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Set No: 1

Code No: V3203/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Assume missing data suitably. Answer ONE from Part-A and any THREE from Part-B IS-800-1984 to be permitted PART-A (Marks-32)

1. A column in an industrial building has to carry a total load axial load of 1750kN. Its length is 5.25m.and is effectively restrained in position as well as direction at both the ends. Design a double I section for the column. The column will be battened or laced after design. Draw to scale the sectional views. or 2. Design the central section of a plate girder for an effective span of 20m if the total dead and live loads amount to 30 kN and 60kN respectively. Draw to scale the longitudinal and cross sections. PART-B (Marks-32) 3. a). Explain various types of welding processes with neat diagrams. b). A 200mm 10mm plate is to be welded to another plate 120mm 10mm by fillet welding. The size of the weld is 6mm. Calculate the maximum shear force which the section can resist. 4. a). Explain various shapes of sections which can be used as beam members. Explain their uses. What are various names given to the structural members classified as beams? b). Design a beam of effective span 5m and carrying a uniformly distributed load of 25 kN / m for the whole length. Compression flange of the beam is laterally restrained against buckling through out the length 5. a). What is tension member? Explain various modes of failure of a tension member. b). Design a T section to act as a tension member carrying an axial tension of 220 kN. Check the suggested section for slenderness ratio.

6. Design a gantry girder for an industrial building to carry an electric overhead traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 250 kN. Weight of crane excluding crab is 200 kN. Weight of crab is 5 kN. Span of crane between rails is18 m. Minimum hook approach is1.0 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 9 m. Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m. Height of rail section is 50mm. Check the suggested section for bending stresses. 7. A pitched roof is to be provided for an industrial building of effective san 12m. The trusses are spaced at 4m center to center and purlins at 1.6m center to center. The pitch of the roof is 280. The weight of the roofing material is 16 kg/m and the normal wind pressure is 150 kg/m2. Design an angle purlin assuming the permissible bending stress as 165Mpa. 1 of 1

Set No: 2
Code No: V3203/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Assume missing data suitably. Answer ONE from Part-A and any THREE from Part-B IS-800-1984 to be permitted PART-A (Marks-32) 1. Design the web and flanges of a plate girder for an effective span of 15m if the live loads amount and 50kN/m exclusive of self weight. Show curtailment of flanges using either graphical methods or by calculations. Draw to scale the cross section and longitudinal sections. Or 2. a). Design a gusseted base under a column carrying an axial load of 1000kN. The column section consists of ISMB 350 with plates 250mm 12mm on each side of the I section. The allowable pressure of the concrete pedestal is 4 N/mm2. Design required connections also. b). Draw to scale plan and two side views of the gusseted base for the above problem. PART-B (Marks-16) 3. a). Explain eccentric welded connection. b). A bracket of T section (10mm thick) is welded to a steel stanchion by using flange welds as well as web welds as shown in figure. Determine suitable weld size taking permissible shear stress of 110 N/mm2 in the welds. 150kN 8cm

150mm

150mm

4. a). What is tension member? List out various section that can be used as tension members. b). Design a C section to act as a tension member carrying an axial tension of 220 kN. Check the suggested section for slenderness ratio.

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Set No: 2
Code No: V3203/R07 5. The top chord member of a lattice girder consists of the section with four ISA 7550 10mm angles and cover plates 250mm 10mm thick forming a box cross section with outer dimensions 200mm 250mm. The effective length of the member is 5m. The section has to carry a maximum compression of 1000kN. Check weather the design is safe or not. 6. Calculate maximum bending moment and shear force on a gantry girder of for crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 250 kN. Weight of crane excluding crab is 100 kN. Weight of crab is 10 kN. Span of crane between rails is15 m. Minimum hook approach is1.0 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 10 m. Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m. Height of rail section is 75mm. 7. a). Explain procedure for calculation of loads for analysis of a roof truss and describe various combinations considered to arrive at most critical conditions. b). A pitched roof is to be provided for an industrial building of effective san 12m. The trusses are spaced at 4m center to center and purlins at 1.6m center to center. The pitch of the roof is 280. The weight of the roofing material is 16 kg/m and the normal wind pressure is 220 kg/m2. Design an angle purlin assuming the permissible bending stress as 165Mpa.

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Set No: 3
Code No: V3203/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Assume missing data suitably. Answer ONE from Part-A and any THREE from Part-B IS-800-1984 to be permitted PART-A (Marks-32)

1. a). Design the cross section of a plate girder for the following data Effective span of the girder = 25m. Superimposed loading = 45 kN/m Design the connection and longitudinal section of the girder to a suitable scale showing intermediate stiffeners. b). Draw to scale the cross section and longitudinal section of the girder showing the intermediate stiffeners and bearing stiffeners. or 2. Design a gantry girder for an industrial building to carry an hand operated overhead traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 250 kN. Weight of crane excluding crab is 200 kN. Weight of crab is 5 kN. Span of crane between rails is18 m. Minimum hook approach is1.0 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 9 m. Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m. check the suggested section for bending stresses. Draw Cross section and longitudinal section. PART-B (Marks-16) 3. Design the section of a beam of 8m effective span and carrying superimposed load of 15kN/m and a point load of 20kN at mid point. Check the suggested section for web buckling and diagonal buckling and maximum permissible deflection. 4. a). Explain various types of butt welds. Describe procedure for designing a butt weld. b). Determine the depth of the fillet weld required to join a plate bracket with flange of a stanchion as shown in figure. 50kN 20cm 300mm

5. a). Draw various probable cross sections of a typical tension member. Discuss relative merits. What are various conditions where a structure is subjected to tensile loads? b). The main tie of a building roof truss has to carry a maximum axial tension of 200kN. Design a suitable section for the member as per IS specifications. Design the section as two angles placed back to back of a gusset plate. 1 of 2

Set No: 3
Code No: V3203/R07 6. a). What is compression member? Explain various modes of failure of a compression member. b). A column of 3.25 m effective length consists of two channels ISMC 150 @ 16.4 kg/m placed back to back with a gap of 100 mm and covered with two plates 300 mm 10mm on either side. Calculate the strength of the column. 7. A pitched roof is to be provided for an industrial building of effective san 12m. The trusses are spaced at 4m center to center and purlins at 1.6m center to center. The pitch of the roof is 280. The weight of the roofing material is 16 kg/m and the normal wind pressure is 220 kg/m2. Design an angle purlin assuming the permissible bending stress as 165Mpa.

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Set No: 4
Code No: V3203/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Assume missing data suitably. Answer ONE from Part-A and any THREE from Part-B IS-800-1984 to be permitted PART-A (Marks-32) 1. A bracket has to transmit an end reaction of 150KN to the column to which it is fillet welded on three sides as shown in figure. Design the joint as per I.S specifications. Draw to scale: a) Elevation of the beam and column showing rivet position b) Side view of connection c) Junction details

250mm

150KN

260mm

250mm 280mm

or 2. Design a gusseted base under a column carrying an axial load of 750kN. The column section consists of ISMB 350 with plates 250mm 12mm on each side of the I section. The allowable pressure of the concrete pedestal is 4 N/mm2. Design required connections also. Draw to scale plan and two side views of the gusseted base for the above problem. PART-B (Marks 16) 3. A compound beam is built up with a channel ISMC attached as a top flange for a web of 350 12mm plate. The bottom flange consists of a plate 150 16mm. Determine the maximum allowable bending moment about the major axis if the bending stresses is not to exceed 165MPa. 4. The main tie of a building roof truss has to carry a maximum axial tension of 200kN. Design a suitable section for the member as per IS specifications. Design the section as a T section placed on one side of gusset plate. 1 of 2

Set No: 4
Code No: V3203/R07 5. a). What is compression member? Classify compression member based on slenderness ratio of the column. b). Design a suitable section for a column to carry an axial load of 350kN. The column is 4m long and is fixed in position as well as direction at one end and fixed in position at the other end. 6. a). List out various components of a plate girder. b). Design a plate girder to withstand a uniformly distributed load of 1000 kN (W) over a span of 20 m. The maximum depth of the beam is to be restricted to 1500mm. 7. Calculate maximum wheel loads for an overhead traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 100 kN. Weight of crane excluding crab is 200 kN. Weight of crab is 5 kN. Span of crane between rails is18 m. Minimum hook approach is1 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 9 m. Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m.

