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117047498.xls.ms_office HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE


In Egyptian architecture, the tomb of the pharaohs is the. The great pyramid at Gizeh was built during the 4th dynasty by. The beginner of the great hypostyle hall at karnak and the founder of the 19th dynasty. The mineral of greatest importance to Greek architecture of which Greece and her domains had ample supply of was. Greek architecture was essentially. Forming the imposing entrance to the acropolis and erected by the architect Mnesicles is the. The building in the acropolis generally considered as being the most nearly perfect building ever erected is the. With the use of concrete made possible by pozzolan, a native natural cement, the Romans achieved huge interiors with the. Which of the order was added by the Romans to the orders used by the Greeks. From the 5th century to the present, the character of Byzantine architecture is the practice of using. The finest and remaining example of Byzantine architecture. The architectural character of the Romanesque architecture is. Romanesque architecture in Italy is distinguished from that of the rest of Europe by the use of what material for facing walls. The most famous and perfect preservation of all ancient buildings in Rome. The space between the colonnade and the naos wall in Greek temple. Amphitheaters are used for ___. An ancient Greek Portico, a long colonnaded shelter used in public places. The fortified high area or citadel of an ancient Greek City. An upright ornament at the eaves of a tile roof, concealing the foot of a row of convex tiles that cover the joints of the flat tiles. Strictly, a pedestal at the corners or peak of a roof to support an ornament, more usually, the ornament itself. Also called a 'Honeysuckle' ornament. In ancient Greece and Rome, a storeroom of any kind, but especially for storing wine. The characteristic of Greek ornament. The use of ___ for facing walls distinguishes Romanesque architecture in Italy from that of the rest of Europe. The outstanding group of Romanesque is found in ___. The dining hall in a monastery, a convent, or a college. The architecture of the curved line is known as ___. The open court in an Italian palazzo. The ornamental pattern work in stone, filling the upper part of a Gothic window. Japanese tea house. A Muslim temple, a mosque for public worship, also known as place for prostration. Domical mound containing a relic. Ifugao house (southern strain). In Mesopotamian architecture, religion called for temples made of sun-dried bricks. The style of the order with massive and tapering columns resting on a base of 3 steps. Tomb of the pharaohs. Earthen burial mounds containing upright and lintel stones forming chambers for consecutive burials for several to a hundred persons. A semi-circular or semi-polygonal space, usually in church, terminating in axis and intended to house an altar. Temples in Greece that have a double line of columns surrounding the naos. Pyramid Cheops Rameses 1 Marble Columnar trabeated Propylaea Parthenon Arch and vault Composite Domical roof construction St. Sophia, Constantinople Sober and dignified Marble Pantheon Pteroma Gladiatorial Contests Stoa Acropolis Antefix (Antefixae) Acroterion / Acroterium Anthemion Apotheca Anthemion Marble Pisa Refectory Baroque Cortel Tracery Cha-sit-su Masjid Stupa Bale Ziggurat Doric Pyramid Tumuli Apse Dipteral

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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Senate house for chief dignitaries in Greek architecture Architect of the Einstein Tower. Founder of the Bauhaus School of Art. What architectural term is termed to be free from any historical style? From what architecture is the Angkor Vat? The architect of Chrysler building in N.Y. Another term for crenel or intervals between merlon of a battlement. Taj Mahal temple is located in ___. In the middle kingdom, in Egyptian architecture, who consolidate the administrative system, made a survey of the country, set boundaries to the provinces, and other helpful works. Who erected the earliest known obelisk at Heliopolis. Jubilee festivals of the pharaohs. The world's first large-scale monument in stone. The highest sloped pyramid in Gizeh A vault created when two barrel vaults intersect at the right angles. Sarimanok is a dcor reflecting the culture of the ___. Caryatid porch is from what architecture? Female statues with baskets serving as columns. A small tower usually corbelled at the corner of the castle. A hall built in Roman Empire for the administration of justice. The Parthenon is from what architecture. A roof in which 4 faces rests diagonally between the gables and converge at the roof. A compound bracket or capital in Japanese architecture. A concave molding approximately quarter round. Architect of Iglesia ni Cristo. A Filipino architect whose philosophy is 'the structure must be well oriented'. What is not required as a feature in modern Muslim mosque. Architect of Robinson's Galleria Major contribution of the Renaissance Architecture. A house is like a flower pot Richly carved coffins of Greece and Mesopotamia. King Zoser's architect who was deified in the 26th dynasty. The council house in Greece. Elizabethan Architecture is from what architecture. Art Noveau style first appeared in what structure. A faced without columns or pilaster in renaissance architecture. Art Noveau is known as the international style, in Germany it is known as ___. Less is more. First school which offered architecture in the Philippines. Embrasures. Formal architecture, one of the principles of composition. Different historical styles combined. Architect of TWA airport. The falling water by Frank Lloyd Wright is also known as ___. First president and founder of PAS. Modern architecture need not be western. Architect of the national library, Philippines. The xerxes hall of hundred columns was introduced during the Mesopotamian architecture, which palace was it used. Taj Mahal is a building example of what architecture. The convex projecting molding of eccentric curve supporting the abacus of a Doric capital. Prytaneion Erich Mendelsohn Walter Gropius Art Noveau Cambodian Van Alen Embrasures Agra Amenemhat I

Senusret I Heb-sed Pyramid of Zoser Pyramid of Khufu Groin Vault Visayan Greek Canephora Bartizan Basilica Greek Helm Roof Masu-gumi Cavetto Carlos Santos Viola Caesar Homer Concio Pinnacle William Cosculluela Baroque for of Ornamentation Richard Josef Neutra Sarcophagus Imhotep Bouleuterion U.S. / English Renaissance Tussel House Astylar Jugendstijl Ludwig Mies Van Der Rohe Liceo de Manila Crenel Balance Eclecticism Eero Saarinen Kaufman House Juan Nakpil Kenzo Tange Felipe Mendoza Palace of Persepolis Saracenic Architecture Echinus

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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Pantiles used for Chinese roofings. Greek equivalent of the Roman forum, a place of open air assembly or market. A slight vertical curvature in the shaft of a column. The very ornate style of architecture developed in the later renaissance period. A multi-storied shrine like towers, originally a Buddhist monument of diminishing size with corbelled cornice and moldings. cubicula or bedroom is from what architecture. From the Greek forms of temple, the three where it lies is known as ___. From the Greek temples, a temple that have porticoes of columns at the front and rear. Memorial monuments of persons buried elsewhere in Roman architecture. The three pyramids in Gizeh S-tiles Agora Entasis Baroque Pagoda Roman Crepidoma Amphi-Prostyle Cenotaphs Cheops Chefren Mykerinos Aljibe Impluvium Naos Crypt Bema Console Villa Atrium House Romanesque Romanesque

The cistern storage of collected rainwater underneath the azotea of the bahay na bato. A shallow cistern or drain area in the center of a house. In Greek temples, the equivalent of the crypt is the ___. The tomb beneath a church. A raised stage reserved for the clergy in early Christian churches. A decorative bracket usually taking the form of a cyma reversa strap. Semi-palatial house surrounded by an open site. A roman house with a central patio. Revival of classical Roman style The style emerging in western Europe in the early 11th century, based on Roman and Byzantine elements, characterized by massive articulated wall structures, round arches, and powerful vaults, and lasting until the advent of Gothic architecture. Architect and furniture designer. First registered architect in the Philippines. The public square of imperial Rome. Architect of Manila Hilton Hotel. Finest example of French-Gothic architecture How many stained glass are there in the Chartres Cathedral? Agora is from what architecture? Sacred artificial mountains of Babylon and Assyria. A plant whose leaves form the lower portions of the Corinthian capital. Structure of wedge-shaped blocks over an opening. The space between the sloping roof over the aisle and the aisle vaulting, so also called a blind story. A windowed wall that rises above the roof of adjacent walls that admit light into the interior. A standard, usually of length, by which the proportions of a building are determined. The triangular or segmental space enclosed by a pediment or arch. A line of counterthrusting arches on columns or piers. In the classical order, the lowest part or member of the entablature; the beam that spans from column to column. In classical architecture, the elaborated beam member carried by the columns. Parts of an entablature, in order of top to bottom.

Alvar Aalto Tomas Mapua Forum Welton Becket Chartres Cathedral 176 Greek Ziggurat Acanthus Arch Triforium Clerestory Module Tympanum Arcade Architrave Entablature Cornice Frieze Architrave Octagonal 13 Tokonama Square

Plan shape of a Chinese pagoda. Usual number of stories for a Chinese pagoda. A special feature of Japanese houses, used to display a flower arrangement or art. Plan shape of a Japanese pagoda.

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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The most famous structure of Byzantine architecture and notable of its large dome. Triangular piece of wall above the entablature. A spherical triangle forming the transition from the circular plan of a dome to the polygonal plan of its supporting structure. A long arcaded entrance porch in an early Christian church. The principal or central part of a church, extending from the narthex to the choir or chancel and usually flanked by aisles. The covered walk of an atrium. A basin for ritual cleansing with water in the atrium of an early Christian basilica. A large apsidal extension of the interior volume of a church. An ornamental canopy of stone or marble permanently place over the altar in a church. A decorative niche often topped with a canopy and housing a statue. A recess in a wall to contain a statue or other small items. A tower in the Muslim Mosque used to call people to prayer. Coffers, sunken panels in the ceiling. The Buddhist temple in ancient Cambodia which feature four faces of the compassionate Buddha. A term given to the mixture of Christian, Spanish, and Muslim 12th-16th century architecture. Projecting blocks of stone carved with foliage, typical in Gothic architecture. A slab forming the crowning member of the capital. The crowning member of a column. A rectangular or square slab supporting the column at the base. A low screen wall enclosing the choir in early Christian church. The cold section of a Roman Bath. This church in the Philippines is the seat of the Malolos Congress. The palace proper in Assyrian palaces. Holy mountains. Architect of the famous propylaea, Acropolis. Private family apartments in Assyrian palaces. The most stupendous and impressive of the rock-cut-temples. The four-seated colossal statues of Rameses II is carved in the pylon of the ___. Favorite motifs of design of the Egyptians. Two main classes of temples in Egyptian Architecture. Egyptian temples for ministrations to deified pharaohs. Structure whose corners are made to face the four cardinal points. Structure whose sides are made to face the four cardinal points. Egyptian temples for the popular worship of the ancient and the mysterious gods. The use of monsters in doorways is prevalent in what architecture? The Greek male statues used as columns. A recessed or alcove with raised seats where disputes took place. A single line of columns surrounding the Naos. The uppermost step in the crepidoma. The lowest step in the crepidoma. A building in Greek and Roman for exercises or physical activities. The three chamber of a Greek temple. A Greek building that contains painted pictures. Temple with a portico of columns arranged in front. The clear space in between columns. Intercolumniation of 2.25 diameters. Intercolumniation of 4 diameters. Intercolumniation of 2 diameters. Hagia Sophia Pediment Pendentive Narthex Nave Ambulatory Cantharus Exedra Baldachino Tabernacle Niche Minaret Lacunaria Bayon Mudejar Crocket Abacus Capital Plinth Chancel Frigidarium Barasoain Church Seraglio Ziggurat Mnesicles Harem Great Temple, Abu Simbel Great Temple, Abu Simbel Palm, Lotus, and Papyrus Mortuary and Cult Temples Mortuary Temple Ziggurat Pyramid Cult Temple Persian Atlantes Exedra Peripteral Stylobate Stereobate Gymnasium Pronaos, Naos, and Epinaos Pinacotheca Prostyle Intercolumniation Eustyle Areostyle Systyle

