GE 103-Basic Engineering-II

slutload The objective of this subject will help us to know the basic knowledge of Electronics. The concept of semiconductors, transistors, diodes, FET, MOSFET their working principles, construction and working model. To know about the a.c to dc converting circuits like half wave, full wave rectifiers circuits. Also the filter operation of ripples using various types of filter circuits. The various types of transducer working, construction and uses will be discussed briefly and moving coil and moving iron instruments, thermistors, thermocouple, LVDT their construction and working principles are discussed. The basic building of digital gates like AND, NAND, OR, NOR are studied. Also the conversion types of various number systems like hexa, decimal, octal, binary will be studied. GE103 Basic Engineering-II 1. The current amplification factor of a common base configuration is the ratio of a)Ic/Ie b)Ib/Ic c)Ie/Ib d)Ie/Ic 2. A charge of 200mv in base emitter voltage causes a change of 100 micro amp in the base current. Find the input resistance of the transistor. a)3kohm b)4kohm c)2kohm d)5kohm 3. The phase difference of ______________ between the signal voltage and output voltage in a common emitter amplifier is known as phase reversal. a) 180 b) 90 c) 0 d) 360 4. A FET is a three terminal semiconductor device in which current conduction is by one type of carrier i.e_______________ a)electrons b)holes c)electrons or holes d)none 5. Substrate in n-channel MOSFET is only a single_________________ a)p region b)n region c) pn region d) np region

6. ____________ is the maximum anode current, gate being open, at which SCR is turned off from ON condition a) Forward current b) holding current c) breakdown current d) none 7. The applied input a.c. power to a half wave rectifier is 100 watts. the d.c. output power obtained is 400 watts. What is the rectification efficiency? a)100% b)80% c)40% d)60% 8. The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is__________ a)81.2% b)71.4% c)90.3% d)83.4%

9. A zener diode has sharp breakdown voltage called___________ voltage a) Avalanche b) zener c) breakdown d) all 1

10. In silicon, the energy required to break their covalent bond is_______________ a)0.8v b)0.7ev c)1.1ev d)0.4ev 11. A transducer is a device which converts energy from one from to another form this energy may be a)electrical b)mechanical and chemical c)optical or thermal d)all 12. ___________ is a active transducers. a) Thermocouple b) Photo electric cell d) Thermistor e) LVDT c) Piezo electric

13. The Hall Effect is used to find whether a semi conductor is_______________ a)p type b)n type c)n or p type d)none 14. __________ is due to the inertia of the moving system. a) Inertia torque b) control torque c) spring control 15. Moving iron instruments are ___________ type. a)attraction b)repulsion c)both d) opposing torque d)none

16. Moving iron attraction type attraction type instruments can be used to measure d.c or a.c scale is_______________ a)uniform b)non uniform c)accurate d)none 17. Thermistor is a______________ terminal semiconductor. a)two b)one c)three d)four

18. The chromel-alumel thermocouple is used for temperature measurement up to ______ a)1370C b)760C c)840C d)1400C 19. A moving coil dynamometer type instruments as a ammeter, two coils are electrically in___________ a)series b)parallel c)series or parallel d)none 20. Rosette is a _________ wire strain guage. a)bonded b)unbonded 21. The gate ideally suited for bit comparison is a) XNOR b) XOR c)linear c) NAND d)none d) NOR

22. If an input A is given to an inverter, the output will be a) 1/A b) 1 c) Complement of A d) A 23. NAND gate means a) Inversion followed by AND gate c) AND gate followed by in inverter 24. Boolean algebra can be used to a) Simplify any algebraic expressions c) Solve the mathematical problems b) Inversion followed by OR gate d) none of these b) Minimize number of switches d) Perform arithmetic calculations

25. A string of 8-bits is known as a) Quad b) Octet 26. A decimal number 6 in excess -3 code is a) 0110 b) 0011

c) Nipple c) 1101

d) Byte d) 1001 d) 6 d) 10

27. The number of digits in a binary number system are a) 10 b) 2 c) 4 28. The base of hexa-decimal number system is a) 6 b) 8 c) 16

29. Which out of the following binary number is equivalent to decimal number 24 a) 1101111 b) 11000 c) 111111 d) 11001 30. The 1 complement of a binary number is obtained by changing a) Each 1 to a 0b) Each 0 to a 1 c) None of these Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A C A C A B C A B C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D A C A C B A A A A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B C C C D D B C B C

EC100 Circuit Theory Today's Engineering graduates are no longer employed solely to work on the technical design aspects of engineering problems. To contribute to the solution of the engineering problems an engineer must acquire knowledge of ELECTRIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS. Emphasis is placed on the basic circuit concepts, circuit modeling and methods of circuit analysis in time domain and frequency domain for solving simple and multi dimensional circuits including coupled circuits and three phase circuits. Unit I deals with the understanding the concept of circuit elements, lumped circuits, waveforms, circuit laws and helps to solve the electrical network using mesh and nodal analysis. Unit II is used to analyze electrical circuits (both AC and DC) using theorems such as Superposition, thevenin's, Norton's, Maximum power transfer, Compensation, Tellegen's, Millman's and Substitution theorem. Unit III explains about the concept of active, reactive and apparent powers, power factor and resonance in series and parallel circuits. Unit IV is used to know the basic concepts of coupled circuits, three phase loads and power measurement. Analysis of Transient response of series and parallel AC circuits and solving problems in time domain using Laplace Transform are to be studied under Unit V. EC100 Circuit Theory 1. A Series circuit consists of a 4.7K, 5.6K, 9K and 10K resistor. Which resistor has the most voltage across it? (a) 4.7K (b) 5.6K (c) 9K (d) 10K 2. The total power in a series circuit is 10W. There are five equal value resistors in the circuit. How much power does each resistor dissipate? (a) 10W (b) 5W (c) 2W (d) 1 W 3. In a four branch parallel circuit, 10mA of current flows in each branch. If one of the branch opens, the current in each of the other branches (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains unaffected (d) Doubles 4. A tree has (a) a Closed path (b) no closed paths (c) none

5. The number of branches in a tree is ___________ the number of branches in a graph (a) less than (b) more than (c) equal to 4

6. The tie-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch current and link currents (c) branch currents and link voltages 7. The cut-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch current and link currents (b) branch Voltages and tree branch voltages (b) branch voltages and link currents (c) branch current and tree currents 8. Mesh analysis is based on (a) KCL (b) KVL

(b) branch Voltage and link currents (d)none of the above

(c) Both

(d) None

9. If a network contains B branches, and N nodes, then the number of mesh current equations would be (a) B-(N-1)(b)N-(B-1) (c) B-N-1 (d) (B+N)-1 10. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. The number of different node pair voltages would be (a) 7 (b)9 (c)45 (d) 10 11. Three equal resistance of 3 are connected in star. What is the resistance in one of the arms in an equivalent delta circuit? (a) 10 (b) 3 (c) 9 (d) 27 12. Three equal resistances of 5 are connected in delta. What is the resistance in one of the arms of the equivalent star circuit? (a) 5 (b) 1.33 (c) 15 (d)10 13. Superposition theorem is valid only for (a) linear circuits (c) both linear and non linear 14. Superposition theorem is not valid for (a) voltage responses (c) power responses (b) non-linear circuits (d) neither of the two (b) current responses (d) all the three

15. Nortons equivalent circuit consists of (a) Voltage source in parallel with parallel with impedance (b)Voltage source in series with impedance (c) Current source in series with impedance (d) Current source in parallel with impedance 16. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to (a)linear networks only (b) bilateral networks only (c) linear and non-linear networks (d) neither of the two 17. Compensation theorem is applicable to (a)linear networks only (b) non-linear networks only (c) linear and non- linear networks only (d)neither of the two 5

18. Maximum power is transferred when load impedance is (a) equal to source impedance (b)equal to half of the source impedance (d) equal to zero (d) none of the above 19. Indicate the dual of series network consists of voltage source, capacitance, inductance in (a) parallel combination of resistance, capacitance and inductance (b) series combination of current source, capacitance and inductance (c)parallel combination of current source, inductance and capacitance (d) none of the above 20. when the superposition theorem is applied to any circuit, the dependent voltage source in that circuit is always (a)opened (b) shorted (c)active (d) none of the above 21. Power factor of a pure inductor is a) 0 b) 1/2 22. Time constant of a series RC circuit equal a) CR second b) C/R S c) 1 d)3/2 c) CR2second d) C/R2second d) Li

23. Energy W in an inductor L carrying current I equal a) 1/2Li2 b) Li2 c) Ldi/dt

24. Two resistance are connected in parallel and each dissipates 40 watts. The total power supplied by the source equals a) 40 watts b) 80 watts c) 160 watts d) 20 watts 25. We may neglect a current source, if across the terminals of the source we have a) Open circuit b) short circuit c) an inductor d) capacitor 26. Voltages V1 and V2 in the given circuits are

a) 4V, 8V

b) 8V, 4V

c) 6V each

d) 12V each

27. In electrical network, junction branches at a common point is called a) loop b) mesh c) node d) joint branch 28. A series RLC circuit resonates at 3 MHz and has 3db bandwidth of 10 KHz. The Q of the circuit at resonate is a) 30 b) 300/2 c) 1300d) 300/2 29. A series RLC circuits resonates at 1000 KHz at frequency of 1005 KHz, the circuit impedance is a) Resistive b) capacitive c) inductive d) minimum 6

30. In a resonant circuit, the power factor at resonance is a) 0 b) unity c) 0.5

d) none

31. In a linear network when the AC input is double, the AC output becomes a) 2 times b) 4 times c) times d) times 32. When 2 inductor L1, L2, are connected in parallel, the combined inductance a) L1+L2 b) L1 L2/(L1+L2) c) L1+L2/L1 L2 d)1/(L1 L2) 33. In the circuit the equivalent inductance between terminals a and b is

a) L1+L2

b) L1+L2+2M

c) L1+L2-2M

d) L1-L2

34. Two coupled inductor L1=0.2 H and L2=0.8 H have co-efficient of coupling K=0.7 the mutual inductance M is a) 0.2H b) 0.28 c) 0.112H d) 1H 35. Power factor of purely resistive circuits is a) 0 b)1 c)0.5 d) infinity

36. In the given circuits load ZL is adjusted for maximum transfer power. The power delivered to the load is

a) 25 W

b) 62.5 W

c) 38.5 W

d) 110 W

37. Delta equivalent of the given star connected circuit ZOR is equal to

a) 40

b) (20+j10)

c) (5+j10/3)

d) (10+j 30)

38. The power consumed by 5 resistors is 10 W, and then power factor circuit will be

a) 0.8

b) 0.5

c) 0.6

d) 0

39. A balance star connected load with impedance of 20 -30 is supplied from a three phase, 4 wire, 173 volt system, the voltage neutral being 100 -90,100 -30, 100 -150 the current in the neutral is a) 5A b) 8.8A c) 0 d) 50A 40. If V, W, q stand for voltage energy and charge then V can be expressed has a) V = dq/dw b) V= dw/dq c) dv=dw/dq d)dv=dq/dw 41. Transient response occurs a) only in resistive circuits c) only in capacitive circuits b) only in inductive circuits d) both in (b) & (c) c) R/L d) e-R/L

42. The time constant of a series R-L circuit is a) LR b) L/R

43. A Series RL circuit with R=30 and L=15H has a constant voltage V=60V applied at t=0. The transient current will be a) 2e-2tA b) 60e-2tA c) 2(1-e-2t))A d) 60(1-e-2t))A 44. The current equation for the series R-C circuit is a) V/Re-t/RC b) V/R(1-e-(R/C)t) c) Ve-t/RC 45. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is a) RC b) R/C c) 1/RC d) -Ve-t/RC+C d) e-RC d) R<2(L/C)

46. Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when a) R=2(L/C) b) R=0 c) R>2(L/C)

47. The transient current in a loss-free LC circuit when excited from an ac source is an _________ sine wave a) undamped b) over damped c) under damped d) critically damped 48. A series RLC circuit is excited by an ac source, when R>2(L/C), the response of transient current is a) over damped b) under damped c) critically damped d) undamped 49. Laplace transform analysis gives a) time domain response only c) both (a) & (b) b) frequency domain response only d) none 8

50. The current in an RL series circuit is given by 2(di/dt)+4i=0. Express the current in S domain a) i(0+)/(2s+4) b) ) i(0+)/(s+4) c) Zero d) i(0+)/(2s+1) Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d c c b a a b b a c

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a b a c d a c a a a

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

a a a a a a c c c b

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

a b b b b b d c c a

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

d b c a c d a a c a

EC201 -DIGITAL SYSTEMS This course is aimed at developing the skills needed to work effectively in digital electronics. This is divided into five units Unit 1 focus on Boolean Algebra, Theorems, Number Systems, Binary arithmetic, Different codes. Unit 2 covers the logic families like RTL, TTL, ECL and CMOS. Unit 3 concentrates on combinational circuits like Adders, Subtracters, Comparators, Multiplexers, and Demultiplexers. Unit 4 Covers Flip-Flops, Shift registers, Counters and design of Synchronous Sequential Circuits. Unit 5 is on Semi conductor memories like ROM, RAM, PLA and PAL EC201 -DIGITAL SYSTEMS 1. The 7-bit even parity hamming code of 1011 is (a) 0011011 (b) 1100100 (c) 1111011 (d) 0000111 (d) 00000001 (d) None of the above (d)0000 1111 (d) 11101 (d) 11101 (d) 0 d) (A.B) = A B (d) 10000111

2. Subtract 22-17 using 2s complement, results in (a) 100101 (b) 0000 1010 (c) 11001010 3. The Gray code of binary 1101 is (a) 1011 (b) 1100100 (c) 1111011

4. The BCD representation of binary number 00100001 is (a) 0011 1000 (b) 0011 0011 (c) 1111 0011 5. The excess 3 representation of addition (5 + 3) is (a) 0011 (b) 10000 (c) 01101 6. Convert Gray code to excess 3 for the input 1011 is (a) 01111 (b) 10000 (c) 01101 7. (1 + A) in Boolean algebra is reduced to (a) 1 (b) 0 8. Demorgans theorem is expressed as (a) )(A.B)=A+ B b) (A.B) 9. The ASCII code for letter C is (a) 01000011 (b) 11001001 (c) A c) A + B (c) 11110111

10. The canonical representation of function f(a,b,c) = C is f = m() (a) 1,3,5,7 (b) 1,5,7 (c) 1, 7 (d) 0, 5, 7 11. Emitter Coupled Logic(ECL) belongs to __________________ a) Nonsaturated family b) Unsaturated family c) Saturated family d) None of the above 10

12. Schottky diode is used in TTL gate to _________________ a) Reduce voltage requirement b) Increase noise margin c) Reduce storage time d) To decrease fan in 13. CMOS logic circuits primary advantage is ___________ a) Less fan out b) High noise margin c) More power consumption d)Less power dissipation 14. In TTL family gate IIL is a) 1.6mA b) 16mA 15. Find out the odd man out a) RTL, DTL, TTL c) MTL, STL, XTL 16. The prefix for low power Schottky gate is a) 74D b) 74LS 17. Wired AND combination is not permitted in a) Open Collector c) Totem pole c) 40A d) 400A

b) ECL, TTL, MOS d) HTL, ECL, CMOS c) 74LP b) Open Emitter d) Tristate device d) 5V,0.4V d)74L

18. ECL family high and low state is represented by a) 5V,4V b) -0.8V,-1.8V c) -1.8V,0.8V

19. ___________ channel MOS conducts when its gate-to-source voltage is positive. a) p b) pnp c) npn d)n 20. The CMOS family that is pin compatible with TTL is a) 74HC b) 74D c) 74C 21. Multiplexer is a circuit which has a) many inputs to one output c) many inputs to many outputs 22. -------------------- is called as Data Selector a)Demultiplexer b)Decoder 23. A decoder has , a) No. of o/ps > No. of i/ps c) No. of o/ps = No. of i/ps 24. Which is called a Data Distributor a) Demultiplexer b) Decoder b) one input to many output d) none of the above c)Multiplexer d)Encoder

b) No. of o/ps < No. of i/ps d) None of the above c) Multiplexer d) Encoder

25. The process of taking information from 1 input and transmitting the same over one of the several outputs is called a) Encoder b) Decoder c) Demultiplexer d) Multiplexer 26. The number of selection lines in a 16 to 1 Mux is a) 2 b)16 c) 4 11 d) 8

27. ------------- can be used to drive a display system a) Encoder b) Decoder c) Multiplexer 28. Combinational circuit consists of a) only logic gates c) only memory elements

d) Comparator

b) memory elements and logic gates d) none of the above

29. To implement a Boolean function with n variables the required Mux is a) 2 n+1 to mux b)2n to 1 mux c) n to 1 mux d) None of the above 30. If a decoder has n inputs the number of outputs will be a) 2n b) 2n c) 1 31. A flip flop is also known as a) bistable multivibrator b) latch c) toggle d)None of the above (d) all the above

32. . --------- counter can be constructed using minimum hardware. a) ripple counter b)modulus counter c)single mode counter d) multimode counter 33. A down counter using n flip flop counts downwards from a maximum count of (a) (2n-1) to zero b) 2n to zero c) 2n+1 to zero d) n to zero 34. Following flip flop is used to eliminate Race around problem a) RS flipflop b) JK flip flop c) Master- Slave flip flop d) None of the above 35. Sequential circuit is a one which has a) no memory element c) all inputs applied simultaneously b) atleast one memory element d) none of the above

36. Shifting a binary data to the left by one bit position using Shift register amount to a) Addition of 2 b) Subtraction of 2 c) Multiplication by 2 d) Division by 2 37. The number of flip flops required for Mod-16 ring counter is a) 4 b) 8 c) 10 (d) 16

38. The type of register in which data is entered into it only one bit at a time ,but has all the data bits available as output is a) Serial in serial out register b) Serial in parallel out register c) Parallel in serial out register d) Parallel in parallel out register 39. T flip flop is used as a) transfer data circuit c) time delay circuit b) toggle switch d) none of the above

40. If a counter is connected using six flip flops the max no of states that the counter can count are a) 6 b) 256 c) 8 d) 64 12

41. Which is dynamic RAM a) BBD b) CCD

c) DVD

d) Register &CMOS cell d)13 d) 1024

42. How many address lines need for 512*4 bit RAM a)8 b)11 c)10 43. What is the storage capacity for 32*8 ROM a) 32 b) 8 c) 256

44. Which type of ROM can be manufactured by using MOSFET only a) Mask ROM b) PROM c) EEPROM d) OTHER 45. Select the other name of RWM a) Read window memory c) Request window memory b) Row window memory d) RAM b) Programmed AND ,Programmed OR array d) Fixed AND, fixed OR array

46. Which combination can take the PLA a) Programmed AND, fixed OR array c) Fixed AND, programmed OR array

47. How many 1024*1 RAM chips are needed to construct a 1024*8 memory system a) 24 b) 8 c) 6 d) 2 48. How many 16k*4 RAMs are required to achieve a memory with a capacity of 64k and wavelength of 8 bits a) 4 b) 16 c) 8 d) 32 49. Select the correct procedure for designing FPGA a) Functional simulation, testing, programming b) Programming, testing, functional simulation c) Functional simulation, programming, testing d) Programming, functional simulation, testing 50. Select the pins for static RAM a)EN,RD b)EN,RD,WR c)EN,RD/(WR) Answer b 2 a 3 d 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 a 10 a
1 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

d)EN,WR

a c c a c b c b d d

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

a c a a b c b a a b

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

d a a c b c d b b d

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

b b c c d b b a c c

13

EC203 - Electromagnetic field theory

Fundamentals of the electromagnetic model are developed for static and magnetic fields, for the propagation of electromagnetic waves in various media and for reflection and refraction at material interfaces. Understand the basic concepts of electric field and magnetic field Compare between field and circuit theory Get an idea about the concepts of electrodynamics. To enable the students to have a fair knowledge about the theory and problems of electromagnetic Unit 1. Explain the Coolumbs Law, electric flex density, concept of divergence and also explain the brief idea of static electric fields. Unit 2. Presence various capacitance (parallel plate, two wire line, cylindrical, spherical) and also explain the boundary conditions of conductors, poissons and Laplace equation and its solutions. Unit 3. Explain static magnetic field such as Biot-Savart Law , Amperes Circuital law and its applications Unit 4. Presence Lorentz force equation , nature of magnetic material, boundary condition and inductance calculation. Unit 5. Explain the Maxwell Equation in static field, Time varying field and free space and also explain the pointing theorem and pointing vector.

EC203 - Electromagnetic field theory

1. The expression for differential volume element in terms of spherical co-ordinates a)dv=r2sindrdd b)dv=dxdydz c)dv= dddz d)dv=dxdd 2. Use of Gauss law a) Determining the E of a charge distribution with some symmetry condition b) Determining the E of a charge distribution with some Asymmetry condition c) Determining the E d) None of the above 3. Coulombs law gives a force between two point charges a) Repulsive for like charges b) Repulsive for unlike charges c) Attractive for like charges d) None of the above 4. Unit of electric field intensity is a)N/C b)N 5. Dielectric strength of air is a) 40kV/cm b) 50kV/cm 6. The force on q due to the electric field is a) F=qE b) F=E/q c)Volt meter c) 30kV/cm c) F=q/E d) C d) 20kV/cm d) F=-qE

7. Electrical potential at any point in an electric field is a a)Vector quantity b) Scalar quantity c) Both a and bd) none of the above 14

8. Electric flux density is a)Vector quantity, unit is C/m2 c) Scalar quantity, unit is C/m 9. Electric flux density D= a) /E b) E/

b)Vector quantity, unit is C/m d) Scalar quantity, unit is C/m2 c) E b) Line charge density d) Surface charge density c) Infinity c) . J = -D/t b) Infinite Solutions d) only one solution. c) c/m3 d) 2E0 d) c.m2 d) -s d) . J = I d) H

10. Electric flux density is also called as a) Displacement flux density c) Point charge density

11. The surface charge density in a good dielectric a) Zero b) S 12. Equation of continuity is a) . J = 0 b) . J = -ev/t 13. Laplace Equation has a) Two Solutions c) No Solution 14. The Unit of Polarization in dielectric is a) c/m2 b) c/m

15. If Er=1 for a dielectric medium, its electric susceptibility is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3

16. If a charge element whose volume charge density is 2c/m3 is moving with a velocity of 3ax m/s, the current density is a) 6ax A/m b) 6ax A/m2 c) 1.5ax A/m2 d) 1.5ax A/m 17. If Etan1 = ax and En1=0 the electric field E2 in a dielectric medium 2 is a) ax b) 2ax c) ay d) az 18. If the voltage across a capacitor is increased, the capacitance value a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant d)becomes infinity 19. The capacitance of Parallel Plate Capacitor is a) d/s b) /s c) d d) s/d

20. If the electric susceptibility of dielectric is 4, its relative permittivity is a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 21. Point form of Ohms law a) J = E b) V = I * R 22. Displacement current density is a) D/t b) E c) C=Q/V d) L=N/I

c) * E/t 15

d) D

23. Magnetic Field strength due to current I at a distance r equals a) I / 2r b) I2 / 4r c) I / 4r 24. Unit of Magnetic flux density is a) Farad / Metre b) Amp / Metre 25. Electric field on dielectric surface is a) Zero c) Always perpendicular to the surface 26. Gradient of a Scalar function result in a) Scalar Function c) Vector Function c) Weber /Metre2

d) I2 / 2r d) Ohms / Metre

b) Infinity d) Always parallel to the surface b) Unit Function d) Periodic Function

27. Maxwells Divergence Equation in case of static magnetic field states that a) . B = 0 b) . B = 0J c) . B = 0 / J d) . B = 0 28. AC current can induce voltage because it has a) Constant Magnetic Field c) Stronger Magnetic Field 29. Which of the following relation is true? a) X D = b) . D = 30. The Ampers Circuital Law a) c Bdl = 0 c Idl c) c Bdl = 0 c Idl b) Varying Magnetic Field d) High peek value c) . B = d) . B = -

b) c Bdl = 1/ 0 c Idl d) c Bdl = 1/40 c Idl d) EdL= I d) L=N /l

31. The mathematical representation of Amperes circuital law is a) H.dL= I b) FdL= I c) DdL= I 32. Self inductance of solenoid a) L=N2A/l b) L=N2A/l c) L=N2A/2r

33. Normal Component of B is ________ at boundary a) Continuous b) Discontinuous c) both a and b d) Non of the above 34. Lorentz force equation a) F=QE Newton c) F=Fe+Fm Newton 35. Reluctance is measured in a) Ampere /m b) N/m b)F=Q VxB Newton d) F=Q(E+V) Newton c) Ampere d) Ampere turn/Weber

36. Magnetic material in which the orbital magnetic moment and election spin magnetic moment cancel each other making not permanent magnetic moment of each atom zero are called a) Ferromagnetic material b) Paramagnetic material c) Diamagnetic material d) Both b and c 16

37. * E = a) -F/t

b) -H/t

c) -B/t c)H

d) -V/t d) E

38. Conduction current density is a) E b)H

39. Conduction current is _______ as compared to the displacement current in conductor a) very small b) very large c) medium d) none of the above 40. x H = a) JC+JD b) JC c) JD d) 2(JC+JD)

41. Which one of the fundamental equation was modified by Maxwell to form the basis of electromagnetic theory? a) Gauss Law of Electrostatic b) Gauss Law of Magnetostatic c) Faraday Law d) Ampere Law 42. Maxwell inserted the expression for displacement current JD in Amperes Law to satisfy a) Amperes Law for time varying case b) Faradays Law c) Dominant at high frequencies d) Dominant in time independent case. 43. Faradays Law is valid for both open and closed loops. The Lenz law is valid for a) Only open loop b) only close loop c) Both open and close loop d) none of the above 44. For a circular loop of constant surface area, the Faraday Law given xE = -B/t. The electric field in this case is a) Conservative b) Non-conservative c) Equal to V d) None of the above 45. Which one of the following is not Maxwells equation? a) . D = b) x E = -B/t. c) x H = J + D/t. d) . J = -/t. 46. Direction of Poynting Vector is a) In the direction of E c) Perpendicular to both E and H b) In the direction of E. H d) In the direction of H

47. In a time varying magnetic field state which of the following is true. a) x E = 0 b) x H = J c) x E = - B/t. d) None of the above 48. Magnetic flux in time varying electric field a) Diverge c) Both (a) and (b) 49. Poynting vector gives a) Current flow at a point c) Power flow at a point b) curl d) None of the above b) Magnetic field strength at a point d) none of the above 17

50. Unit for Poynting vector is a) Amp/m2 c) Watts/m2

b) Volts / m2 d) Watts/ m3

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A

b a a c b b a c a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a b d a a b a c d a

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

a a a c a c d b b a

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

a b b c d b c a b a

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

b a b a d c a c c c

18

EC205 ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS-I

As we have learned already, a transistor must be properly biased in order to operate as an amplifier. DC biasing is used to establish a steady level of transistor currents and voltages called dc operating point or quiescent point (Q-point). In this unit, several types of bias circuits are studied. The things learned about transistor biasing in the previous unit are now applied in this unit where bipolar junction transistor (BJT) circuits are used as a small-signal amplifier. The term small-signal refers to the use of signals that take up a relatively small percentage of an amplifiers operational range. Additionally, we will also learn how to reduce an amplifier to an equivalent dc and ac circuit for easier analysis, and we will learn about multi-stage amplifiers. The knowledge of FETs in the last unit are carried forward into this unit where FET circuits are used as small-signal amplifiers. Because of their high input impedance and other characteristics, FETs are often preferred over BJTs for certain types of applications. Many of the concepts that relate to amplifiers using BJTs apply as well as to FET amplifiers. The three FET amplifier configurations are common-source, common-gate and common-drain. These are analogous to common-emitter, common-base and commoncollector configurations in BJT amplifiers. In the previous unit on amplifiers, the effects of the input frequency on an amplifiers operation due to capacitive elements in the circuit were neglected in order to focus on other concepts. The coupling and bypass capacitors were considered to be ideal shorts and the internal transistor capacitances were considered to be ideal opens. This treatment is valid in the frequency is in an amplifiers mid range. As we know capacitive reactance decreases with increasing frequency and vice-versa. When the frequency is low enough, the coupling and bypass capacitors can no longer be considered as shorts because their reactances are large enough to have a significant effect. Also, when the frequency is high enough the internal transistor capacitance can no longer be considered as opens because their reactance because small enough to have significant effect on the amplifier operation. A complete picture of an amplifiers response must take into account the full range of frequencies over which the amplifiers may operate. A voltage regulator provides a constant dc output voltage that is essentially independent of the input voltage, output load current, and temperature. The voltage regulator is one part of a power supply. Its input voltage comes from the filtered output of a rectifier derived from an ac voltage or from a battery in the case of portable systems. Most voltage regulators fall into two broad categories linear regulators and switching regulators. In the linear regulated category, two general types are the series regulator and the shunt regulator. These are normally available for either positive or negative output voltages. A dual regulator provides both positive and negative outputs. In the switching regulator category, three general configurations are step-down, stepup and inverting. Many types of integrated circuit (IC) regulators are available. The most popular types of linear regulator are the three-terminal fixed voltage regulator and the three-terminal adjustable voltage regulator.
Switching regulators are also widely used.