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Set No: 1
Code E : V3218/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Common to EEE, ECE, EIE) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a)Determine whether each of the following systems defined below is (i) causal (ii) linear (iii) Dynamic (iv) time invariant (v) stable y[ n] = log 10 x [ n] } y[ n] = x[ n 2]

b) Determine the response of the system with impulse response h[n] = a n u[n] to the input signal x[ n] = u[ n] u[ n 10]. 2. a) Compute the DFT of the square wave sequence where N is even. b) Compute the DFT of with T=0.5. Plot the DFT sequence suggest a method for improving frequency resolution. 3. Draw the signal flow graph for 16-point DFT using DIT-FFT and DIF-FFT algorithms. 4. a) Determine the impulse response of the system described by the difference equation y[ n] 3 y[ n 1] 4 y[n 2] = x[ n] + 2 x[ n 1] using z-transforms. b) Obtain the direct form-II realization for the system described by 3 1 1 y[n] = y[n 1] y[ n 2] + x[n] + x[ n 1] 4 8 2 s +1 5. a) Convert the following analog filter with transfer function H ( S ) = into a ( s + 1) 2 + 9 digital IIR filter by using bilinear transformation method. The digital IIR filter is having a resonant frequency of . b) Explain method of constructing Butterworth circle in the Z-plane using bilinear transformation method. 6. Design an ideal low pass filter with a frequency response :

Find the values of h[n] for N=11. Find H(z) and also plot the magnitude response. 7. a) Describe the decimation process with a factor of M. Obtain necessary expression. b) Obtain the necessary expression for Interpolation process. 8. Explain the features of TMS320C54x DSP processor. 1 of 1

Set No: 2
Code E : V3218/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Common to EEE, ECE, EIE) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) Define causality and stability of LSI system and state the conditions for stability. b) Find the impulse and step responses for the given system: y[ n] + y[ n 1] = x[n ] 2 x[ n 1]
2. a)If X(K) denotes the N-point DFT of N-Point sequence x[n] then show that with N even and if then for N=4.

b) Compute the DFT of a sequence

3. a) Find the DFT of a sequence x[ n] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT algorithm. b) Compute the IDFT of the sequence X [ k ] = {12, 0, 0, 0, 4, 0, 0, 0} using DIF algorithm. 4. a) Obtain the transposed direct form-II realization for the system described by 1 1 y[n] = y[ n 1] y[ n 2] + x[ n] + x[ n 1] 2 4 ( z 1 a )( z 1 b) b) Determine the cascade realization of the system H ( z ) = with (1 az 1 )(1 bz 1 ) only three delay elements. 5. A digital low pass filter is required to meet the following specifications: Pass band attenuation 1db Pass band edge = 4kHz Stop band attenuation 40db Stop band edge = 8kHz Sample rate 24 KHz The filter is to be designed by performing a bilinear transformation on an analog system function. Design butter worth filter and realize it. 6. Design a filter with :

Using a Hamming window with N=7. 7. a) Explain Multirate Digital Signal Processing. b) Consider ramp sequence and sketch its interpolated and decimated versions with a factor of 3. 8. Discuss the on chip peripherals available on the TMS320C5X processor and explain their function. 1 of 1

Set No: 3
Code No: V3218/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Common to EEE, ECE, EIE) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) For each of the following discrete-time signals, determine whether or not the system is linear, shift-invariant, causal and stable. (i) (ii)
b) Determine the particular solution of the difference equation ; when the forcing function is 2. a) Explain how DFT can be obtained by sampling DFS for a given sequence. b) Compute the DFT of a three point sequence . Using the same sequence, compute the six point DFT and compare the two DFTs. 3. a) Compute the DFT of the sequence using DIF algorithm. b) Derive the algorithm and draw N=8 flow graph for the DIT-FFT algorithm. 4. Determine the system function H(z), impulse response h[n], magnitude and phase response of the LSI system defined by the difference equation: y[ n] = x[n ] + 3 x[ n 1] + 2 y[ n 1] y[ n 2]. 5. a) Find the order and poles of a low pass Butterworth filter that has a 3dB bandwidth of 500 Hz and an attenuation of 40dB at 1KHz. b)Compare Butter worth and Chebyshev approximations.. 6. a) Distinguish between Infinite Impulse Response & Finite Impulse Response filters. b) Design a FIR filter approximating the ideal frequency response

Determine the filter coefficients for N=13. 7. Implement a two state interpolator to meet the following specifications: I=20, Pass band: 0F90 transition band: 90F100 Input sampling rate: 10,000Hz, Ripple: 8. Discuss various interrupt types supported by TMS320C5X processor.

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Set No: 4
Code No: V3218/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Common to EEE, ECE, EIE) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a)Determine the stability and test the causality for the following functions: (i) h (ii) (iii) (iv) b) Determine the impulse and unit step response of the system described by the . difference equation:
2. a) Prove the modulation and time shifting properties of distribute time Fourier transform. b) Find the DFT of a sequence: the magnitude and phase spectrum of X(k). for N = 8 and also plot

using 3. a) Compute the eight point DFT of the sequence DIT-FFT algorithms. b) Implement the DIF-FFT algorithm of N-point DFT where N=8. Also explain the steps involved in this algorithm.
4. a) Obtain the direct form I structure for the system described by . b) Determine H(z) and also discuss the stability of the system described by . 5. Design a butter worth low pass filter satisfying the following specifications:

6. Design a band pass filter to pass frequencies in the range 1 to 2 radians/second using Hanning window with N=5. Draw the filter structure and plot its spectrum. 7. Design a two stage Decimator for the following specifications: D=100, Pass band: 0F50 transition band: 50F55 Input sampling rate: 10,000Hz, Ripple: 8. Explain the features of TMS320C54x DSP processor.

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Set No: 1
Code No: V3216/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet to turbine is saturated at pressure of 30 bar and exhaust pressure is 0.25 bar . determine (i)The pump work (ii) Turbine work (iii) Rankine efficiency (iv) Condenser heat flow (v) dryness at the end of expansion. Assume flow rate of 10 kg/s (b) Write short note on adiabatic flame temperature? (12+4) 2. (a) Explain simple vertical boiler with neat sketch? (b) Give the comparison between fire tube and water tube boilers?

