is
(A) / (B) /
(C) / (D) /
44. The depth of penetration of EM wave in a
conductor
(A) Increases with increase in frequency
of the wave
(B) Decreases wi th i ncrease i n
conductivity of the material
(C) Increases wi th i ncrease i n
permeability of the medium
(D) Independent of all the above
45. Power radiated by an electric dipole is
(A) Directly proportional to the square of
the frequency
(B) Inversely proportional to the square of
the frequency
(C) Directly proportional to the fourth
power of the frequency
(D) Inversely proportional to the third
power of the frequency
46. Superposition of two circularly polarised
l i ghts havi ng same frequency and
ampl i tude but rotati ng i n opposi te
directions give rise to
(A) Circularly polarised light
(B) Elliptically polarised light
(C) Plane polarised light
(D) Randomly polarized light
47. When pl ane pol ari sed EM wave
propagates between two paral l el
conducting plates
I) Tangential component of the electric
field must be zero at all points on the wall
II) Tangential component of magnetic
field must be zero at all points on the wall
(A) I is wrong and II is correct
(B) II is wrong and I is correct
(C) Both I and II are wrong
(D) Both I and II are correct
48. If V
p
, V
g
and C are phase velocity, group
vel oci ty and free space vel oci ty of
EM wave then
(A) V
p
> V
g
(B) V
p
< V
g
(C) (V
p
) ( V
g
) = C
(D) (V
p
) (V
g
) = C
2
49. Choose the correct options from the
following:
I) Stationary charge produces electric
field
II) Moving charge produces magnetic
field
III) Change in electric field does not
produce magnetic field
(A) I) and II) are correct, III) is wrong
(B) II) and III) are correct, I) is wrong
(C) I) and III) are wrong and II) is correct
(D) I) , II) , III) are correct
50. The magnetic field produced by a wire
bent in the form of a parabola carrying
current I at its focus, given that d is the
distance from the focus to the apex is
(A)
0
NI/L
(B)
0
I/2d
(C)
0
I/4 d
(D)
0
I/4 d

*A1602*
II 8 A-16-02
Space for Rough Work
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY
1 C 26 D
2 D 27 C
3 A 28 D
4 C 29 D
5 C 30 D
6 B 31 D
7 B 32 C
8 C 33 A
9 B 34 B
10 D 35 A
11 C 36 D
12 B 37 C
13 A 38 B
14 B 39 D
15 D 40 B
16 C 41 A
17 A 42 B
18 B 43 A
19 B 44 B
20 B 45 C
21 A 46 C
22 B 47 B
23 B 48 D
24 A 49 A
25 A 50 C
PHYSICAL SCIENCES PAPER II
(SUBJECT CODE- 16)
Test Paper : III
Test Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Test Subject Code : A-16-03
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
Hall Ticket No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature :___________________________________
Paper : III
Subject : PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top
of this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet
given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in
the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
., ......:....
1. .,. . ,.. ,.... . ... . .. . . . ..... ......
2. .. .... ., -.. .... .. ..... .. :...
3. .. ..,.... ...... ... ,........ ..... -..
. ,. .... : _..._...... .:. .-. .:.. .-.... .._..:.
.:.:...'-..
(i) .. ...... .:... ..... ..... :. .., '.....
...... . .. '.... ...... ,.... .. :. ........
... ......... .
(ii) ....'.e...._c-....:..-_...-:_.. ._.....'.'..
.-,. . . .:. .. _ .. . .-,. . .:. : ...'-. . '.. .-,. .
.-.-c-....` ..:.-...-,.'_.. ...` ...,..` ..._..
....,..` ._.. .._.......'.` ...,..` .:......-...
.-. .',.,:...._.. ._...-....... .....,.'.:_
.. . _ . ... .:... .... .. .... .:. . _ .. ._... ...'-. .
...-..-_.. ._.....:.........,.... .-......
(iii) . .. ... : .... . .. . . ..,.. OMR . . .. .