19

EC205
UNIT-1
1. 2. 3. 4.

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS-I
BIAS AND BIAS STABILITY

5. 6.
7.

8.
9. 10.

11. 12.
13.

14.
15. 16. 17. 1.

FILL IN THE BLANKS For faithful amplification, the output shape should be ----------------- of the input shape. As an ideal condition, the operating point should be at the ----------------- of the load line. The coordinates ----------------- are called Q-point. If transistor is not properly biased ----------------- will take place. For a silicon transistor, the value of VBE is equal to ----------------- & for germanium transistor it is ---------. For a silicon transistor, the value of VCE is ----------------- and for a germanium transistor it is ----------. Two transistors of the same type are not identical due to difference in their -----------------. The stability factor is the ratio of IC and -----------------. A dc feedback provides ----------------- and an ac feedback reduces -----------------. A resistor in the emitter circuit provides ----------------- of the operating point. In a potential divider biasing circuit, if R1 is opened or R2 is shortened, the transistor will be ----------. In a potential divider biasing circuit, if R2 is opened or R1 is shortened, the transistor is dragged into ----------The intersection of dc loadline and the base current curve is called -----------. For good stabilization in potential divider circuit, the current through R1 and R2 should be ----------- times IB. The operating point means zero signal -----------. Field effect transistor works on the principle of applying an --------- field at its gate. The most important application of a FET is as --------- amplifier.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER The dc load line of a transistor circuit a. has a negative slope c. gives graphic relation between IC and IB. b. is a curved line d. does not contain Q-point. 2. The positive swing of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts clipping first when Q-point of the circuit moves a. To the centre of the loadline c. Towards the saturation point b. Two-third way up the loadline d. Towards the cut-off point. 3. In the case of a BJT amplifier, bias stability is achieved by a. Keeping the base current constant c. Keeping the temperature constant d. Keeping the temperature and base current b. Changing the base current in order to keep the IC constant. and VCB constant 4. The universal bias stabilization circuit is most popular because c. voltage divider is heavily loaded by transistor a. IC does not depend on transistor characteristics base b. its -sensitivity is high d. IC equals IE 5. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads to a. excessive heat at collector terminal c. faulty location of load line b. distortion in output signal d. heavy loading of emitter terminal 6. The negative output swing in a transistor circuit starts clipping first when Q-point a. has optimum value c. is near cut-off point b. is near saturation point d. is in the active region of the loadline 7. Which of the following method used for biasing a BJT in integrated circuits is considered independent of transistor a. fixed biasing c. collector feedback bias b. voltage divider bias d. base bias with collector feedback 8. The maximum value of collector current in a biased transistor is a. IB b. IC(sat) c. greater than IE d. IE - IB 9. Ideally, a dc load line is a straight line drawn on the collector characteristics curves between a. the Q-point and the cut-off c. VCE(cut-off) b. the Q-point and saturation d. IB=0 and IB = IC / DC 10. The input resistance at the base of a biased transistor depends mainly on a. DC b. RB c. RE d. DC and RE 11. In a certain voltage divider biased npn transistor circuit, VB is 2.95V. The dc emitter voltage is approximately a. 2.25 V b. 2.95 V c. 3.65 V d. 0.7 V 12. Voltage divider bias

20

a. cannot be independent of DC b. can be essentially independent of DC

c. d.

is not widely used requires fewer components than all other methods

13. The disadvantage of base bias is that a. it is very complex c. it is too beta dependent b. it produces low gain d. it produces high leakage current 14. Emitter bias is c. provides a stable Q-point a. essentially independent of DC d. answers (a) and (c) b. very dependent of DC 15. Collector feedback bias is a. based on the principle of positive feedback c. based on beta multiplication b. based on the principle of negative feedback d. not very stable 16. A JFET always operates with c. the drain connected to ground a. the gate-source junction reverse biased d. the gate connected to ground b. the gate-source junction forward biased 17. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds a. cut-off d. 0 V b. VDD c. VP 18. For a n-channel JFET, VGS(off) = 8 V. The value of VGS for an approximate midpoint bias is a. 4V b. 0V c. 1.25V d. 2.35V

ANSWER TO THE PROBLEMS

Fill in the blanks
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Same as that of Center VCE and IC Distortion 0.7V and 0.5V 0.5V and 0.2V Inherent parameters ICO Stability, gain 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. Stability Cut-off Saturation Q-Point 10 Values of IC and VCE Electric buffer

Choose the correct answer Question No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 Answer A C D A B C B B C A A B C D B A C D

21

UNIT-2

TRANSISTOR SMALL-SIGNAL MODELS

Fill in the blanks 1. Hybrid parameters are used for small signal analysis as the results obtained are ---------------. 2. The h11, h12, h21 and h22 are hybrid parameters for any --------------- network. 3. The hi, hr, hf and ho are hybrid parameters for a --------------- when considered as a two-port network. 4. For a transistor, the typical value of hf in CE circuit is ---------------. 5. The hi in hybrid parameter is analogous to --------------- in non-hybrid parameters. 6. The hf is similar to --------------- in non-hybrid transistor model in CE. 7. The negative sign in the expression for voltage gain in hybrid parameters shows ---------------. 8. The h-parameters can be used only for analysis of --------------- amplifiers. 9. When Q-point changes, h-parameters ---------------. 10. The h-parameters for two transistors of the same type are ---------------. 11. To determine hf and hi, the output of the transistor is ---------------. 12. To determine hr and ho, the input of the transistor is ---------------. Choose the correct answer 1. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE circuit is a. 180o c. 0o o d. none of the above b. 360 2. It is generally desired that a transistor should have ------------ input impedance a. low c. high b. very low d. very high 3. If a transistor draws 2 mA when the input voltage is 10 V, then its input impedance is a. 20 K c. 10 K b. 0.2 d. 5 K 4. If the power and current gains of a transistor amplifier are 16500 and 100 respectively, then voltage gain is a. 165 c. 100 d. none of the above b. 165 X 104

5. In the ac equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are considered ----------6. 7. a. short b. open A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because a. emitter is moderately doped b. collector-base junction is reverse biased For highest power gain, one should use, -------------------- configuration a. CC b. CB c. CE d. None of the above CC configuration is used for impedance matching because itsinput impedance is very high a. input impedance is low b. output impedance is very low c. output impedance is very high c. d. c. d. partially open none of the above collector is wider than emitter or base base is lightly doped

8.

22

ANSERS TO THE PROBLEMS

Fill in the blanks

1. accurate 2. linear two-port network 3. transistor circuit 4. 50 5. Input impedance 6. Forward current gain 7. 180o phase shift between input and output signal 8. Small signal 9. Also changes 10. Different 11. Short 12. Open
Choose the correct answer Question no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Answer A B D A A B C A

UNIT III

TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS AND ANALYSIS

1. The gain of the cascade amplifier is equal to a) Product of individual gains b) sum of individual gains c) ratio of stage gains d) none of these 2. In a darlington pair a) two transistors are connected in parallel b) the emitter of the first transistor feeds the base of the second c) the collector of the first transistor feeds the base of the second 3. for a CE amplifier having a small unbypassed emitter resistance (RE) the input resistance is approximately equal to a) RE b) hfe c) hfe.RE d) RE/hfe 4. the current gain of an emitter follower is a) unity b) greater than unity c) less than unity d) all of them 5. which of the following transistor amplifier has the highest voltage gain a) CB b) CC c) CE d) none of them 6. which of the following transistor amplifier has the high impedance a) CB b) CC c) CE d) none of them

7. cascode amplifier is the series connection of a) CE-CB b)CE-CC c) CB-CC d) CC-CC 8. A change in the value of the emitter resistance RE in a differential amplifier a) affects the differential mode gain Ad b) affects the common mode gain Ac c) affects both Ad and Ac d) doesnt affects either Ad and Ac 9. The major advantage of a direct coupled amplifier is that a) it uses less number of components b) it has a very good temperature stability c) it does not use frequency sensitive component d) it can amplify direct current and low frequency signals 10. The voltage gain of a CB amplifier is a) zero b)less than unity c) unity d)greater than unity. ANSWERS: 1) a 2)b 3)c 4)b 5)c 6) b 7)a 8) b 9)d 10)d UNIT-4 FREQUENCY LIMITATION OF AMPLIFIERS 1. The bandwidth or (pass band) of each system is determined by f1 & f2.(i.e). a) f2-f1 b) f1-f2 c) f2*f1 d) f2/f1 2. The piecewise linear plot of the asymptotes and associated break points is called a) Plot b) Bode plot c) Polar Plot d) None of these 3. Bode plot is plotted between gain and . a) Input b) output c) frequency d) power

4. The midband voltage gain is given by the formula a) Av=Vi/Vo b) Av=Vo/Vi c) Av = VoVi d) None of these 5. Miller effect input capacitance is defined by a) CMI=(1-Av)CF b) CMI=(AV-1) c) CMI=(1-AV) CI d) CMI=(1-AV) 6. At high frequency end, there are two factors that define the -3dB cutoff point a) Network capacitance & the frequency of hfe () b) Resistor & the frequency of the hfe () c) Network inductance & the frequency of hfe () d) All the above 7. For a high frequency FET amplifier CMO is given as a) CMO=(1-1/Av)Cgd b) CMO=(1-1/Av)Cgs c) CMO=(Av -1)Cgd d) CMO=(Av-1)Cgs 8. For any inverting amplifier, the input capacitance will be increased by a Miller effect capacitance sensitive to the . a) Frequency b) Power c) Input d) gain 9. If R1=40K, R2=10K, re=15.76, =100. Calculate the input impedance

a) 2.15K

b) 5.5K

c) 1.32K

d) 10K

10. The multiplier 0.707 was chosen because at this level the output power is half the bandwidth power output (i.e). midfrequencies. a) P0mid = |Vo|2 / Ro b) P0mid = |AVmid Vi|2 / Ro c) P0mid = |Ro|2 / Vo d) both a & b Answers 1) a2) b 11. UNIT-5 3) c 4) d 5) a 6) a 7) a 8) a 9) c 10) d

POWER SUPPLIES

1. Which of the following is not an essential element of a d.c power supply a )Rectifier b)filter c)voltage regulator d)Voltage amplifier 2. A voltage regulator is a circuit which a) Converts the a.c voltage to d.c voltage b) Smoothens the a.c variation in d.c voltage c) Maintains a constant d.c output voltage inspite of the fluctuation in a.c input Voltage or load current d) None of the above 3. The percentage voltage regulation of voltage supply providing 100V unloaded and 95V at full load is A) 5.3% b) 5.0% c) 0.53% d) None of the above

4. Which of the following voltage regulator is preferred for providing large value of load current a) Zener diode shunt regulator b) transistor series regulator c) transistor shunt regulator d) none of the above 5. A pre-regulator is used with a transistor series regulator in order to a) Increase the input resistance of the series transistor b) Decrease the input resistance of the series transistor c) Increase the output resistance of the series transistor d) Increase the current gain of the series transistor 6. A SCR is a semiconductor devices which is made up of a) Two layers and one junction b) Three layers and two junctions c) Four layers and three junctions d) None of the above 7. The power delivered to the load in maximum when the SCR firing angle is a) Zero b) 90 c) 180 d) between 90 and 180 8. Which of the following is preferred for controlling the amount of power supplied to the load a) Controlling the transformer secondary voltage b) Inserting a resistor in the load circuit c) Use of SCR d) None of the above 9. An SCR cab be turned on by a) Applying anode voltage at an adequately fast rate b) Applying sufficient large anode current

c) Applying sufficiently large gate current d) All the above 10. The turn off time of an SCR is measured from the instant a) Anode current becomes zero b) Anode voltage becomes zero c) Anode voltage and anode current become zero at the same time d) Gate current becomes zero ANS: 1.d 6.c 2.c 7.a 3.a 8.c 4.b 9.d 5.d 10.a

EC207 Network analysis and synthesis

The purpose of introducing this course is to describe the basic principles used in the design of networks. By undergoing this course the student will learn to analyze and design passive, active and switched capacitor filters. The theory as well as the tools for classical and modern filter design will be covered where applicable computer design aids will be used. the knowledge of the concepts of the complex frequencies, time domain,laplace transform and frequency transformation properties of LC,RC networks pole zero concept through dependent sources synthesis of foster and cauer input impedance and transfer function determination of Butterworth and chebyshev transfer functions of the filter starting from the filter specifications understanding of the concept of system functions and their interpretation in the analysis and design of filters active filter design using op-amp understanding of the concept of state variable topology application of computer tools for computer aided design and analysis EC-207 Network Analysis and Synthesis 1. A tree has (a) a closed path (b) no closed paths (c) none

2. The number of branches in a tree is_______ the number of branches in a graph. (a) less than (b) more than (c) equal to 3. The tie-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch currents and link currents (c) branch currents and link voltages 4. The cut-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch currents and link currents (b) branch voltages and tree branch voltages (c) branch voltages and link voltages (d) branch current and tree currents 5. Mesh analysis is based on a) Kirchhoffs current law (b) Kirchhoffs voltage law (c) Both (d) None (b) branch voltages and link currents (d) none of the above

6. If a network contains B branches, and N nodes, then the number of mesh equations would be (a) B-(N-1) (b) N-(B-1) (c) B-N-1 (d) (B+N)-1

current

7. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. The number of different node pair voltages would be (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 45 (d) 10 8. A practical voltage source consists of (a) an ideal voltage source in series with an internal resistance (b) an ideal voltage source in parallel with an internal resistance (c) both (a) and (b) are correct (d) none of the above 9. A practical current source consists of (a) an ideal current source in series with an impedance (b) an ideal current source in parallel with an impedance (c) both are correct (d) none of the above 10. A circuit consists of two resistors, R1 and R2 in parallel. The total current passing through the circuit is IT. The current passing through R1 is (a) IT R1/R1+R2 (b) IT(R1+R2)/R1 (c) ITR2/R1+R2 (d) ITR1+R2/R2 11. A network has seven nodes and five independent loops. The number of branches in the network is (a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10 12. The nodal method of circuit analysis is based on (a) KVL and Ohms law (b) KCL and Ohms law (c) KCL and KVL (d) KCL, KVL and Ohms law 13. The number of independent loops for a network with n nodes and b branches is (a) n-1 (b) b-n (c) b-n+1 (d) independent of the number of nodes 14. Relative to a given fixed tree of a network (a) link currents & branch voltage form an independent set (b) branch currents form an independent set (c) link voltages form an independent set (d) branch voltages form an independent set 15. The function is said to be non-recurring when it (a) appears for a particular time interval (b) appears for all time (c) both a and b (d) neither of the two 16. The Laplace transform of a ramp function is (a) 1 (b) 1/s (c) 1/s2 (d) 1/s3

17. The inverse transform of S is (a) impulse (b) ramp

(c) step

(d) unit doublet

18. The driving point impedance is defined as (a) the ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port (b) the ratio of transform voltage at one port to the transform current at the other port (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 19. The transfer impedance is defined as (a) the ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port (b) the ratio of transform voltage at one port to the current transform at the other port (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 20. The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros and only if (a) the poles are not repeated (b) the zeros are not repeated (c) both poles and zeros are not repeated (d) none of the above 21. The necessary condition for a driving point function is (a) the real part of all poles and zeros must not be zero or negative (b) the polynomials P(s) and Q(s) may not have any missing terms between the highest and lowest degree unless all even or all add terms are missing. (c) the degree of P(s) and Q(s) may differ by more than one (d) the lowest degree in P(s) and Q(s) may differ in degree by more than two 22.The necessary condition for the transfer functions is that (a) the coefficients in the polynominals P(s) and Q(s) must be real (b) coefficients in Q(s) may be negative (c) complex or imaginary poles and zeros may not conjugate (d) if the real part of pole is zero, then that pole must be multiple 23. The system is said to be stable, if and only if (a) all the poles lie on right half of the s-plane (b) some poles lie on the right half of the s-plane (c) all the poles does not lie on the right half of the s-plane (d) none of the above 24. The two-port network is simply a network inside a black box, and the network has only (a) two terminals (b) two pairs of accessible terminals (c) two pairs of ports 25. The number of possible combinations generated by four variables taken two at a time in a two-port network is (a) four (b) two (c) six (d) eight

26. In describing the transmission parameters (a) the input voltage and current are expressed in terms of output voltage and current (b) the input voltage and output voltage are expressed in terms of output current and input current (c) the input voltage and output current are expressed in terms of input current and output voltage 27. If Z11=2E; Z12=1E; Z21=1E and Z22=3E, what is the determinant of admittance matrix (a)5 (b) 1/5 (c) 1 28. For a two-bilateral network, the three transmission parameters are given by A=6/5; B=17/5 and C=7/5 (a) 1 (b) 1/5 (c) 7/5 29. If the Z parameters of a two-port network are Z11=5E; Z22=7E; Z12=Z21=3E then the A,B,C,D parameters are respectively given by (a) 5\3; 26\3; 1\3; 7\3 (b) 10\3; 52\3; 2\3; 14\3 (c) 15\3; 78\3; 3\3; 21\3 30. For a two-port network to be reciprocal (a) Z11=Z22 (b) y21=y22 (c) h21=-h12 (d) AD-BC=0 31. Two-port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented as a single two port network. The parameters of the network are obtained by adding the individual (a) Z parameter matrix (b) h parameter matrix (c) A1 B1 C1 D1 matrix (d) ABCD parameter matrix 32. The h parameters h11 and h12 are obtained (a) By shorting output terminals (b) By opening input terminals (c) By shorting input terminals (d) By opening output terminals 33. Which parameters are widely used in transmission line theory (a) Z parameters (b) y parameters (c) ABCD parameters (d) h parameters 34. A low pass filter is one which (a) passes all low frequencies (b) attenuates all high frequencies (c) passes all frequencies up to cut-off frequency, and attenuates all other frequencies 35. A high pass filter is one which (a) passes all high frequencies (b) attenuates all low frequencies (c) attenuates all frequencies below a designated cut-off frequency, and passes all frequencies above cut-off

36. A band pass filter is one which

(a) attenuates frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and passes all other frequencies (b) passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies, and attenuates all other frequencies (c) passes all frequencies 37. An ideal filter should have (a) zero attenuation in the pass band (b) infinite attenuation in the pass band (c) zero attenuation in the attenuation band 38. The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut-off frequency of 2.5KHZ to operate with a terminated load resistance of 450 ohms are given by (a) 57.32 mH; 0.283 F (b) 28.66 mH; 0.14 F (c) 114.64 H; 0.566 F 39. In the m-derived low pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is (a) above the cut-off frequency (b) below the cut-off frequency (c) none of the above 40. In the m-derived high pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is (a) above the cut-off frequency (b) below the cut-off frequency (c) none of the above 41. A band elimination filter is one (a) which attenuates all frequencies less than lower cut-off frequency f1 (b) which attenuates all frequencies greater than upper cut-off frequency f2 (c) frequencies lying between f1 and f2 are attenuated and all other frequencies are passed 42. A polynomial must satisfy the condition that (a) Z(s) is a real function (b) all the roots of P(s) have zero real parts, or negative real parts (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 43. Hurwitz polynomial possesses one of the conditions that (a) all the quotients in the polynomial P(s) must be positive (b) the roots of P(s) must lie on the right half of the S-plane (c) The ratio of P(s) and P(s) gives negative quotients (d) P(s) may have missing terms 44. The function is said to be positive real, when (a) the poles and zeros lie on the right half of the S-plane (b) the poles and zeros lie on the left half of the S-plane (c) the poles and zeros are simple and lie on the imaginary axis (d) both (b) and (c) 45. The driving point impedance with poles at w=0 and w=~ must have the

(a) s terms in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator (b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator (c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the numerator and the denominator (d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the numerator and the denominator 46. In the first foster form, the presence of first element capacitor Co indicates (a) pole at w=0 (b) pole at w=~ (c) zero at w=0 (d) zero at w=~ 47. In the first foster form, the presence of last element inductor L~ indicates (a) pole at w=0 (b) pole at w=~ (c) zero at w=0 (d) zero at w=~ 48. Pole at infinity indicates that the (a) degree of numerator is greater than that of denominator (b) degree of denominator is greater than that of numerator (c) degree of numerator is equal to the degree of denominator (d) none of the above 49. In the first Cauer LC network, the first element is a series inductor when the driving point function consists of (a) pole at w=~ (b) zero at w=~ (c) pole at w=0 (d) zero at w=0 50. In the second Causer LC network, the last element is an inductor, when the driving point function consists of (a) pole at w=0 (b) pole at w=~ (c) zero at w=~ (d) zero at w=0 ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B A A B B A C A B C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 C B C A A C D A B c 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B A C B C A C C A C 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A C C C B A A A b 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 C C A D A A B A A B

EC 209 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS The course is to provide a modern introductory coverage of a traditional electrical engineering course on signals and systems. The main objective is to help second year engineering students acquire the essential skills, both intuitive and formal, to prepare them for the study of such disciplines as signal processing, communication and control. Specifically, students will learn the formal mathematical representations and methods of analysis of LTI systems, will gain a physical and intuitive understanding of the subject and the experience the practice of implementing signal processing algorithms and data manipulation on a computer. Introduction to the theory of linear signals and systems. Analysis of continuous time and discrete-time signals and systems. Linear, time-invariant (LTI) system properties and representations; differential and difference equations, convolution, Fourier analysis, Laplace and Z transforms. Selected topics in sampling, filter design, discrete signal processing and modulation. Topics: Signals and Systems: basic continuous and discrete-time signals elementary complex signals periodic signals generalized functions fundamental properties of LTI system

Linear Time-Invariant Systems: convolution sum and integral difference and differential equations

Fourier Analysis of Signals and Systems: CT and DT Fourier series CT and DT Fourier transform frequency response of CT and DT LTI systems Lap lace and z-transforms

EC 209 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS

1. The signals that are defined for every instant of time are (a).continuous time signals. (b).Discrete time signals. 2. The signal that are discrete in time and quantized in amplitude are (a).continuous time signals. (b).Discrete time signals. 3. Unit step signal is defined as

(c).Digital signals. (c).Digital signals

4. A signal exhibiting no uncertainty of value at any instant of time is (a).random signal (b).deterministic signal. c).periodic signal. 5. Find the period T of the continuous time signal x(t)=je^j5t (a).0.4sec (b).1/25sec (c).1/5sec. 6. A __________ system is one for which the output at any time t depends on the present values and past inputs but not future inputs. (a).non causal (b).causal. (c).static. 7. Find whether the following signal x (t)= cos 2ft is (a) Periodic (b) A periodic 8. Check whether the following system y (t) =t2x (t) (a) Linear (b) Non linear 9. Check whether the following system y (t)=Ax(t)+B is (a)static (b) Dynamic ( c) Linear (c) None of these (c) None of these (d) Non linear

10. A continuous time signal x(t) is said to be periodic if it satisfies (a).x(t)=cos(2n) (b).x(t)=20cos(2n) (c).x(t)=x(t+T) 11. The Fourier series expansion for ______periodic function contains only sine terms. (a) Even (b) Odd (c) Half wave symmetry 12. The condition for half-wave symmetry is (a) x(t) = - x(t T/2) (b) x(t) = [x(t) + x(-t)] 13. If FS [x(t)] is Cn then FS[x(-t)] is (a) Cn (b) C-n (c) x(t) = [x(t) x(-t)] (c) C-n frequency

14. In cosine representation, the Fourier Coefficients presents only for positive and may be called as ___________ spectra. (a) One-sided (b) two-sided

