1. Which of the following terms describes the antibody classes? A. epitope B. paratope C. isotope D. allotype E. idiotype 2.

Which term describes the changes in antibody structure that occur with each antigenic determinant? A. epitope B. paratope C. isotype D. allotype E. idiotype 3. Where do you find the hinge region on an IgG molecule? A. between VH and CH1 B. between CH1 and CH2 C. between CH2 and CH3 D. between CH3 and CH4 E. between VL and CL 4. Which domains compose the Fc portion of an IgG molecule? A. VH and CH1 B. CH1 and CH2 C. CH2 and CH3 D. VL and CL E. Both A & D 5. Which domains compose the Fab portion of an IgE molecule? A. VH and CH1 B. CH1 and CH2 C. CH2 and CH3 D. VL and CL E. Both A & D 6. Which immunoglobulin is present in the second highest concentration in serum? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD

E. IgE 7. Which immunoglobulin is produced in the greatest amount on a daily basis? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE 8. Which antibody is present in the second highest concentration in secretions? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE 9. Which antibody can participate in ADCC reactions? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE 10. Which antibody is involved in an antiparasite response? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE 11. Which of the following bonds are not involved in antigen-antibody interactions? A. covalent B. ionic C. hydrogen D. hydrophobic E. van der Waals 12. What is the serum isotype that agglutinates cells best? A. IgA B. IgM

C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE 13. How many chromosomes are minimally rearranged to produce an IgG4 with a ? light chain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 14. The clone in the above question receives a signal to undergo switching. What isotype could be produced? A. IgM B. IgG3 C. IgA2 D. IgG2 E. IgG1 15. During B cell development, what is the correct order of chromosome rearrangements? A. ?, K, heavy B. heavy, ?, k C. ?, heavy, k D. heavy, k, ? E. k, heavy, ? 16. The heavy chain rearranges after the cell encounters antigen. A. True B. False C. Can occur either before or after exposure to antigen. 17. During heavy chain rearrangement, which event occurs first? A. VJ rearrangement B. VD rearrangement C. VJD rearrangement D. VC rearrangement E. DJ rearrangement 18. How many rearrangement events are needed to produce a viable heavy chain? A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 19. The variable region rearrangment produces what structure on the antibody molecule? A. CDR1 B. CDR2 C. CDR3 D. Allotypes E. Isotypes (switching) 20. Isotype switching occurs following exposure to antigen. A. True B. False C. Can occur either before or after exposure to antigen 21. Mucous membranes are how effective at preventing microbial invasion when compared to intact skin? A. Just as effective B. 80% effective C. 50% effective D. 25% effective E. Not effective 22. Many bacteria can penetrate intact skin. A. True B. False 23. Which of the following is not a chemical factor of innate immunity? A. stomach acid B. sebum C. lysozyme D. antibody E. complement 24. Which of the following belongs to both innate immunity and acquired (specific) immunity? A. stomach acid B. sebum C. lysozyme D. antibody

E. complement 25. Which of the following is not a symptom of inflammation? A. Rubor B. Calor C. Dollar D. Dolor E. Tumor 26. Which of the following are not phagocytes? A. Macrophages B. Kupffer cells C. Neutrophils D. Basophils E. Eosinophils 27. In which structure do B cells develop in mammals? A. Thymus B. Bursa of Fabricus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Bone Marrow 28. In which structure do T cells mature? A. Thymus B. Bursa of Fabricus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Bone Marrow 29. In which structure are immature T cells produced? A. Thymus B. Bursa of Fabricus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Bone Marrow 30. From which structure do B cells derive their name? A. Thymus B. Bursa of Fabricus

C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Bone Marrow 31. Which of the following is a nonphagocytic cell whose sole purpose appears to be the presentation of antigen to T cells? A. Macrophages B. Dendritic cells C. Neutrophils D. Basophils E. Eosinophils 32. Which of the following structures filter antigens from the interstitial fluid? A. Thymus B. Bursa of Fabricus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Bone Marrow 33. Which of the following structures filters antigens from the blood? A. Thymus B. Bursa of Fabricus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Bone Marrow 34. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? A. Peyers Patches B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. None of the above 35. Which of the following is not a property of a good immunogen? A. size B. foreignness C. chemical complexity D. degradability E. all of the above are properties of a good immunogen 36. What is the minimum practical molecular weight for an immunogen? A. 1000