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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Pycnostyle intercolumniation has how many diameters? Diastyle intercolumniation has how many diameters. A kindred type to the theater. Roman building which is a prototype of the hippodrome of the Greek. Roman building for which gladiatorial battles took place. What sporting event takes place in the Palaestra? A foot race course in the cities. A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front. A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front and rear. In Greek, it is the Roman prototype of the Thermae. Greek order that has no base. The most beautiful and best preserved of the Greek theaters. What orders did the Etruscans and the Romans add making 5 in all? What allowed the Romans to build vaults of a magnitude never equaled till the birth of steel for buildings. The finest of all illustrations of Roman construction. The oldest and most important forum in Rome. Who commenced the 'hall of hundred columns'? Who completed the 'hall of hundred columns'? Architects of the Parthenon. Master sculptor of the Parthenon. In Roman fountains, the large basin of water. Spouting jets in Roman fountain. The oldest circus in Rome. The colosseum in Rome also known as the "flavian amphitheater" was commenced by whom and completed by whom? Architect of the Erechtheion. A water clock or an instrument for measuring time by the use of water. The finest of Greek Tombs, also known as the 'tomb of Agamemnon'. Architect of the Temple of Zeus, Agrigentum Architect of the Temples of Zeus, Olympia. Roman architect of the Greek Temples of Zeus, Olympius. Both the regula and the mutule has guttae numbering a total of ___. A quadrigas is a ___. The water-leaf and tongue is a usual ornament found in the ___. The Corona is usually painted with the ___. Greek sculptures may be classified as "architectural sculpture, free standing statuary, and the ___". One of the best examples of a surviving megaron type of Greek domestic building. The molding that is often found in the Doric Order. The wall or colonnade enclosing the Temenos The private house of the Romans. Roman rectangular temples stood on a ___. Roman large square tiles. A type of Roman wall facing with alternating courses of brickworks. A type of Roman wall facing which is made of small stone laid in a loose pattern roughly resembling polygonal work. A type of Roman wall facing with a net-like effect. A type of roman wall facing with rectangular block with or without mortar joints. A Roman structure used as hall of justice and commercial exchanges. A type of monument erected to support a tripod, as a prize for athletic exercises or musical competitions in Greek festivals. 1.5 Diameters 3 Diameters Odeion Circus Colosseum Wrestling stadium In Antis Amphi-Antis Gymnasium Doric Epidauros Tuscan and Composite Use of Concrete Pantheon Forum Romanum Xerxes Artaxerxes Callicrates and Ictinus Phidias Lacus Salientes Circus Maximus Vespasian / Domitian Mnesicles Clepsydra Treasury of Atreus Theron Libon Cossutius 18 4-horse Chariot Cyma Reversa Key Pattern Sculptured Reliefs House #33 Bird's Beak Peribolus Domus Podium Bepidales Opus Mixtum Opus Incertum Opus Recticulatum Opus Quadratum Basilica Choragic Monument

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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A type of ornament in classic or renaissance architecture consisting of an assemblage of straight lines intersecting at right angles, and of various patterns. Figures of which the upper parts alone are carved, the rest running into a parallelopiped or diminishing pedestal. Marble mosaic pattern used on ceilings of vaults and domes. Conceptualized the Corinthian capital. The sleeping room of the 'megaron'. The origin of the door architrave. The atrium type of house originated with the ___. Roman apartment blocks. A building in classic architecture decorated with flowers and plants with water for the purpose of relaxation. !5th to 18th century architecture. Form follows function. The dominating personality who became an ardent disciple of the Italian renaissance style. A pillared hall in which the roofs rests on the column in Egyptian temples. Who began the building of the Great Hypostyle Hall at Karnak? Architect of the Great Serapeum at Alexandria. He created the Dymaxion House, "the first machine for living". Tombs built for the Egyptian nobility rather than the royalty. Architect of the Lung Center of the Philippines. The warm room in the Thermae. The Hot room of the Thermae. The cold or unheated pool in the Thermae. The dry or sweating room in the Thermae. The dressing room of the Thermae. The room for oils and unguents in the thermae. Orientation of the Roman temple is towards the ___. Orientation of the Greek temple is towards the ___. Orientation of the Etruscan temple is towards the ___. Orientation of the Medieval Church. The space for the clergy and choir is separated by a low screen wall from the body of the church called ___. On either side of the choir, pulpits for the reading of the epistle and the gospel are called. In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later developed into the transept, this is the ___. In early Christian churches, the bishop took the central place at the end of the church called ___. The iconoclastic movement during the Byzantine period forbade the use of ___. Type of plan of the Byzantine churches. Architects of the Hagia Sophia. (St. Sophia, Constantinople) The supreme monument of Byzantine architecture. Smallest cathedral in the world. (Byzantine period) One of the few churches of its type to have survived having a square nave and without cross-arms, roofed by a dome which spans to the outer walls of the building. A tower raised above a roof pierced to admit light. the covered passage around an open space or garth, connecting the church to the chapter house, refectory and other parts of the monastery. The prominent feature of the facades in Romanesque Central Italy. Fret Termini Opus Tesselatum Callimachus Thalamus Timber-enframed Portal Etruscans Insula Nymphaeum Renaissance Louis Sullivan Iigo Jones Hypostyle Hall Thothmes I Ptolemy III Buckminster Fuller Rock-Hewn Tombs George Ramos Tepidarium Calidarium Frigidarium Sudatorium Apodyteria Unctuaria Forum East South West Cancelli Ambo Bema Apse Statues Centralized Anthemius and Isidorus St. Sophia, Constantinople Little Metropole Cath., Athens Nea Moni Lantern Cloisters Ornamental Arcades

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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The best example of a German Romanesque church with apses at both east and west ends. The term applied to the Episcopal church of the diocese and also the important structure of the Gothic period. The first plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Bramante. The final plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Carlo Maderna. He erected the entrance Piazza at St. Peter's Basilica. Used as food storage in the Bahay na Bato. The granary in traditional Bontoc House. Architect of the World Trade Center. The Erechtheion of Mnesicles is from what architecture? The part of the Corinthian capital without flower. The Pantheon is from what architecture. The architect of the Pantheon. The senate house of the Greeks. Architect of the Bi-Nuclear House, the H-Plan. Mexican Architect/Engineer who introduced thin shell construction. In the Doric Order, the shaft terminates in the ___. In what Order is the Parthenon. In what Order is the temple of Nike Apteros, Athens. This temple is dedicated to 'Wingless Victory'. This structure in Greece was erected by Andronikos Cyrrhestes for measuring time by means of a clepsydra internally and sun dial externally. In the Cyma Reversa molding of the Romans, what ornaments are usually found? From what architecture is the Stoa? The Egyptian Ornament symbolizing fertility. Egyptian Temple for popular worship of the ancient and mysterious gods. A small private bath found in Roman houses or palaces. Corresponds to the Greek naos. The large element in the frieze. A is a machine to live in. Architect of the Chicago Tribune Tower. Architecture is Organic. Invented reinforced concrete in France. First elected U.A.P. president. Designer of the Bonifacio Monument. Sculptor for the Bonifacio Monument. Designer of the Taj Mahal. Male counterpart of the Caryatids. Like Caryatids and Atlantes, this is a three-quarter length figures. This is a pedestal with human, animal, or mythological creatures at the top. A small payer house in Egyptian architecture. Where "Constructivism" originated? Expressionist Architect. Founders of the "Art Noveau". Combination of the new art and the graphing of the old art. Return in the use of Roman Orders in modern age. Scheme or solution of a problem in architecture. Architect of the Batasang Pambansa. Architect of the Philippine Heart Center. Architect of the Rizal Memorial Stadium. The architect of the Quiapo Church before its restoration. Worms Cathedral Cathedral Greek Cross Latin Cross Bernini Dispensa Falig Minoru Yamasaki Greek Balteus Roman Agrippa Prytaneion Marcel Lajos Breuer Felix Outerino Candela Hypotrachelion Doric Ionic Temple of Nike Apteros, Athens Tower of the Winds, Athens Acanthus and Dolphin Greek Papyrus Cult Temple Balneum Cella Triglyph Le Corbusier Eliel Saarinen Frank Lloyd Wright Hennevique Jose Herrera Juan Nakpil Guillermo Tolentino Shah Jahan Telamones or Atlantes Herms Terms Madrassah Moscow Erich Mendelsohn John Ruskin and William Moris Eclecticism Neo-Classism Parti Felipe Mendoza George Ramos Juan Nakpil Juan Nakpil

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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Built by the Franciscan priest Fr. Blas dela Madre, this church in Rizal whose design depicts the heavy influence of Spanish Baroque, was declared a national treasure. This church, 1st built by the Augustinian Fr. Miguel Murguia, has an unusually large bell which was made from approximately 70 sacks of coins donated by the towns people. Architect of SM Megamall. Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila. G.S.I.S. Building, Roxas Boulevard. The tower atop the torogan where the princess and her ladies in waiting hide during occasions. Found in the ground floor of the bahay na bato, it is where the carriages and floats are kept. The emergency hideout found directly behind the neadboard of the Sultan's bed. The flat, open terrace open to the toilet, bath, and kitchen areas and also used as a laundry and drying space and service area for the servants. In the kitchen of the bahay kubo, the table on top of which is the river stone, shoe-shaped stove or kalan is known as ___. Morong Church Panay Capiz Antonio Sin Diong Gabriel Formoso George Ramos Lamin Zaguan Bilik Azotea Dapogan

ARCHITECTURAL PLANNING
A wide area of parks of undeveloped land surrounding a community. The process in which a piece of land, referred to as the parent tract, is subdivided into two or more parcels. Angles measured clockwise from any meridian, usually north; however, the National Geodetic Survey uses south. Usually the last stage of the final site development process prior to issuance of building permit. A 20th century problem emanating from rapid urbanization of areas surrounding a city which eats up the remaining adjacent rural open spaces. A type of planning which emphasizes that the proper role of the planner is not to serve the general public interest but rather to serve the interests of the least fortunate or least well represented groups in society. In the Philippines, this type of land use planning emphasizes the proper management of land resources to ensure that the present generation can benefit from its continued use without compromising future generations. This code mandates that all Local Government Units shall prepare their comprehensive land use plans and enact them through zoning ordinances. Reason for planning. Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of the future generations. First Planner and developed the Gridiron. A locale with a sizeable agglomeration of people having characteristics of an urban being. The main reason why the nomadic existence of early man metamorphosed to village settlement and later to the birth of cities. The rough equivalent of the present tenement cities that existed in ancient Rome, which resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion that existed in streets. In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area within the legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is occupied by urban residents. A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision. The orderly arrangement of urban streets and public spaces. He conceptualized the 'City Beautiful Movement'. Greenbelt Platting Azimuths Final Plat Urban Sprawl Advocacy Planning