15. The operation y(t) = 1/ -x()/t- d is called the ______________ transform. (a) Hilbert (b) Fourier (c) Laplace (d) Z 16. F[x(t-to)] is (a) e -jto X(j) 17. F[x(at)] is (a) 1/a X(j/a) (b) e -jot X(j) (b) 1/-a X(-j/a) ( c) e -jto X(jo) (c) 1/ a X(j/a)

18. F[X(t)] is (a) 2x(-j) 19. F[(t)] is (a) 1 20. F-1[()] is (a) 1

(b) 2x(j)

( c) 2X(j)

(d) 2X(-j)

(b) h(t) (b) 2

( c) 2 (c) -1

(d) -1 (d) 1/2 (d) none of these

21. The value of x() when X(s) given as 1/ s is (a) (b) 0 (c) 1

22. The Laplace Transform of x(t) =t n ,X(s)= a. 1 b. 1/s c. 1/s2 d. n!/sn+1 23. Initial value theorem of Laplace transform is given by a) lim t 0 x(t) = lim s sX(s) b) lim s 0 x(t) = lim t sX(s) c) lim t 0 x(t) = lim s0 sX(s) d) lim t x(t) = lim s0 sX(s) 24. Region of Convergence of X(s) is the set of all values of .. for which Laplace Transform a. , converges b. s, infinity c. t, infinity 25. Natural response of the system is the response for which a) Initial conditions are zero b) Input to the system is zero c) Both a & b 26. ROC for the signal x(t)=e-at u(t) is a) > -a b) > a c) <- a d) < a

27. Condition for the existence of laplace transform is a. | x(t) e t| dt < b. . | x(t) e t| dt = 0 c. | x(t) e t| dt > d | x(t) e t| dt =1. 28. Poles are the roots of polynomial & Zeros of .. the transfer function. a) numerator, denominatorb) denominator , numerator c) . none of these 29. The Transfer function of an ideal delay element of T seconds is a. esT b.1/s c.1/s2 d. e-sT

30. The convolution property of Laplace Transform is [x1(t)*x2(t)] = a. X1(t) X2(t)b. X1(S) X2(S) c.x1 (t)x2(t) d. X1(S)* X2(S) 31. Discrete Fourier series of a periodic sequence x(n) N-1 (a)Ck = 1/N x(n) e-j2kn/N k=0 N-1

(b) Ck = 1/N x(n) e-j2kn/N n=0 N-1 (c) Ck = 1/N x(n) e-j2kn/N N=0 N -1 (d) Ck = 1/N x(n) ej2kn/N n=0 32. The Parsevals relation for discrete time periodic signal N-1 N-1 (a) 1 x(n)2 = Ck2 N n=0 k=0 N-1 (b) 1 N n=0 (c) N-1 x(n)2 = Ck k=0

N-1 N-1 2 x(n) = Ck2 n=0 k=0 N-1 x(n) = Ck2 k=0

N-1 (d) 1 N n=0

33.The sufficient condition for the existence of DTFT for a sequence x(n) is (a) x(n)< n= - (b) x(n)< n= 0 (c) x(n)> n= 0 (d) x(n)> n= -

34. The N- point DFT of a sequence is given by

N-1 (a) X(k) = x(n) e-j2nk/N n=0 N-1 (b) X(k) = 1 x(n) e-j2nk/N N n=0 N-1 (c) X(k) = N x(n) e-j2nk/N n=0 N-1 (d) X(k) = x(n) ej2nk/N n=0 35. Fourier Transform give continuous spectrum (a) True (b) False 36. The Z transform for an unit impulse signal is (a) 0 (b) Z

(c) 1

(d) 1/Z

37. Time shifting property of Z- Transform with initial conditions is zero (a) Z[x(n m)] = Z-m X(z) (b) Z[x(n m)] = Zm X(z) (c) Z[x(n m)] = Z2m X(z) 38. The initial value theorem of Z- Transform (a) x(o) = lim X+(Z) Z (b) x(o) = lim X+(Z) Z0 (c) x(o) = lim X -(Z) Z 39. The inverse Z- Transform of the Z/(Z a) is (a) a-n (b) an u(n) (c) n an 1 u(n) 40. The ROC of an LTI stable system contains the (a) r > 1 (b) r < 1 (c) r =1 41. The equation for the system to be stable is a. h(n)< b. x(n)< c. y(n)< 42. A system function is defined by a. H(Z)=Y(Z)/X(Z) b .Y(Z)=I(Z)/V(Z) c. X(Z)=V(Z)/I(Z) 43. The ROC cannot contain a, zeros b .poles c . Poles & zeros (d) an 1 u(n) (d) none of the above

44. The ROC of an LTI stable system contains

a. unit circle

b. unit square

c. Rectangle

45. Which one of the types of realization has a common delay? a. Parallel form b Direct form IC.Direct form II 46. Pick the circular shifting property of DFT a. DFT [x(n)]=X(K) b. x(n)=(n) c. x(n)=a^nu(n)

47. The DFT requires _________ no of multiplications a.N^2 b. .N(N-1) c. Log N 48. The FFT requires __________ no of multiplications a.N^2 b. .N(N-1) c. N/2LogN 49. Find DFT of the sequence x(n)= (n) a.1 b.0 c.

50. The linear convolution of two sequences x1(n) &x2(n) produces a. N1+N2-1 b. N1-N2+1 c. N1-N2+1 Answer
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A 11 B 21 A 31 B 41

B 12 A 22 D 32 A 42 A A 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 C B 14 A 24 A 34 A 44 A 15 A 25 A 35 A 45 B 16 A 26 A 36 A 46 A 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 A 18 A 28 B 38 A 48 C 19 A 29 B 39 C 49 C 20 D 30 b
40 A C A A C A A

50

EC 200-ANALOG COMMUNICATION

Analog Communication is a data transmitting technique in a format that utilizes continuous signals to transmit data including voice, image, video, electrons etc. An analog signal is a variable signal continuous in both time and amplitude which is generally carried by use of modulation. Analog circuits do not involve quantization of information unlike the digital circuits and consequently have a primary disadvantage of random variation and signal degradation, particularly resulting in adding noise to the audio or video quality over a distance. Data is represented by physical quantities that are added or removed to alter data. Analog transmission is inexpensive and enables information to be transmitted from point-topoint or from one point to many. Once the data has arrived at the receiving end, it is converted back into digital form so that it can be processed by the receiving computer EC200 - ANALOG COMMUNICATION 1. The percentage of power in the side lands of DSB-FC AM modulated wave is _________ of total transmitted power a) 1/4 b) 1/3 c)2/3 d) none 2. The BW of AM wave is a) 2 FM b) FM c) 3 FM d) none

3. The DSB-SC wave is represented as a) ACSinctsinmt b) ACsinct

c) AC[1+usinm] sinCt d) none

4. For an AM Transmitter, transmits 15 KW of total power at 100% depth of modulation, calculate the carrier power (PC) a) 10KW b) 12KW c) 9KW d) 5KW 5. The percentage of power saved in SSB when compared with AM DSB-FC at 100% depth of modulation is a) 17% b) 66.67% c) 83.3% d) 33.33% 6. Ring modulator is used to generate a) DSB-FC b) DSB-SC c) SSB 7. Which type of modulation is used in TV? a) DSB-SC b) AM c) VSB 8. Which method is used to generate SSB wave a) Ring modulator b) phase shift method c) none 9. Name the circuit which is used to detect the DSB SC wave a) envelope detector b) synchronous detector 10. The distortion which arises in envelope detector is called an c) none d) VSB d) SSB

a) diagonal clipping

b) cross-over distortion

c) granularnoise

11. In frequency modulation, if the amplitude of the modulation voltage is doubled, the maximum frequency deviation a) Doubles b) becomes four times c) becomes half d) remains unaltered 12. In FM, the carrier frequency deviation is determined by a) Modulating voltage b) modulating frequency c) both d) none of the above 13. The drawback of FM relative to AM is that a) Noise is very high for modulation frequency b) Larger BW is required c) Higher modulating power is required d) Higher output power is required 14. Practical BW of NBFM signal equals a) fm b)2fm c) fd d)2fd d)HF band

15. FM broadcast band lies in a) SHF band b) UHF band c) VHF band

16. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is a)75 KHZ b)200 KHZ c)5 KHZ d)15 kHz 17. From bandwidth point of view NBFM is equivalent to a )AM b)PM c)suppressed carrier DSB d)SSB 18. Which of the following is not true? a) The carrier never becomes zero b) the j coefficient occasionally are negative c) The power remains constant inspite of change of modulation index d) The total bandwidth increases with increase in modulation index 19. In FM system if the depth of modulation is doubled, the output power a) Increases by factor of 2 b) increases by factor of square root of 2 c) Increases by factor of 3 d) increases by factor of 4 20. Power of an FM signal is dependent on a) The amplitude of the carrier b) both amplitude and frequency of the carrier c) Amplitude and frequency deviation of the carrier d) none of the above 21. The principle of photo emission is used in a) image orthiconb. plumbicon c.vidicon 22. A -------------- amplifies both sound & picture and converts into intermediate frequency

a) RF tuners

b. AF tuners

c. mixer c.3.5s c.3.5s c.7 MHz

23. The fount porch has cushioning period of a1.5s b.2.5s 24. The fount porch has cushioning period of a. 5.8s b.2.5s 25. In TV the video signal extends from DC to a. 5.5Mhz b.5 MHz

26. A ------------- is an electromagnetic for detection & location of objects a. radar b. microwave c. satellite 27. The range beyond which targets appear as second time around echoes a. maximum ambiguous range b. Minimum ambiguous range c. ambiguous range 28. The range R is equal to a. CTr/2 b. CTr/3 c. CTr/2.5

29. The weakest signal receiver can detect is a. minimum detectable signal b. maximum detectable signal c. detectable signal 30. Falsely indicating the presence of targets a .false alarm b. miss alarm c. none 31. Any form of unwanted electrical signal which interfere with proper reception and reproduction of desired signals is called a) flicker b) noise c)eye pattern d) aliasing 32. Atmospheric noise predominates in medium frequency range a)audio freq b) RHF c) UHF d) none of the above 33. Thermal noise is also called as a) static noise b) White noise c)manmade noise d) uncorrelated noise d)none of the above

34. The ratio of (SNR) i/p to (SNR) o/p is known as a) signal power b) noise factor c) power density

35. The expression for noise power of white noise is given by a) Pn = TB b) Pn = KTB c) Pn = 4KTBRd) Pn = 4KTBR

36. Friss formula is given by a) fa+1 c) fb/A1 + fc-1/A2+

b) fa+fb-1/A1 + fc-1/A1A2 + c) none of the above

37. Noise which occurs whenever a current has to divide between two or more electrodes is known as a) shot noise b) partition noise c) thermal agitation noise d) burst noise 38. The noise that occurs in a frequency selective filter is known as a) wide band noise b) avalanche noise c) narrow band noise d) none of the above 39. Flicker noise is predominant at a) low freq b) high freq c) microwave freq d) none of the above

40. The following is an example for man-made noise a) correlated noise b) internal noise c) radiations produced by electrical machinery d) noise due to resistive component 41. The typical frequency parameters,IF bandwidth of AM radio receivers is a)10 khz b)20 khz c)22khz d)15khz 42. The FM receiver consists of an a) integrator b)differentiator c)envelope detector d)differentiator and envelope detector 43. One of the drawbacks in TRF receivers is a) wide variation in the Q factor b)stability in gain c)constant bandwidth 44. One of the advantages of superhet reception over TRF is a) Poor selectivity b) uniform selectivity and bandwidth c) non uniform bandwidth 45. If the intermediate frequency of a receiver is made too__________,adjacent channel rejection as well as selectivity becomes poor a)low b)high c)medium d)none 46. Automatic volume control bias to vary a)overall gain automatically with changing magnitudes of the received signals so that the output remains constant b) overall gain without changing magnitudes c)overall gain output also changes output 47. Magic eye is a form of tuning indicator commonly used in a)broadcast receiver b)broadcast transmitter c) both receiver and transmitter d)none 48. __________of a radio receiver is a measure of its ability to receive weak signals. a)sensitivity b)selectivity c)gain d)none

49. AM broadcst transmitting stations operating on_______________ a)long b)medium c)short wave band 50. The RF carrier range of FM radio receivers is a)88-108mhz b)0.53 to 1.6mhz Answer
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d)all

c)100mhz

d)80 to 110 mhz

b a a a c b c b b a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a a b b c d a a b a

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

a b a a b a a a a a

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

b c b b d b b c a c

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

a d a b b a a a d a

EC202- ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS II

Feedback plays an important role in almost all electronic circuits. It is almost invariably used in the amplifier to improve its performance and to make it more ideal. In the process of feedback, a part pf output is sampled and fed back to the input of the amplifier. Therefore, at input we have two signals: Input signals, and part of the output which is fed back to the input. Both these signals may be in phase or out of phase. When the input signal and part of output signal are in phase, the feedback is called positive feedback. On the other hand, when they are in out of phase, the feedback is called negative feedback. Oscillators are circuits that generate an output signal without the necessity of an input signal. They are used as signal sources in all sorts of applications. Different types of oscillators produce various types of outputs including sine waves, square waves, triangular waves and saw tooth waves. To amplify the selective range of frequencies, the resistive load, Rc is replaced by a tuned circuit is capable of amplifying a signal over the narrow band of frequencies centered at fr. The amplifiers with such a tuned circuits as a load are known as tuned amplifier. The electronic circuits which are used to generate nonsinusoidal waveforms are called multivibrators. The multivibrators is nothing but a two stage amplifier, operating in two modes. The overall operation of the multivibrator is based on the fact that no tow active devices have exactly identical characteristics. A special type of wave generator which is used to produce a single narrow pulse or train of pulses is called a blocking oscillator. The two important elements of a blocking oscillator are an active device like transistor and a pulse transformer. A pulse transformer is used to couple output of the transistor back to the input. These circuits are used in frequency dividers, Counters circuits and for switching the other circuits on and off at the specific times.

EC 202- ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS II 1. For a negative feedback amplifier, the loop gain should be -------------a. Greater than unity b. Less than unity c. Unity d. Zero

2. Oscillator uses ----------- feedback to increase gain. a. Negative b. Positive c. No d. Resistive 3. In negative feedback amplifier use of output voltage sampling causes the output resistance to --------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change 4. In negative feedback amplifier use of output current sampling causes the output resistance to ---------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change 5. In negative feedback amplifier use of series mixing causes the input resistance to ---------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change 6. In negative feedback amplifier use of shunt mixing causes the input resistance to ---------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change 7. Emitter follower is a negative feedback amplifier using ---------a. Voltage shunt feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Current series feedback d. Voltage series feedback. 8. The CE amplifier using unbypassed resistor in the emitter lead is a negative feedback amplifier using ---------a. Voltage shunt feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Current series feedback d. Voltage series feedback. 9. The CE amplifier using a resistor Rf connected from output to the input is a negative feedback amplifier using ----------a. Voltage shunt feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Current series feedback d. Voltage series feedback. 10. The advantage of negative feedback is ----------a. To stabilize the transfer gain b. To increase the gain c. To increase the distortion d. All the above. 11. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because a) it has more gain b) it requires no input signal c) it requires no supply d) it always has the same input 12. Wein-bridge oscillators are based on a) Positive feedback b) Negative feedback c)The peizo-electric effect d) High gain 13. One condition for oscillation is a) A phase shift around the feedback loop of 180o b) A gain around the feedback loop of one-third

c) A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o d) A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1 14. A second condition for oscillation is a) No gain around the feedback loop b) A gain of 1 around the feedback loop c) The attenuation of the feedback circuit must be one-third d) The feedback circuit must be capacitive 15. In a certain oscillator, Av = 50. The attenuation of the feedback circuit must be a) 1 b) 0.01 c) 10 d) 0.02 16. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be a) 1 b) less than 1 c) greater than 1 d) equal to B 17. In a wein-bridge oscillator, if the resistance of the positive feedback circuit are decreased, the frequency a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) None of the above 18. The wein-bridge oscillators positive feedback circuit is a) an RL circuit b) an LC circuit c) a voltage divider d) a lead-lag circuit 19. A phase shift oscillator has a) three RC circuits c) a Ttype circuit b) three LC circuits d) a -type circuit

20. Colpitts, Clapp and Hartley are names that refer to a) types of RC oscillators b) inventors of the transistor c) types of LC oscillators d) types of filters 21. In the output of push pull amplifier, the most disturbing harmonic distortion is the a) second harmonic b) third harmonic c)fourth harmonic d) fifth harmonic 22. In a class B push pull amplifier, the ratio of the maximum collector dissipation to maximum AC power output is about a) 0.25 b) 0.4 c) 0.5 d) 0.75 23. In a large signal amplifier, total harmonic distortion is given by: a) D=D2+D3+D3+.. c) D= B0+D22+D32+D42+.. b) D= D2+D32+D42+ d) D=D2+D3+D4../ D22+D32+D42+.

24. In a class B amplifier, the maximum output power Pmax equals:

a) V2cc/RL

b) Vcc/2RL

c) Vcc2/2RL

d) Vcc2/2RL

25. Class B push-pull amplifier suffers from a) cross over distortion c) excessive harmonic distortion

b) inter modulation distortion d) phase distortion

26. Maximum theoretical conversion efficiency of class A series fed amplifier is a) 15% b) 25% c) 50% d) 78.5% 27. Conversion efficiency of a transformer coupled class A power amplifier is equal to a) 25 (Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% b) 50 (Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)% c) 50 Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% c) 25 Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)% 28. Maximum theoretical conversion efficiency of class A transformer coupled amplifier is a) 15% b) 25% c) 50% d) 78.5% 29. Conversion efficiency of series fed class A power amplifier is given by a) 25( Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% b) 25( Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)% c) 50( Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% d) 50(Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)% 30. Maximum theoretical collector circuit efficiency of class B amplifier is a) 15% b) 25% c) 50% d) 78.5% 31. Electronic circuit that generated non sinusoidal signals are called as a. Oscillator b. Amplifier c. Multivibrator d. None of the above 32. Multivibrator is also known as a. Relaxation Oscillator c. Sinusoidal Oscillator b. Amplifier d. None of the above

33. The time required to reach 10% of its maximum value is defined a. Time delay b .Rise time c. Turn on time d. Storage time 34. In which circuit , two quasi stable states ON & OFF periods are equal a. Asymmetrical Astable Multivibrator b. Symmetrical Astable Multivibrator c. Saturating Astable Multivibrator d. Non saturating Astable Multivibrator

35. Which Multivibrator is called one shot multivibrator a Bistable Multivibrator b. Schmitt trigger c.Monostable Multivibrator d.Astable Multivibrator 36. Which circuit is used for wave shaping circuits a. Oscillator b. Schmitt trigger c. Monostable Multivibrator d. Astable Multivibrator

37. Which Multivibrator is called Flip-Flop a Bistable Multivibrator b. Schmitt trigger c. Monostable Multivibrator d. Astable Multivibrator 38. What is the use of commutating capacitors a. reduce the transition time in a low to high level b. reduce the transition time in a high to low level c. both 1 and 2 d. none of the above 39. What is the frequency of oscillation of Astable multivibrator a.1/1.4RC b. 1/0.7RC c.1/2.1RC 40. The sum of storage time and fall time is defined as a. Time delay b. Rise time c. Turn off time d.1/2.8RC d. Turn on time

41. An astable multivibrator is also called free running relaxation oscillator because it a) Oscillates continuously between two unstable states b) Requires no D.C power for its operation c) Runs and relaxes alternately d) None of the above 42. The frequency of oscillation of an astable multivibrator depends on a) Transistor current gain (hFE) b) Value of collector load resistor c) Duration of the input pulse d) Value of R and C 43. A monostable multivibrator a) Gives one output pulse for one input trigger pulse b) Gives two output pulse for one input trigger pulse c) Has one stable state d) Both a and c above 44. A bistable multivibrator a) Has two stable states b) has two unstable states c) Oscillates between two stable states without any trigger pulse d) Is used for generating square wave 45. The main function of a clipping circuit is to a) Remove a certain portion of the input signal above or below a certain level b) Restore D.C level to the signal c) Suppress amplitude variation in the input signal voltage d) Both a and c 46. The clamper circuit is used to a) Introduce a D.C level to A.C signal b) Suppress variations in amplitude of the input signal c) Obtain an output which is integrated of the input signal d) All the above 47. Which the following time base circuit is suitable to display widely separated narrow width

pulses? a)Voltage time base generator c) Free running time base generator

b) Current time base generator d) Triggered time base generator

48. The purpose of a comparator is a) Amplify an input signal b) Detect the occurrence of a changing input signal c) Maintain a constant output when the D.C input voltage changes d) Produce a change in output when an input voltage equals the reference Voltage 49. The non linear wave shaping circuit uses the switching properties of the following a) Diodes b) Transistor c)SCR d) a and b both 50. A monostable multivibrator a) Has two stable states c) Both unstable

b) one state ON and other OFF state d) none of the above Answers

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a b b c c b d c a a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b a c b d c b d a c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

b b b d a b b c a d

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

c a a a c b a c a c

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

c d d a d a d c d b

EC204 Linear Integrated Circuits The term Integrated Circuit reflects the capabilities of semiconductor industry to fabricate complex electronic circuit consisting of a large number of components on a tingle substrate. The operational amplifier or op-amp is the most versatile active element amongst linear ICs. This covers the design and application of op-amp and other

linear ICs. The emphasis is on the fundamental design concepts. Unit I introduces the basic principle of an op-amp, packages, pin configurations, power supply connections. Linear and Non linear applications of op-amp are also) resented in this unit. Unit II presents the various comparators square, triangular and sine wave venerators. Unit III covers the Active filters- low pass, high pass, band pass, band reject and state variable filters. Unit IV focuses on analog to digital and digital to analog techniques. Unit V is devoted to 555 timer, applications and voltage regulators. EC204 Linear Integrated Circuits 1. An op-amp clamper a) removes part of output voltage above a given level b) converts the input voltage into square wave voltage at a given level c) clamps the output voltage at a given level d) removes part of the output voltage below a given level 2. An op-amp positive clipper a) removes positive part of the input signal above reference voltage VR b) removes part of the input signal below the reference voltage VR c) produces square wave voltage at level VR d) compresses the positive part of input signal to level VR 3. In analog computation we use: a) both integrators and differentiator c) differentiator alone b) integrators alone d) integrators and differentiator in pairs

4. The feed pack path in an op-amp differentiator consists of a) resistor b) a capacitor c) resistor and capacitor in d) a resistor and capacitor in parallel 5. Which of the following characteristics do not necessarily apply to the op-amp a) high gain b) low power c) high input impedance d) low output impedance 6. The output voltage of a particular op-amp increases 8v in 12s in response to a step voltage on the input. The slow rate is a) 0.667V/s b) 0.75V/s c) 1.5V/s d) 96V/s 7. The voltage gain of a voltage follower is a) unity b) less than unity c) greater than unity d) variable

8. The higher possible impedance is achieved with the a) inverting amplifier b) non-inverting amplifier

c) differential amplifier

d) voltage follower

9. The voltage gain of an non-inverting op-amp amplifier: a) greater than unity b) less than unity c) always greater than unity d) both (a) and (c) 10. The feedback path in an op-amp integrator consists of a) a resistor b) a capacitor c) a resistor and a capacitor in series d) a resistor and capacitor in parallel 11. The application of op amp in open loop configuration is -------------a). Comparator b). Detector c). Limiter d). all the above. 12. Regenerative Comparator is also known as ----------------------a). Schmitt trigger b). adder c). subtractor d). none of the above 13. The application of comparator is ----------------------------a). Zero crossing detector b). window detector c). Phase meter d). all the above. 14. CMOS Schmitt trigger offers the advantage of --------------------a). high input impedance b). low power consumption c). low input impedance d). none of the above. . 15. A simple op- amp square wave generator is also known as-----------a). free running oscillator b). free running amplifier c). free running multivibrator d). none of the above. 16. ---------- has one stable state and the other is quasi stable state. a). Monostable multivibrator b). astable multivibrator c). triangular wave generator d). none of the above. 17. A Triangular wave generator can be obtained by ------- square wave. a). integrating b). differentiating c). adding d). subtracting 18. Condition for sustained oscillation is -----------a). A = 1, A = 0 or 360 b). A = 5, A =90 c). A = 10, A =180 d). none of the above. 19. In phase shift oscillator, phase shift of ---------- is provided by feedback RC Network. a).180 b). 90 c).270 d). 360 20. The commonly used audio frequency oscillator is ----------a). Wein bridge oscillator b). Phase shift oscillator c). saw tooth generator d). square wave generator. 21. The capture range is controlled by in a PLL a) LPF b) HPF c) BPF d).BSF

22. A phase comparator is basiclly a . a) Multiplier b) Adder

c) Divider

d) Subtractor d) None of these

23. Lock in range of a PLL is. the capture range. a) smaller b)greater c) equal to 24. VCO is a) Voltage to frequency converter c) Voltage to Current converter

b) Voltage to Voltage converter d) Current to Frequency converter d) None of these

25. The capture range of a PLL is. the Lock in range a) smaller b) greater c) equal to

26. A low pass filter is one which a) passes all low frequencies b) attenuates all high frequencies c) passes all frequencies up to cut-off frequency, and attenuates all other frequencies 27. A band pass filter is one which a) attenuates frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and passes all other frequencies b) passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies, and attenuates all other frequencies c) passes all frequencies 28. The roll off rate of a first order low pass filter is a) -20dBdecade b) -40dBdecade c) -60dBdecade 29. How many op-amps are used in state variable filter a) 3 b) 5 c)2 30. Which filters are ideal for MOS technology. a) Active RC filters b) State variable filters c) Switched capacitive filters 31. The output of a DAC can be a) only voltage b) only current 32. A R-2R ladder type DAC requires a) One value of resistor c) wide value of resistors c) either voltage or current b) two value of resistors d) no resistors d) none d) -10dBdecade

33. The constant node voltages in inverted R-2R ladder eliminate a) stray capacitance effect b) Inductive effect c) long conversion time d) all the above 34. Which one of the following is the fastest ADC a) Charge balancing ADC b) Parallel comparator ADC c) Dual slope ADC d) 4. successive approximation ADC