(8+8)

3. Steam at 10 bar and 0.98 dry expands through a convergent divergent nozzle to a back pressure of 0.1 bar. The discharge through the nozzle is 0.55 kg/s. The enthalpy drop used for reheating the steam by friction in the divergent portion is 10% of the overall enthalpy drop. Determine (a) the throat pressure (b) number of nozzles required if the throat area of each nozzle is 0.5 cm2 (c) exit diameter of each nozzle (d) cone angle of divergent portion if its length is 10 cm. (16) 4. What is compounding? Describe various ways of compounding impulse turbines and give their merits and demerits. (16) 5. (a) Show that for a Parsons reaction turbine the degree of reaction is 50%. (b) In a 50% reaction turbine stage running at 3000rpm, the exit angles are 300and the inlet angles are 500. The mean diameter is 1m.The steam flow rate is10000kg/minute and the stage efficiency is 85%. Determine: i. Power output of the stage. ii. The specific enthalpy drop in the stage. iii. The percentage increase in the relative velocity of the steam when it flows over the moving blades. (8+8) 6. (a)Draw the schematic diagram of low level counter flow jet condenser and explain its working principle. (b) What are the advantages and limitations of surface condensers over jet condensers? (8+8)

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Set No: 1
Code No: V3216/R07

7. A closed cycle gas turbine using Argon as the working fluid has a two compression with perfect inter cooling. The overall pressure ratio is 9 and pressure ratio in each stage is equal. Each stage has an isentropic efficiency of 85%. The turbine is also two stage with equal pressure ratio with inter change reheat to original temperature. Each turbine stage has an isentropic efficiency of 90%. The turbine inlet temperature is 1100K and the compressor inlet is 303K. Find (a) work done per kg of fluid flow (b) work ratio (c) The overall cycle efficiency. The properties of argon are Cp= 0.5207kJ/kg 0K, =1.667 and R=0.20813kJ/kg0K (16) 8. (a)What are the important elements used in rocket engines? Explain their functions. (b)Describe the nuclear rocket engine with a neat sketch and explain its merits and demerits. (8+8)

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Set No: 2
Code No: V3216/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Explain with the help of diagram a reheat cycle? state the advantages and disadvantages of reheating. (b) A simple Rankine cycle works between pressure of 30 bar and 0.04 bar, the initial condition of steam being dry saturated, calculate the cycle efficiency, work ratio, and specific steam consumption. (8+8) 2. (a) Explain Lancashire boiler with neat sketch? (b) How boilers are classified?

(10+6)

3. a) Prove that maximum flow rate per unit area through a nozzle occurs when the ratio of pressure at the throat to inlet pressure is equal to (2/n+1)n/n-1 where n=isentropic index of expansion. (b) Explain various types of nozzles and their distinguish features. (10+6) 4. (a) Derive the expression for maximum blade efficiency in a single stage impulse turbine? (b) Explain the difference between an impulse turbine and reaction turbine? (10+6) 5. (a) The following data refers to a particular stage of a Parsons Reaction turbine: Speed of the turbine = 1500 r.p.m Mean diameter of the rotor = 1metre Stage efficiency=80 % Blade outlet angle=2000 Speed ratio= 0.7 Determine the available isentropic enthalpy drop in the stage. (b) What do you mean by combined velocity diagram with reference to steam turbines? (10+6) 6. Draw the schematic diagram of parallel flow jet condenser and explain its working principle. (b) Explain the advantages and limitations of surface condensers over jet condensers. (8+8) 7. In a gas turbine plant, the air at 2830K and 1 bar is compressed to 4 bar with Isentropic compressions efficiency of 80% . The air is heated in the regenerator and in the combustion chamber till its temperature is raised to 9730 K and during the process pressure falls by 0.1 bar. The air is then expended in the expander isentropic ally and passes through the regenerator which has 0.75 effectiveness and cause a pressure drop of 0.12 bar. Determine thermal efficiency of the plant if the isentropic efficiency of expander is 0.85. (16) 1 of 2

Set No: 2
Code No: V3216/R07

8.

(a) Where is rocket propulsion is used? What are the kinds of rocket propellants? (b) Describe a liquid propellant rocket engine with a neat sketch. (12+4)

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Set No: 3
Code No: V3216/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Describe the different operations of Rankine cycle and also derive the expression for its efficiency. (b) Write short note on adiabatic flame temperature? (12+4) 2. (a) With a chimney of height 45 meters, the temperatures of flue gases with natural draught was 3700c.the same draught was developed by induced draught fan and the temperature of the flue gases was 1500c. Mass of the flue gases formed is 25 kg per kg of coal fired. The boiler house temperature is 35 0C. Assume Cp =1.004 kj/kg k. for the flue gases. Determine the efficiency of the chimney. (b) Explain simple Babcock and Wilcox water tube boiler with neat sketch? (6+10) 3. (a) Derive an expression for maximum mass flow per unit area of flow through a convergent- divergent nozzle when steam expands isentropic ally from rest. (b) Explain supersaturated flow and its effects? (10+6) 4. What do you mean by compounding of steam turbine? Discuss various methods of compounding steam turbines? (16) 5. In a stage of impulse reaction turbine provided with single row wheel, the mean diameter of the blades is 1 meter. It turns at 3000 r.p.m. the steam issues from the nozzle at a velocity of 350m/sec and the nozzle angle is 2000. The rotor blades are equiangular. The blade friction factor is 0.86. Determine the power developed if the axial thrust on the end bearing of a rotor is 118N. (16) 6. (a) Explain the working principle of counter flow jet condenser with neat sketch? and discuss the merits and demerits. (b) What are the sources of air leakage in steam condensers? Explain the effect of air leakage on condenser performance. (8+8) 7. (a) Explain different applications of gas turbine power cycles in power sector industries. b) Draw the schematic diagram of closed cycle gas turbine and explain its working. (8+8) 8. (a) Define and explain the terms: i. Thrust ii. Thrust power, iii. Effective jet exit velocity, iv. Propulsive efficiency related to turbojet engines. (b)What is ramjet? Explain the working of a ramjet with a neat sketch. (8+8) 1 of 1

Set No: 4
Code No: V3216/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Explain with the help of neat diagram a regenerative cycle. State the advantages of regenerative cycle over simple Rankine cycle. b) How is analysis of exhaust and flue gas carried out? (8+8) 2. Explain any three boiler mountings with neat sketches? (16)

3. A convergent divergent steam nozzle of throat area 150 mm2 is supplied with dry and saturated steam at 1.2 MN/m2. The expansion is supersaturated up to throat and normal afterwards. The exit pressure is 0.1 MN/m2, Find: (a) degree of under cooling (b) degree of super saturation (c) mass flow when the expansion were in thermal equilibrium (d) mass flow when the expansion is in metastable and (e) exit velocity. (16) 4. (a) Define the following as related to steam turbines. i. Speed ratio ii. blade velocity coefficient iii. Diagram efficiency iv. stage efficiency (b) Derive the expression for maximum blade efficiency in a single stage impulse turbine. (8+8) 5. (a) Define the term degree of reaction as applied to a steam turbine. Show that parsons reaction turbine the degree of reaction is 50 %. (b) List out the advantages of steam turbines over gas turbine. (8+8) 6. (a) State the comparison between jet and surface condensers? (b) Explain the effect of air leakage in a condenser? (c) What are the reasons for inefficiency in surface condenser?