Sustainable Land Use Planning

Local Government Code, 1991 R.A. 7160 Promote Human Growth Sustainable Development Hippodamus of miletus City Agricultural Surplus Insula Truebounded City

Traffic. City Planning Daniel Burnham

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on the marker for residential development. A profession which falls between planning and architecture. It deals with the large-scale organization and design of the city, with the massing and organization and the space between them, but not with the design of the individual buildings. The science of human settlement. By definition, settlement inhabited by man. Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, pubic buildings, water supply, and waste disposal facilities. The container of man, which consists of both the natural and man-made or artificial element. A spatial organization concept a general view of the pattern of land use in a city developed by Ernest W. Burgess. The city is conceived as a series of five concentric zones with the cores as the central business district and fanning out from which are the residential and commuter zones. The remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open spaces. A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating. This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of galvanized steel wire or pvc coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with stones to form a wall. A very steep slope of rock or clay. A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for grazing animals; low grassy land near a river or stream. A long, narrow chain of hills or mountains. A long, deep, narrow valley eroded by running water. On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or mutual protection. Of land, a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject to a single ownership, and which is legally recorded as a single piece. A wall that serves 2 dwelling units, known also as party wall. Niemeyer believed that relating large areas to each other is freedom as in the planned city of___. In architectural terms, it is the relationship of the number of residential structures and people to a given amount of space. The government arm responsible for the development and implementation of low cost housing in the Philippines. Housing provided for low-income groups generally through government intervention and characterized by substantial subsidies and direct assistance. A written agreement between parties, but it allows a specific period during which the buyer can investigate the property and make a decision. Sometimes called "subscription money", this is a deposit given to the seller to show that the potential buyer has serious intentions. A provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic charges against the capital account. Written document to transfer the property to one person to another. They develop or improve the land as well as construct houses. Determines the value of the house and also is familiar with trends in the local market and in the industry. Helps people find a place to live, specializing and matching wants of buyers with the local supply. Are usually large concrete slabs or otherwise panelized units fabricated in a shop and assembled at the site. Codes that deal with the use, occupancy, and maintenance of existing buildings. Subdivision Regulations Urban Design

Ekistics Human Settlement Capital Facilities Planning Physical Settlement Concentric Zone Concept

Buildable Area Dwelling Unit Gabion Wall Cliff Meadow Ridge Ravine Restriction Parcel Common Wall Brasilia Density National Shelter Program Social Housing Option to Buy Earnest Money Amortization Deed Developers Appraiser Real Estate Broker Total System Housing Codes

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Designed to regulate land use, to ban industry and commerce from residential areas and to separate different types of living units. Construct three-dimensional volumetric units in a plant on a production line then hauled to the site. System building is the complete integration of all ___. The improvement of slum, deteriorated, and underutilized areas of a city. An area which is within the city limits, or closely linked to it by common use of public utilities and services. Two major hindrances to the prefabrication industry. Three general types of structures. Zoning Prefabrication Manufacturer Subsystems Urban Renewal Urban Area Code of Multiplicities and Tradition Primitive Vernacular Grand Productive Use Health and General Use Social Implications 6.00 mts. Bedrooms Growth and Change Gazebo Grass and Plants Site Planning Ecology Accurate Aerial Mosaic Comprehensive Plan Transportation System Urban Blight Star Freeways Landmark Lane Land-use Plan Land Land Boundary Land Survey Land-use Analysis

A piece of land with an economic use for farming. Lands for well-being like parks, plazas, and of similar nature. Similarly as the cost of the land, neighborhood character have this effect. Minimum road width in a neighborhood development to ease traffic flow. Which building component receives priority over the location to have the morning sun. Urban Planning is defined briefly as the guidance of ___. A lattice structure that serves as a summer house. In landscaping, ground cover is represented by ___. The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the landscape. The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and its habitat. Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___. Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land uses are embodied in the ___. Also called the blood-stream of a city. A form of absence of all the principles and organized development of a community. The city of Washington conforms to the plan type of ___. An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across urban to urban areas. A monument, fixed object, or marker used to designate the location of a land boundary on the ground. A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier The projection of a future pattern of use within an area, as determined by development goals. The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water. A line of demarcation between adjoining parcels of land. A survey of landed property establishing or reestablishing lengths and directions of boundary line. The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature and magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of the pattern relative to development goals. A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area. In surveying, the North-South component of a traverse course. An open space of ground of some size, covered with grass and kept smoothly mown. A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'. A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease.

Land-use Survey Latitude Lawn Lease Leasehold

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117047498.xls.ms_office BUILDING UTILITIES

The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of a substance without changing its temperature. A system of devices, usually installed below ground level, to scatter or spray water droplets over a lawn, golf course, or the like. Minimum width of a septic tank. Minimum length of a septic tank. Minimum liquid depth for a septic tank. Maximum liquid depth for septic tank. Minimum capacity, in cubic meters, of the secondary compartment of a septic tank. Minimum dimension of a manhole access to a septic tank. Minimum length of the secondary compartment of a septic tank with a capacity of more than 6 cubic meters. Wooden septic tanks are allowed, true or false. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a septic tank. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a seepage pit or cesspool. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a disposal field. Minimum Gauge of galvanized sheet used for downspouts. Minimum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. Maximum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. Maximum length of the tailpiece from any fixture. Minimum extension of the VSTR above the roof. Minimum extension of the VSTR above an openable window, door opening, air intake, or vent shaft. Minimum trap diameter for a bathtub Minimum trap diameter for a shower stall. Required number of water closets for females for an auditorium serving 16-35. Required number of water closets for males for an auditorium serving 16-35. Required number of urinals for an auditorium serving 10-50. Required number of water closets for females for a theater serving 51-100. Classifications of copper pipes. A rough or sharp edge left on metal by a cutting tool. Two types of passenger elevator. Minimum elevator width of single slide door elevator for small commercial or residential building. A device that is basically a double throw switch of generally 3-pole connection that will automatically transfer the power from the standby generator to the building circuitry during electrical power failure. TW in electrical wire specification means. Another name for passenger elevator. The minimum face to face distance between elevators in three and four car grouping. Collection line of a plumbing system is sometimes referred to as. Maximum height of a dumbwaiter. A type of lighting that provides illumination to special objects like sculptures, flower arrangements, etc. XHHN in wire specification means. Standard length of an electrical metal conduit.

Latent Heat Lawn Sprinkler System 90 cms. 1.50 mts. 60 cms. 1.80 mts. 1 cum. 508 mm. 1.50 mts. FALSE 15.20 mts. 45.70 mts. 30.50 mts. 26 51 mm. 102 mm. 60 cms. 15 cms. 0.90 mtr. 38 mm. (11/2") 51 mm. (2") 3 2 1 4 Rigid and Flexible Burr Electric and Hydraulic 0.60 mtr. Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS)

Moisture resistant, in wet and dry location Lift 2 mts. House Drain 1.20 mts. Specific Lighting Moisture and Heat ResistantCross-Linked Thermosetting 10'

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An assembly consisting of a pulley wheel, side plates, shaft, and bearings over which a cable or roped is passed. The other type of flame detector other than the ultraviolet type. PABX or PBX means. Farad is the unit capacity of a ___. Another name for distribution panel. Type of plastic pipe other than polyvinyl chloride and polybutylene. Standard size of wire for a circuit line. Standard size of wire for a switch line. A device for converting alternating current to direct current. Another name for a Rectifier. A controller sensitive to the degree of moisture in the air. Another name for Humidistat. Consist of a flyball or flyweight device designed to stop an elevator. A stop valve placed in the service pipe close to the connection at the water main. A vent with a function to provide circulation if air between drainage and vent system. Flange used on a pipe to cover a hole or opening in a floor or wall which the pipe pass. Length along the centerline of the pipe and fitting. A valve used in a flush tank controlling the flushing of fixture. Any liquid waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution. Component of fire extinguisher. Interrelationship between value of voltage and current with the same frequency. Descriptive of any material such as synthetic resin which hardens when heated or cured, and does not soften when reheated. An Instrument which responds to changes in temperature, and directly or indirectly controls temperature. Thin sheets that are used for controlling heat in drywall construction. Conveys storm water and terminates into a natural drainage such as lakes or rivers. A machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, a generator of alternating current. Freon in air-con must be compressed and liquefied in order to absorb ___. Standard size of a wet standpipe outlet for each floor. A type of pipe fitting for a Yoke Vent. A device installed on an electric water heater used to detect the working temperature to activate a switch. Minimum size of trap or branch for a bidet. Minimum fixture supply pipe diameter for tank type water closet. True or false, 1 3/4" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply. True or false, 3" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply. Term applied to the interconnection of the same fixtures in one soil or waste branch with one branch vent. A single vent that ventilates multiple traps in the case of a back to back vent. Minimum size of a standpipe for a building in which the highest outlet is 23 meters or less from the fire service connection. Minimum size of a wet standpipe for a riser of more than 15 meters from the source. Single lever valves used in kitchen sink and lavatory faucets or at shower valves works by the principle of a ___. Treats hard water. Minimum height of a branch vent above the fixture it is venting. Minimum wire size in square millimeter for a branch circuit with a 30 ampere rating using Type THW stranded copper conductor in a raceway. Sheave Infra Red Pvt. Automatic Branch Exchange Capacitor Power Panel Polyethylene No. 12 No. 14 Rectifier D.C. Generator Humidistat Hygrostat Governor Corporation Stop Relief Vent Escutcheon Developed Length Flush Valve Sewage Carbon Monoxide Phase Thermosetting Thermostat Rigid Board Insulation Strom Sewer Alternator Heat 1 1/2" (38mm) 1/8 Bend Thermostat 1 1/2" 3/8" TRUE FALSE Battery of Fixtures Common Vent 4" (102mm) 4" (102mm) Ball Valve Zeolite 6" (150mm) 5.5 sqmm