.. .. OMR .... ..,.. .. .... . . , . ... ........
4. . .... .... ..:.. ....... (A), (B), (C) ...... (D)
.. ,... .... ..... ... ....... ... . .. ... ..
OMR ..... . .. ..,.. ,.... .... . . ...
....... .:... . .. ..... .. . .. ... ..
.,.....
.-. .- : A B C D
(C) ... ..... ....
5. ..... ........ ...... ,.... OMR .... ..
,.... .. . .,... ...... .... ..:.. ... ... ..
... . ..... ..:..... ........
6. .. .... ... ,.. .:..... . ......
7. . . . .. . . .. .. . ,.. , . .. ... . .:..
8. OMR .... . . .... .:....... .... ... ,. ....
. ....,.. .. .. . ... ..... . . ,. ..... .. ..
.... ... . ..... .. .....,...
9. .. .,. .... . . .. . . ..... OMR . ...
......... ,... .. .. . ...... ....... .:....
10. .:.. .-........-....:_..... :.-.-:.
11. ...,... ...,.:... ....,... ................:.:_.:.'
.. :.-..-.,.-.
12. .._..:.-.-....:..... -.,. ...
III 1 A-16-03
*A1603*
III 2 A-16-03
*A1603*
III 3 A-16-03
1. For second order differential equation
L (y) = f (x), Greens function is G (x, t). Then
(A) L(G) = f
(B) t) (x, G
is discontinuous at x = t
(C) G exists for IVP
(D)

= dt ) G ( L y
2. One dimensional wave equation in x, t
admits a solution which is
(A) Oscillating in t and x
(B) Oscillating in x and exponential in t
(C) Oscillating in t and exponential in x
(D) Exponential in x and t
3. One di mensi onal heat conducti on
equation
2
2
x
u
k
t
u

admits a solution
which is
(A) Oscillating in t and exponential in x
(B) Exponential in t, oscillating in x
(C) Exponential in x and t
(D) Oscillating in x and t
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Paper III
4. The iterative scheme for square root of a
number N in x = N is x
n+1
=
(A) ( )
n
x / 1 N +
(B) ( )
n n
x / N x +
(C) ( )
n n
x / N 2 x
(D) x
n
2N/x
n
5. If at x = 0, 1, 2, 3 and y is estimated by
Lagrangian interpolation, then Lagrangian
function for x = 3 is
(A) x(x 1)(x 2)
(B) (x 1)(x 2)(x 3)/6
(C) x(x 1)(x 2)/6
(D) x(x 1)(x 2)(x 3)/6
6. By Si mpson s one thi rd formul a,
Quadrature =

2
0
x
x
ydx
(A) 2h( ) 3 y y 4 y
2 1 0
+
(B) h( ) 3 y y 4 y
2 1 0
+
(C) h( ) 3 y y 4 y
2 1 0
+ +
(D) h( ) 3 y y 2 y
2 1 0
+ +
*A1603*
III 4 A-16-03
7. The solution of dy/dx = f (x, y) with y (x
0
) = y
0
by Runge Kutta 4
th
order method at x = x
1
is y
1
=
(A) y
0
( )
4 3 2 1
k k 2 k 2 k +
(B) y
0
+ ( ) 6 k k 2 k 2 k
4 3 2 1
+ + +
(C) y
0
+ ( )
4 3 2 1
k k 2 k 2 k +
(D) y
0
+ ( ) 3 k k k k
4 3 2 1
+
8. If y
1
= 2, y
2
= 4, y
3
= 5, the second order
approximation at x = x
2
(for h= ) for
dy/dx =
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C)
(D) 3
9. If x, y y = the appropriate difference
scheme at x = x
i
is
(A) y
i + 1
(2 + h
2
) y
i
+ y
i 1
= h
2
x
i
(B) y
i + 1
(1 + 2h
2
) y
i
+ y
i 1
= h
2
x
i
(C) y
i + 1
2y
i
+ (1 + 2h) y
i 1
= h
2
x
i
(D) y
i + 1
2h
2
y
i
+ y
i 1
= x
i
10. The partial differential equation
Au
xx
+ Bu
xy
+ Cu
yy
= f is elliptic if
(A) B
2
4AC > 0
(B) B
2
4AC = 0
(C) B
2
4AC < 0
(D) B
2
4AC = complex
11. If the quantities
i
A
in
i
x frame are related
to quantities A
j
in x
j
frame by the relation
j i
A
xj
i x
A

= , then A
i
are called