(6+4+6)

7. a) Explain different applications of gas turbine power cycles in power sector industries. (b) Draw the schematic diagram of closed cycle gas turbine and explain its working. (8+8) 8. (a) Explain with a neat sketch a Turbo-jet Unit. (b) What are the fundamental differences between jet propulsion and rocket propulsion? (10+6) 1 of 1

Set No: 1
Code No: V3225/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 INFORMATION SECURITY (Computer Science & Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What is an attack? List the types of attacks? Briefly describe the classifications of attacks. b) What is a route table? Briefly describe the process of route table modification.
2.

a) What is symmetric encryption? What are the ingredients of symmetric encryption? With a neat diagram briefly describe simplified model of symmetric encryption. b) What is Message authentication code? Briefly describe Message authentication using one-way hash function. a) Briefly describe applications and requirements for Public Key Cryptography. b) What is a certificate? With a neat diagram, briefly describe x.509 format and elements of a certificate. a) What is detached signature? Why does PGP generate a signature before applying compression, describe. b) What is Canonical form? Briefly describe S/MIME functionality. a) What is transport adjacency? With neat diagrams, briefly describe Basic combinations of security associations. b) With a neat diagram, briefly describe ISAKMP header format. a) Briefly describe SSL Protocol stack and SSL record protocol. b) With a neat diagram, briefly describe construction of dual signature. a) What is SNMP? What are the key capabilities of SNMP? Briefly describe the role of SNMP. b) With a neat diagram, briefly describe SNMPv3 message format with user security model. a) What is packet filtering router? Briefly describe the weaknesses of packet filtering firewall. b) What is Bastion Host? Briefly describe characteristics of Bastion host.

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Code No: V3225/R07

Set No: 2

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 INFORMATION SECURITY (Computer Science & Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What is a service? Briefly describe security services. b) What is RFC? With a neat diagram, briefly describe Internet RFC publication process.
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a) What is cryptography? Briefly describe the three independent dimensions used for classifying cryptographic systems. b) What is Message authentication? Briefly describe Key distribution approaches for Message Authentication. a) What is digital certificate? Briefly describe X.509 directory authentication service. b) What is key-exchange protocol? Briefly describe man-in-the-middle attack. a) What is PGP? Briefly describe the PGP Services. b) What is trust flag byte? Briefly describe the contents of trust flag byte. a) What is SA? Briefly describe SA parameters and SA selectors. b) What is ISAKMP? Briefly describe ISAKMP payload types. a) What is Alert protocol? Why Alert protocol is used? Briefly describe Alert protocol. b Briefly describe key features of SET and SET participants. a) What is SNMPv2? What are the categories of deficiencies of SNMP? Briefly describe security features of SNMPv1. b) With neat diagrams, briefly describe USM message transmission and reception. a) What is a firewall? What are the characteristics of firewalls? Briefly describe the four general techniques, that firewalls use to control access and enforce the site security policy. b) What is SOCKS? What are the components of SOCKS? Briefly describe Bastion host

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Set No: 3
Code No: V3225/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 INFORMATION SECURITY (Computer Science & Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What is security mechanism? Briefly describe the relation between security services and mechanisms. b) What is buffer overflow? Briefly describe TCP session hijacking.
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a) What is AES? Briefly describe triple DES. b) What is feistel cipher structure? With a neat diagram, briefly describe parameters and design features of feistel cipher structure. a) With a neat diagram, briefly describe Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm. b) What is digital signature? Briefly describe Kerberos authentication service. a) What is PGP? Briefly describe the reasons for PGP growth. b) What is S/MIME? Briefly describe header fields defined in MIME and the elements of MIME specifications. a) What are IPSec documents? With a neat diagram, briefly describe IPSec document overview. b) What is ISAKMP? Briefly describe Oakley key determination protocol. a) What is TLS? Briefly describe SSL architecture. b) What is SET? What are the services provided by SET? Briefly describe the requirements of SET. a) What is MIB? What are the three foundation specifications of NMPA? Briefly describe SNMP. b) What is USM? Briefly describe available cryptographic functions in USM. a) What is a firewall? Briefly describe the capabilities and limitations of firewall. b) What is reference monitor? Briefly describe the concept of trusted systems.

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Set No: 4
Code No: V3225/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 INFORMATION SECURITY (Computer Science & Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What is IESG? Briefly describe IETF areas. b) What is an attack? Briefly describe ARP attacks.
2.

a) What is a symmetric encryption? Briefly describe the rules for secure use of symmetric encryption. b) What is codebook? With a neat diagram, briefly describe CFB mode. a) What is RSA? With an example, briefly describe RSA algorithm. b) What is CA? Briefly describe Public-key certificates. a) With a neat diagram, briefly describe PGP cryptographic functions and notation of PGP. b) What is VeriSign certificate? Briefly describe S/MIME certificate processing. a) What is IPSec? Briefly describe applications and benefits of IPSec. b) What is ESP? With a neat diagram, describe fields of IPSec ESP format. a) What is payment authorization? Briefly describe contents of SET authorization request message. b) Briefly describe SSL handshake protocol message types. a) What is NMA? What are the key elements of SNMP? Briefly describe network management protocol architecture. b) What is USM? Briefly describe USM message parameters. a) What is state ful inspection firewall? Briefly describe Application level and Circuit level gateway. b) What is Data Access Control? Briefly describe Access control structure.

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Set No: 1
Code No: V3232/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Define protein and give its structure. (b) Discuss the biological functions of proteins Explain modulation & regulation of enzyme activity.

[6+10] [16]

2. 3.

Write the steady-state material balance on a spherical, permeable immobilized pellet using the thin-shell method. [16] Describe various phases of cell growth in a batch culture, with a neat diagram. [16]

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5. 6.

Define metabolism and describe Krebs cycle What are the various types of bioreactors? Bring out their salient features

[16] [16]

7.

Derive the equations pertaining to the power requirements for sparged & agitated vessels. [16] (a)Describe the principles chromatographic separation process (b) Explain the working of a gas chromatograph

8.

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Set No: 2
Code No: V3232/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. 2. Define microbiology and write about procaryotic cells, eucaryotic cells Discuss the influence of the following parameters on enzyme activity (a) PH (b) Temperature Describe about utilization & regeneration of cofactors Describe the Monod model for specific growth rate. Discuss about the metabolic pathways. [16]

[8+8] [16] [16] [16]

3. 4. 5. 6.

Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic fermentations, and describe them briefly. [16] How do you estimate kLa and power requirement in agitated vessels Discuss about the following membrane processes. (a) Dialysis (b) Ultra filtration (c) Reverse osmosis [16]

7. 8.

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Set No: 3
Code No: V3232/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. What are important cell types? Discuss the classification of microorganisms belonging to protists. 2. Discuss about Michaelis-Menten kinetics

[16] [16]

3. Define immobilization and discuss several techniques of enzyme immobilization. [16] 4. What is Malthus law? Derive the different kinetic models for cell growth 5. Discuss about biosynthesis and cell membranes. [16] [8+8]

6. a) What are the distinct advantages of the fed-batch systems in bioprocessing? b) What are the essential requirements of a fermentation medium? [8+8] 7. Derive the equations to calculate the power requirements for sparged & agitated vessels. [16] 8. (a) Describe the importance of downstream process steps in bioprocessing. (b) What are the various unit operations you come across in downstream processing [8+8]

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Set No: 4
Code No: V3232/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. What are nucleotides? What are the components nucleotides? 2. Discuss the influences of different parameters on enzyme activity. [16] [16]

3. Define effectiveness factor? Discuss the effect of external mass transfer resistance on immobilized enzyme kinetics. [16] 4. Describe structured & cybernetic models for cellular growth 5. Discuss about the stoichiometry of cell growth & product formation 6. a) What is the importance of sterilization in bioprocessing? b) Discuss about sterilization reactors [16] [16]

[8+8]

7. Discuss the applications of heat transfer in biological reactors? Give some heat transfer equipment used in biological systems? [16] 8. Describe the various cell disruption techniques? [16]