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Standard frequency of power supplied by the local power utility company like Meralco. The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and including splices, if any, connecting to the service entrance conductors at the building. Unit of loudness level. The process of dissipating sound energy by converting it to heat. Distance sound travels during each cycle of vibration. The reduction in the intensity or in the sound pressure level of sound which is transmitted from one point to another. Unit of sound absorption equivalent to 1 square foot of perfectly absorptive material. Acoustical phenomenon which causes sound wave to be bent or scattered around. Minimum sound pressure level that is capable of being detected by the human ear. Fluctuation in pressure, a particle displacement in an elastic medium. Sound sensation in a single frequency. Wave produced by a pure tone. Synonymous with a lighting fixture. The luminous intensity of light is expressed in ___. It refers to an individual who worked in the sanitary field of ancient Rome. In Latin, it means 'lead'. A specially designed system of waste piping embodying the horizontal wet venting of one or more sinks or floor drains by means of a common waste and vent pipe adequately sized to provide free movement of air above the flow line of the drain. Vertical flow of air used to separate different functions of spaces. Type of lighting dealing with relatively large area lighting. During elevator emergency, to rescue passengers, this part of the elevator is used to open the doors from the outside. A device which extends across at least 1/2 the width of each door leaf which will open if subjected to pressure. Sanitary sewage from buildings shall be discharged directly to the nearest ___. Receptacles intended to receive and discharge water, water-carried waste into a drainage system with which they are connected. The simplest type of building automation system. Standard size of an outlet for a dry standpipe located at each floor. A vent pipe connected to a vent stack. A vent pipe connected to a stack vent. Instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure. Bets type of fire detection that can detect fire during the incipient stage. Condensing unit is a part of a ___. A fire detector installed in a fire alarm system which uses low melting point solders or metal that expands when exposed to heat to detect a fire. A faucet fitted with a nozzle curving downward used as a draw-off tap. Heat rating for a fixed temperature heat detector. Reference in measuring the depth of a trap seal of a trap. A pipe fitting shaped like 'S'. Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a shower stall. Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a pedestal urinal. Ratio of water closets for male population for elementary and secondary school. Ratio of water closets for female population for elementary and secondary school. Ratio of urinals for elementary school. Ratio of water closets for female population for Principal Worship Places. Minimum required number of water closets for female for office and public buildings serving 55 occupants for employees. Where there is exposure to skin contamination due to poisonous materials, what is the 60 Cycles Service Drop Phon Sound Absorption Wavelength Sound Attenuation Sabin Sound Diffraction Threshold of Audibility Sound Pure Tone Sine Wave Luminaire Candela Plumbarius Plumbum Combination Waste and Vent system Air curtain General Lighting Outside Door Latch Panic Bar Sanitary Sewer Main Fixture Telecommunication System 2 1/2" (64mm) Circuit Vent Loop Vent Barometer Ionization Refrigeration Fixed Temperature Heat Detector Bibbcock 135-197F Top Dip to Crown Weir Double Bend 2" 3" (1:30) (1:25) (1:75) (1:75) 4 (1:5)

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ratio of lavatory to number of occupants. Minimum head of water, in meters, required for each section of plumbing for water test. How many days, at least, shall be given before any plumbing work inspection is done after written notice for inspection. Minimum time, in minutes, required for water to stay in the system or pipes for a water test without any leaks to satisfy said testing. Consist of a body, a checking member, and an atmospheric opening. Minimum lead content in percent for pipes and fittings safe for humans. Minimum vertical distance from the bottom of water pipes to the top of sewer or drain pipe if laid in the same trench on top of the other. Minimum distance of water pipings from any regulating equipment, water heater, conditioning tanks, and similar equipment requiring union fittings. Maximum spacing of pipe supports at intervals. Equivalent of 1/6 bend in degrees. True or false, 60 branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true vertical position. Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal drain less than 1.5 meters in length unless such line is serving sinks or urinals, true or false. Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes 51mm or less in diameter. Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes larger than 51 mm. Dia. Maximum distance of any underfloor cleanout from any access door, crawl space, or crawl hole. Maximum length of a tailpiece. Minimum length of any branch requiring separate venting. True or false, no galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel pipe shall be used underground and shall be kept at least 15 cms above ground. Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above the roof. Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above any other vertical surface. Minimum vertical distance of VSTR from above of any openable window or opening. Minimum vertical extension of VSTR from any roofdeck where it is protruded. Minimum horizontal distance of any VSTR from a roofdeck used for other purposes aside from protection from weather. Minimum number of stories served by a waste stack requiring a parallel ventstack. The rate of flow of light through a surface. The luminous intensity of any surface in a given direction per unit of projected area. A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square foot. A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square meter. Type of lighting system where 90-100% of light output is directed to the ceiling and upper walls of the room. The material used for filament in an incandescent bulb. The equivalent of filament in a fluorescent lamp. An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a lower constant pressure. An air-operated device used to open or close a damper or valve. In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used to balance suspended scenery, or the like. On elevators, a gear-driven machine having a drum to which the wire ropes that hoist the car are fastened, and on which they wind. Vertical tracks that serves as a guide for the car and the counterweight. Under NBC, the clearance between the underside of the car and the bottom of the pit shall not be less than ___. Under NBC, the minimum diameter of hoisting and counterweight rope.

3 3 15 minutes Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker 8% 300 mm 300 mm 4' 60 TRUE TRUE 0.305 mtr. / 305 mm 0.45 mtr. / 450 mm 6.10 mts. 600 mm 4.60 mts. TRUE 150 mm / 15 cms. 300 mm 0.90 mtr. 2.10 mts. 3.00 mts. 10 Luminous Flux Luminance Foot-Candle Lux Indirect Lighting Tungsten Cathode Pressure Regulating Valve Air Motor Counterweight Winding-Drum Machine Guiderails 600 mm 30 mm

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Under NBC, the minimum width between balusters in an escalator. Under NBC, the maximum rated speed of an escalator along the angle of travel. The effective room temperature in air-conditioning. A private telephone system that interconnects with public telephone systems. Resistance in alternating current system. The reciprocal of conductance. The rate of flow of sound energy Lighting used primarily to draw attention to particular points of interest. A means of producing light from gaseous discharge. A type of High-Intensity-Discharge lamp (HID). Sound system input device that reacts to and converts variable sound pressure into variable electrical current. A rate of rise type detector. Light originating from sources not facing each other, as from windows in adjacent walls. The process of removing calcium and magnesium deposits in water. A lighting unit consisting of one or more electrical lamps. A louvered construction divided into cell-like areas and used for redirecting the light emitted by an overhead source. A graph used in air-conditioning and showing the properties of air-system mixtures. Heat that raises air temperature. The transmission of heat energy from one place to another by circulatory movement of a mass of fluid. A lamp designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a large area. In boilers, they function only when exceeds prescribed unsafe operating conditions. What type of sound absorbent is best for lower band frequencies. The bending of sound wave when traveling forward changes direction as it passes through different densities. True or false, number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe. Water distribution system which constantly rely its pressure from the main water pipe applied only if the highest fixture is supplied continuously with the flow rate and minimum required working pressure. What combination of pipe fittings is installed at the base of a soil stack? What is the rating index of an air-conditioning/refrigeration system which rates the unit for the number of BTU's of heat removed per watt of electrical input energy? What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system, is used to to dehumidify and cool the air stream injected to a conditioned space. A rigid metal housing for a group of heavy conductors insulated from each other and the enclosure, also called Busduct. A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper bar, used for collecting, carrying, and distributing large electric currents, also called a busbar. An approved assembly of insulated conductors with fitting and conductor terminations in completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where the assembly is designed to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic forces of such current. A type of perimeter detector which detects object in heat range of body temperature. A type of perimeter detector which detects interruption of light beam. A type of perimeter detector which detects change in sound wave pattern. Women's urinal fixture. True or false, brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or adapter. A box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining one different runs of raceways or cables and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the 558 mm 38 Meters/Min 68-74 F PABX Impedance Resistance Sound Intensity Accent Lighting Fluorescense High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS) Microphone Thermal Detector Cross Light Softening Luminaire Eggcrate Psychrometric Chart Sensible Heat Convection Floodlight Limit Controls and Interlocks Porous Absorbents Refraction TRUE Upfeed System / Direct Method

Wye and 1/8 Bend Energy Efficiency Rating (EER) Fan Coil Unit

Busway Bus Busway

Passive Infrared Light Beam Ultrasonic Washdown TRUE Pull Box

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by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

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enclosed conductors. A type of water closet that is least efficient, subject to clogging, noisy, and use a simple washout action through a small irregular passageway. This type of water closet is similar to that of the siphon-jet except that it has a smaller trap passageway and smaller water surface area, moderately noisy. A type of water closet that is noisy but highly efficient. Strong jet into up leg forces contents out. Use only with flush valve, requires higher pressure. Water closet that is quiet, extremely sanitary, water is directed through the rim. It scours bowl, folds over into jet; siphon. A water closet that is sanitary, efficient, and very quiet. Water enters through the rim and through the down leg. A toilet bowl similar to the siphon-jet, but having the flushing water directed to the rim to create circular motion or vortex which scours the bowl. A toilet bowl in which the flushing water enters through the rim and a siphonic action initiated by a water jet draws the contents of the bowl through the trapway. A water closet similar to that of the siphon jet but with a smaller water surface and trapway. This type of water closet is prohibited by some health codes. The concussion and banging noise that results when a volume of water moving in a pipe suddenly stops or loses momentum. The length of a pipeline measured along the centerline of the pipe and pipe fittings. A shutoff valve closed by lowering a wedge-shaped gate across the passage. A valve closed by a disk seating on an opening in an internal wall. Liquid sewage that has been treated in a septic tank or sewage treatment plant. The centerline of pipe. The interior top surface of a pipe. The interior bottom surface of a pipe. A type of perimeter detector which is subject to false alarm from aircraft radar and from movement outside building through window, wood doors, and the like. It uses radio waves. This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or Microwave system. This type of perimeter detector detects a change in capacitance of the area covered, caused by intrusion. Color code for pipes containing acid. A high intensity discharge lamp in which the light is produced by the radiation from a mixture of a metallic vapor, similar to that of a mercury lamp in construction. A type of lamp popular for lighting commercial interiors, uses argon gas to ease starting, it produces light by means of an electric discharge in mercury vapor. A type of lamp which produces light by means of the reaction of halogen additive in the bulb reacts with chemically with tungsten. A type of lamp generally used for roadways and sidewalks, uses sodium gas. Building with fire alarm and suppression system. This shows the vertical relationships of all panels, feeders, switches, switchboards, and major components are shown up to, but not including, branch circuiting, it is an electrical version of a vertical section taken through the building. In elevator, it detects the obstacles during the door closing, and reopens the door if there is something. Photocell can be used together with this. It prevents passengers from falling into the hoistway when they try to get out of the car which is stopped between the floors. In elevator, it makes the buzzer alarm when the car is overloaded and the door remains open until overloading is eliminated. In elevator, it protects the equipment from over current.