35. Successive approximation ADC completes n bit conversion in ----- clock periods a) n+1 b) n c) 2n-1 d) 2n-1 36. which one of the following is suitable for precise measurement of slowly varying signal a) charge balancing ADC b) Dual slope ADC c) counting type ADC d) parallel comparator ADC 37. The input range of an 8 bit A/D converter is divided in to 255 intervals. Then the resolution for a 10V input range is a) 0.153mV b) 39.22mV c) 2550V d) 0.5V 38. An 8 bit DAC has ------------- bit resolution a) 28 b) 8 c) 28-1 d) 28-1 d) DPDT switch

39. Totem pole MOSFET driver and CMOS inverter are a) ADC b) DAC c) SPDT switch

40. What output voltage would be produced by a D/A converter whose output range is 0 to 10V and where input binary number is 10(for a 2 bit D/A converter) a) 5V b) 10V c) 3.75V d) 7.34V 41. Monostable Operation of 555 Timer is known as a. One shot Multivibrator b. Free Running Multivibrator c. No shot Multivibrator d. None of the above 42. In a Monostable Multivibrator R=100 Kilo Ohms, time delay T=100 ms,the value of the capacitor is a 1f b. 9 f c. 0.01 f d . 0.9 f 43. The duty cycle of an Astable Multivibrator is given by a. RB /RA +RB b. RA /RA +RB c. RA RB /RA +RB d. None of the above 44. The function of pin 5 is a. Control Voltage b. Discharge c. Output d. Threshold

45. A continuously triggered Monostable circuit can be used as a. Frequency Multiplier b. Frequency Divider c. None of the above 46. The output voltage of 7915 regulator is a. +15 v b.-15 v c. 5v d. None of the above

47. The series pass transistor in a regulator is operated in ----------------- region a. Active region b. Cut-off region c. Saturation region d. None of the above 48. The Efficiency is high in a. Series Regulator b. Switching Regulator c. Shunt Regulator d. None of the above

49. The output current in an IC Regulator can be boosted by connecting ---------------in parallel with the regulator a. External Pass Transistor b. Feedback network

c. Error Amplifier

d. None of the above

50. The main purpose of current limiting in a regulator is a. protection of the regulator from excessive current b. protection of the load from excessive current c. to keep the power supply transformer from burning up d. to maintain a constant output voltage ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 c a b a b a a d d b 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 d a d a a a a a a a 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a a b a a c b a a c 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 c b a b b b b b b a 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 a d a a b b a b a b

EC206 - Transmission Lines and Waveguides A transmission line is a device designed to guide electrical energy from one point to another. It is used, for example, to transfer the output RF energy of a transmitter to an antenna. Use of the Smith Chart utility has grown steadily over the years and it is still widely used today, not only as a problem solving aid, but as a graphical demonstrator of how many RF parameters behave at one or more frequencies, an alternative to using tabular information. The Smith Chart can be used to represent many parameters including impedances, admittances,

and reflection coefficients and scattering parameters, wavelength approaches the crosssectional dimensions of the waveguide. Below such frequencies, waveguides are useless as electrical transmission lines. At short wavelengths there exist other modes of propagation that are not as "lossy," if a conductive tube is used rather than two parallel conductors. It is at these high frequencies that waveguides become practical. This course has established Maxwell's equations from experimentally deduced laws. The equations are completely general, and are consistent with Special Relativity. We predicted from these equations, based on low-frequency results, that electric and magnetic fields could propagate as electromagnetic radiation, at any frequency, even e.g., 1020 hz, at the speed of light, c, which is a constant in a vacuum. We have also found how to guide such waves, down transmission lines and waveguides. EC206 - Transmission Lines and Waveguides 1. Z stands for a) R+jwL

b) G+jwc b) Distributed Network

c) G+jwL c) None of the above

2. A Transmission line is a) Lumped Network

3. Frequency Distortion is defined as a) All frequencies transmitted is not attenuated equally b) are not delayed equally c) None of the above 4. Delay Distortion is also called a) Phase distortion b) Frequency distortion c) Signal distortion c) CG=LR

5. The condition for distortion less line is a) LG=CK b) LC=GR 6. Reflection co-efficient is defined as ratio of a) Reflected voltage at load to incident voltage at load b) Incident voltage at load to reflected voltage at load c) None of the above 7. The (Zoc) open circuit impedance is given by a) Zo Coth rl b) Zo tanh rl 8. The normalized impedance is defined as a) z/zo-Given Impedance/Characteristic Impedance b) zo/z-Characteristic Impedance/Given Impedance

c) Zo Sin h rl

c) z only 9. Energy in electric field is given by a) CE2/2 b) LI2/2 10. Voltage along an infinite line is given by a) E=Es e-s b) I=Is e-s c) CI2/2 c) E=Is e-s

11. The characteristic impedance of a high frequency transmission line is (a) Z0=(L/C)1/2 b) Z0=(LC)1/2 c) Z0=(C/L)1/2 12. A 100 dissipationless line connects a signal of 100KHz to a load of 140.Calculate VSWR a) S = 0.167 b)S = 1.4 c)S = 2.4 13. A lossless line in air having a characteristic impedance of 300 is terminated by an unknown impedance. The standing wave ratio is 3.3. Calculate reflection co-efficient a) 0.53 b)0.64 c)1.53 14. The distance between two adjacent voltage maximum or minimum is a) /3 b) /4 c) /2 15. The value of maximum input impedance(Rmax) is a) R0/S b) SR0 c) R02S

16. When the line is terminated with its Characteristic Impedance R0, the reflection coefficient is a) K = 0 b) K = 1 c) K = 17. Nodes are the points of --------voltage or current in the standing wave system a) Maximum voltage or current b) Zero voltage or current c) Infinite voltage or current 18. Input Impedance of short circuit dissipation less line is a) -j R0CotS b) -j R0tanS 19. The voltage equation of a high frequency transmission line is a) E = ERcosS + j IR sinS b) E = ERcoshS + j IR sinhS c) E = ERcosS+j ZR sinS 20. In Short circuit high frequency transmission line, the first quarter wavelength acts as a) Capacitance b) Inductance c) Resistance 21. In high frequency transmission lines the propagation constant Pis a) P= +j b) P= c) P= j d) P= 0 22. Smith Chart is used for calculating a) impedance and admittance c) Location of Maxima and minima 23. Stub is b) standing wave ratio (SWR) d) all the above c) -j R0cothS

a) Small transmission line c) It may be parallel are series circuit

b) Connected in between Tx and Rx d) All the above d) Center

24. In Smith impedance chart the open and short circuit are indicated in a) Left and right b) Right and Left c) Top and Bottom

25. The value of reflection coefficient (K) for Zo = 500 ohms working at frequency 300 Mhz is 50 +j50 a) 0.5 b) 0.4 c) 0.44 d) 0.42 26. Double stub matching is used to match a) Different frequency and fine adjustment c) Suitable for any fixed frequency b) Transmission line of low frequency d) only for load impedance matching d) 0.4 d) 2.0

27. In double stub matching the location of the first stub should be located in a) 0.25 b) 0.1 to 0.5 c) 0.1 to 0.15 28. To draw the impedance circle the center point should be located at a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 29. The Characteristic impedance of a quarter wave transformer is a) Zo = Sqrt (Zo x Rin ) b) Zo = Sqrt (Zo x Rin) 2 c) Zo = Zo x Rin d) Zo2 = Zo x Rin 30. The purpose of stub in transmission line is a) To increase Impedance c) To match Impedance b) To decrease impedance d) None of the above

31. The lowest order mode that can exist in the case of waves between two infinite parallel conducting plates is a) TE00 b) TE01 c) TE10 d) TE11 32. The cutoff frequency in the case of waves between two infinite parallel conducting planes is given by

33. The dominant mode in rectangular waveguide is a) TE10 b) TE01 c) TM01

d) TM10

34. The cutoff frequency of an air filled rectangular waveguide having cross-sectional dimensions of a =100mm and b=50mm in TE10 mode is a) 2 X 109 HZ b) 3 X 109 HZ c) 6 X 109 Hz d) 1.5X109 HZ 35. The cutoff wavelength of a rectangular waveguide having width a and height b is given by

36. Relationship between phase velocity, group velocity and free space velocity (Vc) is a) VgVc=Vp2 b) VpVc=Vg2 c) Vg.Vp=Vc d) VgVp=Vc2 37. A rectangular metal waveguide is a a) Low-pass filter b) High-pass filter c) Band-pass filter d) None of the above

38. Phase velocity (rate at which the phase is changing) of a rectangular waveguide a) equal to the velocity of light b) greater than the velocity of light c) depends upon the dimensions of the waveguide d) smaller than the velocity of light 39. For handling high powers, the best transmitting medium is a) open wire line b) waveguide c) Telegraph lines d) coaxial cable 40. A plane wave front (small section of an electromagnetic wave), in free space, has a characteristic impedance of a) 50 Ohms b) 75 Ohms c) 325 Ohms d) 377 Ohms 41. The depth of penetration of current in waveguide wall is proportional to (a)f (b)f (c) 1/f 42. A slot transverse to magnetic field produces (a)Magnetic coupling (b) Electric coupling (c) Both electric and magnetic coupling 43. A slot which interferes with the flow of current produces (a)Magnetic coupling (b) Electric coupling (c) Both electric and magnetic coupling 44. In rectangular waveguide mode suppression is most effective when (a) a/b=0.5 (b)a/b=1 (c) a/b=2 45. Modes which are beyond cut-off are called (a)Evanescent mode (b) TE mode (c) TM mode

46. If the guide is made square, the TE 01 mode will have same frequency as (a) TM 10 (b) TE10 (c) TE11 47. For impedance matching, when the load resistance is less than the guide impedance matching resistance is placed (a) at the centre (b)off center (c) at the load 48. A rectangular window in a rectangular waveguide acts as (a) Parallel resonant shunt (b) Series resonant shunt (c) None of the above 49. Waveguides are principally used for transmission of wavelength about (a) above 10 cm (b) below 10 cm (c) above 100 cm

(a)

50. Wave impedance is a ratio of transverse component of electric field to magnetic field (b) transverse component of magnetic field to electric field (c) axial component of electric field to magnetic field
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 a b a a a a a a a a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 a b a c b a b b a b 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 c d d b c a b b a c 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 c c a d b d b b b d 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 c b a c a b b a b a

EC 301 - DIGITAL COMMUNICATION The main objective of this subject is to give depth knowledge about fundamentals of Digital Communication Techniques. The key features of each unit are as follows: Unit 1 explains Sampling process and various Pulse Modulation systems Unit 2 explains the next process in converting Analog signal to Digital signal called Quantization and gives a wide knowledge about Pulse Code Modulation techniques.

Unit 3 deals with various Digital modulation techniques ( DPCM , DM & ADM) Unit - 4 deals with Base band Transmission systems and explains how to design a Optimum Transmitting and receiving filter for Noise immuni Unit 5 gives us information about Hybrid Modulation techniques ( ASK, PSK, FSK, QPSk & DPSK). It also compares the performance of various techniques by calculating its Probability of error Value. EC 301 - DIGITAL COMMUNICATION

1 2

Nyquist frequency is given by: a)fm > 2fs b) fm = 2fs Pulse Duration Modulation is also known as: a) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (c) Pulse Width Modulation

c) fs < 2fm

d) fs >= 2fm

b) Pulse Length Modulation d) Pulse Position Modulation d) Compander

3 4

The Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using: a)Predictor b) Integrator c) Equalizer

The narrow samples produced at the pulse demodulator output are distributed to appropriate lowpass reconstruction filter by means of: a) Commutator b) Multiplexer c) Decommutator d)None of the above Which of the following method is employed in telephony: a) Time Division Multiplexing b) Frequency Division Multiplexing c) Both (a) and (b) d) Only (a) The errors in the decision device at receiver output is due to: a) ISI (b)Channel Noise c) Aliasing d)Aperture Effect

6 7

Companding is used: a ) to overcome quantizing noise in PCM b) in PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limiting in the receivers c) to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion d) in PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise

The biggest disadvantage of PCM is: a) its inability to handle analog signals b) the high error rate which its quantizing noise introduces c) its incompatibility with TDM d) the large bandwidths that are required for it Indicate which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog: a) PCM b) Differential PCM c)PWM d) Delta Modulation

10 Quantizing noise occurs in:

a) TDM

b) FDM

c) PCM

d) PWM d) (b) & (c)

11 The noise present in delta modulation is: a) ISI b) Granular noise c) Slope overload noise

12 The process in which the information in a binary PCM encoded in terms of signal transitions is referred as: a) Correlative coding b) Manchester coding c)Differential Coding d) Encoding 13 In ------------ system, two sinusoidal wave of same amplitude but different frequencies used to represent binary symbols 0 and 1: a) FSK b) FM c) ASK d) MSK 14 The method in which the carrier phase takes on one of four possible values such as /4, 3/4, 5/4, 7/4: a) PSK b) BPSK c) QPSK d) QAM 15 A pair of sinusoidal waves differing only in phase by 1800 is reffered to: a) Anti symmetric signals b) Antipodal signal c ) Bipolar signal d) Polar signal 16 Digital Modulation techniques are: a) AM b) PAM c) PCM d) FM

17 The phenomenon of high frequency component taking the identity of low frequency component in the spectrum is termed as: a) Aperture effect b) Aliasing effect c) Granular noise d) Slopeover noise 18 Correlative coding is also called: a) Duobinary coding c) Differential Encoding b) artial Response Signalling d) Manchester coding d) Sample d) AM d) None of the above

19 The difference between two adjacent discrete values is called: a) Step Size b) Quantum c) Pulse 20 The ---------- is a one bit version of DPCM: a) PCM b) ADPCM c) DM

21 __________________ is a digital modulation technique a) FM b) AM c) PSK

22 Probability of error for a QPSK system is given by a) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(Eb/No)1/2) b) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(Eb/2No)1/2) c) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(2Eb/No)1/2) d) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(Eb/4No)1/2) 23 Eye patterns are used to study a) Noise c) Both Noise and ISI b) ISI d) None of the above

24 Pre-emphasis circuit is used a) After modulation c) before detection 25 A PAM signal can be detected by using a) ADC c) BPF 26 Correlator is a combination of a) An integrator and a multiplier c) A differentiator and a multiplier 27 Signal space diagram of a BFSK system is a) One dimensional c) Four dimensional

b) before modulation d) after detection b) integrator d) HPF b) A differentiator and an integrator d) None of the above b) Three dimensional d) Two dimensional

28 If S is the step size mean square quantization then quantization error is given by a) S/12 b) S/24 c) S2/24 d) S2/12 29 The _______________ technique uses the least transmission bandwidth a) PCM b) DM c) DPCM d) All the above 30 The bitrate of one T1 line in T1 carrier system is a ) 1.333 Kbps b) 1.544 Mbps c) 1.333bps d) 64 Kbps

31 Channel capacity is related to SNR in bits/sec as a) B Log10[1+SNR] b) B Log2[SNR] c) B Log2[1+SNR] d) B Log10[SNR] 32 The PPM wave is generated from PDM by passing through a) Astable multivibrator b)Slicer c)Monostable multivibrator d)None of these 33 Adaptive waveform coding is based on a) Estimation b) Prediction c) Both a&b d) None

34 To restore the signal samples to their correct level the device used in receiver with a complementary characteristics to compressor is a) Compandor b)Quantizer c)Expander d)None 35 PPM Signal related to a) differentiation of PWM c) Summation of PAM and PWM b) Integration of PWM d) Integration of PAM

36 Reduction of step size a)increases quantization error b)decreases quantization error c)doesnt make any change in quantization error d)increases channel noise

37 The slope overload error in DM can be reduced by increasing a) step size b) sampling frequency c)both a and b 38 Main advantages of DPCM is a) reduces bandwidth b)less complexity 39 Baud rate of a quaternary PCM system is a )1 bit/sysmbol c) 4 bits/sysmbol c) Noise is less b)2 bits/sysmbol d) 8 bits/symbol d) cost is less

40 Overlapping of Spectra of BPSK signal leads to a) inter channel interference b) aliasing c) intersymbol interference d) None of the above 41 ISI can be reduced by using a) Sinc filter b) Raised cosine filter 42 Duobinary encoding can be called as a) Cross correlative coding b) Partial differential coding 43 ---------- is a losssy compression technique a) Text b) Image 44 Prob of error of BPSK signal is a) 0.5 erfc(E/N)^.5 b) c)0.5erfc(E/4N)^.5 c) cosine filter b)Correlative coding d) None of the above c) Video d) both b & c d) LPF

b)0.5erfc(e/2n)^.5 d) None of the above

45 Reduction of repeater distance in Digital communication keeps error arbitrarily a) low b) high c)no change d)medium 46 To sample a single tone signal of frequency f, the freq required is a) 2f b)f/2 c)f d)f/4 47 Cross talk can be suppressed by having samples of a) infinite duration b)finite duration c) not be suppressed by changing samplesd) None of the above 48 The signaling of transition in a binary wave for symbol 0 & no transition for 1 is called a) split phase b) NRZ c) Differential Encoding d) RZ 49 Compression laws are a) law & A law c) law & a law 50 --------- is a sample domain transfer technique a) Interpolation c) both a & b b) law & a law d) A law & B law b) Decimation d) DCT

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 d c c c c a&b a d c c 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 d b a c 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 c d b b b a c d b b 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 a c c c a b a a c a 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 b b d a b b b c a c

b c b a&b a c

EC303 Digital Signal Processing The objective of this course is to introduce students to the field of DSP and is application The fundamental principles basics and applications of signals and systems are dealt in unit I . Convolution, a method of time-domain analysis, which also serves to link the time domain and the frequency domain, DFT and FFT which reinforce the central concept that sampling in one domain leads to a periodic extension in the other are also taught.

Applications of digital signal processing to the design of digital filters, implementation using various structures, multirate signal processing and adaptive signal processing are also taught in unit II and III. Power spectrum estimation using various methods are also dealt in unit IV. Last unit deals with the architecture, addressing modes, instruction sets, pipelining and application programs in TMS320C5X processor. EC303 Digital Signal Processing 1. A Signal with nonzero power and infinite energy is said to be a) Energy Signal b) Deterministic Signal c) Power Signal d) Neither Energy nor Power Signal 2. The Z transform of u(t) is a) Z/Z-1 c) Z+1 b) Z d) Z/Z+1

3. An N-point FFT Computation requires ________ number of complex multiplication in DIT algorithm a) N Log2 M b) M/2 log2 N c) M/2 Log2 N d) N/2 Log2 N 4. ROC of X(Z) is all the Z-plane, except for Z=0 and / or Z= , the signal X(n) is a) Two-sided b) Right Sided c) Finite Length d) Left Sided 5. y(n) +2y2(n) = 2x(n)-x(n-1). This is a) Linear c) Non-Causal 6. Laplace Transform of e-t u(t) is a) 1/S + c) 1 7. The Unit impulse signal (n) = 1 when a) n>0 c) n<0 b) Non-Linear d) All of the above b) 1/S d)1/S2 b) n=0 d) n=1

8. The causality condition for LTI system is h(n)=0 a) n>0 b) n<0 c) n=0 d) n=1 9. The system y(n)=x(n-2) + 2x2(n) x(n+1) is a) static c) causal b) non causal d) All of the above

10. Condition for BIBO stability is a) | h(k) | < c) | h(k) | >= 11. ________ Filters are always stable a) FIR c) Butterworth filter 12. Minimum phase system has a) All poles & zeros in the Left Half plane c) All Zeros in right half plane

b) | h(k) | > d) None of the above b) IIR d) None of the above b) Some zeros in Right half plane d) All poles are in Right half plane

13. Magnitude characteristics of Butterworth analog filter is a) Rippled pass band, Monotonic stop bands b) Monotonic pass band, rippled stop band c) Rippled in both bands d) Monotonic in both bands 14. Conditions for linear phase characteristics of filter a) h(n) =h(N-1-n) b) h(n) =h(2N) c) h(n) =h(2N-1) d) h(n) =h((N-1)/2) 15. Frequency transformation of normalized Low Pass Filter is a) S -> c b) S -> S/c c) S -> c /S d) S -> -S/c 16. Warping effect occurs in a) matched Z-transform c) Impulse invariant method b) Bilinear transform d) All of the above

17. The total number of zeros must be less than or equal to the total number of poles ensures a) Conjugate Symmetry b) Causality c) Stability d) Minimum Phase 18. Poles of the FIR filter lies on the a) unit circle of the Z-Plane c) outside the unit circle of the Z-Plane 19. Gibbs Phenomenon results in a)Smoothening of spectrum c)Band limiting the spectrum b) on the origin of the Z-Plane d) Entire Z-plane b)Oscillations in spectrum c)None of the above

20. Zero input limit cycle oscillation error is observed when a digital IIR filter implemented with a) infinite precision arithmetic b) finite length arithmetic c) both of the above d) none of the above 21. The purpose of the anti-aliasing filter is to a) Sample the Signal c) Extract only the Central Image b) Average the Signal d) Band-limit the signal

22. Up sampling by I causes a) Replicates Spectrum c) I-fold Compression 23. Decimation by M causes a) sampling rate increases by a factor M c) No change in gain

b) Increase in gain d) none of the above b)sampling rate decreases by a factor M d) Increase in gain

24. Increasing the sampling rate by a factor I is called a) Decimation b) Sampling rate convert ion of I/D c) Interpolation d) Autocorrelation 25. For an analog signal band limited to fmax HZ, the sampling rate S exceed a) fmax b) fmax / 2 c) fmax/4 d) 2fmax 26. Aliasing occurs if the analog signal is sampled a) Below the Nyquist rate c) Equal to the Nyquist rate b) Above the Nyquist rate d) None of the above

27. The _________ structure is a canonical structure a) Direct Form I b) Direct Form II c) Cascade d) Parallel 28. A practical solution to the aliasing problem is to use a) Synthesis filter bank b)Analysis filter bank c) Quadrature mirror filters d) Fir filter 29. The sampling rate conversion by a rational factor I/D can be achieved by a) Cascading Interpolators b)Cascading Decimators c)Cascading Interpolators and Decimators d)None of the above 30. An analysis Filter bank a) Splits the signal into number of sub bands b) Sum the sub band signals c) Multiplies the sub band signals d) None of the above 31. For spectral smoothing a window should a) Minimize both main lobe and side lobe energy b) Maximize main lobe energy and minimize slide lobe energy c) Maximize both main lobe and side lobe energy d) Minimize main lobe energy and maximize side lobe energy 32. Periodgram is a) Estimation of power density spectrum b) Estimation of autocorrelation c) Estimation cross correlation d) None of the above

33. The spectral density is the Fourier transform of a) Cross correlation function b) correlation function c) Auto correlation function d) None of the above 34. Periodogram estimation is a) Parametric method c)Conventional method b)Non Parametric method d)None of the above

35 The addressing mode that is convenient for FFT Computation is a) Indirect addressing b) Circular addressing mode c) Bit reversed addressing d) Memory Mapped 36 The register which holds the address of the current data memory page is a) DP b) ARP c) ARB d) None of the above 37 The data memory used with C5X processors is split into ____________ pages each __________ words long a) 512,128 b) 256, 256 c) 128, 512 d) 1024, 64 38 When an operand for an instruction is accessed using the indirect addressing mode and the content of the AR used for accessing the data is to be left unaltered after the instruction is executed, the addressing mode is specified by the symbol_____ a) # b) * c) * d) * + 39 The number of clock cycles required for flushing out the pipeline in case of execution of branch instruction B begin is _____________ a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 40 The register which is used for storing the contents of ARP temporarily is ________ a) ARB b) DP c) TREG1 d) TREG2 41 In which phase of the instruction pipeline, AR is modified when the instruction LACC + is executed. a) Fetch b) Decode c) Read d) Execute 42 Assume that the contents of ACC, ARP, AR3 and locations 0045H, 40C5H are 1000H, 3, 40C5H and 2400, 2300 H respectively, initially. When the Instruction LAMM is executed, the content of ACC is a) 2400 H b) 2300 H c) 40C5H d) 0003H 43 The number of instruction cycles required for executing a program in a microprocessor with no pipelining is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 44 The result of operations performed in central ALU are stored in

a) ACC

b) ACCB

c) TREG0

d) PREG

45 The ALU register whose either higher order word or lower order word can be loaded from memory is a) ACC b) ACCB c) TREG0 d) PREG 46 The bit of status register that determines whether the processor halts the internal operation while acknowledging a hold or not is a) PM b) CNF c) HM d) XF 47 The 16-bit register used for incrementing/decrementing the ARn in steps larger than 1 is a) ARCR b) ARP c) ARB d) INDX 48 The mnemonic for the instruction which multiplies two 16-bit numbers represented in 2s complement form is a) MPYA b) MPY c) MPYU d) MPYS 49 The mnemonic for the instruction which loads zero into PREG is a) SQRA b) SQRS c) ZPR d) ZAP 50 The mnemonic for the instruction which forces the program being executed to wait until an unmasked interrupt or reset occurs is a) NOPb) RPT c) IDLE d) RPTZ Answers 1 c 11 a 21 d 31 b 41 b 2 a 12 a 22 a 32 a 42 a 3 d 13 d 23 b 33 c 43 d 4 a 14 a 24 c 34 b 44 a 5 b 15 b 25 d 35 c 45 a 6 a 16 b 26 a 36 a 46 c 7 b 17 b 27 b 37 a 47 d 8 b 18 b 28 c 38 b 48 b 9 b 19 b 29 c 39 c 49 c 10 a 20 b 30 a 40 a 50 c ELECTRONIC MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION

EC 305

There have been remarkable advancements in the design and application of electronic instruments during the last few years. Modern instruments provide digital readouts, digital data for computers and data for many other mathematical operations. However, the old type instruments are still being used at many places. There is a need to understand the operation and application of these instruments to enable engineers to adapt easily to new measurement concepts. The purpose of this course is to introduce various types of measurements made in electronics and the instruments used for measuring them. The main objective is to identify the

different latest measurement techniques available for specific engineering applications.This course briefly discusses the measurement and errors, Electromechanical and digital indicating instruments, Signal generation and analysis, Oscilloscopes and Recorders, Computer controlled test systems. Basic measurement techniques such as accuracy, precision, standards, and so on are discussed briefly in this course. The error in measurements and their rectification are also dealt.The classification of ammeters and voltmeters and their wide application are explained elaborately. The basic digital indicating instruments are also discussed. Good design of electronic circuits and systems begins with grounding and shielding. Generally, the engineers do not pay much attention to the grounding and shielding techniques, resulting in increase in the failure rate and electric shock hazards. Sometimes it becomes difficult to diagnose a fault due to improper grounding and shielding. The need of grounding and shielding are also explained. The signal generation and analysis deals with various generators such as sine wave, sweep frequency, pulse and square wave generators. The signal analyses section explains wave, distortion, harmonic distortion analyzers and also the importance of the modern analyzers such as spectrum analyzer and logic analyzer are explained in briefly. The oscilloscopes and recorders deals with various types of oscilloscopes and their wide application in measurements. The recorders such as magnetic, X-Y, analog and digital recorder are also dealt in this course. The computer controlled test systems deals with modern computerized measurement instruments.