(A) covariant
(B) contravariant
(C) metric tensors
(D) hyper variant
12. If A
ij
is symmetric then the number of
independent quantities are
(A) n(n 1)
(B) n(2n +1)
(C) n(n 1)
(D) n(n + 1)
*A1603*
III 5 A-16-03
16. According to the Landau theory on
di amagneti sm, the di amagneti c
contribution arises due to
(A) spinning motion of electrons
(B) orbital motion of electrons
(C) collective ordering of spins of parallel
electrons
(D) none of the above
17. A photon i n a defi ni te spi n state
corresponds to a plane electromagnetic
wave with
(A) only right circularly polarized
(B) only left circularly polarized
(C) either right or left circularly polarized
(D) zero momentum
18. Since photons obey BE statistics
(A) they are distinguishable
(B) they are indistinguishable
(C) there can not be number of photons
with same k(wave vector) and e
(polarization vector)
(D) none of the above
13. The change from non-ferromagnetic state
to ferromagnetic state is associated with
(A) Phase transition of the first kind
(B) Phase transition of the second kind
(C) No change in the symmetry of the
lattice
(D) No phase transition
14. The theory of co-operative phenomena, by
i ncl udi ng al l i nteracti ons i n three
dimensional system is
(A) very easy
(B) very complicated
(C) neither easy nor complicated
(D) neither of the above three
15. A linear Ising chain of spins is not
ferromagnetic because it can be easily
broken. A single break of chain increases
the energy by (where E is the energy of
interaction between spins)
(A) 2E
(B) 4E
(C) 6E
(D) 8E
*A1603*
III 6 A-16-03
19. Bose Ei nstei n condensati ons of
thermodynamic manifestations follows
(A) Second order phase transition
(B) First order phase transition
(C) Neither first order nor second order
phase transition
(D) None of the above
20. A very small particle immersed in liquid
havi ng Browni an moti on exhi bi ts a
random type of motion due to
(A) high applied pressure on the particle
(B) medium applied pressure on the
particle
(C) variable applied pressure acting on
the particle
(D) natural thermal fl uctuati on of
pressure on the particle
21. A random process or stochastic process
is such that the variable x
(A) depends on independent variable in
well defined manner
(B) does not depend in well defined
manner on independent variable
(C) the variable x takes either zero or
infinite value
(D) none of the above
22. The ESR frequency of an unpaired
electron in a magnetic field of 0.3T
( given g = 2, = 11.274 10
24
JT
1
,
h = 6.627 10
34
Js) in multiple of 10
6
Hz is
(A) 8397
(B) 2434
(C) 3126
(D) 4444
*A1603*
III 7 A-16-03
23. Which one of the following systems will
show electron spin resonance spectrum?
(A) H (B) H
2
(C) Na
+
(D) Cl
1
24. In NMR experiment, a given organic
compound with two kinds of protons exhibit
signals at 50 Hz and 200 Hz using 60 MHz
spectrometer. The position of signal at
50 Hz and 200 Hz in -scale is
(A) 0.88, 3.33 (B) 0.2, 1.2
(C) 0.1, 0.6 (D) 1.0 , 4.0
25. The rotation spectrum for HCl shows a
series of lines separated by 20.6 cm
1
.