Washdown (WD) Reverse Trap (RT) Blowout (BO) Siphon Vortex (SV) Siphon Jet (SJ) Siphon Vortex (SV) Siphon Jet (SJ) Reverse Trap (RT) Washdown (WD) Water Hammer Developed Length Gate Valve Globe Valve Effluent Spring Line Crown Invert Microwave Passive Infrared with Ultrasonic (or Microwave) Proximity / Capacitance Black Metal Halide Lamp Mercury Lamp Tungsten Halogen Lamp High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS) Intelligent Building Riser Diagram

Safety Shoe Fascia Plate Weighing Device Circuit Breaker

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In elevator, these prevent the excessive car travel at the highest and lowest floor. In escalators, these stop the escalator if a foreign object becomes wedged at the guard. In escalators, this is located at the bottom truss of the escalator and provided with on and off positions to stop or prevents the escalator from starting during maintenance service. This device, in escalators, is provided at the drive unit location to protect against accidental movement of the escalator during inspection of the drives or during general maintenance. This device, in escalators, stops the escalator automatically if an abnormal current is supplied to the motor. This switch cuts off all current supply to the escalator for inspection, maintenance, or repairs. In a lightning protection system, the combination of a metal rod and its brace or footing, on the upper part of a structure. One of the earlier plastic to be developed in 1938, a du pont trade name for the white, soft, waxy, and non-adhesive polymer of tetrafluoroethylene. The number of cycles per unit time of a wave or oscillations expressed in hertz of cycles per second. Of a partition, the number of decibels by which sound is reduced in transmission through it; a measure of the sound insulation value of the partition, the higher the number, the greater the insulation value. The cooling effect obtained when 1 ton of ice at 32 oF (0 oC) melts to water at the same Limit Switches Handrail Guard Switches Disconnect Switch Mechanical Maintenance Locking Device Current Overload Safety Switch Knife Switch Air Terminal Teflon Frequency Transmission Loss

Ton of Refrigeration

tmeperature in 24 hrs. (equivalent to 12,000 Btu/hr)

AS - STRUCTURAL

The procedures and limitations for the design of structures shall be determined by the following factors. Minimum number of stories recommended to be provided with at least 3 approved recording accelerographs. Maintenance and service of accelerographs shall be provided by the___. Who shall be responsible for keeping the actual live load below the allowable limits and shall be liable for any failure on the structure due to overloading. The period of continuous application of a given load or the aggregate of periods of intermittent application of the same load. Minimum area in square meters a member supports which the design live load may be reduced. Minimum height of any wall requiring structural design to resist loads onto which they are subjected. Maximum deflection of a brittle finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied perpendicular to said wall. Maximum deflection of a flexible finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied perpendicular to said wall. Maximum floor area for a low-cost housing unit. The level at which the earthquake motions are considered to be imparted to the structure or the level at which the structure, as a dynamic vibrator, is supported. A member or an element provided to transfer lateral forces from a portion of a structure

Zoning, site characteristics Occupancy, configuring structural system, and height 14 Owner Occupant of the building Load duration 14 sqm. 1.50 mts. 1/240 of wall span 1/120 of wall span 60 sqm. Base Collector

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to vertical elements of the lateral force resisting system. A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to the vertical resisting elements, it includes horizontal bracing system. The total designed lateral force or shear at the base of a structure. An element at edge of opening or at perimeters of shear walls or diaphragm. An essentially vertical truss system of the concentric or eccentric type which is provided to resist lateral forces. An essentially complete space frame which provides supports for gravity loads. A combination of a Special or Intermediate Moment Resisting Space Frame and Shear Walls or Braced Frames. That form of braced frame where at least one end of each brace intersects a beam at a point away from the column girder joint. The entire assemblage at the intersection of the members. The horizontal member in a frame system, a beam. An element of a diaphragm parallel to the applied load which collects and transfers diaphragm shear to vertical resisting elements or distributes loads within the diaphragm. Such members may take axial tension or compression. The boundary element of a diaphragm or a shear wall which is assumed to take axial stresses analogous to the flanges of a beam Those structures which are necessary for emergency post-earthquake operations. That part of the structural system assigned to resist lateral forces. Moment resisting space frame not meeting special detailing requirements for ductile behavior. The displacement of one level relative to the level above or below. The usable capacity of a structure or its members to resist loads within the deformation limits prescribed in this document. The lower rigid portion of a structure having a vertical combination of structural system. Horizontal truss system that serves the same function as a diaphragm. An assemblage of framing members designed to support gravity loads and resist lateral forces. A structural system without complete vertical load carrying space frame. This system provide support for gravity loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls or braced frames. A structural system with essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls or braced frames. A structural system with an essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity loads. Moment resisting space frames provide resistance to lateral load primarily by flexural action of members. Is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of that of the story above. An elastic or inelastic dynamic analysis in which a mathematical model of the structure is subjected to a ground motion time history. The structure's time-dependant dynamic response to these motion is obtained through numerical integration of its equations of motions. The effects on the structure due to earthquake motions acting in directions other than parallel to the direction of resistance under consideration. The secondary effect on shears and moments of frame members induced by the vertical loads acting on the laterally displaced building frame. Material other than water, aggregate, or hydraulic cement, used as an ingredient of concrete and added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties. Concrete that does not conform to definition of reinforced concrete. Upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average least lateral dimension of less than three.

Diaphragm Base Shear, V Boundary Element Braced Frame Building Frame System Dual System Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF) Joint Girder Diaphragm Strut

Diaphragm Chord Essential facilities Lateral Force Resisting System Ordinary Moment Resisting Space Frame Story Drift Strength Platform Horizontal Bracing System Structure Bearing Wall System

Building Frame System Moment Resisting Frame System

Weak Story Time History Analysis

Orthogonal Effect P-delta Effect Admixture Plain Concrete Pedestal

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Ratio of normal stress to corresponding strain for tensile or compressive stresses below proportional limit of material. In prestressed concrete, temporary force exerted by device that introduces tension into prestressing tendons. Length of embedded reinforcement provided beyond a critical section. Stress remaining in prestressing tendons after all losses have occurred, excluding effects of dead load and superimposed loads. Length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of reinforcement at a critical section. Friction resulting from bends or curves in the specified prestressing tendon profile. Concrete containing lightweight aggregate. prestressing tendon that is bonded to concrete either directly or through grouting. ASTM A36 High-Yield Strength Quenched and Tempered Alloy Steel Plate, Suitable for Welding. True or False, Bar larger than 32mm in diameter shall not be bundled in beams. Minimum concrete cover for a Prestressed concrete for beams and columns for primary reinforcements. In a material under tension or compression, the absolute value of the ratio of transverse strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain. In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration. A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line. A type of concrete floor which has no beam. The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an adjacent part. A change in shape of a material when subjected to the action of force. The maximum value of tension, compression, or shear respectively the material sustain without failure. It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to 'stress'. The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without permanent deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress. Intensity of force per unit area. Loop of reinforcing bar or wire enclosing longitudinal reinforcement. The measure of stiffness of a material. The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through it. The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting on it. Nominal thickness of of a timber. The sum of forces in the othorgonal directions and the sum of all moments about any points are zero. The complete records of tests conducted (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction and after completion of the project for a period of not less than. Wood board should have a thickness specification of. The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight. A high-speed rotary shaping had power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving on solid wood. The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system. Wood defects are: heart shake, cup shake, star shake, and___. Dressed lumber is referred to ___. The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw. It refers to the occupancy load which is either partially or fully in place or may not be present at all. The distance between inflection points in the column when it breaks. The amount of space measured in cubic units. Modulus of Elasticity Jacking Force Embedment Length Effective Prestress Development Length Curvature Friction Structural Lightweight Concrete Bonded Tendon Structural Steel ASTM A514 TRUE 40 mm Poisson's Ratio Slenderness Ratio Torsion Flat Slab Shear Deformation Yielding Stress Stress Allowable Stress Stress Tie / Stirrup Stiffness Ratio Punching Shear Deflection 6 inches Equilibrium 2 years

not less than 1"X4" Run Portable Hand router Girder Knots Smoothed or planed lumber Cross-cut saw Live load Effective length Volume

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In the formula e=PL/AE, E stands for___. An expansion joint of adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements between them. the total of all tread widths in a stair. The force adhesion per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces. A structural member spanning from truss to truss or supporting a rafter. Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. A connector such as a welded strut, spiral bar, or short length of channel which resists horizontal shear between elements. The force per unit area of cross section which tends to produce shear. Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. The law that relates the linear relationship between stresses and strains Minimum spacing of Bolts in timber connectionn measured from center of bolts parallel for parallel to grain loading is equal to ___. According to the provisions of the NSCP on timber connections and fastenings, the lodaed edge distance for perpendicular to grain loading shall be at least ___. NSCP specifies spacing between rows of bolts for perpendicular to grain loading shall be at least ___ times bolt diameter for L/d ratio of 2. Minimum diameter of bolts to be used in timber connections and fastening in accordance with NSCP specifications. Simple solid timber columns have slenderness ratio not exceeding ___. Nails or spikes for which the wire gauges or lengths not set forth in the NSCP specifications shall have a required penetration of not less than ___. Notches in sawn lumber bending members in accordance with the NSCP specifications shall not exceed. Notches in sawn lumber shall not be located in the ___. Notches in the top and bottom of joists shall not exceed ___. Allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of gross area. Allowable tensile stress of structural steel based on effective area. Allowable stress for tension on pin connected members based on net area. Allowable shear stress on structural steel on the cross sectional area effective in resisting shear. For structures carrying live loads which induce impact, the assumed live load shall be increased sufficiently to provide for same, for supports of elevators the increase shall be. The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed ___. The slenderness ratio main members in tension shall not exceed ___. Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete exposed to earth or weather. Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete not exposed to earth or weather. Curing of concrete (other than high-early strength) shall be maintained above 10C and in moist condition for at least the first ___ days after placement. If concrete in structure will dry under service conditions, cores shall be air-dried for ___ days before test and shall be tested dry. Curing for high-early strength concrete shall be maintained above 10C and in moist condition for at least the ___ days after palcement. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in layer shall be db (diameter of bar) but not less than ___. Standard hooks used in reinforced concrete beam shall mean. Modulus of Elasticity Contraction joint Total run Bond Stress Purlin Size of Dead Load Defelection Shear Connector Shear Stress / Shearing Stress Size of Dead Load Defelection Hook's Law 4 X diameter of bolt 4 X diameter of bolt 2.5 12 mm 50 11 diameters 1/6 depth of member Middle Third Span 1/4 the depth 0.60 of specified min. yield stress 0.50 of specified minimum tensile strength 0.45 Fy 0.40 Fy 100% 200 240 40 mm 20 mm 7 7 3 25 mm 180 bend + 4db extension but not less than 65mm at free end of bar

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Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 16mm bar and smaller. Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 20-25mmbar. Allowable tolerance on minimum concrete cover for depths greater than 200mm Allowable tolerance for longitudinal location of bends and ends of reinforcement. Individual bars with a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall teminate at different points with a stagger of at least ___. Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less than ___ for strands. Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less than ___ for wire. Minimum concrete cover provided for reinforcement of cast in place against permanently exposed to earth or weather using bars larger than 36mm. 90 bend + 6db extension at free end 90 bend + 12db extension at free end 12 mm 50 mm 40db 3db 4db 75 mm

NATIONAL BUILDING CODE

P.D.. 1096 Maximum height of a combustible stand. Minimum spacing for seats in a chair type measurement from back to back. Maximum line of travel to an exit of an aisle. Maximum slope of an aisle. In standard seating, the minimum spacing of rows measured from back to back. Minimum width of any seat. Minimum area of a double acting door view panel. Minimum clear width of an exit doorway. Maximum width of an exit door leaf. Minimum width of an exit corridor. Minimum number of exit for floors above the first storey having an occupant load of more than 10 Number of exit for occupant load of 599-999. Minimum downward projection of a draft curtain Maximum floor area for an attic made of combustible materials. Maximum center to center spacing of a draft curtain sprinkler. Maximum floor area for an attic made of incombustible materials. Standard gauge for metal hoods in barbeques. Minimum height of a Siamese connection above grade. Standard maximum distance of a standpipe from an opening in a stairway. Minimum wall thickness of a fireplace. Minimum number of exit for a projection room. Minimum extended portion of a chimney above the roof. Minimum air space between walls of a masonry chimney above the roof. Minimum thickness of glass used for floors. Maximum rise of one row of seat to the next. Minimum number of exit for stands within a building serving an occupant load of 300. Minimum height of a guard rail located in front of the grandstand. Minimum width of a run in a stand stair. Minimum spacing for seats with backrests measured from back to back.