EC305 - Electronic Measurement and Instrumentation 1) The errors that occurs mainly due to human errors are called as a) Gross errors b) instrumental errors c) environmental errors d) random errors 2) _________________ errors are inherent in measuring instruments because of their mechanical structure. a) Gross errors b) random errors c) environmental errors d) instrumental errors 3) The errors that occur due to conditions external to the measuring device, including conditions in the area surrounding the instrument are called as a) Gross errors b) environmental errors c) limiting errors d) random errors

4) Static and Dynamic errors are classification of the which error? a) Gross errors b) instrumental errors c) environmental errors d) systematic errors 5) The errors are due to unknown causes and occur even when all systematic errors have been accounted are called as a) Gross errors b) instrumental errors c) random errors d) environmental errors 6) The Torque developed in a PMMC movement is a) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and inversely proportional to number of turns in the coil b) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and inversely proportional to the effective coil area c) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and also directly proportional to the effective coil area d) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and inversely proportional to the current in the coil 7) To decrease the response time, a PMMC movement system is designed to be a) slightly overdamped b) slightly critically damped c) slightly underdamped d) highly underdamped 8) Accuracy of a reading of an instrument refers to a) How close the reading is to the previous reading b) How many readings were taken at that point c) The repeatability of the reading d) How close the reading is to actual value 9) In dArsonval galvanometer can have the instrument error due to: a) Humidity b) Friction c) High temperature d) Vibrations in the taut suspension 10) The scale of resistance in an Ohmmeter is nonlinear because the a) relationship between voltage and current is nonlinear b) relationship between voltage and resistance is nonlinear c) relationship between resistance and current is nonlinear d) PMMC movement gives nonlinear readings 11) Which mechanism is used for providing the Galvanometer Damping? a) Mechanical b) electrical c) electromechanical d) both a and c 12) Temperature compensation in PMMC mechanism is obtained by a) Swamping resistors b) swamping capacitors c) inductors d) insulators 13) The swamping resistors are made up of

a) copper and zinc c) manganin and copper

b) manganin and zinc d) none

14) The addition of a series resistor to dArsonvals mechanism will give us a) DC Voltmeter b) DC Ammeter c) DC Ohmmeter d) none 15) The sensitivity of DC voltmeter is expressed in terms of a) Volt per ohms b) ohms per volts c) ohms per ampere d) none 16) One of the factors of using a R-2R ladder D/A converters is that a) It requires multiple resistors of a single value b) Its accuracy is poorer than that of a weighted resistor D/A converter c) It needs higher value of resistors d) This approach gives larger size of resistors 17) A 4-bit flash A/D converter needs a) 4 analog comparators c) 7 analog comparators b)8 analog comparators d) 15 analog comparators

18) The dynamic range of the 8-bit D/A converter is approximately a) 24 dB b) 16 dB c) 32 dB d) 48 dB 19) One of the factors in favour of using a dual slope A/D converter is that the a) Output generated is independent of the component values of the integrator b) Output generated is dependent of the component values of the integrator c) Output generated is directly proportional to the reference voltage d) Conversion time is inversely proportional to the number of bits of the counter 20) In an ammeter, the shunt resistor is used to a) decrease the voltage range c) decrease the current range b) increase the voltage range d) increase the current range

21) The fundamental difference between the pulse and square wave generator concerns a) Pulse width b) pulse period c) average period d) Duty cycle 22) rising time in pulse wave is the time rise from a)10% - 90% c) 90% - 10% b) 50% - 100% d) none

23) A function generator is a versatile instrument that delivers ________ waveforms. a)sine b) square c) triangular d) all the three. 24) The triangular waveform is obtained from function generator at a)Integrator end b) M/V comparator end c) Resistance and diode end d) none

25) For higher frequency measurements the analyzer used is a) Frequency selective wave analyzer b) Heterodyne wave analyzer c) Both a & b d) none 26) The operating frequency range of Heterodyne wave analyzer is a)5K 10 MHz b) 10K 10 MHz c) 10K 18 MHz d) 5K 18 MHz 27) Maxwells bridge is used to measure a) Inductance c) reactance b) capacitance d) impedance

28) Which bridge circuit is used for high Q values? a)Maxwells bridge b) Hays bridge c)Weins bridge d) Andersons bridge 29) simple sine wave generator consists of two basic blocks a) oscillator and amplifier b) Amplifier and attenuator c) Attenuator and Oscillator d) None of these 30) Duty cycle for square wave generator is a)25% c) 50% 31) Triggering in a CRO a) generates the sweep signal b) provides input to the vertical plates c) provides stability in a repeated waveform d) chops the input signal 32) Basic function of a trigger in a CRO is to a) increase the bandwidth c) adjust the amplitude b) stabilize repeating waveforms d) adjust the phase b) 75% d) 100%

33) The colour of the beam in a CRO is the characteristics of the a) signal being viewed b) primary electrons being emitted from the cathode c) coating material of the screen d) accelerarion voltage 34) The time base of a CRO is developed by a a) sine waveform c) rectangular waveform b) square waveform d) sawtooth waveform

35) The input impedance of a general purpose CRO must a) be high b) be low c) appear capacitive d) appear inductive

36) The X-Y recorder records a) the parameters on digital display b) one parameter with reference to the other parameter c) one parameter on the x-axis and the other parameter as time on the y-axis. d) one parameter on the y-axis and the other parameter as time on the x-axis. 37) A modern paperless recorder can be a) a circular chart display c) a graphics display b) an alarm display d) all of the above

38) The methods used for magnetic tape recording are a) direct recording b) frequency modulating recording c) pulse duration modulation recording d) all the three 39) The time period for which the trace remains on the screen after the signal becomes zero is known as a) consistence b) persistence c) efficiency d) none 40) The deflection on the screen will be more if the a) deflection voltage is decreased b) accelerating voltage is increased c) distance between the deflection plates is increased d) distance from the center of the deflection plates to screen is increased 41) SINAD is used to measure____________________. a) receiver sensitivity b) receiver selectivity c) both a & b d) none 42) The IEEE 488 was evolved at first by a) MICROSOFT c) HP 43) IEEE 488 standard is __________________. a) long distance system c) medium distance system 44) Number of management lines in IEEE 488 is a) 4 c) 5 45) Handshake lines in IEEE 488 are a) NRFD, NDAC & ATN c) NRFD, NDAC & DAV 46) EOI line is used by a) talker c) controller 47) IFC line is used by a) talker b) IBM d) none b) short distance system d) none b) 3 d) 8

b) NRFD, IFC & DAV d) ATN, IFC & SRQ. b) listener d) none b) listener

c) controller 48) SRQ line is used by a) talker c) controller

d) both a & b b) listener d) any device

49) How many test equipment should be connect via IEEE 488 a) <15 b) >15 c) 15 d) 16 50) Electronic weighing system has advantage of a) accuracy c) efficient Answer b) less error d) a & b & c

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A 11 C 21 D 31 C 41 D 12 A 22 A 32 D
42

A C B C C A B D A D

B 13 A 23 D 33 C 43 D 14 C 24 A 34 A 44 C 15 B 25 B 35 A 45 C 16 A 26 C 36 B 46 C 17 D 27 A 37 D 47 D 18 D 28 B 38 D 48 B 19 A 29 C 39 B 49 C 20 D 30 C 40 D
50

EC 307 Microprocessor and interfacing

The purpose of this course is to introduce students to the microprocessor types and the programming of them. The aware of various interfacing circuits necessary for various applications. This subject is to identify the different latest microprocessor application techniques available for specific engineering applications. To understand the various microprocessor types available, the basic working of microprocessor types and their programming, various interfacing concepts and the various practical applications of microprocessor.The architecture of 8085 8086, general interfacing and interrupts, interfacing device and various application of microprocessor.

EC307 Microprocessor and Interfacing

1. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I/O (a) I/O devices have 16-bit addresses (b) I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions (c) There can be maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices (d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I/O data. 2. In a microprocessor, the register which holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched is (a) Accumulator (b) Program Counter (c) Stack Pointer (d) Instruction register 3. In a microprocessor, wait states are used to (a) make the processor wait during a DMA operation (b) make the processor wait during an interrupt processing (c) make the processor wait during a power shutdown (d) interface slow peripherals to the processor 4. A DMA transfer implies (a) Direct transfer of data between memory and accumulator (b) Direct transfer of data between memory and I/O devices without the use of microprocessor (c) Transfer of data exclusively within microprocessor registers (d) A fast transfer of data between microprocessor and I/O devices 5. An Assembler for a microprocessor is used for (a) assembly of processors in a production line (b) creation of new programmes using different modules (c) translation of a program from assembly language to machine language (d) Translation of a higher level language into English text 6. The total number of memory accesses involved (inclusive of the op-code fetch) when an 8085 processor executes the instruction LDA 2003 is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 7. In an 8085 microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt (a) Only if an interrupt service routine is not being executed (b) Only if a bit in the interrupt mask is made O (c) Only if interrupts have been enabled by an EI instruction (d) None of the above 8. An instruction used to set the carry flag in a computer can be classified as (a) program control b)Data transfer (c) arithmetic (d) logical 9. An I/O processor control the flow of information between (a) Cache memory and I/O devices (b) main memory and I/O devices

(c)two I/O devices

(c) cache and main memories

10. If CS=A15A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of a 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range will be (a) 3000 H 3FFF H (b) 7000 H 7FFF H (c) 5000 H-5FFF H and 6000 H 6FFF H (d) 6000 H-6FFF H and 7000 H 7FFF H 11. In the 8085 microprocessor, the RST6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location: (a)30 H (b)24 H (c)48 H (d)60 H 12. The contents of register (B) and Accumulator (A) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH respectively. The contents of A and the status of carry flag (CY) and sign flag(S) after executing SUB B instruction are (a) A=F1, CY=1, S=1 (b) A=0F, CY=1, S=1 (c) A=F0, CY=0, S=0 (d)A=1F, CY=1, S=1 13. While moving data between registers of the 8085 and the Stack (a) Pre increments the stack pointer (b) Post increments the stack pointer (c) Pre decrements the stack pointer (d) Post decrements the stack pointer 14. With 2s complement representation, the range of values that can be represented on the data bus of an 8-bit microprocessor is given by (a)-128 to +127 (b)-128 to +128 (c)-127 to +128 (d)-256 to +256 15. 8086 Memory segmented as (a) 4 segments (b) 6 segments (c) 3 segments (d) 5 segments (d)8 bit, 7 flags

16. 8086 size of flag register and number of active flags (a)8 bit, 4 flags (b) 16 bit, 8 flags (c)16 bit, 9 flags

17. Size of 8086 memory is (a)1 KB

(b)1 MB

(c) 1 GB

(c) None (d) 7

18. In 8086 how many dedicated interrups are available (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6

19. The following sequence of instructions are executed by an 8085 microprocessor 1000 I SP, 27FF 1003 CALL 1006 1006 POP H The contents of the stack pointer (SP) and the HL, register pair on completion of execution of these instructions are (a) SP=27FF, HL=1003 (b) SP=27FD, HL=1003 (c) SP=27FF, HL=1006 (d) SP=27FD, HL=1006

20. How many T States required for CALL instruction (a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 12 21. 8086 Architecture having (a) EU & BIU (b) EU 22. The format of seven segment display is (a) b c d a dp g f e (b) a b c d dp f g e 23. The function of a microprocessor is to a) read binary instruction from memory c) process them and prove result 24. Byte is a group of: a) 2 bits b) 4 bits (c)EU& IU (c) b a c d dp e f g

(d) 14 (d) BIU (d) d b c a dp g e f

b) accept binary data as input d) all the above c)8 bits d)16 bits

25. Mnemonic is a combination of ------------ to suggest the operation of an instruction: a) Alphabets b)Binary digitsc)Letters and binary digits d)None 26. The data bus is bidirectional because: a) the wires or can conduct either direction b) b) data has to be read from the memory and later to be stored or written into the memory c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these 27. The address bus is unidirectional because: a) it has to access the memory or peripherals b) it has gates that would prevents bi-directional operation c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these 28. A microprocessor based system consists of: a) Microprocessor and memory b) Microprocessor and input-output devices c) Microprocessor, input/output devices and interfacing devices. d) All of the above 29. -------------- is a 16-bit register in 8085 a) Stack pointer b)Program counter c) Both (a) & (b) d)None of these d) None of these

30. The Interfacing devices are circuits that includes: a) Buffer and latches b)Encoder and decoder c) Both (a) & (b)

31. Microprocessors are classified as 8-bits or 16-bits depending on the basic data size handled by -------------- of the processor a) program counter b) Stack pointer c) ALU d) None of these 32. ALE is a signal used to ----------- the address and data lines using an ------------ latch:

a) demultiplex, external

b) multiplex, external c) demultiplex, internal d) None b) to access the memory d) none of these d) All d) 5 MHz d) RST

33. The function of Io/m in 8085 is: a) to differentiate memory access and I/O access c) to access the I/O

34. HOLD and HLDA signals are used for ------------ type of data transfer: a) Memory-Mapped I/O b) Peripheral I/O c) DMA 35. The clock frequency (external) of 8085 is: a) 7 MHz b) 6 MHz 36. ------------- interrupt has the lowest priority: a) RST 7.5 b) INTR 5.5 c) 4 MHz c) TRAP

37. 8086 uses ---------------- bit address to access memory and ----------- bit address to access I/O devices: a) 16,16 b) 20,16 c) 20,20 d) 20,8 38. A data structure that can be accessed on the basis of FIFO is: a) FIFO structure b) Queue c) Both (a) & (b) of these d) None

39. The purpose of the timing diagram is to provide information regarding the: a) status of various when a machine cycle is executed b) status of various I/O devices c) status of program counter d) status of stack pointer 40. ------------- is the part of an instruction that identifies as a specific operation and -----represents a value on which instruction acts: a) operand, opcode b) opcode, operand c) machine cycle, instruction cycle d) fetch cycle, execute cycle. 41. In 8085 interrupt except Trap are disabled(check incorrect statement) by a) DI Instruction b) a system reset c) acknowledgement of the previous interrupt d) None of the above 42. Direct memory access (DMA) facilitate data to move into and out of the system a) On first come first save b) with equal time delay c) with out subroutine d) without program intervention 43. What is the state of the signal at X

a) Dont know

b) floating

c) changing their state d) all low d) 8 bytes

44. A 32 bit processor has the word length equal to a)2 bytes b)1 bytes c) 4 bytes

45. PSW Stand for a) Accumulator

b) flag

c) accumulator and flag

d) none

46. Which of the following signal is used when microprocessor wants address the memory a) IO/M b) HOLD and HLDA c) Status signal d) ALE 47. In a 8 bit processor having 8K bytes of RAM memory the length of Stack pointer a) 5 b) 8 c) 11 d) 13 48. A USART Chip provides a) Half duplex b) full duplex operation c) duplex operation d) full duplex but cant work asynchronous mode 49. A single instruction to clear the lower four bits of accumulator in 8085 assembly language is a) XRI OF H b) ANI FO H c) XRI FO H d) ANI OF H 50. When a CPU is interrupted it a) Stops execution of instruction b) acknowledge interrupt and branch to a subroutine c) acknowledge interrupt and continues d) acknowledge interrupt and wait for the next instruction from the interrupt device

Answer
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a 11 a 21 a 31 c 41 b 12 a 22 a 32 c
42

d d b c c d d b b b

d 13 d 23 d 33 a 43 d 14 c 24 c 34 c 44 c 15 d 25 c 35 b 45 d 16 c 26 c 36 b 46 c 17 c 27 c 37 b 47 a 18 b 28 d 38 c 48 c 19 c 29 c 39 a 49 d 20 a 30 c 40 b
50

E ET 300-COMMUNICATION SWITCHING TECHNIQUES The largest interconnected systems in the world are telecommunications networks for public and private use. The principles underlying the design of the transmission and terminal components in this worldwide network are well established and coherent; however those involving the design of the switching center component are not. Based on the author's many years of experience in the design of telecommunications switching systems, this book explains the basic principles of switching system design and provides a unified approach to modern computer control and digital systems as well as the much more numerous electromechanical systems that comprise most of the switching equipment in public use today.

Telecommunications Switching Principles is a basic reference and text in the use and design of telecommunications switching systems. Anyone who knows basic electronics and has some idea of the internal structure of simple computer systems will be able to use the book. It provides a fundamental background on the subject and an understanding of modern developments, especially in digital systems and computer control for practicing engineers, persons involved in providing of manufacturing switching equipment, and communication systems managers. It is based on courses given at the postgraduate level and could form the basis of a final year course in telecommunication engineering, teleprocessing, or real-time computer systems for graduate and undergraduate students in electrical engineering. ET 300-COMMUNICATION SWITCHING TECHNIQUES 1. A network with point to point entities are known as a. non connected network b) fully connected network c. partially connected network 2. The links that run between the switching system is called a. Trunks b. subscriber lines 3. The links that run to subscriber premises is called a. Trunks b. subscriber lines c. wires c. wires

4. All the switching exchanges are designed to meet an estimated maximum average simultaneous traffic known as a. rush hour traffic b. free hour traffic c. busy hour traffic 5. The hardware used for establishing a connection in telephone system is called a. switching network b. symmetric network c. non symmetric network 6. A type of switching where electrical path is established between the source & destination before any data transfer is called a. packet switching b. circuit switching c. store & forward switching 7. A type of switching where messages are split into packets is called a. packet switching b. circuit switching c. message switching 8. The other name for step by step switching system is called a. indirect control systemb. direct control system c. control system 9. Line finders are built using a. Uni-selectors b. Bi selectors c. Switch

10. Horizontal stepping is completed within the inter digit gap of about a. 500ms b. 240ms c. 254ms 11. A star connection utilizes an intermediate exchange called a. tandem exchange b. local exchange 12. A traffic route via the highest level of hierarchy is known as a. initial route b. final route 13. Exchanges are interconnected by group of lines called a. subscriber lines b. wires c. main exchange c. tertiary route c. trunk groups

14. The area containing the complete network of main exchange & satellite is called a. multi exchange area b. main exchange area c. local exchange area 15. The other name for open numbering plan is a. uniform numbering plan b. non uniform numbering plan c. semi open numbering plan 16. The other name for closed numbering plan is a. uniform numbering plan b. non uniform numbering plan c. semi open numbering plan 17. A -------------- permits number of lengths to differ by almost one or two digits a. uniform numbering plan b. non uniform numbering plan semi open numbering plan 18. A ------------ identifies a particular exchange within a numbering area a. trunk code b. exchange code c. subscriber number 19. The scheme of sending more than one pulse for a call is called as a. multi metering b. charging c. tariff system 20. The system where the charges are fixed for an estimated average number of local calls is called as a. flat rate tariff system b. charging tariff c. metering 21. Common channel signaling uses a. same channel which carries voice or data to pass control signal related to that call or connection b. uses separate common channel for passing control signal c. channel carries only data signal 22. Inband signaling uses the frequency band of a. 300-3400 HZ b. upper limit of 400 HZ 23. All signaling data links in SS7 are a. point-to-point b. half duplex 24. The Routing tone (or) Call in-progress tone is c. lower than 300 HZ c. full duplex

a. 400HZ or 800HZ

b. 25HZ or 50HZ

c. 100 HZ or 200HZ

25. Arbiters are used to a. perimit two users to access the same server b. avoid two users to access the same server c. point to point communication 26. Third wire control is used to a. Transmit speech signal b. Receive Speech Signal c. Indicate whether a terminal or resource is available 27. Junctor provides a. folded connection b. serial connection c. parallel connection c. 400 500 lines c. 50V c. 64kbs & 256kbs c. Answer signal

28. Read Relay TXE2 Systems size is a. 100 200 lines b. 200 -400 lines 29. Third wire control carriers a. 10V 30. Bit rate in SS6 a. 2.4 Kbs & 4.8kbs b. 20V b. 8kbs & 16kbs

31. The ------------ signal is also known as SEIZE signal. a. Calling signal b. Alert signal 32. The clear signal is provided when a. the each customer replaces the handset c. anyone customer replace the handset

b. the each customer took the handset

33. If the called customer replaced the handset but the caller does not, then the called line is still held and the customer is unable to originate or receive further calls. This condition is known as------------a. Permanent glow condition b.Packed condition c. Called subscriber held condition 34. The availability of a single processor system is a. A = 2MTBF/(MTBF+MTTR) b. A = MTBF/2(MTBF+MTTR) c. A = MTBF/(MTBF+MTTR) 35. The unavailability of the system is given by a. U = A+1 b. U = 1-A c. U = 1+A

36. Given that MTBF = 2000 hrs and MTTR = 4 hrs calculate the unavailability for a single processor system a. 525 hrs in 30 years b. 625 hrs in 25 years c. 500 hrs in 20 years 37. When PAM samples are switched in a time division manner, the switching is

a. digital time division switching b. Analog time division switching

c. None

38. When PCM samples are switched in a time division manner, the switching is a. digital time division switching b. Analog time division switching c. None 39. The speech is carried as PAM analog samples on PCM digital samples occurring at ---------------- interval. a. 50 s b. 125 s c. 150 s 40. The availability of dual processor system is a. A = MTBF/(MTBF) 2+2(MTTR)2 c. A = 2(MTBF)/(MTBF) 2+2(MTTR)2 41. ISDN is an acronym for a. Information services for digital network d. Integrated services digital network b. Internetwork system for data network b. A = (MTBF) 2/(MTBF) 2+2(MTTR)2

42. When you store and forward messages in B-ISDN you are using ------------a. Conversational b. messaging c. retrieval 43. Teletext is a a. narrowband service b. broadband service c. two way broadcast service

44. In B-ISDN, signaling messages will be conveyed out of band in dedicated a. virtual path b. signaling virtual channel c. virtual channels 45. Services that is for transmission and reproduction of graphics and hand written and printed material a. videotext b. teletex c. facsimile 46. Transmission convergence is the sublayer of ----------- in B-ISDN a. ATM adaptation layer b. ATM layer c. Physical layer 47. Cross bar switching also called as a. co-ordinate switching b. time division switching c. electronic space division switching 48. One switching technology that will make the network to switch individual user at a high rate in future broadband network a. Mechanical switching b. Circuit switching c. optical switching 49. When PAM samples are switched in Time division they are called as a. Digital time division switching b. Analog time division switching c. Circuit switching 50. Number 4 ESS is capable of supporting large number of voice channel with a traffic intensity of --------------- per channel a. 0.7E b. 0.2E c. 0.8E

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 b a b c a b a c a b 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A B C A A B C B A A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 b a c a b c a b c a 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 a a c c b a b a b b 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 c b a b c c a c b a

ET352 Computer Architecture and Microcontroller Computer Architecture refers to those attributes of a system visible to a programmer, or, put another way, those attributes that have a direct impact on the logical execution of a program. Computer organization refers to the operational units and their interconnections that realize the architectural specifications. Examples of the architectural attributes include the instruction set, the number of bits used to represents various data types (Example numbers, characters), I/O mechanisms and techniques for addressing memory. Organizational attributes include those hardware details transparent to the programmer, such as control signals, interfaces between the computers and peripherals, and the memory technology used. At a top level, a computer consists of CPU, memory and I/O components, with one or more modules of each type. These components are interconnected in some fashions to achieve the basic functions of the computer, which is to execute the programs. Thus, at a top level, we can describe the computer systems by (1) by describing the external behavior of each component- ie, the data and control signals that it exchanges with other components; and (2) describing the interconnection structure.

The simple instruction set of a RISC lends itself to efficient pipelining because there are fewer and more predictable operations performed per instructions. A RISC instruction set architecture also lends itself to the delayed branch techniques, in which branch instructions are rearranged with other instructions to improve pipelining efficiency. The key characteristics of a RISC machines: (1) A limited instruction set with a fixed format,(2) A large number of registers are the use of the compiler that optimizes registers usage and (3) an emphasis on optimizing the instruction pipeline. Computer organization must be designed to implement a particular architectural specification, a thorough treatment of a organization require the detailed examination of architecture as well. The 8051 is an 8-bit microprocessor originally designed in the 1980's by Intel that has gained great popularity since its introduction. Its standard form includes several standard onchip peripherals, including timers, counters, and UART's, plus 4Kbytes of on-chip program memory and 128 bytes of data memory, making single-chip implementations possible. Its hundreds of derivatives, manufactured by several different companies (like Philips) include even more on-chip peripherals. Costing only a few dollars per IC, the 8051 is estimated to be used in a large percentage all embedded system products. The 809x/839x/879x ICs are a members of the Intel MCS-96 family. In MCS-96 family 8095 was the first member. Later the 8096, 8097 and 8395were added. They are used embedded systems like hard disk drives, modems, printers, pattern recognition and motor control. Having High speed input and output enables them to be used in Digital Storage Oscilloscope.