The moment of inertia of the molecule is
(A) 2.65 10
47
Kg.m
2
(B) 3.12 10
55
Kg.m
2
(C) 4.0 10
12
Kg.m
2
(D) 16.0 10
8
Kg.m
2
26. The number of fundamental vibrational
frequencies in the Infra-red absorption
spectrum of H
2
O is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
27. The planar twisting mode of vibration of
N
2
O
4
is
(A) Raman active
(B) Raman inactive
(C) Infrared active
(D) Neither Raman active nor Infrared
active
28. Which one of the following compounds
absorb ultraviolet radiations?
(A) Acetaldehyde
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Ethanol
(D) Heptane
29. From extinction rules for face centred cubic
crystals for the ratio of successive allowed
XRD values of h
2
+ k
2
+ l
2
for FCC crystal is
(A) 1:2:3:4:5:6: .
(B) 1:2:3:4:5:6:8:.
(C) 3:4:8:11:12: .
(D) 8:25:34:76:
*A1603*
III 8 A-16-03
30. In a solid the repulsive forces between
atoms depends on
(A) repul si on between posi ti vel y
charged Nuclei only
(B) negatively charged electronic cloud
of atoms only
(C) it depends both on nuclei and also
electronic cloud of atoms
(D) it will not depend on positive charge
of nuclei and also on negative charge
of surrounding electronic cloud of
atoms
31. The reciprocal lattice to BCC lattice is
(A) BCC lattice
(B) FCC lattice
(C) SC lattice
(D) it is not possible to find the reciprocal
lattice of BCC
32. The elastic scattering of x-ray photon by a
crystal is governed by the wave vector
selection rule (G is a vector in the
reciprocal lattice, K is a wave vector of
incident photon, K
1
is the wave vector of
scattered photon)
(A) K
1
= K + G (B) G = K
1
+ K
(C) K
1
= K (D) K = G
33. In the case of insulators, specific heat
of sol i ds i s dependent on i ts
temperature T by
(A) T
3
law (B) T-law
(C) T
2
law (D) T
4
law
34. According to the KP model on band
theory of solids, the atoms in the
periodic lattice are positioned in the
(A) middle of the valley
(B) middle of the barrier
(C) only at the end edges of the
solids
(D) at the boundary line between
valley and the barrier
35. Calculate the frequency of AC current
when a voltage of 1 10
6
v is applied
across the two superconductors
whi ch are separated by a thi n
insulating layer where tunneling of
electron pair is possible
(A) 286 MHz
(B) 316 MHz
(C) 483.6 MHz
(D) 116 MHz
*A1603*
III 9 A-16-03
36. Defect structures are produced when the
composition of an ionic crystal does not
correspond to the stoichiometric formula.
In case of FeO, the vacant cation sites are
produced usually by heating it in
(A) Zinc atmosphere
(B) Oxygen atmosphere
(C) Chlorine atmosphere
(D) Carbon atmosphere
37. Tilt angle of a tilt boundary in BCC iron
(a = 2.87 AU) with edge dislocations 7500
apart is
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 0.02 (D) 16
38. Most of the liquid crystal cells used in LCD
display are of the type
(A) smetic
(B) twisted nematic
(C) cholestric
(D) none of the above
39. The binding energy of a nucleon in a
nucleus or mass defect per nucleon is
(A) minimum for medium nuclei
(B) maximum for medium nuclei
(C) maximum for heavy nuclei
(D) minimum for heavy nuclei
40. The liquid-drop model of nucleus to
emphasize nuclear structure, possible
oscillations are considered in an
(A) incompressible liquid
(B) compressible liquid
(C) viscous liquid
(D) none of the above
41. The function of a moderator in an atomic
reactor is to
(A) absorb gamma radiation
(B) slow down fast neutrons
(C) release heat energy
(D) none of the above
42. Nuclides which possess same mass
number are known as
(A) isotopes
(B) isobars
(C) isotones
(D) none of the above
*A1603*
III 10 A-16-03
43. The concept of Dirac-Hole predicted the
existence of
(A) positron
(B) pair production
(C) electrons possessing negative energy
states
(D) all the above
44. Heavy hydrogen when bombarded with
neutrons artificial hydrogen and tritium are
formed. Tritium is composed of