National Building Code 2.70 mts. 0.85 mtr. 45.00 mts. One is to Eight (1:8) 0.84 mtr. 0.45 mtr. 1,300 sqmm / 1.30 sqm. 0.70 mtr. 1.20 mts. 1.10 mts. 2 3 0.30 mtr. 250.00 sqm 1.80 mts. 750.00 sqm. Ga. 18 300 mm 300 mm 200 mm 2 600 mm 2" / 50 mm 12.5 mm 400 mm / 0.40 mtr. 3 0.90 mtr 0.28 mtr. 0.75 mtr.

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Minimum spacing for seats without backrests measured from back to back. Minimum width of an exit door in an aisle. Minimum intensity of lights for exits. Minimum width of side aisles. Minimum increase in width of aisles for every linear meter. Minimum width of an aisle serving only one side. Open space requirement for an interior lot. Open space requirement for a corner lot or a through lot. Bounded on all sides or around its periphery by building lines. Minimum stair width for a residence. Standard minimum area of a toilet. Minimum dimension of a kitchen. Minimum area for vent shafts. Air space requirement for a school room per person. Air space requirement for a habitable room per person. Minimum area of opening of an air duct. Maximum projection beyond the property line of a footing along the national road and at least 2.40 mts. In depth. Minimum clearance of a canopy or a marquee from the sidewalk. Minimum stair width for occupant load of less than 50. Minimum width of a temporary walkway. Minimum clearance of an arcade above sidewalk. Vacant space left between the building and lot lines less than 2.00 mts in width. Minimum horizontal dimension of a court. Minimum width of a passageway connecting a street and a court. Standard air space requirement per person for factories. Minimum headroom clearance for a mezzanine. Air supply per person per minute for auditoriums. Minimum total area of a window or an opening for a room without artificial ventilation. Minimum dimension for a vent shaft. Minimum horizontal clearance of the curb line to the outermost edge of the marquee. Minimum clearance of the lowest portion of an awning to the ground. Minimum height of a construction fence. Minimum live load bearing capacity of a construction canopy. Minimum height of a protective railing in a construction. Minimum wind load capacity for roofs for vertical projection. Maximum height of a handrail above the stair thread. Minimum ceiling height for naturally ventilated rooms. Minimum height of a handrail above the stair thread. Maximum dimension of a stair landing. Maximum slope of an exit court. Minimum width of run for circular stair. Minimum headroom clearance for any stair. Maximum slope for an exit passageway. Maximum height of a Siamese connection above the ground. Maximum distance of any portion of a building from the nozzle of a 23 mts fire hose. Minimum number of exit for any stage. Minimum extension of a proscenium wall above the roof. Minimum width of a stair in a stage egress. Minimum thickness of glass for jalousies. Maximum length of glass for jalousies. Minimum width of exit in a stage. 0.60 mtr. 1.70 mts. 10.70 lux 1.10 mts. 30 mm 800 mm / 0.80 mtr. 50% of lot area 10% of lot area Inner court 750 mm / 0.75 mtr. 1.20 sqm. 1.50 mts. 1.00 sqm. 3.00 cum. 14.00 cum. 300 sqmm / 0.30 sqm 300 mm 3.00 mts. 0.90 mtr. 1.20 mts. 3.00 mts. Setback 2.00 mts. 1.20 mts. 12.00 cum. 1.80 mts. 0.30 cum 10% of flr. Area 0.60 mtr. 300 mm 2.40 mts. 2.40 mts. 600 kgs./sqm. 1.00 mtr. 120 kgs./sqm. 0.90 mtr. 2.70 mts. 0.80 mtr. 1.20 mts. One is to ten (1:10) 250 mm 2.00 mts. One is to Eight (1:8) 1.20 m 6.00 mts. 2 1.20 mts. 750 mm 5.60 mm 1.20 mts. 900 mm

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Minimum lateral spacing for plastic skylights. A store window in which goods are displayed. Maximum width of a business sign. Minimum distance of a sign from any electrical post or telephone wires. Minimum open space requirement for a corner lot. Minimum size of thread for an entrance or exit step. Maximum slope for an entrance or exit ramp. Minimum number of steps for an entrance or exit stair. Standard turn circle of a wheelchair. Office building parking ratio. Standard size of a perpendicular parking slot. Hotel building parking ratio. Hospital building parking ratio. Maximum distance of a handicapped parking from the facility being served. Colleges and university parking ratio. Theaters, cinemas, auditoria, and stadia parking ratio. Minimum number of wheelchair seating space for 51-300 seating capacity for auditoriums. Minimum width of a dropped curb. Minimum Dimensions of an accessible elevator. Maximum distance of an accessible elevator from the entrance of a building. Minimum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortable. Minimum door width for an accessible elevator. Minimum dimensions for an accessible water closet stall. Maximum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortably. Minimum width of a parking slot for the disabled. Minimum run of a stair for Group A dwellings (residential) Minimum ceiling height from 3rd floor to succeeding floors with artificial ventilation. Minimum area of rooms for human habitation. Least dimension of rooms for human habitation. Least dimension of an air duct. Maximum encroachment into a public sidewalk of a foundation at least 600 mm below the grade line. Minimum width of an exit door. Maximum width reduced by handrails and doors fully opened to balconies and corridors Minimum width of stairs serving more than 50 occupants. Minimum width of stairs serving less than 10 occupants. Maximum reduction in width of a stair due to trims and handrails. Minimum run of a winding stair. Maximum run of a winding stair. Allowable tolerance in the rise and run of every step. Width of stair requiring an intermediate handrail. Minimum width of an aisle serving both sides. Maximum number of seats between the wall and the aisle. Maximum distance between the back of each seat to the front of the seat behind it. Maximum width of seat in a stand. Maximum projection of a penthouse or other projections above the roof. Maximum ratio of a penthouse area to that of the supporting roof. Minimum thickness of masonry chimney for residentials. Minimum thickness of rubble stone masonry chimney for residentials. Minimum firebox wall thickness. Minimum thickness of smoke chamber back walls. 2.50 mts. Show window 1.20 mts. 1.00 mtr. 10% of lot area 300 mm One is to ten (1:10) 2 1.50 mts. 1:125 sqm. Of gross floor area 2.40 X 5.00 mts. 1:10 bedrooms 1:25 beds 60.00 mts. 1:5 classrooms 1:50 sqm. Of spectators' area 4 0.90 mtr. 1.10 X 1.40 mts. 30.00 mts. 1.40 mts. 0.80 mtr. 1.70 X 1.80 mts. 1.60 mts. 3.70 mts. 200 mm 2.10 mts. 6.00 sqm. 2.00 mts. 300 mm 500 mm 0.90 mts. 200 mm 1.10 mts. 750 mm 100 mm 150 mm 300 mm 5 mm 3.00 mts. 1.00 mts. 7 300 mm 480 mm 8.40 mts one third (1/3) 100 mm 300 mm 250 mm 150 mm

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minimum thickness of front and side smoke chamber walls. Minimum number of storeys requiring one (1) or more dry standpipes. Minimum volume of water a dry standpipe should provide. Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a two-way Siamese connection. Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a three-way Siamese connection. Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a four-way Siamese connection. Minimum volume of water an interior wet standpipe should provide. Minimum diameter of a wet standpipe. Standard diameter of a dry standpipe opening. Standard length of a fire hose. Maximum distance of a hose nozzle to any portion of a building. Standard diameter of a wet standpipe valve. Maximum projection into a sidewalk of a sign 4.50 mts. above grade. Minimum vertical clearance from the bottom of a signage to an arcaded sidewalk. Minimum vertical clearance from the bottom of a signage to non-arcaded sidewalk. Number of days of work abandonment of stoppage for a building permit to expire. Width of planting strip for sidewalks 2.00 mts in width. Minimum horizontal distance of the curb line to the outermost face of an arcade. Maximum vertical clearance of an arcade above grade. Slope of ramp of road-way to sidewalk. Slope of driveway to sidewalk where the height of curb is 200 mm and above. Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from the crown of the pavement when crossing the highway. Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from top of sidewalk when installed along the side of the highway. Vertical clearance of secondary lines from sidewalks along or crossing the street. Minimum clearance of conductors from the highest point of a roof. Maximum height of a dumbwaiter. Maximum area of a dumbwaiter. Minimum clearance of conductors from any platform or ground or projection from which they might be reached. Minimum vertical clearance of service drop of communication lines above ground at its point of attachment to than building or pedestal. Vertical clearance of a service drop communication line when crossing a street. Maximum capacity of a dumbwaiter. Minimum width of an access road to a cul-de-sac. Unit area per occupant for dwellings. Unit area per occupant for Hotels. Unit area per occupant for offices and garages. Unit area per occupant for class rooms. Unit area per occupant for stores - retail sales rooms upper floors. Unit area per occupant for nurseries for children. Unit area for stores -retail sales room for basement and ground floor. Unit area for hospitals and sanitaria. Unit area per occupant for aircraft hangars without repairs. Unit area per occupant for warehouses and mechanical equipment room. Unit area per occupant for theaters and the like. Parking requirement for Hotels. Parking requirement for public assembly buildings such as cinemas, auditoria, theaters, and the like. Parking requirement for multi family living unit of 50 sqm floor area. Parking requirement for multi family living unit above 100 sqm floor area. 200 mm 4 900 liters/minute 4" (100mm) 5" (125mm) 6" (150mm) 190 liters/minute 2" (50mm) 2 1/2" (63mm) 23.00 mts 6.00 mts. 38 mm (11/2") 1.00 mtr. 5.00 mts. 3.00 mts. 120 days 0.80 mtr. 500 mm 6.00 mts. 1/3 - 1/4 One is to Eight (1:8) 10.00 mts. 7.5 mts. 7.5 mts. 2.50 mts. 1.20 mts. 3,861 sqcms. 3.00 mts. 3.00 mts. 5.50 mts. 277 kgs. 3.00 mts. 28.00 sqm. 18.6 sqm. 9.30 sqm. 1.80 sqm. 5.60 sqm. 3.25 sqm. 2.80 sqm. 8.40 sqm. 46.50 sqm. 28.00 sqm. 0.65 sqm. 1 slot/5 rooms 1 slot/50 sqm. Of spectators' area 1slot/8 units 1 slot/unit