ET352 Computer Architecture and Microcontroller 1. The way in which the components all inter related a) Structure b) function c) Control d) none 2. The main memory is used to score a) data c) instruction 3. How many internal registers all in CPU? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) one 4. The processing required for a single instruction is called a) instruction cycle b) fetch cycle c) execute cycle d) interrupt cycle 5. _______ holds the address of the instruction to be fetched next a) stack pointer b) program counter b) address d) both a) & c)

c) queue

d) register

6. The method of using the same lines for multiple purpose is called a) multiprocessing b) multi access c) multiplexing d) all the above 7. The key characteristics of computer memory systems are a) location b) capacity c) access method d) all the above 8. The interrupt which has its own address is called a) maskable c) vectored 9. An essential task of an I/o Module is a) error detection c) data buffering b) non-maskable d) non-vectored b) processor communication d) device communication

10. The process of transferring data from main memory for output and storing data in main memory for input is called a) DMA b) programmed I/o c) interrupt driven I/o d) none of the above 11. The processor can be classified as _____________ types a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 12. ________ specifies the operation to be performed a) opcode b) operand c) instruction d) 5 d) function

13. In computer, each instruction is represented by a sequence of ___________ a) word b) bytes c) bits d) nibble 14. The stack is also known as a) push down list b) lifo 15. How many addressing modes are used ? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 16. How many stages in pipelining? a) 3 b) 6 c) 4 c) a or b d) 7 d) 2 d) queue register d) none d) 6 d) fifo

17. _______ register is used to speed up the operation in pipe line a) segment registerb) index register c) Gp register 18. One instruction per cycle architecture is a) risc b) eisc c) a or b

19. The user visible register all characterized into_________ types a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 20. PSW stands for

a) processor status word c) processor scheduling word

b) program status word d) processor structuring width

21. The sequence of instructions in a CISC processors is known as a) firm ware b) hardwired control c) software d) program counter 22. ICC means in an instruction cycle a) instruction cycle code c) Interrupt cycle code b) information cycle d) indirect cycle code

23. The function of second time unit in a fetch cycle a) MAR(PC) b) PC(PC)+I c) MBRMemory d) IR(MBR) 24. The length of the control address register on the IBM 3033 is a) 16 bit b) 8 bit c) 13 bit d) 20 bit 25. The purpose of ZEROIN subfield is a) to indicate conditional branch c) output select b) register control d) data transfer

26. When more than one processor are implemented on a single chip, the configuration is referred to as a) chip multiprocessing b) multithreading c) multiprogramming d) hyper threading

27. A collection of independent uniprocessors may be interconnected to form a) network b) spawn c) cluster d) none of the above 28. When one module is controlling the bus, other modules are locked out. This process is known as a) master mode b) time sharing c) slave mode d)none of the above 29. To provide cache consistency on as SMP, the data cache often supports a protocol known as a) MIPS b) MESI c) TCP d) L1-L2 30. The rate at which a processor executes instructions is given by a) FXIPC b) TXIPC c) 21ai d) none of the above 31. No of Register bank available in 8051 is a) 5 b) 7 c) 4 d) 3

32. Register bank selection is carried out through following register bits a)PSW b)DPH c) IE 33. MOV A,@R0 is a example of ___________ a) immediate addressing c) indexed addressing 34. DAA stands for a) decimal add adjust c) decimal adjust accumulator

d) SBUF

b) direct addressing d) register indirect addressing b) decimal add accumulator d) decimal adjust and add d) DPT

35. Which one of the register is not a valid register of 8051 a)DPTR b) IE c) SCON

36. To access external memory which of the pin should be made active low or grounded a) ALE b) RXT c) XTAL1 d) EA 37. To put upper nibble value in lower nibble and vice versa __________ statement is used a) CLR A b) SWAP A c) XCHG A d) CPL A 38. Special function registers can be accessed by a)immediate addressing b) indexed addressing c) register addressing d)direct addressing 39. Which of the following microcontroller is having zero ROM capacity a)8052 b)8051 c) 8031 d) 8751

40. One machine cycle is equivalent to ________ oscillator periods in 8051 a) 8 b) 12 c) 24 d) 6 41. The 8096 is a _________ bit microcontroller a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 42. The 8096 has _________, _________ bit timers. a) two, 16 b) two , 8 c) three, 16 43. There are _____ possible modes of operation for each of the HSI. a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 44. The size of HIS FIFO is ______________ a) 16 x 20 bit b) 4 x 20 bit 45. HSO CAM size is _________ a) 8 x 23 Bit b) 8 X 7 Bit c) 8 x 20 bit c) 8 x 16 Bit d) three, 18

46. When the counter matches the value in the PWM register, the output is switched_______ a) low b) high 47. Mode __________ and _________ are provided for multiprocessor communication.

a) 1,2

b) 1, 3

c) 0, 3

d) 2, 3 d) two, 8

48. There are _______ ________ bit I/O ports on 8096. a) four, 8 b) five, 8 c) three, 8 49. Post 1 is ___________ port a) an input only c) a output

b) a multifunctional d) a quasi-bidirectional I/O

50. The ADC on the 8096 provides 8-input channels with a _________ bit digital output. a) 4 b) 10 c) 8 d) 12 Answer
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 a b a a b c d c c a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 b a c c d b d a b b 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a a c c a a c b b a 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 c a d c d d b d c b 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 b a b c a a d b d b

ET401 Computer Communication and Networks

This course focuses on mode of transfer, issues in data transfer, layers and protocols related to networks. Unit I give a general overview of data communication and networking Unit II focuses on OSI Lower Layers physical layer, Data Link Layer. Unit III is devoted to the discussion of the network layer of the Internet model. Unit IV concentrates on OSI Higher layers. It gives an overview of transport layer, Session layer, and presentation layer.

ET401 Computer Communication and Networks

1. A Dedicated communication path is established between two stations in a) Circuit switching b) Packet Switching c) Message switching d) None

2. In packet switching data are sent in the form of a) Frames c) Blocks

b) Packets d.) Individual bits

3. Two stations can send data and receive data simultaneously from each other in a) Half duplex transmission b) Full duplex transmission c) Simplex Transmission d) Serial transmission 4. Terminal to computer interaction uses a) Half duplex transmission c) Simplex Transmission 5. Preamble and post amble bits are added in a) Half duplex transmission c) Synchronous Transmission b) Full duplex transmission d) Serial transmission b) Full duplex transmission d) Asynchronous transmission

6. For a telephone line, the bandwidth for a voice is usually ___________ the bandwidth for data a) Equivalent b) less than c) greater than d) not depend on 7. In asynchronous transmission the gap between bytes is a) fixed b) variable c)function of data rate d) zero 8. Synchronous transmission does not have a) Start bit b) Stop bit c) Gap between the bytes d) All the above 9. A telephone line has a bandwidth of _________________ for data transmission a) 2400 Hz b) 3000 Hz c) 5000 Hz d) 6000 Hz 10. A modulator converts a(n) __________ signal to a(n) __________ a) PSK; FSK b) FSK;PSK c) Analog to Digital d) Digital to Analog 11. The Layer 3 of OSI reference model where routing takes place is a) Transport layer b) Network layer c) Session layer 12. In TCP/IP model TCP stands for a) Time congestion protocol c) Transmission control protocol d) Physical layer

b) Transport control protocol d) None of the above

13. Which of these protocol provides reliable service transmission a) IP b) TCP c) UDP d) a & c 14. The Connectionless protocol in the follwing options is a) TCP b) UDP c) IP d) None 15. The Application Layer protocol used for Email & File transfer is a) FTP,IP b) SMTP, FTP c) SNMP ,FTP d) TCP,IP

16. The entry through which data passes from the network to process and vive versa is called a) Port b) Hub c) Socket d) Router 17. The IEEE standard for Ethernet is a) IEEE 802.1 b) IEEE 802.2 c) IEEE 802.3 d) IEEE 802.11

18. In computer networks reliable data transfer protocols are based on retransmission policy known as a) Positive ACK b) Negative ACK c) Automatic Repeat Request d) None of the above 19. The data transfer from a node to a group of nodes in a network is called a) Unicast b) Anycast c) Multicast d) Broadcast 20. The switching device used in data link layer of OSI model is a) Hub b) Bridge c) Router 21. -------------------- is a network layer protocol a) TCP b) IP c)UDP d) both a & c 22. Routing is the function of a) network layer b)transport layer c)Physical layer d) both a & c d) Ethernet

23. Link state algorithms ---------a) converge more quickly and require more power and memory b) takes more time to converge and require more power and memory c) converge more quickly and require more power and less memory d) converge more quickly , require less power ,less memory and less prone to loops 24. Count to infinity problem occurs in a) Link state routing c) Both a & b b) Distance vector routing d) None of the above

25. Solutions for count to infinity problem are a) adding path vector with Distance vector and Split horizon with poisonous reverse b) Split horizon with poisonous reverse and Split horizon c) Split horizon with poisonous reverse, Split horizon and adding path vector with Distance vector d) None of the above 26. Congestion control techniques are a)Warning Bit and Traffic shaping b) Warning Bit ,Traffic shaping and load shedding c) Warning Bit, Traffic shaping, load shedding and choke packets d) None of the above 27. If is the average packet arrival rate and T is the average service time then according to littles formula the aerage number of customers rate(N) is given by

a)N= T 28. Repeaters operate at a)Physical layer 29. Routers operate at a)Network layer

b)N= /T b)Network layer b) Physical layer

c)N=T/ c) transport layer c) transport layer

d)N=log(T) d) both a & c d) both a & c

30. To find shortest path from a source to destination a) Bell man Ford algorithm is used. b) Dijikstras algorithmis used. c) both a& b d) none of the above 31. ______________layer provides a mechanism for the exchange of data between end system a) Transport layer b) Session layer c) Presentation layer d) none of these 32. Transport protocol provides services to the transport service users such as__________ a)FTP b)SMTP c)TELNET d)All the above 33. The presentation layer performs services such as__________ a)encryption b)FTP c)data compression d) both a & c

34. ___________layer provides a means for application programs to access the OSI environment. a) Transport layer b)Session layer c) Application layer d)Presentation layer 35. ___________layer provides the mechanism for controlling the dialogue between applications in end systems a) Transport layer b) Session layer c) Application layer d)Presentation layer 36. A ________________service provides for the establishment, maintenance & termination of logical connection between transport service users a) connection oriented b)connectionless c) Both a & b d) none of these 37. TCP is a a) Reliable b) an unreliable c) both a &c d) none of these

38. The ________ flow control mechanism can be used to recognize the onset of congestion and to react by reducing the flow of data a)Ethernet b)TCP c)UDP d)SMTP 39. A UDP protocol provides ___________ service for application level procedures a) Connection establishment b) connection oriented c) Connection termination d) connectionless 40. An example of the use of _________protocol is in the context of the network management a)Ethernet b)TCP c)UDP d)SMTP 41. In the email address mackenzie @ pit.arc.nasa.gov, what is the domain name?

a) mackenzie c) mackenzie @pit. arc. nasa. gov

b) pit. arc. nasa. gov d) a and b d) none of the above

42. The protocol that supports email on the internet is called a) SMTP b) MIME c) FTP

43. The protocols used by a mail server in conjunction with SMTP to receive and hold email for hosts are a) POP3 & IMAP 4 b) SMTP & FTP c) MIME & FTP d) none of the above 44. Which MAC sublayer does IEEE 802-11 define? a) LLC b) PCF c) DCF 45. ___________ combine to form a scatternet a) BSSs b) ESSs c) APs d) b and c d) piconets

46. FHSS, DSSS and OFDM are ______________ layer specifications a) Physical b) Datalink c) Network d) Transport 47. Voice over IP is an _________________ audio/video application a) Streaming stored b) Streaming live c) Interactive d) None of the above 48. JPEG encoding involves ________________ a process that reveals the redundancies in a block a) Blocking b) The DCT c) Quantization d) Vectorization 49. Bluetooth uses ______________ in the physical layer a) FHSS b) DSSS c) DHSS d) OFDM

50. A wireless LAN uses ______________ frames for acknowledgement a) Management b) Control c) Data d) None of the above

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A

b b a c c b d a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

b c b b b c c c c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29

b a d b c c a a a

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39

a d d c b a a b d

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49

b a a d d a c d a

10

20

30

40

50

ET304 - INFORMATION THEORY The purpose of a communication system is the transmission of information from one point to another with high efficiency and reliability. Information sources can be classified into tow categories: analog and discrete. Analog information sources such as a microphone actuated by a voice signal emit continuous amplitude. Continuous time electrical waveform. The output of a discrete information source such as teletype consists of sequence of letters or symbols. Analog information sources can be transformed into discrete information sources through the process of sampling & quantizing. A discrete information source consists of a discrete set of letters or alphabets of symbols. In general, any message emitted by the source consists of a string or sequence of symbols. The symbols in the string or sequence are emitted at discrete moments, usually at a fixed time rate and each symbol emitted is chosen from the source alphabet.

Every message coming out of the source contains some information, but some messages convey more information than others, Information theory provides a quantitative measure of the information contained in message signals and allows us to determine the capacity of a communication system to transfer this information form source to destination. Through the use of coding redundancy can be reduced from message signals so that channels can be used with improved efficiency. In addition systematic redundancy can be introduced to the transmitted signal so that channels can be used with improved reliability.

ET304 Information Theory

1. The Conditional Probability of P(A/B) is given by (a) P(A,B)/P(A) (b)P(A,B)/P(B) (c) P(A,B)*P(A) (d)P(A,B)*P(B) 2. Two events A & B are said to be statistically independent if & only if (a) P(B/A)=P(B) (b)P(A/B)=P(A) (c)P(AB)=P(A).P(B) (d)All the above 3. Normal distribution is otherwise called as (a) Probability distribution (b) Poisson distribution (c) Gaussian distribution (d) Chi square distribution 4. A random process is said to be Ergodic if Time average of the process are equal to. (a) Mean average (b) Ensemble average (c) Variance (d) None of the above 5. If the future state of a random process depends only on the present and past history, then the process is called (a) Ergodic process (b) Markov process (c ) Stochastic process (d) None 6. Wide Sense Stationary process has a . Mean (a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Constant 7. Mean of Uniform Distribution is given by (a) (a + b)/2 (b) a/2 8. Covariane is expressed as (a) C[x,y]= E[xy] + Mx My (c) C[x,y]= E[xy] / Mx My 9. If X and Y are Orthogonal (a) E[XY] = 1 (b) E[XY] = 0 (c) a-b/2 (b) C[x,y]= E[xy] - Mx My (d) None of the above (c) E[XY] = (d) None (d) Both a & b (d) b/2

10. The occurrence of one event excludes the occurrence of another event is called (a) Statistically dependant events (b) Mutually Exclusive events (c) Independent events (d) None of these 11. A discrete information source is a source that has only ____________ set of symbols a) Limited b) Finite c) Infinite d) 0 12. A source for which current symbol depends on the previous symbol is called as a) Source with memory b) Discrete memory less source c) Analog source d) Discrete Source 13. Information Content of a symbol I(x) is measured by ____________ a) log10P(x) b) log 2P(x) c) log bP(x) 14. Entropy of the source X represents a) Information content / source symbol c) Mutual information

d) lnP(x)

b) Average information / source symbol d) None of the above

15. Information rate R of the source is defined as a) Rate at which source emits symbols b) rate at which channel transmits symbols c) No of symbols lost during transmissiond) None of the above 16. The entropy of a source H(X) is measured as a) P(xi) b) I(xi) c) P(xi) I(xi) 17. The mutual information of the channel I(X ; Y) is a) H(X) b) H(Y) c) H(X) H(X/Y)

d) P(xi) /I(xi)

d) H(X) H(Y)

18. The average amount of information per sample value of x(t) of a continuous source is defined as a)Conditional entropy b) Joint entropy c) differential entropy d) entropy 19. The codes 1, 01, 001, 0001 are called a) Fixed length codes c) Instantaneous codes 20. 10) Information Rate R is measured in a)Bits / seconds b) Bits / symbol

b) Prefix free codes d) Distinct codes

c) Bits

d) No unit

21. A minimum redundancy is also called as (a) Optimum code (b) Reduction code 22. Code efficiency is calculated by (a) =H(X)/L (b) =H(X) 23. Summation of all probabilities is equal to (a) 1 (b) 2

(c) Huffman code c) = L /H(X) c) 3

(d) all the above (d)= H(X)/P(X) (d) 4

24. The main disadvantage of optimum quantization is (a) a loss of signal fidelity (b) minimum gain (c) less efficiency d) all the above 25. Minimum information to represent output of DTCA memoryless Gaussian source based on ------------ distortion. (a) variance square error distortion (b) mean square error distortion (c) mean square signal distortion (d) both a and b 26. Lempel Ziv algorithm is designed to be independent of ------------------ statistics. (a) output (b) destination (c) input (d) source 27. --------------------- coding is called as universal source coding algorithm. (a) Huffman coding (b) Shannon Fano coding (c) Lempel-Ziv coding (d) Error coding 28. --------------------square distortion is used to characterize quantization error in PCM. (a) maximum likelihood (b) square error (c) upper bound (d) lower bound 29. Linear predictive coding is used to achieve communication quality speech transmission in digital cellular communication system at rate of (a) < 10000 bits/s (b) <1000 bits/s (c) < 100000 bits/s (d) <100 bits/s 30. LPC is used for-----------(a) data compression (b) speech compression (c) audio compression (d) all the above

31. Lossless channel is defined as a. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each column b. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each row c. channel matrix with two non zero element in each column d. none of the above 32. Deterministic channel is defined as a. channel matrix with two non zero element in each column b. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each row c. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each column

d. none of the above 33. A channel is called noiseless if it is a. lossless c. both lossless and deterministic 34. The capacity of the AWGN channel is a. C=S log2(1+S/N) b/s c. C=B log2(1+S/N) b/s b. deterministic d. none of the above b. C=N log2(1+S/N) b/s d. none of the above

35. A DMS has 4 symbols with p(x1)=0.4, p(x2)=0.3, p(x3)=0.2, p(x4)=0.1,What is the value of H(X). a. 2.05 b/s b. 1.85 b/s c. 1.95 b/s d. 1.75 b/s 36. Channel capacity of a lossless channel is a.log10 m b. loge m c. log2 m d. None

37. An analog signal having 4KHZ B.W is sampled at 1.25 times the nyquist rate and each sample is quantized in to one of 256 equally likely levels.what is the information rate. a. 80 Kb/s b. 85 Kb/s c. 75 Kb/s d. 65 Kb/s 38. Error free transmission is possible if a. R<C b. R>C 39. Code redundancy is defined as a. -1 b. 1- c. RC c. 1+ d. None d. None

40. Consider a DMS with 2 symbols p(x1)=0.9, p(x2)=0.1, What is the value of entropy. a. 0.469 b/s b. 0.428 b/s c. 0.496 b/s d. 0.482 b/s 41. Code efficiency is defined as a. =H(X)/L b. = L/H(X) c. . = L.H(X) d. . = Lmin.H(X)

42. Channel capacity of binary symmetric channel is a. 1+plog2p+(1-p)log2(1-p) b. 1-plog2p-(1-p)log2(1-p) c. 1-plog10p-(1-p)log10(1-p) d. none of the above 43. For a AWGN channel with 4KHZ BW, and noise power spectral density /2 is 10-12 W/HZ.The signal power required at the receiver is 0.1 mW.The capacity of the channel is a.70 b/s b.54.44x103 b/s c. 65 b/s d. 45 b/s 44. A linear code of minimum distance dmin can detect upto t errors if and only if a. dmin t +1 b. dmin t +1 c. dmin t +1 d. dmin t +1 45. A linear code of minimum distance dmin can detect upto t errors if and only if a. dmin 2 t +1 b. dmin 2t -1 c. dmin 2 t +1 d. dmin 2 t -1 46. For the given code vectors X=(1001) and Y= (1010),the hamming distance is a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d.1

47. The Hamming weight of the codevector (1001) is a.1 b.3 c.2 48. Which one is an optimum code. a.shannon fano code b.Huffman code 49. Which one is the systematic code a. linear block code b. cyclic code c.Hamming code c. Hamming code

d.0 d. BCH code d. all the above d. none of the

50. Syndrome vector is used to find a. error bit b. parity bit c. message bit above ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 a d c b b c a b b b 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 b a c b a c c c b a 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a a a a b d c b c c 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 a b c c b c a a b a 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

a a b b a b c b d a

ET354 Introduction to VLSI Design

VLSI stands for Very Large Scale Integration. This is the field which involves packing more and more logic devices into smaller and smaller areas. Digital VLSI circuits are predominantly CMOS based. The way normal blocks like latches and gates are implemented is different from what students have seen so far, but the behaviour remains the same. All the minuaturisation involves new things to consider. A lot of thought has to go into actual implementation as well as design. All modern digital designs start with a designer writing hardware description of the IC (using HDL or Hardware Description Language) in Verilog / VHDL. A verilog or VHDL program essentially describes the hardware (logic gates, Flip-Flops, counters etc) and the interconnect of the circuit blocks and the functionality. Various CAD tools are available to synthesize a circuit based on the HDL. The most widely used synthesis tools come from two CAD companies. Synopsys and Cadence.

ASIC design methodology, use of ASCI design CAD tools, and testing methodology will be introduced. An introduction to logic synthesis, styles of synthesis, and the purpose and nature of power / area / speed constraints will be given. As an introduction to VLSI testing, fault models, design for testability techniques, scan path, JTAG, and Built-in-self-test methods will be incorporated. The course is designed to teach students about Higher Methodology for VLSI Design. ET354 Introduction to VLSI Design 1. The base material for chip manufacturing process is in the form of _______ crystalline _______________ wafer. (a) Single, lightly doped (b) single, heavily doped (c) double, lightly doped (d) None 2. In ___________ implantation the wafers are placed in a quartz tube embedded in a heated furnace. (a) pinch-off 3. _________ (a) Implantation 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. (b) Sputtering (c) Spotting (d) None (b) diffusion (c) saturation (d) ionized The aluminum interconnection layers are deployed using a process known as

The gate oxide in a PMOS/NMOS is (a) SiO2 (a) 0.44 x 0.44 (a) kn * (W/L) (a) Resistive (a) Single (b) PolySi (b) 0.4 x0.5 (b) kn *(L/W) (b) Saturation (b) Triple (c) Si2 (c) 0.66 x 0.77 (c) (W/L)2 (c) Cut-off (c) Double (d) Germanium (d) 0.9 x 0.5 (d) (L/W)3 (d) Zero (d) None The minimum area of a contact in a chip as per design rules are _______ m The gain factor (kn) for a CMOS transistor is denoted by In a CMOS transistor when VGS > VT the transistor is in Strong inversion in a CMOS inverter occurs at ____ the Fermi-level Due to channel-length modulation the current ____ , when the channel length is __ (a) Increases, decreases (b) decreases, increases (c) increases, increases (d) None Military Grade chips are fabricated at a temperature range (a) -55 to 125 (b) 0 50 (c) 30 (d) -20 (d) both a & b To avoid latch-up problems, which method can be used (a) P-well process (b) n-well process (c) twin-tub process

12.

Typical values of at room temperature are (a) = 650cm2/Vsec & p = 240cm2/Vsec (b) n = 240cm2/Vsec & p = 650cm2/Vsec (c) n = 65cm2/Vsec & p = 24cm2/Vsec (d) n = 24cm2/Vsec & p = 65cm2/Vsec In non-saturated region, the gate voltage is given by (a) Vg = Vt -Vgs (b) Vg = Vgs- Vt (c) Vg = Vt (d).Vg = Vgs

13. 14.

________________can be used as switches in series with lines carrying levels similar to relay contacts (a) BJT (b) FET (c) pass transistor (d) ratioed logic Body effect is due to (a) surface biasing (b) substrate biasing gm can be increased by (a) increasing width & decreasing length (b) increasing length & decreasing width (c) increasing width & length (d) decreasing width & length ______________ device has a conducting channel with zero gate bias & will not turn off until sufficient reverse bias is applied to its gate (a) enhancement mode(b) depletion mode (c) both a & b (d) none Parasitic capacitance Cx is proportional to (a) Ax/d (b) d/Ax (c) Ax*d (d) none of the above (c) both a & b (d) none

15. 16.

17.

18. 19.

________________ is used to convey layer information through the use of color code (a) ambiguity diagram (b) stick diagram (c) signal diagram (d) fabrication diagram In NMOS transistor the n-diffusion & p-diffusion is equal to (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

The other name of the channelles gate array (a) Channel free gate array (b) Sea of gate array (c) both a & b (d) None The structured gate array otherwise called as (a) Embedded gate array (b) Master Slice (c) Master image The manufacturing lead time of the CBIC (a) about 8 weeks (b) one month (c) two days (d) All the above (d) two weeks

PLA has (a) Programmable AND & programmable OR (b) Fixed OR & programmable AND (c) Programmable AND &fixed OR (d) Fixed OR & fixed AND

25. 26.

ROM size for an n input and m output combinational circuit is (a) 2nxm (b) 2mxn (c) 2m+n (d) 2m-n Find the number fuses in the combinational circuit of PLA, in which it has n input, k product terms and m output (a) 2n*k+k m+m (b) 2n*m+k (c) 2m*k+ k X n+n (d) 2k+m+n Xilinx EPLD family uses and interconnect bus known as (a) UMI (b) PIA (c) PIP Altera MAX family uses and interconnects bus known as (a) EPROM (b) UMI (c) PIA Xilinx logic cell array consists of an interior array of (a) 64 CLBs (b) 68 CLBs (c) 28 CLBs (d) All the above (d) All the above (d)120 CLBs

27. 28. 29. 30.

PLA has (a) Programmable AND & programmable OR (b) Fixed OR & programmable AND (c) Programmable AND &fixed OR (d) Fixed OR & fixed AND Switching power dissipation of a CMOS inverter is (a) CLVDDf (b) CLVDD2f (c) CL2VDDf Area of a basic CMOS inverter is (a) A(WpLp+WnLn) (b)A(Wp/Lp+Wn/Ln) Noise Margin for a high level logic is (a) NMH = VOLmax - VILmax (b) NMH = VOHmin - VIHmin (c)A (Wp2Lp+Wn2Ln) (c) NMH=VOHmax - VIHmin

31. 32. 33. 34.

The key concepts underlying all considerations for testability is (a)Controllability only (b) Observability only (c) both Controllability and Observability The total test time for 32 input circuit with high signal clock(10MHZ) is (a) 7min (b) 17min (c) 7min 6.Algorithm which solve the problem of reconvergent fanout and allows multipath sensitization (a) PODEM (b) Area-Routing Algorithm (c) LFSR LFSR consist of ____________________to produce Pseudorandom binary sequence (a) XOR gate and Shift register (b) Shift register and Encoder (c) Shift register and Adder A 3-bit Shift Register can generate a PRBS of length (a) 2n (b) 2n-1 (c) 2n-1

35. 36.

37.

38. 39.

Fault Coverage can be determined by (a) detected faults * detectable faults (b) detectable faults/detected faults (c) detected faults / detectable faults

40. 41.