(A) Proton and three neutrons
(B) Proton and two neutrons
(C) Proton and one neutron
(D) None of the above
45. All quarks possess same spin and baryon
charge, but differ in
(A) strangeness
(B) hypercharge
(C) all quantum numbers of elementary
particles
(D) all the above
46. Anti quarks do not form any part of
(A) mesons
(B) baryons
(C) leptons
(D) hadrons
47. Anti baryons consist of
(A) three quarks
(B) four quarks
(C) two quarks
(D) no quarks
48. Spin Orbit interaction is more predominant
in
(A) Heavy elements
(B) Medium elements
(C) Light elements
(D) Heavy and light elements
49. WKB approximation is based on the
expansion of the wavefunction in powers of
(A) h
(B)

h
2
(C)

h
3
(D) none of the above
*A1603*
III 11 A-16-03
50. The unit for differential cross section for
scattering is
(A) barn
(B) steredian cm
2
(C) steredian / cm
2
(D) steredian / cm
3
51. The superposition of infinite number of
spherical waves gives a plane wave, the
individual waves are known as
(A) partial wave
(B) wavefront
(C) cylindrical wave
(D) none of the above
52. Relativistic wave equation provide
(A) relativistic Hamiltonian
(B) first order equation for both space
and time
(C) both the above
(D) none of the above
53. Klein-Gordon equation is applicable for
particles with
(A) zero spin
(B) spin 1/2
(C) spin 3/2
(D) spin 1
54. A rel ati vi sti c wave equati on whi ch
provides a positive definite probability
density, is given by
(A) Dirac equation
(B) Klein-Gordon equation
(C) Noethers theorem
(D) None of the above
55. The wavefunction derived from the Dirac
rel ati vi sti c equati on, whi ch do not
transform as four vectors are known as
(A) Diracs spinors
(B) Fermions
(C) Bosons
(D) None of the above
*A1603*
III 12 A-16-03
56. Nuclear magnetic resonance depends on
(A) ori entati on of nucl ear moment
rel ati ve to smal l stati c appl i ed
magnetic field
(B) orientation of the electron magnetic
moment
(C) ori entati on of nucl ear moment
rel ati ve to l arge stati c appl i ed
magnetic field
(D) none of the above
57. Threshold population inversion required
for oscillations of laser
i. is proportional to the spontaneous life
time of the upper level
ii. inversely proportional to passive cavity
life time
iii. proportional to passive cavity life time
iv. is inversely proportional to spontaneous
lifetime of the upper level
(A) i and ii are correct
(B) i and iii are correct
(C) ii and iv are correct
(D) iii and iv are correct
58. Assertion (A) : Even in the absence of
collisions and of thermal
motions, line broadening
takes place.
Reason (R ) : Because of the finite life
time of excited state due to
spontaneous emissions.
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
59. Match the following:
I. Doppler 1. Homogeneous
broadening
II. Four level system 2. Ruby laser
III. Collision 3. Inhomogeneous
broadening
IV. Three level 4. He-Ne laser
system
I II III IV
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
*A1603*
III 13 A-16-03
60. At thermal equilibrium of temperature T,
for h / T K
B
<<
(A) Number of stimulated emissions
exceeds the number of spontaneous
emissions
(B) Number of spontaneous emissions
exceeds the number of stimulated
emissions
(C) Number of spontaneous emissions
are equal to the number of stimulated
emissions
(D) Emissions does not take place
61. Q switching of laser can be done by
I. Mechanical switching
II. Faster electronic switching
III. Using saturable absorbers
IV. all the above
(A) I and III are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I and II are correct
62. Ionisation Gauges can measure Vacuum
up to
(A) 10
1
to 10
3
mm of Hg
(B) 10
3
to 10
8
mm of Hg
(C) Up to 1 mm of Hg
(D) None
63. The temperature of a furnace is increasing
at a rate of 0.2
0
C/Sec.The maximum
possible time constant required for a first
order instrument so that the temperature
is measured with maximum error of 2
0
C.