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Parking requirement for multi family living unit for 50-100 sqm floor area. Parking requirement for clubhouses, beach houses, and the like. Parking requirement for motels. Minimum parking requirement for the handicapped. Parking requirement for colleges and universities. Parking requirement for elementary, secondary, and vocational schools. In BP344, the required width of a corridor. Maximum slope of a drop curb towards the street. Maximum slope of a drop curb towards adjoining curb. Maximum spacing for wheelchair turnabouts. Maximum slope of a ramp. Maximum distance of handicapped parking from the structure served. Preferred width of corridor for the disabled. Maximum height of a water closet from the floor. Preferred height of switches from the floor. Minimum height of a switch from the floor. Maximum height of a switch from the floor. Least dimension for a parking slot for the disabled. In BP344, the minimum height of a handrail. Maximum length of a ramp for wheelchair. Minimum length of a ramp landing for wheelchairs. One or more habitable rooms which are occupied or which are intended or designated to be occupied by one family with facilities for cooking , sleeping, living, and eating. That portion of the foundation of a structure which spreads and transmits loads directly to the ground or soil. A continuous horizontal layer of masonry units. A room or suite of two or more rooms, designed and intended for , or occupied by one family for living, sleeping, eating, and cooking purposes. A stationary open hearth or brazier, either fuel-fired or electric, used for food preparation. A portion of the seating space of an assembly room, the lowest part of which is raised 1.20 mts or more above the level of the main floor. The pipe which connects a flue-burning appliance to a chimney. A hearth and fire chamber or similarly prepared place in which a fire may be made and which is built in conjunction with a chimney. A horizontal structural piece which supports the end of the floor beams or joists or walls over opening. Same as heliport except that no refueling, maintenance, repairs, or storage of helicopters is permitted. The vertical supports, such as posts or stanchions, as used in indigenous or traditional type of construction. Any surface or underground construction covered on top, or any fire-proof construction intended for the storage of valuables. A term which may be used synonymously with a partition. The unit area per occupant for hotels. The unit area per occupant for dining establishments. The unit area per occupant for theaters. A building permit shall expire if work authorized is abandoned or suspended at any time after commencement for a period of. Front yards for commercial buildings abutting a road-right-of-way of 25-29 meters shall have a minimum width of Offices shall be provided how many cubic meters of air per person? Multiple living units of up to 6 units built on the same lot shall have an access road 1 slot/4 units 1 slot/100 sqm of gross flr.area 1 slot/unit 1 slot/50 parking slots 1 slot/5 classrooms 1 slot/10 classrooms 1.20 mts. 1:20 1:12 12.00 mts. 1:12 60.00 mts. 1.50 mts. 0.50 mts. 1.10 mts. 0.90 mts. 1.20 mts. 3.70 mts. 0.70 mtr. 6.00 mts. 1.50 mts. Dwelling unit Footing Course Apartment Barbecue Balcony Chimney connector Fireplace Girder Helistop Suportales Vault Cross wall 18.60 sqm. 1.40 sqm. 0.65 sqm. 120 days / 4 mos. 8.00 mts. 12.00 cum. 3.00 mts.

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directly connecting said building to a public street a width of. Sidewalks of 2 mts or more in width shall include on its outer side a planting strip of not less than how many millimeters in width? Arcades shall be cantilevered from the building line over the sidewalk and the horizontal clearance between the curb line and the outermost face of any part of the arcade shall not be less than. Printing plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Power plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Convents shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Repair garages shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Reformatories shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Turnabout should also be provided at or whithin how many meters of dead end. In B.P. 344, the maximum slope a ramp is. Under B.P. 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided at the top and bottom of any ramp. Under what classification of occupancy does Mental Hospitals fall? Under what classification of occupancy does Monasteries fall? Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft hagars fall? Under what classification of occupancy does cold storage and creameris fall? Under what classification of occupancy does private garage fall? Minimum loading slot requirement for Hospitals and hotels. Minimum travel distance from handicapped parking to facility being served. Percentage required for number of parking if parking garages are available within 200 meters of structure. Parking requirement for amusement centers. Parking requirement for markets. Parking requirement for neigborhood shopping centers. Parking requirement for multi-family living units of more than 100 sqm of living unit area. Parking requirement for multi-family living units of up to 50 sqm of living unit area. Parking requirement for places of worhip. Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of over 3 meters but not more than 6 mts. Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of 10 mts to less than 11 mts in width. Maximum height of 1st the floor for a 2-story wood structure with a height of 7 mts. Maximum spacing of posts for 2-story wooden structure with a height of 8 mts. Under what classification of occupancy does fences of over 1.80 mts in height fall? Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft repair hangars fall? Under what classification of occupancy does factories and workshops using incombustible and non-explosive materials. Under what classification of occupancy does wood working establishements fall? Under what classification of occupancy does police and fire stations fall? Standard length of a Wheelchair. Standard width of a wheelchair. How many meters above the floor is the comfortable reach of persons confined to a wheelchair. How many meterd is the comfortable clearance for knee and leg space under tables for wheelchair users. Accessibility, reachability, usability, orientation, workability and efficiency, and ___ are the basic planning requirements of BP344. Number of wheelchair seating for an assembly seating capacity of 51-300. R.A. 7277

800 mm / 0.80 mtr. 500 mm

Business and mercantile Industrial Residentials, hotels and apartments. Storage and hazardous Institutional 3.50 mts. 1:12 1.80 mts. Institutional Residentials, hotels and apartments. Business and mercantile Industrial Accessory 1 truck loading slot 60 mts. 20% 1/50 sqm of gross floor area 1/150 sqm of shopping flr area 1/100 sqm of shopping flr area 1/living unit 1/8 living units 1/50 sqm of congregation are 0.60 mtr. 1.00 mtr. 4.50 mts. 4.50 mts. Accessory Storage and hazardous Industrial Storage and hazardous Business and mercantile 1.10 - 1.30 mts. 0.60 - 0.75 mts. 0.70 - 1.20 mts. 0.74 mts. Safety 4 Magna Carta for Disabled

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Persons Corridor Curb

A long interior passageway providing access to several rooms. A raised rim of concrete, stone or metal which forms the edge of street, sidewalk, etc.

FIRE CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES

Minimum exit door width. Minimum floor to ceiling height. Maximum stair rise height for a class A stair. Maximum height between landings for class A stair. Minimum headroom for class A & B stairs. Unit area per person for waiting areas or standing rooms. Number of exits for place of assembly for 1000 occupants Travel distance to an exit without fire sprinkler system. Travel distance to an exit with fire sprinkler system. Minimum spacing of rows of seats from back to back for a public assembly building. Maximum number of seats in a row in between aisles. Maximum number of seats in a row opening on to an aisle at one side. Standard width of a seat without dividing arms for places of assembly. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60. Minimum headroom created by any projection from the ceiling. Minimum clear width of turnstiles. Minimum dimension of landings in direction of travel for class A & B stairs. Minimum number of risers in any one (1) flight of stairs. Minimum height of a handrail above the upper surface of the tread. Minimum clearance of a handrail from any wall. Minimum height of a guard rail. Maximum height of a guard rail. Minimum inner radius of a monumental stair. Minimum width of any balcony or bridge. Minimum width of a class A ramp. Maximum rise of any floor from the balcony floor to which an access door leads. Maximum vertical height in floors for an escalator. Minimum width of a fire escape stair for existing stairs. Minimum width of landing for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for small buildings. Maximum rise of fire escape stair for a small building. Maximum rise of fire escape stair for existing stairs. Maximum height between landings for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for small buildings. Number of exits for place of assembly for 600-1000 occupants. Maximum occupant load for a class C public assembly. Minimum number of exit for an Institutional type of structure. Maximum travel distance between room door intended as exit access and exit with sprinkler system for institutional use. Maximum travel distance from the door of any room to exit for hotels with sprinkler. Maximum travel distance from the main entrance door to exit for apartments with sprinkler.

0.71 mtr. 2.30 mts. 0.19 mtr. 2.75 mts. 2.00 mts. 0.28 sqm. 4 46.00 mts. 61.00 mts. 0.83 mtr. 14 7 60 cms. 91 cms. 2.00 mts. 56 cms. 112 cms. 3 76 cms. 38 mm. 91 cms. 106 cms. 7.50 mts. 112 cms. 112 cms. 20.3 cms 1floor 55.9 cms. 55.9 cms. 15.25 cms. 30.5 cms. 22.9 cms. 3.66 mts. 2.13 mts. 1.98 mts. 3 50-300 2 30 mts. 30 mts. 31 mts.

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Minimum increase in width for an aisle per linear meter. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving one side for a public assembly building. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving two sides for a public assembly building. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of below 60 for a public assembly building. Minimum width of an aisle for an educational use building. Minimum width of an aisle for hospitals or nursing homes. Minimum width of an aisle for custodial care institutions. Minimum width of an aisle for business use structure. Minimum width of an aisle for an industrial building. Occupant load per person for laboratories. Jails are classified under what classification of occupancy. Courtrooms with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification of occupancy. Armories with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification of occupancy Libraries are classified under what classification of occupancy. Rooms where baled, bundled or piled materials segregated into desired sizes or groups. Buildings or structures 15 meters or more in height. Buildings or structures used for the storage of explosives, shells, projectile, etc. An air compartment or chamber to which 1 or more ducts are connected and which form part of an air distribution system. A kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by percussion. Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air. A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion. A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape and dimension. The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the result vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion. Temperature rating at flash point. A class of fire with flammable liquid and gasses. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted into vapor. Minimum fire resistance rating for a firewall. A continuous passageway for the transmission of air. The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air. A gas, fume or vapor used for the destruction or control of insects, fungi, vermin, germs, rodents or other pests. Minimum width of any driveway in and around a lumber yard / piles. Minimum height of fence for a lumber yard for exterior storage of lumbers. Maximum width of sumps for the retention of oil and petroleum products. For Refineries, distilleries, and chemical plants, the minimum height for a fence. Minimum travel distance from any individual room subject to occupancy by not more 6 persons. Maximum distance of travel from the high hazard area to an exit. Minimum distance of an incinerator from any structure used other than a single family dwelling. Maximum reduction in width of a stair by a handrail. 2.5 cms. 91 cms. 1.00 mtr. 76 cms. 1.80 mts. 2.44 mts. 1.83 mts. 112 cms. 112 cms. 4.60 sqm. Institutional Assembly Assembly Business Picking rooms. High rise building Explosive magazine Plenum Fulminate Phyrophoric Oxidizing material Forging Distillation

Dust 37.8 oC (100 oF) Class B Boiling Point 4 hrs. Duct System Flash Point Fumigant 4.50 mts. 1.80 mts. 3.70 mts. 1.50 mts. 15.00 mts. 23.00 mts. 3.00 mts. 9 cms.