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Code No: V3239/R07

Set No. 1

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 BIO-MEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Dene axiomatic denition of probability (b) Give the classication of Random variables (c) State total probability theorem (d) Dene density function of Gaussian function. [4+4+4+4]

2. Prove that the density of sum of two random variables is equal to the convolution of individual densities X and Y with joint density function F(x,y). [16] 3. (a) Classify data compression techniques and list the features of each technique. (b) Discuss any one type of lossy data compression technique with an example. [8+8] 4. (a) Discuss an algorithm to calculate the heart rate from the ECG signal. (b) Discuss how baseline drift can be removed from the ECG recording. [10+6] 5. Write short note on (a) Write the dierences between static lter and adaptive lter. (b) Explain the principle of an adaptive lter [8+8]

6. (a) Explain the acquisition procedure of fetal ecg signal? Draw the waveform. (b) Explain the AR modeling of fetal breathing movement. 7. Obtain Y-W equations for the following models (a) y(n)=0.54 y(n-1) +e(n) (b) y(n)=1.5 y(n-1) -0.5 y(n-2) +e(n) solve for Ryy (1) and Ryy (2). 8. Give a ow chart of pronys exponential estimation method. [8+8] [16] [6+10]

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Code No: V3239/R07

Set No. 2

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 BIO-MEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Consider the probability density function f(x)=aeb|X| , where X is a random variable whose allowable values ranges from X= - to + (a) Find the c d f F(x) (b) Find the relation ship between a and b (c) Find the probability that the outcome X lies between 1 and 2. 2. (a) Write the Properties of auto correlation. (b) Write the Properties of power spectral density. [8+8] [5+5+6]

3. (a) What do you understand by lossy and lossless data compression techniques? (b) Explain any one technique from each group. 4. (a) Explain a technique to remove 50Hz noise from the ECG recording. (b) How do you determine Tachycardia in an ECG recording? 5. Primary Signal x(n)= EMG+(n), reference signal r(n)=C.EMG (a) Find the optimum weight that minimizes the mean square error. (b) Analyze the output. [8+8] [8+8] [6+10]

6. In a signal averaging application the noise amplitude is initially 4 times as large as signal amplitude. How many sweeps must be averaged to give a resulting signal to noise ratio of 4:1. [16] 7. (a) Explain the Least squares technique in signal modeling? (b) Explain the Polynomial technique in signal modeling. 8. Explain the following in detail. (a) Any two Clinical applications of pronys method. (b) Acquisition of event-related potential. [10+6] [8+8]

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Code No: V3239/R07

Set No. 3

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 BIO-MEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Dene normal density function. (b) Prove that the Gaussian density is a valid density function. (c) List out the properties of Gaussian distribution. 2. (a) Dene mean and variance of a random variable (b) Write the Properties of mean and variance (c) Prove that var(X+k)= var(X). 3. (a) Draw the ow chart of AZTEC algorithm, explain Briey (b) Explain the limitations of AZTEC algorithm if it is applied on high frequency data. [8+8] 4. (a) Explain a technique to remove 50Hz noise from the ECG recording. (b) How do you determine Tachycardia in an ECG recording? [8+8] [6+6+4] [4+8+4]

5. Write the steps in LMS algorithm and explain how it enhances the fetal ECG with neat sketches. [16] 6. During ECG acquisition, signal is degraded by trends. Explain the technique to remove the trends. Write the relevant equations. Draw the ow chart for trend Removal. [16] 7. How the prediction coecients (AR parameters) can be obtained by using L-D algorithm. [16] 8. (a) Write the various non-stationary signals with characteristics. (b) Explain the heart murmurs? Draw the their waveforms. [8+8]

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Code No: V3239/R07

Set No. 4

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 BIO-MEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Give the classical and axiomatic denitions of probability. (b) Dene joint distribution function. Explain how marginal density functions are computed from given their joint distribution functions. [6+10] 2. (a) Write the Properties of Covariance. (b) Write the Properties of correlation coecient. [8+8]

3. (a) Draw the owchart for the line detection operation of the AZTEC algorithm and explain in detail. (b) Draw the owchart for the line processing operation of the AZTEC algorithm and explain in detail. [8+8] 4. (a) What are the specications of an ECG amplier. (b) Explain about ECG data acquisition. [8+8]

5. (a) Explain the dierent types of interferences present during acquisition of biological signals. (b) Write the acquisition of ECG signal from a heart transplant patient. [8+8]

6. Explain the method to calculate the prediction coecients of the AR model at stage M Can be obtained from stage (M-1). [16] 7. According to rst order linear prediction theory e(n)=y(n)-ay(n-1),Ryy (1)=10,Ryy (0)=20. (a) Calculate the optimum value and mean square error. (b) Calculate the E[e(n) y(n-1)]. 8. (a) Write the various non-stationary signals with characteristics. (b) Explain the heart murmurs? Draw the their waveforms. [8+8] [10+6]

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Code No: V3243/R07

Set No: 1

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 MIDDLEWARE TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) Define client/server computing. Write its advantages. b) Describe two-tier client/server architecture. 2. a) What is a distributed CORBA object? Explain ORB. b) Explain about the CORBA/Java object Web. 3. a) Explain self reference in C#. b) Describe versioning shared assemblies. c) Discuss about understanding the .NET delegate type. 4. a) Discuss in detail about attribute programming. b) What are the .NET remoting namespaces? Explain. 5. a) Discuss about your first CORBA-Enabled applet. b) Discuss about the portable count. 6. a) Discuss about Java-to-IDL mapping. b) Explain CORBA constructed types. c) Explain about the server side of CORBA. 7. Discuss in detail about the Event-Driven JavaBean. 8. Explain the following: a) The EJB client/server development process b) The EJB deployment classes c) The container/Bean interfaces d) CORBA OTMs

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(5+5+6) (16)

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Code No: V3243/R07

Set No: 2

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 MIDDLEWARE TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) Discuss in detail about disadvantages of Client/Server computing. b) Describe Three-Tier client/server architecture. 2. a) Briefly discuss about the anatomy of a CORBA2.0 ORB. b) How CORBA/JAVA augment todays Web? Explain. 3. a) Describe nested type definitions. b) Explain about building a shared assembly. c) What are members of Sytem.MulticastDelegate? Explain. 4. Discuss in detail about data access with ADO.NET. 5. a) How ORBlets meet applets? Explain. b) Discuss about the Dynamic Count.

[8+8]

[8+8]

[5+5+6] [16]

(8+8)

6. a) Explain about the CORBA2.0 Interface repository. b) Discuss about mapping CORBA pseudo-objects to Java. 7. a) Explain about the Introspective Javabean. b) Describe about the Java security APIs. 8. Explain the following: a. Support for transactions. b. The remote EJB interfaces. c) EJB design guidelines.

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(8+8)

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Code No: V3243/R07

Set No: 3

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 MIDDLEWARE TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Explain how Banking application works in client/server environment. [16] 2. a) Explain in detail about CORBA services. b) Describe the anatomies of CORBA business object and Client/Server business object. [8+8] 3. a) Describe casting between types. b) Explain private assemblies and XML configuration files. c) Discuss about Callback interfaces. 4. a) Explain the role of ADO.NET data providers. b) Discuss in brief about XML Web services. 5. a) Discuss in detail about Multicount. b) Explain about the static CORBA. 6. a) Describe the introspective CORBA/Java object. b) Discuss about the server side of CORBA. 7. a) Discuss about the Beans in JARs. b) Describe property editors and customizers. 8. Explain the following: i. The EJB/container protocol ii. EJB packaging

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Code No: V3243/R07

Set No: 4

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 MIDDLEWARE TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Define centralized computing and distributed computing. Explain advantages and disadvantages of both. [16] 2. a) Explain 3-tier client/server, object-style. b) Explain about the evolution of web technologies. 3. a) Explain the formal definition of the C# class. b) Give an overview of .NET assemblies. c) Discuss about events. 4. a) Describe the System. Type class. b) Explain about configuring objects for serialization. 5. a) Explain dynamic invocations of the dynamic count. b) Describe the Multi Console applet. 6. a) Discuss in detail about CORBA3.0s POA. b) Explain general constructs of the CORBA IDL-to-Java mapping. 7. a) Describe about Bean persistence b) Discuss about event adapters. 8. Explain in detail about EJBs and CORBA object transaction Monitors.