The propagation delay through Cascaded pass transistor is (a) d = nrc() (b) d = n2rc()

(c) d = n[rc()]2

The symbol <= is used for _____________________ (a) Variable assignment (b) signal assignment (c) Exponentiation (d) Identity declaration Floating point types in VHDL is used to represent _______________ numbers. (a) Real (b) Integer (c) Prime (d) factorial --------- are used to name items in a VHDL model. (a) Strings (b) Bit strings (c) Numbers (d) Identifiers

42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

Process statements are used in VHDL to represent _____________ logic. (a) Boolean (b) Sequential (c) Combinational (d) None of the above. ---------- statement is used to control the execution of loops. (a) IF (b) Case (c) Next (d) While. An assertion statement is a _________________ statement. (a) Concurrent (b) Sequential (c) Loop (d) Exit.

47.

Slast_active is a signal attribute which defines, (a) The time interval since the last event on S (b) The time interval since the last transaction on S (c) The value of S just before the last event on S (d) None of the above. In VHDL, ____________ declaration is used to describe the external interface of the circuit. (a) Architectural (b) Entity (c) Block (d) Signal The ________________ logical operator is not provided in VHDL-87. (a) XOR (b) AND (c) OR (d) XNOR The process statement includes a _________________list after the keyword Process. (a) Boolean (b) Number (c) Sensitivity (d) All the above. Answers

48.

49. 50.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a b b a a a a c a a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

c a b c b a b a b a

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

c d a a a a a c a c

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

b a b c a a a c c b

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

b a d b c b b b d c

ET302 Antenna and Wave Propagation

The purpose of this course is to introduce students to the basics of antennas and various types of arrangement of antennas and its radiation patterns.The main objective of this

subject is to help students identify the different latest antennas available for specific communication. To study the various arrangement and radiation pattern of antennas, the basic working of antennas, special purpose antennas and the propagation of radio waves in the atmosphere, the technique involved in various antenna parameter measurements.

ET302 Antenna and Wave Propagation

1. The intrinsic impedance of the free space has a correct value equal to a) 75 b) 73 c) 120

d)377.

2. The Poynting vector is a measure of rate of energy flow per unit area is given by a) P=E*H b) P=E/H c) P=H/E d. None of these. 3. The induction field of a short current element varies as a) 1/r b) 1/r3 c)1/r2 4. The radiation resistance of a /2 antenna in free space is given by a) 377 b) 73 c) 36.5 5. The radiation resistance of electrically short dipole antenna is given by a) Rr=80(le/)2. b) Rr=80(/le)2. C) Rr=802 d)Rr=802(le/)2. 6. The measure of a solid angle a) Steradian b) Radian c) Degree d) none d) r

d) 14.8.

7. The ratio of the power radiated to the total input power is a) Directivity b) Effective aperture c) Antenna efficiency d) Gain 8. Bandwidth of an antenna is directly proportional to a)Q b)1/Q c)Q2 9. The radiation lobe containing the direction of maximum radiation is a) minor lobe b) side lobe c) major lobe. 10. Directivity is related with beam solid angle a) D=4/A b) D=4*A. c) D=A/4 d)1/ Q2. d) back lobe. d) None

11. The required phase difference between the feeds of successive elements in an end fire array is a) zero b) 180 c) depends upon the distance between the elements

d) depends upon the number of elements. 12. Increase in the number of radiators in a large sized broad side array with fixed interelement spacing leads to a) increased sidelobes b) widening of the main lobes c) narrowing of the main lobe. d) none of the above 13. A linear end firearray of an isotropic elements has maximum radiation a) normal to the line of the array b) along the line of the array c) in a direction which depends on the length of the array d) none of the above 14. In an end fire array, the elements are fed in a)phase b) 90 out of phase c) 180out of phase d) at random

15. Maximum voltage will be induced in a loop antenna if it is placed a) parallel to the incoming wave b) perpendicular to the incoming wave c) 45to the incoming wave d) none of the above 16. When loop antenna is rotated around 360 the induced voltage will experience a) two maxima b)two minima c) two maxima and two nulls d) one maxima and one null 17. The differential loop signal voltage in loop antenna depends upon a) the wavelength of the incoming signal b) loop area c) angle of the loop orientation d) all of these 18. In loop antenna the effect of unbalanced current can be eliminated by a) reducing the width of the antenna b) increasing the width of the antenna c) shielding the loop by metal detector d) grounding loop to two places 19. Side lobe of an antenna causes a) reduction in gain of antenna c) ambiquity in in direction finding b) reduces beam width of antenna d) none of the above

20. In any transmitting antenna the efficiency primarily depends on a) ohmic losses of conductor b) radiation resistance c) ground conductivity d) none of the above 21. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is a) horizontal b) vertical c)circular 22. The maximum usable frequency is a) less than fc b)equal to fc 23. Polarization of radio waves is determined by a) directivity of the antenna c)higher than fc d)elliptical d)not related to fc

b) direction of the magnetic flux lines with respect to the surface of earth c) direction of the electric flux lines with respect to the surface of the earth d) none of the above 24. Ground wave is used for a) Short wave broadcasting b) medium wave broadcasting c) all the two d) none of these 25. D-layer in the ionosphere is largely present a)24 hrs b) during day only 26. Anamalous propagation is caused by a) super refractive duct c) troposcatter c) during night only d) all the above

b) meterological factors d) all the above b) reflected by D layer d) affected by the solar cycle

27. High frequency waves are a) absorbed by F layer c) used for long distance communication on the moon

28. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than the others is called a) window b) critical frequency c)gyro frequency d) resonance in the atmosphere 29. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky wave propagation a) to avoid tilting b) to prevent sky wave and upper ray interference c) to avoid the Faraday effect d) so as not to exceed the critical frequency 30. Duct propagation is due to a) earths magnetic field c) presence of moisture above earths surface b) electron density d) all the above.

31. If the length of the wire in the traveling wave antenna is increased the major lobe gets a) closer & broader b) Closer & narrower c) wider & narrower d) wider & broader 32. /2 antenna is otherwise called as a) hertz antenna b) wave antenna c) harmonic anternna d) none d) n2 * 73

33. The input impedance of a folded dipole antenna is given by a) n3 * 73 b) nn * 73 c) n * 73

34. Which one of the following antenna is a frequency independent antenna a) folded dipole b) hertz antenna c) log periodic antenna d)yagi-uda 35. The simplest parasitic array consist of a)four element b) three element c)multiple element d) single

36. yagi-uda antenna is an a) parasitic antenna c) bidirectional beam pattern antenna

b) low gain antenna d) none of the above d) discone d) none

37. Which one of the following antenna is best excited by a wave guide a) horn b)helical c) biconical 38. Radiation pattern of a loop antenna is a) dough-nut shape b) semicircle 39. Babinets principle is applied to a) horn antenna c) folded dipole c) circle b) yagi-uda antenna d)slot antenna

40. In space craft applications which one of the antenna is used a) microstip antenna b)beverage antenna c) helical antenna 41. Which antenna is used as a standard gain antenna a) loop b) rhombic c) horn

d) loop antenna d) folded dipole

42. The distance between the primary and the secondary antenna in the radiation pattern measurement should be a) r<=2d2/ b) r>=2d2/ c) r=2d2/ d) none of the above 43. Conical cut method is for measuring the a) beamwidth b) bandwidth c) polarization d) directivity

44. If the reflection coefficient is 1/5 then the corresponding VSWR is a) 1 b) 5 c) 3/2 d) 2 45. The distance between consecutive maxima and minima is given by a) /2 b) 2 c) 46. wheat stone bridge method is for a) low frequency impedance measurement b) high frequency impedance measurement c) low frequency polarization measurement d) high frequency polarization measurement 47. Orange slice method is for measuring a) beam width b)Directivity c)efficiency d)Impedance d) /4

48. One of the method for polarization measurement is a) Linear component method b) Conical cut method c) Orange slice method d) None of the above 49. Relation between VSWR and the reflection coefficient

a) 1- k / 1+ k 1 / k +1

b) k +1 / k -1 c) 1+ k / 1- k

d) k -

50. Antenna radiation efficiency is related to the radiation resistance as a) Radiation resistance X 4 / antenna resistance b) Radiation resistance / antenna resistance c) (radiation resistance)2 d) none Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 c a c b d a c b c a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 c c b c a c d c a b 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 b c c b b a d a b c 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 b a d c b a a a d a 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 c b d c a a b a c b

ET306 &ET403 Microwave And Optical Communication

Microwave techniques have been increasingly adopted in such diverse applications as radio astronomy, long-distance communications, space navigation, radar systems medical equipment, and missile electronic systems. As a result of the accelerating rate of growth of microwave technology and industry, students who are preparing themselves for, and electronics engineers who are working in, the microwave area are faced with the need to understand the theoretical and experimental design and analysis of microwave devices and circuits. The purpose of the subject is to introduce the students, the basics of microwaves, different microwave components, microwave generators and amplifiers, microwave measurements and microwave network representation. This course is intended to the students the information necessary to understand the design, operation and capabilities of fiber systems. Students will be introduced to the fundamental concepts of various optical components. Latest topics are included to keep in touch with the recent trends. After studying this subject students will be familiar with generation of high frequency oscillations and amplification, measurement of high frequency parameters, extension of two port analysis of microwave range, understanding of various components such as optical fibers,Photodetecter,Connectors,coupling devices and optical amplifiers and also the first order design of optical links. ET306&ET403 Microwave And Optical Communication 1) The microwave frequency bands are __________ a. VHF,UHF,SHF b. UHF,SHF,EHF c. VF,VHF,UHF d. MF,HF,VHF. 2) The microwave circuits can be analyzed by _________ a. Z parameters b. Y parameters c. h parameters d. S parameter 3) Microwaves are used for __________ a. Radar communication c. Produce heating effect b. Satellite Communication d. None of the above d.3

4) An attenuator is a _________ pole device. a. 4 b. 2 c.8 5) Gunn diode exhibits _________ characteristics. a. Negative Resistance b. Positive Resistance

c. Both negative and positive

d. None of the above

6) The semiconductor materials used for microwave transistors are ______ a. Si & Ge b. GaAs & Helium c. GaAs & Si d. None of the above 7) An example of Non reciprocal devices is __________ a. circulator b. Directional coupler c. Frequency meter d. Attenuator

8) Isolator & Circulator are working on the principle of ________ a. Kirchoffs law b. Maximum power transfer theorem c. Faradays law d. Ohms law 9) The dimensions of the transmission waveguide are based on ________ of the signal. a. frequency b. amplitude c. wavelength d. time period 10) Waveguides are not used for frequencies ______ a. below 1 GHz b. below 10 GHz c. below 100 GHz d. below 500 MHz 11) The two cavity klystron is operated by the principle of ________________ a. Velocity Modulation b. Current Modulation c. Velocity &Current Modulation d. None of the above. 12) Bunching phenomenon in the reflex Klystron can be visualized by studying the electron trajectories in the region between the resonator and the --------. a. Electron gun b. repeller c. output coupling d. none of the above. 13) Klystrons and TWTs are --------- tubes. a. O-Type b. N-type c. K-type d. T-type.

14) The interaction of electron beam and RF field in the TWT is -------- over the entire length of the circuit, when compared to the klystron. a. continuous b. not continuous c. exists for a less time period d. none of the above 15) Gunn oscillators are ---------- devices which are normally used as low power oscillators at microwave frequencies. a. Positive resistance b. Negative resistance c. Cross field d. Linear beam 16) Magnetrons are -------- tubes in which electric and magnetic field are perpendicular to each other. a. Linear beam b. cross field c. low power d. none of these 17) Bolometer is a ----------- whose resistance changes with temperature as it absorbs microwave power. a. frequency meter b light sensor c. power sensor d. none of these

18) The sensitivity level of a thermistor sensor is limited to about ---------. a. 50 dBm b. 90 dBm c. 100dBm d. 20dBm 19) Which of the following meter is used to measure frequency? a. Barretter b. VSWR meter c. Wave meter d. None of these.

20) S- Parameter can be conveniently measured following the -------- method which utilizes measured values of input reflection co-efficient. a. VSWR method b. Deschamps method c. Waveguide method d. Cavity perturbation method. 21) What is the numerical aperture of silica fiber with n1=1.48 and n2=1.46 a) 0.34 b) 0.2425 c) 0.4252 d. 0.2524 22) The condition necessary for an optical fiber to serve as a transmission link is a. core refractive index n1 > cladding refractive index n2 b. core refractive index n1 < cladding refractive index n2 c. core refractive index n1 = cladding refractive index n2 d. none 23) A light beam must strike the core-cladding interface at an angle. a) less than critical angle b) greater than critical angle c) less than or equal to critical angle d) greater than or equal to critical angle 24) The light beam has to form an angle at the fiber center line should a) equal to critical propagation angle b) greater than critical propagation angle c) less than critical propagation angle d) None 25) Light entering an optical fiber breaks down into discrete beams called a) node b) core c) vertices 26) Pulse spreading during transmission along the fiber is called a) scattering b) absorption c) dispersion 27) In communication technology attenuation loss is a) Loss = -10Log Pout/Pin b) Loss = -20Log Pout/Pin c) Loss = -10Log Pin/ Pout d) Loss = -20Log Pin/ Pout 28) Calculate the number of modes for a graded index fiber if its core diameter d=62.5 its numerical aperature=0.275 and operating wavelength=1300nm. a) 431 b) 400 c) 341 d) 300 29) Chromatic dispersion depends on a) fiber material structure c) fiber material composition b) fiber material wavelength d) fiber length d) mode d) None

30) What is the acceptance angle for the plastic optical fiber? a)28.070 b) 300 c)30.70

d) 200

31) LED possess ------------------a). non radiative recombination c). thermal recombination

b). radiative recombination d). non thermal recombination.

32) Surface emitting LED allows light to escape from the semiconductor structure in ---------------------. a). in the opposite edge b). in the front edge c). in the back edge d). in all possible directions. 33) The characteristic of LASER light source is ------------------------. a). monochromatic b). highly intense c). coherent d). all the above. 34) A semiconductor diode functions like a laser if the following conditions are met -----------------------a).population inversion b). stimulated emission c). positive feedback d). all the above. 35) The advantage of reverse biasing in photo detector is its ability to eliminate-------a).dark current b). active current c). passive current d). all the above. 36) Bandwidth of silicon PIN photo diode is -------------------------a).3.98 Gbit/sec b). 0.398 Gbit/sec c). 39.8 Gbit/sec d). 398 Gbit/sec 37) PIN photo diode is the most commonly employed light detector because-----------a).high reliability b). low noise and voltage c). relatively high bandwidth d). all the above. 38) Advantage of avalanche photo diode is --------------------------. a). internal amplification of photo current without noise b). internal amplification of photo current with noise c). Generation of photocurrent with noise d) none of the above 39) Avalanche photo diode is ------ times sensitive than PIN photo diode. a) 10 b) 5 c) 2 d) none of them. 40) In PIN photo diode the thickness of depletion region is controlled by thickness of -------a) Intrinsic layer b) Reverse voltage c) Reverse current d) All the above 41) Advantages of using WDM in network a) flexibiligy & scalability c) Modularity 42) The network element used in WDM a) OXC b) OADM b) Transparency d) All the above c) both a and b d) ocx & multiplier

43) The WDM scheme is same as a) TDM b) FDM

c) both

d) none

44) The wavelength in WDM must be properly spaced to avoid a) collision b) inter symbol interference c) inter channel interference d) noise 45) Mismatch in fibers may arise because of a) difference in numerical aperture c) difference in core cladding diameter 46) The splices may be made by a) fusing either end of fiber c) by melting and joining b) difference in refractive index d) all the above b) glued with a transparent adhesive d) both a and b d) -2dB d) -2dB d)all the above

47) Average splices losses for identical fiber a) 0.2dB b) 2dB c) 20dB 48) Back reflection in a splices a) -20dB b)-40dB 49) Butt joint mechanism is used in a) coupler b) connector c) -10dB c) splicer

50) What is the insertion loss for the connector with air gap having 8 degree and width of 1 micro meter a) 0.6dB b) 0dB c) 6dB d) 60dB Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 b d d b a c a c c a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 c b a a b b c d c b 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 b a b c d c a a b a 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 b d d d a b d a a a 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 d c b c d d a a b a

ET308 SATELLITE COMMUNICATION A Communications satellite (sometimes abbreviated to comsat) is an artificial

satellite stationed in space for the purposes of telecommunications. Modern communications satellites use a variety of orbits including geostationary orbits, Molniya orbits, other elliptical orbits and low (polar and non-polar) Earth orbits. For fixed (point-to-point) services, communications satellites provide a technology complementary to that of fiber optic submarine communication cables. They are also used for mobile applications such as communications to ships, vehicles, planes and hand-held terminals, and for TV and radio broadcasting, for which application of other technologies, such as cable, is impractical or impossible. A satellite in a geostationary orbit appears to be in a fixed position to an earth-based observer. A geostationary satellite revolves around the earth at a constant speed once per day over the equator. The geostationary orbit is useful for communications applications because ground based antennas, which must be directed toward the satellite, can operate effectively without the need for expensive equipment to track the satellites motion. Especially for applications that require a large number of ground antennas (such as direct TV distribution), the savings in ground equipment can more than justify the extra cost and onboard complexity of lifting a satellite into the relatively high geostationary orbit. UNIT I 1. The line joining a planet to the sun sweeps out ______ in ____ a) equal area, equal time b) unequal area, equal time c) equal area, unequal time d) unequal area, unequal time 2. There are _____ orbital parameters is used to describe the position of a satellite in space at any time. a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 3. The Keplers third laws states. a) T2 = (42a3/) b) T2 = (4a3/) c) T2 = (42a2/) d) T2 = (4a/) d) both a and b

4. The important frequencies allocated for communication is a) 6/4Ghz b) 14/24Ghz c) 5/3Ghz 5. The minimum 2o spacing used for satellite in GEO to a) Avoid interference from uplink b) Avoid interference to downlink c) Avoid interference between uplink and downlink d) None 6. DBS TV used frequency in a) UHF band b) Ka band c) VHF band

d) Ku band

7. There are ______ constellation used a) 5 b) 4 c) 3

d) 6

8. Satellite with ______ elevation angle have a better availability a) Higher minimum b) Higher maximum c) Lower minimum d) Lower maximum 9. GEO Stationary orbit has a single of a) Ellipital b) Circular c) Hemisphere d) Square

10. GEO needs _____ satellites to provide world wide coverage a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5 11. Satellite transponders (a) Use a single frequency for reception and retransmission of information to and from each (b) Use a lower frequency for reception and a higher frequency for retransmission (c) Use a higher frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission (d) None of these 12. In the C-band transponders, the uplink frequency is about (a) 6 GHZ (b) 4 GHZ (c) 14 GHZ 13. The down link frequency in a c-band transponder is about (a) 6 GHZ (b) 4 GHZ (c) 14 GHZ (d) 11 GHZ (d) 11 GHZ

14. In a satellite link the carrier saturation EIRP at the satellite is 1000 watts. If the input and output back-offs of the satellite TWTA are 6dB and 4dB respectively, the carrier EIRP would be a) 24dbw b) 26dbw c) 20dbw 15. In a satellite link, the uplink and downlink carrier to noise ratios are 30dB and 20dB respectively, the overall link carrier to noise ratio would be a) 50db b) 10db c) 12db d) 19.6db 16. In a satellite link, if the allowable minimum angle of elevation of the earth station antenna increases, the satellite coverage area a) Increases too b) Decreases c) remains unchanged 17. Higher the frequency of satellite of earth station transmitter a) higher is the potential bandwidth that can be used for communications b) closes the satellites can be spaced without interfering with each other c) narrower is the radiation beam width for a given earth station and satellite antenna diameter d) all the above e) none of these 18. A satellite earth station antenna has a gain of 106 and noise temperature of 100oK. The earth station (G/T) in C/B per Kelvin is a) k40db/k b) 80db/k c) indeterminate d) none of these

19. A typical satellite earth station has, on its receive side, the antenna followed by a low noise amplifier and a down converter in the same order. The earth station (G/T) ratio is (DB/K) as referred to the input of low noise amplified is 50db/k. If the down converter equivalent noise temperature is 10,000 k, the system(G/T) ratio as referred to input of down converter would be a) 10dbk b) 60db/k c) 50db/k d) none of these 20. A satellite earth station has dual down converter. If the down link frequency is 46 Hz and the If is 70MHz, the sum of first and second local oscillator frequency would be a) 3.93GHz b) 4.07GHz c) 8.14GHz d) none of these 21. For an ant1enna with circular aperture, if the operating frequency is doubled, then for the same antenna gain, the antenna diameter a) can be reduced to one-fourth b) can be reduced to half c) can be increased to four times d) can be reduced to one-third 22. The dish antenna that has a higher pointing accuracy, lower noise temperature and flexibility on Feed design is the a) Paraboloid antenna b) Cassegrain antenna 23. The satellite in which the antennas are mounted on a de-spun platform is the a) Geostationary satellite b) sun synchronous satellite c) Spin stabilized satellite d) 3-axis body stabilized satellite 24. The purpose of satellite repeater is a) to repeat the satellite signal many times b) to translate signal to new frequency band c) to receive signals from satellite d) none of these 25. In a communication satellite, the telephone channels are assembled in a) TDM b) FDM c) FM d) AM 26. Satellites allow the earth station to share the satellite equipment through a) TDM b) FDM c) Multiple frequency up and down links d) focused spot beams and zone beams e) all of above 27. Satellite capacity depends on a) weigh that can be placed in orbit b) panel area available for energy dissipation c) transmitter power d) all the above 28. An earth station permanently assigned a carrier frequency or several carrier frequencies uses a) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) none of the above 29. When a number of earth stations take turns transmitting bursts through a common transponder, it is called a) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) None of the above

30. TWT non-linearity causes Inter symbol Interference which can be reduced by _____ a) Filtering b) Equalization c) Both of above d) Integration 31. Synchronization, signal information and transmitting stations identity is provided by _______ a) Preamble b) Frame c) Burst d) Bit 32. When a number of users occupy all of a transponder bandwidth all of the time, it is called _____ a) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) None of the above 33. The frequency range of transmission of INMSRSAT telephone channel is a) 1535.025MHz b) 1636.525MHz c) 1757.825MHz d) 1245.025MHz 34. INTELSAT standard A and B stations work at frequencies a) 6/4GHz b) 14/12GHz c) Both of above d) None of above

35. INTELSAT standard C stations work at frequencies a) 6/4GHz b) 14/12GHz c) 11& 14GHz bands d) None of above 36. GPS satellites transmits L-Band signals that are modulated by several codes a) C/A code b) P-code c) Both of above d) None of above 37. In mobile satellite services, bandwidth of operation of satellites is a) 400MHzb) 600MHz c) 10GHz d) 800MHz 38. The payload for INSAT-4A is a) 17C band transponder c) 2S band transponder 39. The uplink attenuation is given by a) A up=A down * (F up + F down) db c) A UP=EIRP-L db b) 12C band transponder d) 14 extended Ku band transponder b) A UP=N+C/N db W d) A UP=P in + G db W d) 20 frames/sec

40. Phase alternating line are typically short on film at a) 12 frames/sec b) 18 frames/sec c) 24 frames/sec

41. National TV system committee uses color sub carrier frequency of a) 3.5795MHz b) 4.4336MHz c) 8.5820MHz d) 7.5756MHz 42. Direct to home television service enable the customer to receive a) 200 to 300 channels b) 50 to 100 channels c) 10 to 20 channels d) 2000 to 5000 channels 43. Digital audio broadcasting receiver for worldwide operation must support a) Mode II-C Band, Earth b) Mode IV-S Band, satellite c) Mode IV for L-Band, Earth and satellite d) mode I-Ku band, Earth and satellite

44. INSAT-2E uses a) Ni-Hydrogen batteries c) SODIUM batteries 45. The heaviest satellite is a) GSAT-2 b) EDUSAT

b) NI-Potassium batteries d) Carbon nitrate batteries c) INSAT-4A d) INSAT-2E

46. C-band low bit rate store and forward communication interface to a) X.400 and X.25 PSDN networkb) optical network c) Co-axial network d) X.500 PSDN network 47. BGAN stores packet switched service upto a) 492Kb/s b) 400Kb/s c) 429Kb/s d) 450Kb/s

Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A C A D A D C A B C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 C A B A D A D D D A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B B C C B E D B A C 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A C B A C C D B A C 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A A C A C A A

EC 454 - Optical Networks This gives the introduction to the technology underlying the optical networks. Also

Describes how light propagates in optical fiber and deals with the phenomenon of loss, dispersion and fiber nonlinearities, which play a major role in the design of transmission systems. It provides an overview of different components needed to build a network, such as transmitters, receivers, multiplexers and switches. Different Components such as amplifiers, optical filter, multiplexer / demultiplexers, switches and wavelength converters are dealt. Optical design consideration and all optical networks are covered. Different topologies, media access, network using wavelengths. It describes the first generation and second generation optical networks and comparison between different networks. Slotted Aloha / Slotted Aloha Protocol and the node design are also describe. It gives a brief idea about SONET / SDH operation, layers and elements in SONET / SDH infrastructure, Computer interconnects and MAN architecture, Layered architecture. It covers broadcast and select WDM networks that are suitable for LANs and MANS and also wavelength routing, OTDM networks. ET 454 - Optical Networks 1. If two or more light paths use the same fiber, they have to use _____________ wavelengths to avoid interfering with one another. a) Same b) different c) will be exceed d) none 2. ______________________is pulse spreading that occurs within a single mode. a) Intermodal dispersion b) dispersion c) attenuation d) none 3. An optical fiber has________________ a) Low loss transmission b) low bandwidth c) high bandwidth d) a & c

4. __________________used to combine or split optical signals a) Couplers b) wavelength convertor c) isolators d) circulator 5. The most important nonlinear effects in this category__________ a) self phase modulation & four wave mixing b) stimulated ramon scattering & four wave mixing c) self phase modulation & SRS d) none of these 6. __________scattered light moves mostly forward and the photons associated with this process are optical ones. a) SPM b) FWM c) SRS d) none 7. An optical effect is called _________________,if its parameters depend on light intensity(power) a) Linear b) bilinear c) nonlinear d) none