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Minimum door width of a single door in a door way. Maximum change in elevation between the interior of a door to the outside of it other than a balcony. Maximum force in kilograms required for a panic hardware. Maximum height required for a panic hardware installation. Minimum height required for a panic hardware installation. Maximum number of occupant for a subdivided room or space by a folding partition. Minimum width of a door for family day care homes. Minimum stair width for a class B stair serving an occupant load of less than 50. Length of a nosing or effective projection over the level immediately below it for tread below 25 cms in dimension. Maximum height of a handrail. A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above. The time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of standard fire test is known as. Any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding. Classified as mercantile occupancies, the travel distance from exits shall be. Under what classification of occupancy does pool rooms fall. Under what classification of occupancy does home for the aged fall. Under what classification of occupancy does court houses fall. Under what classification of occupancy does refineries fall. Under what classification of occupancy does drugstores fall. Minimum width of an aisle in a store for mercantile occupancies. Minimum number of aisles for Class 'A' stores. Minimum clear width of aisles for a Class 'A' store. Minimum clear width of an exit access through a covered mall. Minimum height of buildings requiring automatic sprinkler protection. Standard inner radius of a curved stair in business occupancies. Maximum height of riser for Class 'A' stairs. Maximum height of riser for Class 'B' Stairs. Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving more than 50 persons. Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving 50 persons and below. Maximum horizontal projection of a handrail over a stair. Minimum width of a stair width for Class 'A' stairs. Maximum height between landings for a Class 'B' stairs. Minimum width of landings in direction of travel for Class 'A / B' stairs. Minimum width of Class 'A' ramp. Minimum width of Class 'B' ramp. Standard slope of Class 'B' ramp in percentage. Maximum height between landings for Class 'A' ramp. Maximum height between landings for Class 'B' ramp. Minimum width of ramps of 3 stories or more in height. Minimum width for fire escape for existing stairs. Minimum horizontal dimension of any landing of platform for existing stairs for fire escape. Maximum rise for a fire escape for very small buildings. Maximum height between landings for fire escape for existing stairs. Minimum distance travel to an exit for storage occupancies of high hazard commodities. Class of fire involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and other similar materials. Class of fire involving ordinary combustible materials, such as wood, papers, cloth, rubber, and plastics. 71 cms. 20.5 cms. 7 kgs. 112 cms. 76 cms. 20 61 cms. 91 cms. 25 mm 86.5 cms. 37.8 oC (100 oF) Fire resistance rating Cryogenic 30.50 mts. Assembly Institutional Business Industrial Mercantile 71 cms. 1 1.50 mts. 3.66 mts. 15 mts. 763 cms. 19 cms. 20 cms. 112 cms. 91 cms. 38 mm. 25 mm. 3.70 mts. 112 cms. 112 cms. 76 cms. 10-17% No limit 3.66 mts. 1.20 mts. 55.9 cms. 55.9 cms. 30.5 cms. 3.66 mts. 23 mts. Class D Class A

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A tank, vat or container of flammable or combustible liquid in which articles or materials are immersed for the purpose of coating, finishing, treating or similar processes. An integrated system of under ground or overhead piping or both connected to a source of extinguishing agents or medium and designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards which when actuated by its automatic detecting device, suppresses fire within the area protected. A continuous and unobstructed route of exit from any point in a building to a public way. Minimum distance of an incinerator containing kindled fire or rubbish fire or bonfires. Under what classification of occupancy does museums fall? Under what classification of occupancy does town halls fall? Maximum width of a single door in a doorway. Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. Maximum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. Minimum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. Class III combustible liquids shall mean any liquid having a flash point at how many degrees Celsius? In standard seating, the minimum spacing from back to back. Minimum space from the back of chair to the front of the chair behind. Maximum slope for aisles for public assembly structures. Size of standpipe provided for each stage for public assembly building. Occupant load per person for classrooms. Where exterior corridors or balconies are provided as means of exit, they shall open to the outside and shall be spaced ___ meters apart. (Educational) Minimum dimension of a rescue window for educational occupancies. Maximum height from the floor for a rescue window for educational occupancies. Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in hospitals and nursing homes. Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in residential-custodial care. Any room for sleeping in institutional occupancies if subdivided shall have a maximum area of how many square meters? Includes buildings or groups of building under the same management in which there are more than 15 sleeping accommodations for hire. Includes buildings containing three or more living units independent cooking and bathroom facilities, whether designed as rowhouse, apartment house, tenement, garden apartment, or by any other name. Minimum number of stories of apartment buildings requiring fire alarm system. Minimum number of apartment units requiring fire alarm system. Dip Tank Automatic Fire Suppression System Means of Egress 5.00 mts. Assembly Business 1.22 mts. 22.9 cms. 30.5 cms. 25 cms. 60 oC 0.83 mtr. 30 cms. (1:8) 12.5% 63.5 mm. 1.8 sqm. 76.25 mts. 55 cms. 82 cms. 2.44 mts. 1.83 mts. 465 sqm. Hotel Apartment Buildings

3 12

PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

The third phase of an architect's regular services. Project financing falls under what kind of service of the architect. Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect. The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost aside from his fee for regular design services. What percentage of an architect's work is liability under the civil code. For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee upon submission of the final design. When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as

Contract documents phase Pre-design services Specialized allied services 10% 10% 50% 85%

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

3535317:36 PM11/15/2012117047498.xls.ms_officeSheet2

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prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee. The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering service as an expert witness shall be. The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building. The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million pesos. The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million pesos. In design-build services, the single-point-responsibility of project delivery puts the legal liability for both the design and construction on the. The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how many months from the date of final payment. Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspect of the contract. An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of materials to be used. A price given by a contractor, sub-contractor, material supplier or vendor to furnish materials, labor or both. A statement from the architect confirming the amount of money due the contractor for work accomplished. A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work in accordance with the terms of the contract. An offer to perform the work prescribed in a contract at a specified cost. The fee of the architect for design-build services by administration. A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without provision for substitution. A list of instructions stipulating the manner on which bids are to be prepared. The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner after the expiration of how many months from the final acceptance of the work. The Guarantee Bond is released how many months after the date of final payment. How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of occupancy after final inspection of the project. A statute specifying the period of time within which legal action must be brought for alleged damage or injury. A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statute. A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and in writing or unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged. A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'. A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. The person receiving a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. The person granting a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. Range of the multiplier for Multiple of Direct Personnel Expense. This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work. Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false. A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services. This method of compensation is applied only to pre-design services, supervision work, and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized allied services. This type of compensation is similar to the concept being charged by realtors, developers, and lawyers. For reimbursable expenses, how many kilometers from the Architect's office shall a work be located to allow reimbursable expenses. This method of compensation is frequently used where there is continuing relationship on a series of projects. The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control and supervision

PHP 500.00 12% 6% 8% Architect 3 months General conditions Schedule of material and finishes Quotation Certificate of payment Performance bond Bid 7% Closed specification Instruction to bidders 2 months 12 months / 1 yr 30 days Statute of Limitation Statutory Bond Statute of Frauds Lease Leasehold Lessee Lessor 2-2.5 Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses TRUE Percentage of Construction Cost Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses Percentage of Construction Cost 50 kms. Professional Fee Plus Expenses Architect

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

3535327:36 PM11/15/2012117047498.xls.ms_officeSheet2

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of the ___. Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in duplicate. How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor submit to the Architect? Who shall have the responsibility of securing, but not liable for non-issuance, of the final occupancy permit. True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of establishing the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the owner pays the contractor for such works? Who shall have the responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks? Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification of the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, trenches, pipe work, culvert work, utility lines, and other similar works required by the contract. Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor. Professional fee for the Construction Manager. Four types of Contracts for construction management

Letter of transmittal 3 Contractor TRUE

Owner Contractor

Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road rightof-way? At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail to pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing? What code holds the architect responsible for the building/structure he designed for a certain period of time. What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's personal time is required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.? What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract? What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and entails more paper works and is advantageous to both client and architect. Professional Fee for the Project Manager. If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring the Construction Manager? True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility insofar as design and construction is concerned. His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the owner of many of the anxieties that usually beset , particularly those concerned with forecasting cost and completion dates. In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs? What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various professionals. Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus and years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom? Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding. The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when made out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed. The cashier's check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder, as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into a contract with the owner for the construction of the work, if the contract is awarded to him. Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement and/or modify drawings, specifications, and/or general conditions of the contract. Written or printed description of work to be done describing qualities of material and mode

1-1.5% 1.5-3% Firm Fixed Price Fixed Price Incentive CPIF / CPAF Cost Plus Fixed Fee (1/6) 2% Civil Code Per Diem+Reimb. Expenses Payment Bond Lump Sum / Fixed Fee 2-5% Project Manager TRUE Project Manager

Public / People PD 223 People / Public Bid Bulletin Proposal Proposal Bond

Special Provisions Specifications

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

3535337:36 PM11/15/2012117047498.xls.ms_officeSheet2

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of construction. Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known business address of such individual, firm or corporation. Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract. Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for the intended use. Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite. Means to furnish and install. No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how many percent of the contract has been completed? No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how many percent of the contract price. The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price? How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon completion of the preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase? Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on completed contracts. Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the contractor as temporary facilities for the project. All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within ___ meters shall be done by the ___ at his own expense. If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawings and specifications, what shall be followed? How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect? How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid reason? Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract. True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to act upon any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect. Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract? True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be used and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor. True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed including expenses incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner. True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he takes over the work from the contractor for failure to complete the project. How many days prior to canceling an insurance be given to the owner stipulating the intention to cancel? How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond? How many percent of the contract amount is the Payment Bond? A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his breach. Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial estates, commercial centers, sports complex, resorts, etc. Predecessor of PD 1096 What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning? It is a right enfoeceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation.

Written Notice

Work Install Furnish Provide 50% 65% 30% 30% 2.5 12 sqm. 50 / Contractor Specifications 15 Days 15 Days 90 Days False (30 days) False (15 days) Contractor TRUE

TRUE FALSE 10 days 15% 15% Penalty Clause 5,000 for First 50 Hectares R.A. 6451 PD 1308 Liens

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

3535347:36 PM11/15/2012117047498.xls.ms_officeSheet2

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Minimum basic fee for simple projects. Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations. When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advise, clarification or explanation on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee shall be ___. When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect is compensated ___/ hr. Minimum basic fee for Group 5 Projects (monumental). What is Group 6 Project classification? Minimum Basic fee for housing projects. 6% 150% 200 / hr 500 12% Repetitive Construction 10% of 1st unit 60% 2nd-10th Unit 30% 11th and above Group 3 (Exceptional Character) Group 3 (Exceptional Character) PHP 750.00 Construction Phase Service 5 days 10 days

Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Buildings fall? Under what classification of Project does Stadium fall? Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office. On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go. Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done within how many days after written notice by owner? Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the owner right to remove said work at contractor's exepense and contractor shall pay the owner the expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work? Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___. An area of a city where municipal buildings are grouped. Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any interest in land that is less than a freehold. No person who is not a citizen of the Philippines may take the board exams or practice the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___.

7th day / Notice to Proceed Civic Center Chattel Reciprocity

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP

3535357:36 PM11/15/2012117047498.xls.ms_officeSheet2

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1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRIGGERMAN

by: Reyen C. Buenavista Architect, UAP