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[5+5+6]

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Set No: 1
Code No: V3246/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Define the terms sampling and quantization. What is their role in image quality and size? (b) Write a brief note about the components of image processing systems. [8+8] 2. (a) Explain Walsh transform in detail (b) Explain Hadamard transform in detail 3. (a) Explain about spatial filtering in frequency domain. (b) What is meant by Enhancement by point processing? Explain 4. Explain the following (a) Image smoothing (b) image sharpening 5. Explain color segmentation in HCI color space and RGB vector space?

[8+8]

[8+8]

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6. Explain image restoration using algebraic approach and Least Mean Squares? [16] 7. a) Give a brief note about edge linking. b) Give a brief note about region-based segmentation. 8. a) Explain Pseudo color image processing? b) Compare RGB color model with HSI Color model?

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[8+8]

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Set No: 2
Code No: V3246/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. What are the elements of digital Image Processing? Discuss them in detail [16] 2. (a)Explain Walsh transform in detail (b) Explain discrete cosine transform in detail

[8+8]

3. (a) How we can enhance an image using arithmetic/logic operations (b) Define histogram and explain how image can be enhanced using histogram specification? [8+8] 4. (a) What do you mean by image smoothing and how it is done? (b) Explain about sharpening spatial filtering? 5. (a) Explain Pseudo color image processing? (b) Compare RGB color model with HSI Color model? 6. (a) Explain Weiner filtering? (b) What are degradations? Explain how degradations are modeled?

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7. (a) What is thresholding? Explain different types of thresholding? (b) Write an algorithm for region splitting and growing? Explain it in detail? [8+8] 8. (a) Explain source encoder and decoder in detail? (b) Explain channel encoder and decoder in detail?

[8+8]

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Set No: 3
Code No: V3246/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. Distinguish between spatial domain techniques and frequency domain techniques 2. Define 2D-FFT. List and Explain 2D-FFT properties

[16] [2+14]

3. What is meant by histogram equalization? Discuss how it is useful to Image enhancement. [16] 4. (a) How smoothing and sharpening can be done for a color image? (b) Explain color image compression? 5. (a) Explain Pseudo color image processing? (b) Compare RGB color model with HSI Color model? 6. Give the expression for pdf of the following and plot them i) Rayleigh noise. ii) Gaussian noise. iii) Erlang noise. iv) Exponential noise. v) Uniform noise. vi) Impulse noise. 7. (a) Explain how the second-order derivative of a 2-D function is computed in spatial domain. (b) Give a detailed note about Hough transform.

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[16]

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8. (a) Draw the image compression model and describe the functions of each unit in it. (b) What are the various coding techniques for error-free compression and discuss in detail Huff-man coding. [8+8]

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Set No: 4
Code No: V3246/R07 III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING (Electronics and Computer Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) What is Image processing and explain the components of it? (b) What is Spatial and Gray level resolution? [8+8] 2. (a) Explain Haar transform in detail (b) Explain slant transform in detail

[8+8]

3. (a) Prove that for continuous signal Histogram equalization results in flat histogram. (b) Explain how Histogram statistics helps in Image Enhancement. [8+8] 4. (a) Discuss the importance of image compression? Discuss about inter pixel redundancy. (b) Discuss how color smoothening and sharpening can be done. [8+8] 5. (a) Explain Pseudo color image processing? (b) Compare RGB color model with HSI Color model?

[8+8]

6. (a) Explain in detail about different types of order statistics filters for Restoration. (b) Name different types of estimating the degradation function for use in image restoration and explain in detail estimation by modeling. [6+10] 7. (a) Distinguish between discontinuity and similarity.. (b) Explain about the following edge detection techniques i) Lapalacian and ii) Laplacian of Gaussian. 8. (a) Explain Lossy predictive coding with example? (b) Explain different video compression standards?

[8+8]

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Code No: V3251/R07

Set No. 1

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-II (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Starting from the rst principles and with the help of neatly drawn velocity triangles obtain the following relationship: = 2 (tan 2 + tan 3 ) where is the blade loading coecient, is the ow coecient, 2 and 3 are the air angels. [16] 2. How do you estimate gas bending stresses in a rotor blade? [16]

3. (a) Explain the reasons why the use of after burning thrust augmentation method is limited to only for a short periods. (b) Draw the performance chart of an after burner engine and explain it in detail. [8+8] 4. What are the various assumptions made while analyzing an ideal ramjet engine? Explain the conditions occurring at the exit of diuser section and combustion chamber. [16] 5. Explain the rocket engine principle. Classify the rockets and write their salient features. [16] 6. How the solid rocket motor casing and nozzle are protected against high temperatures. [16] 7. Write short notes on the following with respect to the liquid propellant rocket motor (a) Ablative cooling. (b) Film cooling (c) Advantages of liquid rockets over solid rockets. (d) Monopropellants [4+4+4+4]

8. Explain the ideal ight performance of a low thrust electric propulsion system. [16]

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Code No: V3251/R07

Set No. 2

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-II (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. With the help of a neat diagram, indicating angle of incidence, eux angle, chord, pitch, opening between consequent blades for the ow of gas etc. Discuss the variation in prole loss coecient (Yp ) as a function of angle of incidence (i) for both impulse and reaction type turbine blades. [16] 2. Discuss in detail the limiting factors in turbine design. [16]

3. Explain the basic concepts of thrust augmentation through after burning concept, and discuss in detail about the associated pressure losses. [16] 4. (a) Dene Eective jet Mach number for a ramjet engine and derive the relationship for it. (b) Write a detailed note on variable geometry ramjet engine. 5. (a) Derive the equation for thrust of a rocket motor. (b) Dierentiae between the rocket and missile. 6. Explain the following with respect to solid propellants: (a) Fuels (b) Formulations and Ingredients (c) Toxicity (d) Particle size parameters. [4+4+4+4] [8+8] [8+8]

7. What are the various types of propellant tanks in the case of liquid rocket motors? Explain the role, desirable characteristics, advantages and disadvantages of propellant tanks. [16] 8. What are the sub-systems of a typical electrical propulsion system? How will you relate them to solid propellant rocket motor sub systems? [16]

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Code No: V3251/R07

Set No. 3

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-II (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) For a free vortex turbine blade with an impulse hub show that the degree of reaction () at any radius r is related to the hub radius rh by the following relation: = 1- (rh / r)2 (b) For such a turbine determine the degree of reaction at the mean and tip diameters when the root and tip diameters are 50 and 100cms respectively. [10+6] 2. Discuss in detail about the quasi-steady and periodic uctuating type of stresses acting on a conventional turbine blade, which could lead to crack initiation and eventual failure of the blade. [16] 3. Write notes on the following with respect to solid rocket motors: (a) Thrust vector control (b) Moveable Nozzles. [8+8]