(A) 4 Sec
(B) 0.4 Sec
(C) 0.1 Sec
(D) 10 Sec
64. The steady State error for unit Ramp input
in the case of instruments following First
Order Response is equal to
(A) Natural Frequency
(B) Damping Ratio
(C) Time Constant
(D) Settling Time
*A1603*
III 14 A-16-03
65. Dummy Strain Gauges are used for
(A) Compensation for Temperature
changes
(B) Increasing the sensitivity of the bridge
in which they are used
(C) Calibration of Strain Gauges
(D) None of the above
66. How many Op-Amps are required to
implement the following equation
V
o
= R
f
[ ]
3 3 2 2 1 1
R / V R / V R / V + + ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
67. In the Bath Tub Curve representing the
failure rate of components/Instruments, the
Region I of the curve corresponds to
(A) Constant Failure Region
(B) Infant Mortality Region
(C) Wear Out Region
(D) None of the above
68. Which of the following circuits are used in
signal conditioning ?
I. Filters
II. Attenuators
III. Amplifiers
(A) I & II only (B) II & III only
(C) All (D) None
69. Match the following:
I. Chi-Square Test 1. Loading Effects
II. Standard 2. Recovery of
Deviation signal from
noise
III. Impedance 3. Analysis of
Matching Random Errors
IV. Lock-in Detector 4. Feedback
5. Goodness of Fit
I II III IV
(A) 5 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 5 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 5 4
70. The number of terms in semi-emperical
mass formula is
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
71. In a nuclear reaction p+
12
Cd+
11
C, by
proton with a laboratory energy of 10MeV
incident on to stationary
12
C nucleus, the
equivalent centre of energy of proton is
(A) 9.23 MeV (B) 10.00 MeV
(C) 11.52 MeV (D) 8.46 MeV
*A1603*
III 15 A-16-03
72. Nucl ear forces have the fol l owi ng
characteristics:
I. Nuclear forces are saturated
II. Nuclear forces are spin independent
III. Nuclear forces are charge
independent
IV. Nuclear forces are non central forces
(A) I,III and IV are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I and II are correct
73. Physical quantities that are conserved in
a nuclear reaction are
I. Energy
II. Charge
III. Spin
IV. Hyper charge
(A) I, III and IV are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) I and IV are correct
74. Assertion (A) : Electrons reside inside
the nucleus.
Reason (R) : Nuclei emit electrons in
beta decay.
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
75. Assertion (A) : Nuclear force is very
attractive.
Reason (R) : Stable nuclei exist in
nature.
(A) A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation
(B) A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
*A1603*
III 16 A-16-03
Space for Rough Work
III 16 A-16-03
Q.No KEY Q.No KEY Q.No KEY
1 B 26 A 51 A
2 A 27 D 52 C
3 B 28 A 53 A
4 B 29 C 54 A
5 C 30 C 55 A
6 C 31 B 56 C
7 B 32 A 57 A
8 D 33 A 58 A
9 A 34 A 59 C
10 C 35 C 60 A
11 B 36 B 61 C
12 D 37 C 62 B
13 B 38 B 63 D
14 B 39 B 64 C
15 A 40 A 65 A
16 B 41 B 66 A
17 C 42 B 67 B
18 B 43 D 68 C
19 B 44 B 69 A
20 D 45 D 70 B
21 B 46 B 71 A
22 A 47 A 72 A
23 A 48 A 73 B
24 A 49 A 74 D
25 A 50 A 75 A
PHYSICAL SCIENCES-PAPER-III
(SUBJECT CODE- 16)