8. _____________scattered light moves backward & the photon s associated with it. a) SBS b) SRS c) FWM d) none 9. Couplers are also the principle components used to construct _______________ a) Mach-Zehnder Interferometers b) fabry perot filter c) Multiplexer d) Erbium doped fiber 10. _______________is used to increase the power of the transmitted signal a) preamplifer b) modulation c) subcarrier multiplexing d) subcarrier modulation 11. Light radiated by laser diode is ______________ a) non coherent b) coherent c) non linear 12. LED possesses_________________ a) non radiative recombination c) radiative recombination d) none

b) thermal recombination d) non thermal recombination

13. Surface emitting LED allows light to escape from the semiconductor structure in ____________________ a) the opposite edge b) the back edge c) the front edge d) all possible directions 14. The characteristic of LASER light source is ______________ a) Monochromatic b) Coherent c) highly intense d) all the above 15. The LED is a device that amplifies light by means of the ________ a) Stimulated emission of Radiation b) Spontaneous emission of Radiation c) Absorption d) All the above 16. A _____________diode can radiate hundreds of milli watts of output power a) Laser b) LED c) photo diode d) pn diode 17. Sub carrier Multiplexing can range from __________.Its used in CATV system. a) 100 Hz to 1 MHz b) 10 MHz to 100Ghz c) 10MHz to 1Ghz d) none 18. ______________ is the process of converting digital data in electronic form to an optical signal that can be transmitted over the fiber a) Modulation b) Demodulation c) Multiplexing d)Demultiplexing 19. The LASER is a device that Amplifies light by means of the __________________ a) Stimulated emission of Radiation b) Spontaneous emission of Radiation c) Absorption d) all the above 20. Broadcast network is a ___________ network in which each transmitter sends messages at a fixed frequency to the central star coupler through fiber path a) first b) second c) third d) fourth

21. SONET is a _____________________generation network a) first b) second c) third 22. In terms of elements, SONET uses_______________ a) Terminal multiplexers, ADMs, DCSs, regenerators c) Regenerators

d) fourth b) TMs,ADMs d) none d) bus d) none

23. In terms of network topology, SONET uses ____________________ a) mesh b) point to point links and rings c) tree 24. SONET transmission frame includes a ______________ a) payload b) payload and overhead c) overhead

25. Add & drop Multiplexer node includes___________________________ a) physical, section layers b) section, line layers c) physical, section , line layers d) none of these 26. Terminal Multiplexer node includes___________________________layers a) Physical, section, line, path layers b) physical section layers c) Line and path layers d) path layer 27. _________________ are the major component in the SONET infrastructure. a) Terminal multiplexer b) add and drop multiplexer c) Digital cross connect d) all the above 28. SONET is a ___________ system providing synchronous transmission , measuring that each frame of a data stream starts at a specific moment with respect to the operation time sequence of the entire network a) FDM b) TDM c) PCM d) WDM 29. The electrical signals in SONET are called __________________________ a) Synchronous transport signals b) byte inter leaving signals c) Overhead d) none of these 30. The N STS-1 signals are then multiplexed to form an STS-N signal. This is done by ______________________ a) byte interleave synchronous multiplexer b) bit interleave multiplexer c) Multiplexer d) demultiplexer 31. Principle function of the network is to a) Route & switch c) Modulate & demodulate b) encode & decode d) multiplex & demultiplex

32. The Bit rate of STM 1 is __________ a) 622.8 Mbits/s b) 155.52 Mbits/sec b) 100 Mbits/s d) 200 Mbits/sec 33. The most promising switching and transport technique for carrying interactie multimedia traffic is __________ a) ATM b) IP c) FDDI d) ESCON

34. ____________ topology consists of a common shared bos line a) star b) mesh c) bus d) token ring 35. In ___________ topology, each station is connected to a central node or hub through point-to-point links a) star b) bus c) ring d) mesh 36. The tree topology is characterized by ______________ structure with multiple branches leading to individual stations a) hierarchical b) star c) series d) parallel 37. FDDI is _____________ a) fiber distributed data interface c) first distributed data interchange b) fiber distributed data information d) none

38. The bit rate of synchronous transport mode (STM-16) of SDH is ____________ a) 155.52 Mbits/sec b) 622.08 Mbits/sec c) 2488.32 Mbits/sec d) 9953.28 Mbits/sec 39. The network configuration that is valid by upgrading the existent copper infrastructure by fiber optics such as a) FTTB & FTTH b) FTTH c) FTTB d) FTTC & HFC 40. FTTC is _____________ and HFC is ____________ a) fiber to the centre and hyper fiber coaxical b) fiber to the curb and hybrid fiber coaxical c) fiber to the common point& high fiber control d) none 41. _____________ is an excellent and powerful technology to upgrade traditional networks a) WDM b) Optical interconnects c) TDM d) FDM 42. Medium access control for the data link layer is provided by ___________ a) MAC layer b) LLC c) physical layer d) network layer 43. There are two forms of optical time division multiplexing a) static and dynamic b) fixed OTDM and statistical OTDM c) stable OTDM and unstable OTDM d) none of these 44. In optical layer, an optical transmission section layer is depicted as __________ a) amplifier layer b) regenuator c) terminal layer d) optical cross connects 45. __________ layer is responsible for end-to-end light path routing across the entire network a) optical channel section b) optical interfaces c) optical multiplex section d) amplifier layer 46. ____________ was developed for transmission over the SONET network a) IP b) ATM c) optical d) none

47. One of the examples of MAN architecture a) ATM b) IP c) FDDI 48. The standard for Token Ring is _____________ a) IEEE 802.5 b) IEEE 802.11 c) IEEE 802.6

d) HFC d) IEEE 802.15

49. The process of organizing bits and bytes within a transmitting format is called _________ a) mapping b) encapsulation c) formatting d) compressing 50. OC-48 carrier ___________ voice channels a) 672 b) 32256 c) 129024 Answer
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 b a d a a c c a a a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 b c d d v a c a a a 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a a b b c a d b a a 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

d) 64000

a b a c a a a c d b

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

a a b a a a a b a a

ET400 Wireless Communication

Wireless technology has become the most exciting area in telecommunications and networking. The rapid growth of mobile telephone use, various satellite services, and now the

wireless

Internet

and

wireless

LANs

are

generating

tremendous

changes

in

telecommunications and networking. Wireless networking is allowed businesses to develop WANs, MANs, and LAN without a cable plant. The IEEE has developed 802.11 as a standard for wireless LANs. The Bluetooth industry consortium is also working to provide a seamless wireless networking technology. The impact of wireless communication has been and will continue to be profound. Very few inventions have been able to shrink the world in such as manner. The standards that define how wireless communication devices interact are quickly converging and soon will allow the creation of a global wireless network that will deliver a wide variety of services.

ET400 Wireless Communication

1. First generation of analog cellular standard is a) AMPS b) GSM c) PDC 2. Second generation of digital cellular standard is a) NMT 450 b) TACS c) GSM 3. Major mobile standard in Europe a) AMPS b) IS-95 4. Means of increasing cells capacity a) Cell clustering c) Cell splitting 5. Interference causes a) Cross talk b) Poor quality c) USDC d) All the above d) none of these d) DECT

b) Sectoring of cells d) All the above c) Blocking and missed calls d) All d) 20 MHz d) 100

6. GSM using FDMA, the total frequency range is given by a) 45 MHz b) 25 MHz c) 25 MHz 7. Number of carriers in GSM using FDMA technology a) 124 b) 120 c) 80

8. GSM radio aspects, the uplink frequency is given by a) 890-91 MHz b) 935-960MHz c) 870-920MHz 9. Spacing between uplink and downlink frequency for GSM a) 20MHz b) 25MHz c) 45MHz 10. In GSM the length of 26 TDMA frames a) 120msecb) 4.615msec c) 0.577msec

d) 890-915KHz d) 10MHz

d) 110msec

11. The frequency reuse factor of a cellular system is given by a) 1/N b) N c) N*N

d) 2N

12. The time over which a call may be maintained within a cell, without handoff is called a) Dwell time b) mobile assisted handoff c) intersystem handoff 13. Cell dragging is a practical handoff problem in _________________systems. a)macrocell b)micro cell c)a cell d)cluster 14. The co-channel reuse ratio,Q is____________________ a) 3N b) 3N*N c) 3+N d) 3-N 15. ________________ is a measure of the ability of a user to access a trunked system during the busiest hour. a) Erlang b) grade of service c) trunking service d) holding time 16. Large Umbrella cell for___________ speed traffic A) Low b) high c) medium 17. If a total of 33 MHz of bandwidth is allocated to a particular FDD cellular telephone system which uses two 25 kHz simplex channel to provide full duplex voice and control channels, the number of channels available per cell if a system uses four cell reuse. a) 95 channels b) 55 channels c) 165 channels d) 100 channels 18. The geometric shapes which cover an entire region without overlap and with equal area are a) Square b) equilateral triangle c) circle d) hexagon 19. Channel assignment strategies can be classified as either________________________ a) Fixed b) dynamic c) fixed or dynamic d) unfixed or dynamic 20. Based on the locator receiver signal strength information from each base station, the________ decides if a handoff is necessary or not. a)MSC b)BTS c)BSC d)GMSC 21. The apparent change in frequency or Doppler shift fd is given by _________ a) V/ Cos b) /V Cos c) V/ Sin d) /V Sin 22. If the frequency correlation function is above 0.9, then the coherence bandwidth is approximately a) BC 1/50 b) BC 1/5 c) BC 5 d) BC 50 23. If the frequency correlation function is above 0.5, then the coherence bandwidth is approximately_________ a) BC 50 b) BC 1/5 c) BC 1/50 d) BC 5 24. Doppler spread leads to ___________ a) Time dispersion and frequency selective fading b) Time dispersion and time selective fading

c) Frequency dispersion and frequency selective fading d) Frequency dispersion and lime selective fading 25. A Signal undergoes flat fading if __________ a) BS = BC and TS = b) BS<< BC and TS >> c) BS >> BC and TS << d) BS >> BC and TS = 26. Frequency selective fading channels are also known as ____________ a) Narrowband channels b) Wideband Channels c) Baxband channels d) None of these 27. The mean and median differ by only _________ dB in a Rayleigh fading signal a) 0.95 b) 0.75 c) 0.55 d) 0.15 28. Coherence bandwidth is used to characterize the channel in _______________ a) time domain b) Frequency domain c) Z-domain d) None of the above 29. Flat fading channels are also known as ___________ a) amplitude varying channels b) wideband channels c) None of the above d) phase varying channels 30. Fast fading and slow fading are due to a) multipath time delay spread c) Both 31. Distance between signal points in FSK is a) E b b) 2Eb 32. The BW of QPSK system with bit rate fb is a) 2fb b) 4fb 33. The BW of FSK system is a) 2fb b) 4fb 34. The distance between signal points in QPSK in a) 2 Eb b) 2Eb b) Doppler spread d) None of the above c) 3Eb c) 4fb c) fb c) Eb

35. The percentage of power saved in SSB when compared with AM DSB-FC at 100% depth of modulation is a) 33.3% b) 66.67% c) 83.3% 36. The DSB-FC AM wave is represented by equation a) ACSinctsinmt b) ACsinct c) AC[1+usinm] sinCt 37. In CDMA system to over come the effect of propagation delay dispersion due to multipath we use a) channel equalizer b) rake receiver c) none 38. Diversity is an effective way to combat a) ISI b) channel fading c) error control

39. If the transfer function of channel in C (z) and that of an equalizer is B(z). then B(z) is equal to a) C (z) b) 1/C(z) c) C2(z) 40. DF E type of equalizer eliminates ISI using a) present input data b) previously detected output valuation c) present output data 41. The functions of the physical layer of the OSI model are a) Encoding / decoding of signals b) Preamble generation / removal c) Bit transmission / reception d) All the above 42. The basic unit of networking in Bluetooth is a) Piconet b) Scattemet c) Micronet 43. A set of stations controlled by a single co-ordination function is a) Extended service set b) Basic service set c) MAC service data unit d) None 44. The block of data passed down from MAC layer is a) PDU b) DSDU c) LSDU d) MSDU d) Meganet

45. A station movement from one BSS to another BSS within same ESS is called a) BSS transition b) ESS transition c)Both BSS & ESS d) No transition 46. The network in which a device equipped with Bluetooth radio can establish instant connection to another Bluetooth radio can establish instant connection to another Bluetooth radio as soon as it comes into range called a) Optical Network b) adhoc network c) Satellite network d) none 47. Both connectionless and connection oriented services are provided by a) SDP b) LMP c) L2cap d) all the above 48. A form of CDMA is achieved between devices on different piconets in the same scatlement is referred as a) DSSS b) FH-CDMA c) FH-FDMA d) DS CDMA 49. The code used for identifying a piconet is a)inquiry access code c) device access code b) channel access code d) payload

50. The commands used to solicif a response from a remote h2cap entity are a) information commands b) disconnection commands c) both information & disconnection commands d) echo commands Answer

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a 11 a 21 a 31 B 41 b 12 a 22 a 32 A
42

d a b d a b c b b d

d 13 b 23 b 33 B 43 d 14 c 24 d 34 B 44 d 15 b 25 b 35 C 45 b 16 b 26 b 36 C 46 a 17 c 27 c 37 B 47 a 18 d 28 b 38 B 48 c 19 c 29 a 39 B 49 a 20 a 30 b 40 B
50

ET457 - Communication Protocol The main purpose of this course is to introduce the emerging area computer networking, mainly internet. This will enable the students to acquire a solid understanding of different components involved in the seamless working of internet

Unit: I review of network technologies like LAN, WAN, Ethernet, FDDI, internetworking concepts and architecture models of TCP/IP layer analysis. Unit: II routing address classes, various internet protocols Unit: III various internet routing, TCP/IP, ATM networks UnitIV: various client server model and socket interface Unit: V internet security and firewall design ET457 - Communication Protocol 1. ______________ is the access protocol used by traditional Ethernet a) CSMA b) CSMA/CD c) CSMA/CA d) Token ring

2. When a collision is detected in a network using CSMA/CD___________ a) The frame is immediately resent b) A jam signal is sent by the station c) The backoff value is set to zero d) The backoff value is decremented by 1 3. Fast Ethernet has the data rate of a) 1Mbps b) 10 Mbps 4. Minimum frame length for 10mbps Ethernet is a) 48 bytes b) 53 bytes 5. A bridge can ____________ a) filter a frame b) forward a frame 6. The protocol used in FDDI a) MAC b) CSMA 7. Maximum length of FDDI fiber is a) 100km b) 200km c) 100 Mbps c) 64 bytes d) 1000 Mbps d) 104 bytes d) all the above d) time token MAC d) 400km

c) Extend a LAN c) token ring c) 300km

8. There is no ____________ acknowledgement in TCP a) negative b) positive c) reverse d) repeat 9. The ____________ timer prevents a long idle connection between 2 TCP a) retransmission b) persistence c) keep-alive d) time-waited 10. Repeaters operates in a) physical layer b) data link layer 11. An IP address is a a) 32 bit b) 16 bit c) network layer c) 8 bit d) a & b d) 4 bit

12. Class D address is used for a) networking b) assigning 13. Loop back address is used for a) test interval software c) error detection

c) multicasting b) error correction d) broadcasting

d) future purpose

14. A network or subject address in obtained from applying the __________ on IP address and mask a) bit wise OR b) bitwise XOR c) bit wise AND d) bit wise NAND 15. IP is a _____________ protocol a) Connection oriented c) Address 16. Longest mask matching is required in a) Classless address c) IP address 17. ARP is a protocol of type a) dynamic mapping c) memory mapping 18. An ARP request is a a) broadcast 19. An ARP reply is a a) broadcast b) multicast b) multicast b) Connection less d) Networking b) classful address d) none b) static mapping d) I/O mapping c) unicast c) any cast c) data gram c) 65535 bits d) any cast d) unicast d) all d) 65525 bits d) source quench

20. Pack in IP layer is called a) datas b) message 21. The maximum length of datagram is a) 65525 bytes b) 65535 bytes

22. Type 4 error reporting message used for a) redirection b) echo requestc) time stamp

23. Source quench message does a) discard a datagram due to congestion c) both a & b

b) slow down sending of datagram d) none

24. PING, an application program that uses the service of ICMP to a) test the software b) test the reachability of a host c) check error d) none 25. TCP stands for

a) Transmission control protocol c) Transport control protocol 26. No retransmission timer is set for an a) ACK segment c) ARQ segment

b) Transport correct protocol d) Transmission carrier protocol b) SACK segment d) RARP segment

27. Choke point is a packet which inform about congestion a) by router to source b) source to destination c) router to destination d) router to bridge 28. OSPF is the implementation of a) distance vector protocol c) path vector protocol 29. RIP is the implementation of a) distance vector protocol c) path vector protocol 30. OSPF packets are encapsulated in a) TCP datagram b) IP datagram 31. RIP is an __________ routing protocol a) interdomain b) intradomain 32. OSPF is an __________ routing protocol a) interdomain b) intradomain b) link state protocol d) none b) link state protocol d) none c) UDP datagram c) internetdomain c) internetdomain d) all d) all d) all d) 240 to 255

33. The range of class E address is ________________ a) 128 to 191 b) 192 to 223 c) 224 to 239

34. UDP echo client allocates and unused ________________ protocol port a) TCP b) UDP c) IP d) none 35. UDP echo server requires the client to be a) on the same physical network b) to contact server anywhere on internet c) to contact server in particular network

d) none d) none

36. Interface between application program and the protocol software is a) 4BSB unix b) unix I/O c) socket

37. To create socket the type communication desired a) reliable stream delivery service b)connectionless datagram delivery service c) raw type d) all the above 38. How a queue length for server is specified a)listen b)queue c)blind d)none

39. The _________ socket is used with a connection oriented protocol

a)stream

b)datagram

c)raw

d)remote d)remote

40. The _________ socket is used with a connectionless oriented protocol a)stream b)datagram c)raw 41. A client issues _____________ when it needs service from a server a) an active open b) a passive open c) an negative request d) a finite open

42. A server program once it issues _____________ wait for client to request it service a) an active open b) a passive open c) an negative request d) a finite open 43. A __________ server serves multiple client handling one request at a time a) connection oriented iterative b) connection oriented concurrent c) connectionless iterative d) connectionless concurrent 44. _______ can request service a) socket interface b) a port c)client 45. _________ can provide a service a) an iterative server b) a concurrent server c) a client 46. TCP is a ________ protocol a) reliable b) unreliable 47. IP is a ________ protocol a) reliable b) unreliable 48. The address space of IPV 4 is a) 28 b)216 49. The address space of IPV 6 is a) 296 b)216 50. The IPV6 payload length is a)2 byte b) 4 byte c) data c) data c)232 c)232 c) 6 byte d)server d) a & b d) command d) command d) 264 d) 264 d) 8 byte

ANSWER 1 2 3 4 5 6 b b c c d d 11 12 13 14 15 16 a c a c b a 21 22 23 24 25 26 b d c b a a 31 32 33 34 35 36 b a d b b c 41 42 43 44 45 46 a b c c d a

7 8 9 10

b a c a

17 18 19 20

a a d c

27 28 29 30

a b a b

37 38 39 40

d a a b

47 48 49 50

b c a a

ET455 Broadband CommunicationIntegrated services and Digital Networks The objective of this course is to provide the technological survey of the protocols and architecture of ISDN and B-ISDN. The ISDN and B-ISDN have had a dramatic impact on the planning and deployment of intelligent digital networks providing integrated services for

voice, data, and video. One part deals with the fundamental technologies used in digital transmission technology and a review of switching. Further the ISDN and B-ISDN standards had led to the development of two major new networking technologies of frame relay and Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM). Frame relay and ATM have become the essential ingredients in developing high speed networks for local, metro politian and wider area applications. And also it examines the critical issues of congestion control in frame relay networks. Both the standardization of ISDN and B-ISDN and development of frame relay and ATM have been driven by market pressures to reduce the cost of voice and data transmission and to expand networking services to provide high speed data and video capability. Government use of computer systems will become more efficient. The government is the most prodigious producer and user of information in our society. ISDN will improve and disperse access and help to remove in compatibilities between different systems so that more can be done with less effort. ET455 Broadband Communication 1. ISDN is an acronym for ______ a) Information services for Digital networks b) Internetwork system for data networking c) Integrated services Digital network d) Integrated signals Digital Network. 2. When you store and forward messages in B ISDN, you are using _____ services. a) Conversational b) Messaging c) Retrieval d) Distributive 3. Frame relay operates in the ______ a) Physical layer c) Physical & data link layer b) Data link layer d) Physical, data link and network layer

4. Which bit in the addres field in frame relay is set to one to signify the last address Byte? a) Discard eligibility(DE) b) Extended addres(EA) c) Command/response(C/R) d) Forward explicit congestion notification(FECN) 5. The data rate for a frame relay network can be as much as _____ Mbps. a) 1.544 b) 3.88 c) 44.376 d) 60 6. Routing and switching in frame relay are performed by the ______ layer a) Physical b) Data link

c) Network layer

d) b and c

7. In which OSI layer does the FDDI protocol operate? a) Physical b) Datalink c) Network d) a and b 8. DQDB is an acronym to ________ a) Distributed queue data bus c) Data queue dual bus b) Differential queue data bus d) Distributed queue dual bus

9. Mail services and directory services are available to network users through the _____ Layer a) Data link b) Session c) Transport d) Application 10. DQDB operates in the _____ layers a) Physical c) Physical and datalink b) Datalink d) Network

11. The ______ channel can be used for the control of B channels a) BC b) D c) H d) C 12. The ____ channel has the lowest data rate a) B b) C c) D d) H 13. The normal user interface to an ISDN is PRI or ______ a) Bit rate interface b) Basic rate interface c) Byte rate interface d) Broad rate interface 14. The ISDN equivalent to DTE is a) TE1 c) TE3 b) TE2 d) TE4

15. Which ISDN plane is associated with signaling and the D channel? a) User b) Control c) Management d) Supervisory 16. In ISDN _____ the network can change or process the contents of the data a) Bearer services b) Tele services c) Supplementary services d) None of the above 17. In B-ISDN, the general class of service between subscriber and service provider or between two subscribers are ________ services a) Interactive b) Distributive c) Conversational d) Messaging

18. Which B-ISDN access method is designed for customers who need to receive distributive services but do not provide distributive services to others? a) 155.520 Mbps full duplex b) 155.520 and 622.080 Mbps asymmetrical full duplex c) 622.080 Mbps full duplex d) 400 Mbps full duplex 19. A ______ converts information from non ISDN format to ISDN format a) TE1 b) TE2 c) TEX d) TA 20. The ______ channel can be used for telemetry and alarms a) B b) C c) D d) H 21. The transfer mode in B-ISDN is a) Synchronous c) Both is possible b) Asynchronous d) None

22. The ATM adopted in B-ISDN full exploits the principle of a) Statistical multiplexing b) Time division multiplexing c) Frequency division multiplexing d) None 23. The interactive service of B-ISDN involves a) Unidirectional transmission b) Bi-directional transmission c) No transmission d) None 24. Network signaling and control are the functions of a) User plane b) Management plane c) Control plane d) None 25. Transmission conversions is the sub layer of ______in B-ISDN a) ATM adaptation layer b) ATM layer c) Physical Layer d) None 26. The plane that controls the ATM switch or hub is a) User plane b) Management plane c) Control plane d) None 27. In B-ISDN signaling messages will be conveyed out of band in dedicated a) Virtual path b) Signaling virtual channel c) Signaling path d) None 28. The signaling procedures for establishing and maintaining ATM connections is specified by a) NNI b) UI c) UNI d) None 29. User to user information transfer is the function of

a) User plane c) Control plane

b) Management plane d) None

30. ________permits a non ATM system to connect to an ATM System exchanging frames a) NNI b) UI c) FUNI d) None 31. In data communications, ATM is an acronym for a) Automated teller- machine b) Automatic transmission model c) Asynchronous telecommunication method d) Asynchronous transfer mode 32. Which AAL type is designed to support a data stream that has a constant bit rate? a) AAL1 b) AAL2 c) AAL3/4 d) AAL5 33. The ________ server software allows multicasting and broadcasting on an ATM LAN a) LEC b) BVS c) BVD d) BES 34. _________ is software that allows an ATM switch to emulate a LAN switch a) LEC b) BUS c) BES d) LANE 35. A ______ provides a connection or a set of connections between switches a) Transmission path b) Virtual path c) Virtual circuit d) None of the above 36. ATM multiplexes cells using ______ a) Asynchronous FDM c) Asynchronous TDM b) Synchronous FDM d) Synchronous TDM

37. The VPI of a UNI is ____ bits in length a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 24 38. The VPI of on NNI is _______ bits in length a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 24 39. Which layer in ATM protocol reformat the data received from other networks? a) Physical b) ATM c) Application and adaptation d) Data adaptation 40. ATM can use _______ as a transmission medium a) Twisted- pair cable b) Coaxial cable c) Fiber- optic cable d) All 41. One of the following is the functional grouping of the user network interface aspect of ISDN

a) Network termination c) Reference point U

b) Reference point T d) None

42. Circuit mode bearer services are typically characterized by the a) Information transfer over D channel and signaling over B channel b) Information transfer over B channel and signaling over D channel c) Both information transfer & signaling over D channel d) Both information transfer & signaling over B channel 43. Packet mode bearer services involve packet handling functions provided a) Over B channel only b) Over D channel only c) Over B or D channel d) Over B & D channel 44. Which of the following is a teleservice? a) Videotex b) caller line identification c) Closed user group d) Conference calling 45. Messaging is a type of a) Distributive services c) Interactive services b) retrieval services d) none

46. Which one of the following is a supplementary service? a) Telex b) Teletex c) Telefax d) Call forwarding 47. The function of higher B-ISDN layer a) Bit timing c) Convergence b) Call delineation d) Cell rate Decoupling

48. Conversational Services provides a) Bi-directional real time data transfer b) Uni-directional real time data transfer c) Bi-directional store and forward data transfer d) Uni -directional store and forward data transfer 49. Services in this category is called as broadcast services a) Distributed services with user presentation control b) Distributed services with user presentation control c) Business service d) None of these 50. H channel are provided for a) User information at low bit rates c) User information at low bit rates b) Common channel signaling d) None Answer
1 2

C 11 B 21 B 31 D 41 B 12 C 22 A 32 A
42

A B

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C 13 B 23 B 33 B 43 B 14 A 24 C 34 D 44 C 15 B 25 C 35 B 45 B 16 B 26 B 36 C 46 D 17 A 27 B 37 A 47 D 18 A 28 B 38 B 48 D 19 D 29 A 39 C 49 A 20 C 30 B 40 D
50

C A D C B A B C