4. A ramjet is to propel an aircraft at Mach 3 at high altitude where the ambient pressure is 8.5 kPa and the ambient temperature Ta is 220 K. The turbine inlet temperature T is 2540 K. If all components are ideal, i.e. frictionless determine the following: (a) The thermal eciency (b) The propulsion eciency (c) The overall eciency Let the specic heat ratio () be 1.4 and fuel-to-air ratio, f = 0.03. 5. (a) Derive the equation for thrust of a rocket motor. (b) Write a note on sounding rockets. [16] [8+8]

6. What are the design considerations of a propellant grain of a solid propellant rocket motor. [16] 7. Explain the various liquid fuels for liquid rocket motors. Write down their advantages, disadvantages and area of application. [16] 8. (a) Dierentiate between chemical and nuclear rockets. (b) Write a note on solar sails. [8+8]

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Code No: V3251/R07

Set No. 4

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011 AEROSPACE PROPULSION-II (Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks

1. Dene the loss coecient for nozzle blades and derive the following relationship with the help of T-s diagram. YN = N { 1 + [( - 1) M2 ] / 2} 2 where YN is the nozzle blade loss, N is the nozzle blade loss coecient, M2 is the Mach number at blade exit, and is the ratio of specic heats. [16] 2. Write short notes on the following: (a) Internal and external air cooling of turbine blades (b) Internal and external liquid cooling of turbine blades. 3. Write short notes on the folloeing (a) Jetavators (b) Moveable nozzle (ball/socket/gimbal ring) [8+8] [8+8]

4. (a) Dene Eective jet Mach number for a ramjet engine and derive the relationship for it. (b) Write a short note on External Drag of ramjet engine. 5. Explain briey what is meant by (a) Hypergolic propellants. (b) UDMH (c) RFNA (d) Gelled propellants. [4+4+4+4] [8+8]

6. (a) Compare the various exhaust gas properties of a typical composite solid propellant (with aluminum and prechlorate ) with that of a cryogenic liquid propellant such as O2 -H2 . (b) Explain the distinct features, advantages and disadvantages of the following with respect to the solid propellant rocket motor: i. Jetavators ii. Moveable nozzle ( ball/ socket/ gimbal ring). [8+4+4]

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7. What is the advantage of using cryogenic propellants in liquid rockets? Mention the typical cryogenic propellants and their applications. What are the precautions taken while handling them? [16] 8. Explain the dierent types of electric propulsion devices. What are the typical applications of electric propulsion? [16]

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Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 1

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO PROCESSES BIO(Biotechnology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) What is Radiation? Explain briefly s b) Determine the steady state rate of heat transfer per unit area through a 4.0 cm thick nit homogeneous slab with its two faces maintained at uniform temperatures of 38oC and 21 oC. uniform The thermal conductivity of the material is 0.19 W/ W/m.K. c) Define Fouriers law of heat conduction (6+6+4) 2. The inner surface of a high temperature reactor will operate at 1623 k. The wall of the reactor e will have an overall thickness of 350 mm and is to be made up of an inner layer of firebrick material (kr = 0.86 W/mK), covered with a layer of insulation ( Ki = 0.16 W /mK). This insulating material has a maximum operating temperature of 1473 K. The ambient temperature temperature will be 293 K and it is estimated that the heat transfer coefficient at the exposed surface of the insulation will be 10 W/ m2 K. Calculate the thickness of refractory and insulation, which gives minimum heat loss, and the magnitude of this loss in W/ m2. Also calculate the surface temperature of the insulation (16) 3. (a) Explain the phenomena of heat transfer through turbulent boundary layer and define film boundary heat transfer coefficient. (b) A thin plate, 2.5 m length and 1.5 m breadth, is exposed to a flow of air (2m/s) parallel to is its surface. Calculate the coefficient of heat transfer from the plate to the air and th amount of coefficient the heat transferred. The data is given as: Thermal conductivity of air at 200 C = 2.59 10-2 w/moC . The surface temperature of plate is 1000 C and the bulk temperature of air is 200 C. (8+8) 4. What electrical power is required to maintain a 0.076 mm diameter,0.6 m long vertical wire at 0.076 400 K in an atmosphere of quiescent air at 300 K? The wires resistance is 0.0118 ohms per meter. At a mean film temperature the physical properties is as follows: =20.76X10-6 m2/s Pr=0.697 k=0.030 03 W/m.K =1/T=0.00286 K-1 (16) 5. Cooling water flowing inside a horizontal condenser tube maintains its outside surface at 300C. The tube is surrounded by steam at 0.2 atm absolute. Find the outside diameter, in absolute. meters, necessary to produce a turbulent film of condensate at the bottom of the tube. condensate Enthalpy of vaporization = 2.359 106 J/kg At 37.50 C the properties of the condensate are: K = 0.626 w/mK; P = 994 kg/m3 ; = 0.68 cp. 1 of 2 (16)

Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 1

6. a) In a counter heat flow heat exchanger, the hot stream is cooled from 120 to 30oC while the cold stream temperature changes from 20 to 60oC. If the same exchanger was operated with parallel flow, what would be the exit temperature of the two streams? b) Write short notes on 1-2 shell & tube type exchanger with neat sketch (8+8) 7. 5000 kg/hr of a 20% aqueous sodium hydroxide solution enters an evaporator with an inlet temperature of 333 K. It is concentrated to a product of 50% solids. Calculate the steam used, steam economy and the heating surface area using the following data. Overall hat transfer coefficient = 1560 W/m2 K Temperature of Saturate steam used = 114.6 0C Latent heat of steam used = 2214 kJ/kg o Enthalpy of 20% NaOH at 60 C = 214 kJ/kg o Enthalpy of 50% NaOH at 90 C = 50 kJ/kg o Boiling point of 50% NaOH = 90 C Enthalpy of saturated steam 90oC = 2667 kJ/kg (16) 8. a)What is the importance of sterilization in bio-processing? b)What are the different methods of air sterilization? (8+8)

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Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 2

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO- PROCESSES (Biotechnology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. (a) Derive an expression for steady state heat conduction through compound resistances a series of a cylinder. (b) Explain in detail about the radiation with suitable examples (8+8) 2. A pipe with 150 mm OD is lagged with double layer of insulation-earth of equal thickness, that is, 50 mm. The thermal conductivity of one of the insulating materials is five times that of the other. What will be the ratio of heat loss when the better insulating material forms the outer layer to that of the better insulating material placed next to the pipe. Assume the inner and outer surface temperatures of the composite insulation are fixed. (16) 3. (a) Describe the phenomena of heat transfer through turbulent boundary layer and define film heat transfer coefficient. b) Explain briefly various correlations available for estimation of heat transfer coefficient in forced convection (8+8) 4. Estimate the heat loss from a vertical wall exposed to nitrogen at one atmosphere and 4 oC. The wall is 1.8 m high and 2.45m wide. It is maintained at 50 oC. For nitrogen at a mean film temperature the physical properties is as follows: =101421 kg/m3, k = 0.02620 W/m.K, =15.63X10-6 m2/s, Pr=0.713 (16)

5. a) Draw heat flux versus temperature curve for pool boiling of saturated liquids and identify various points in it b) Explain in detail about the applications of condensation heat transfer (10+6) 6. A shell and tube steam condenser is to be constructed of 2.5 cm OD, 2.2 cm ID, signal pass horizontal tubes with steam condensing at 54oC on outside of the tubes. The cooling water enters at 20oC and leaves at 36oC at a flow rate of 1 kg/s. The heat transfer coefficient for the condensation of steam is 7900 W. Calculate the tube length. If the latent heat of condensation is 2454 kJ/kg. Calculate the condensation rate per tube. The properties of water are as follows: specific heat 4180 J/(kg.oC), viscosity 0.86X10-3 kg/m.s, thermal conductivity 0.61 W/(m.oC). The heat transfer coefficient for turbulent flow in a pipe may be determined by Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4. (16) 1 of 2

Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 2

7. A solution of organic colloids in water is to be concentrated from 8 to 45% solids in a single effect evaporator. Steam is available at a gauge pressure of 1.03 atm. A pressure of 120 mm Hg absolute is to be maintained in the vapour space. The feed rate to evaporate is 20,000 kg/hr. The overall heat transfer coefficient can be taken as 2,800 W/m2oC. The solution has a negligible elevation in boiling point and a negligible heat of dilution. Calculate the steam consumption the economy and hat surface required if the temperature of the feed is 51.7oC. The specific heat of the feed is 3.77 J/goC and latent heat of vaporisation of the solution may be taken equal to that of water. Radiation losses may be neglected. Latent heat of the solution at 1.958 atm = 517oC 2379 kJ/kg Latent heat of the steam at 120.5oC = 2200 kJ/kg (16) 8. a) Describe thermal sterilization methods for heat labile components in the culture media. b) Write a note on the sterilization of the fermenter. (8+8)

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Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 3

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO PROCESSES BIO(Biotechnology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. A laboratory furnace wall is constructed of 0.2m thick fireclay brick having kb=0.07W/m.K. thick The furnace inner brick surface is at 1250 K and the outer surface of the insulation material is the at 310 K. Calculate the steady state heat transfer rate through the wall in W/m2, and determine heat the interfacial temperature T2 between the brick and the insulation. (16) 2. A chemical reactor, 1 m in diameter and 5 m long, operates at a temperature of 1073 K. It is temperature covered with a 500 mm thickness of lagging of thermal conductivity 0.1 W/mK. The heat loss overed thermal from the cylindrical surface to the surroundings is 3.5 kW. What is the heat transfer coefficient from the surface of the lagging to the surroundings at a temperature of 293 K? How would he heat loss be altered if the coefficient were halved? coefficien (16) 3. (a) Explain the boundary layer development for cold horizontal flat plate exposed to hot air ho 3 (b) Water flow in a tube (1.5 cm inner diameter) at a rate of 0.05 m /h. It receives a uniform wall heat flux of 1000W/m2. Calculate the value of (i) Local heat transfer coefficient (ii) (ii) Wall temperature at a section when velocity and temperature profiles are fully and developed and local bulk mean temperature is 400 C. (8+8) 4. a) Differentiate between natural co convection and forced convection b) Write the important dimensionless numbers that a important in natural convection are c) Write few situations that we will come across natural convection in day to day life come (6+6+4) 5. (a) Explain the regimes of Pool boiling. (b) Pure saturated potassium vapour at a pressure of 100 mm condenses on a vertical surface. of 0 Given (Ts Tw ) = 5 C and L=1m. Calculate the valule of the condensing side heat transfer co-efficient if Nusselts solution is valid. For potassium= = 2077 kJ/kg; efficient W/m-K. = 705 kg/m
3

K = 35.8 (6+10)

= 0 00016kg/m-sec

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Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 3

6. The wall of cold storage unit comprises a brick layer (thickness B=0.1 m, thermal conductivity KB=1.4 W/mK) and an inner layer of polyethane foam (thickness p=0.005 m, thermal conductivity Kp = 0.015 W/mK). Assume one dimensional heat transfer by conduction through the composite wall, and that the inner surface of the polyethane layer is at temperature Tc and the outer surface of the brick layer is at temperature Th. Derive an expression for the heat flux per unit area through the wall. Calculate the rate of heat gain when Tc=-10C and Th=40C. The surface area for heat transfer is 260 m2. (16) 7. An aqueous solution of a solute is concentrated from 5% to 20% in a single-effect short-tube evaporator. The feed enters the evaporator at a rate of 10 kg/s and at a temperature of 300 K. Steam is available at a saturated pressure of 1.3 bar and the corresponding saturation temperature of steam is 320 K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 5000 W/m2K, Calculate the: steam economy Heat transfer surface area. (16) 8. a) How do you describe the effect of temperature on sterilization? b) What is meant by inactivation factor? Give and expression for it.

(6+10)

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Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 4

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011 HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO- PROCESSES (Biotechnology) Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ***** 1. a) A plane wall 0.15 cm thick, of a homogeneous material with k=0.40W/m.K, has steady and uniform temperatures T1= 20 oC and T2=70 oC. Determine the heat transfer rate in the positive x-direction per square meter of surface area. b) What are the range of thermal conductivity values for gases, liquids and solids c) Define black body, grey body and white body (6+4+6) 2. The heat loss through a firebrick furnace wall 0.2 m thickness of insulating brick necessary to reduce the heat loss to 400 W/m2. The inside furnace wall temperature is 1573 K, the ambient air adjacent to the furnace exterior is at 293 K and the natural convection heat transfer coefficient at the exterior surface is given by hC = 3.0T0.25 W/mK, where T is the temperature difference between the surface and the ambient air. (Thermal conductivity of firebrick = 1.5 W/mK, thermal conductivity of insulating brick = 0.4 W /mK). (16) 3. a) Explain the boundary layer development for cold vertical flat plate exposed to hot air and hot vertical flat plate exposed to cold air cases. b) What is thermal diffusivity and write its analogy terms in momentum transfer. c) Define Nusselt number and Greatz number (8+4+4) 4. Write in detail about the natural convection (16)

5. (a) Explain briefly, the Nusselts assumptions in the analysis of heat transfer in film wise condensation. (b) Steam is condensing at 1.2 atm in the shell side of a horizontal tubular condenser containing 100 tubes of 2 cm O.D. arranged in 10 rows. The tube wall temperature is 800 C. Calculate the steam side heat transfer coefficient in Kcal/hr-m2-0-C, if the properties of water are K = 0.7 Kcal/hr-m-0C; Cp = 1.2 C cal/kg0 C. Viscosity = 0.9 Cp. What is the rate of condensation if the tube is 2 metres? (8+8) 6. An existing shell and tube heat exchanger cools 45360 kg/hr of oil (specific heat = 0.6) from 940 C to 380 C by a counter flow of 36000 kg/hr of water entering at 210C. It is proposed to build another heat exchanger of the same dimension but longer in length in order to cool the same flow of oil to 270C with the same water and water flow. Calculate the ratio of length of the two tube bundles. (16) 1 of 2

Code No: V3260/R07

Set No: 4

7. A continuous single effect evaporator is to be fed with 6000 kg/hr of a solution containing 5% wt. The feed is at a temperature of 310 K. It is to be concentrated to a solution of 8 wt% solute. The evaporation is at atmospheric pressure of 51.33 kPa. What will be the requirement for the evaporator? Saturated stream is applied at 163.6 kPa for heating. The overall heat transfer coefficient 176 3 W/m2 K. Enthalpy, kj/kg Temperature Stream (k) Liquid Vapour Feed 2569.0 Product at 310 154.9 2647.1 51.33 kPa 355.15 343.8 2697.2 Steam at 387.3 478.3 163.6 kPa (16) 8. a) Compare and contrast the batch and continuous sterilization processes. b) Define the efficiency of air filter in sterilization of air. c) What is meant by Del factor?

(8+4+4)

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