B. 5000 C. 10,000 D. 100,000 E. There is no minimum 37. What is that portion of an antigen that is bound by an antibody called? A. epitope B. paratope C. isotype D. allotype E. idiotype 38. What is that portion of an antibody that binds an antigen called? A. epitope B. paratope C. isotype D. allotype E. idiotype 39. What is the definition of an Immunogen? A. A substance which can react with products of the immune response. B. A substance which can react with products of the immune response, but cannot elicit an immune response. C. A substance which can cause specific immune unresponsiveness. D. A substance which can elicit an immune response. E. A substance which can suppress the immune response. 40. A substance which increases the immunogenicity of an antigen preparation is called what? A. adjuvant B. hapten C. antigen D. immunogen E. none of the above 41. An example of immunologic cross-reactivity is A. the hapten-carrier effect B. the anti-ABO blood group antibodies C. secretory IgA D. an adjuvant E. none of the above

42. A serum preparation was subjected to electrophoresis. In what fraction would you expect to find antibodies against influenza? A. albumin B. ?globulin C. ?globulin D. ?globulin E. all of the above 43. If you digest IgG with papain, how many Fabs will you obtain per IgG molecule? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 44. If you digest serum IgA with papain, how many Fcs will you obtain per IgA molecule? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 45. How many Fabs are there in a molecule of secretory IgA? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 46. How many domains are there in a light chain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 47. How many paratopes are present in a molecule of secretory IgA? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

D. 4 E. 5 48. How many variable regions are in a paratope? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 49. How many CDRs are there in a variable region? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 50. How many domains are in the constant region of an IgG molecule? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 51. Which of the following is mediated solely by antibodies? A. hyperacute rejection B. acute rejection C. chronic rejection D. All of the above are mediated by antibodies 52. Maternal antibody circulating in a neonate is an example of which type of immunity? A. passive/natural B. passive/induced C. active/natural D. active/induced 53. Rabies vaccination is an example of which type of immunity? A. passive/natural B. passive/induced C. active/natural

D. active/induced 54. An individual has blood group A, is Rh+, and is secretor negative. What is his/her Lewis phenotype? A. Lea B. Leb C. Lec D. Impossible to determine from the information presented. 55. Transplanting a kidney between brother and sister is an example of which type of grafts? A. autograft B. syngraft C. allograft D. xenograft E. sibograft 56. Currently, vaccines are good at inducing IgG mediated immunity, but poor in inducing mucosal immunity? A. True B. False 57. The response against tuberculosis is almost entirely humoral in nature. A. True B. False 58. Nursing is an example of which category of acquired immunity? A. passive/natural B. passive/induced C. active/natural D. active/induced 59. Kell and Duffy are the names of two additional sets blood group antigens. A. True B. False 60. Tolerance via clonal deletion occurs in the thymus. A. True B. False 61. In which of the following molecules do you NOT find beta-2 microglobulin? A. HLA-A

B. HLA-B C. HLA-DR D. HLA-C E. All of the above contain beta-2 microglobulin. 62. How many different class I MHC molecules are expressed on a human cell? (Assume heterozygosity at all positions.) A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 6 E. 8 63. On which of the following cell types would you expect to find HLA-DQ? A. myocytes B. hepatocytes C. B cells D. Epithelium E. Fibroblasts 64. To which type of cell do the class III MHC molecules present antigens? A. TH B. CTLs C. B cells D. Macrophages E. None of the above 65. A hepatocyte is infected by Hepatitis A virus. The hepatocyte will present viral antigens in the context of which class of HLA? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Both class I and class II E. All three classes 66. A passing, nave B cell binds to a single virus of Hepatitis A with its surface antibody. Which class of HLA will the B cell use to present viral antigens? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Both class I and class II

E. All three classes 67. In the above question, the B cell must wait for a signal form a T cell before proliferating. This signal is A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-5 E. IL-8 68. What percentage of circulating T cells bear the ? / ? TCR? A. 1% B. 15% C. 50% D. 95% E. none 69. Which of the following TCR subunits undergo light chain like rearrangements? A. ? and ? B. ? and ? C. ? and ? D. ? and ? E. ? and ? 70. Which of the following TCR subunits may undergo a VDJ rearrangement? A. ? and ? B. ? and ? C. ? and ? D. ? and ? E. none of the above 71. The most abundant TCR is A. ?/? B. ?/? C. ?/? D. ?/? E. ?/? 72. The presence of CD4 on the surface of a T cell means that A. the T cell recognize antigens associated with class I MHC.

B. the T cell recognize antigens associated with class II MHC. C. the T cell recognize antigens associated with class III MHC. D. The T cell is a CTL. E. None of the above. 73. Which of the following cell surface molecules is associated with signal transduction? A. CD3 B. CD4 C. CD8 D. LPA-1 E. CD18 74. During thymic education, T cell that do not bind to host HLA are removed by A. positive selection B. negative selection C. both positive and negative selection D. neither positive nor negative selection. This is not the function of the thymus. E. an unknown mechanism 75. A macrophage engulfs a bacterium and presents the bacterial antigens to the T cell in the context of which MHC molecule? A. class I B. class II C. class III D. both class I and class II E. all three classes 76. In the above question the second signal for the T cell is A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-5 E. IL-8 77. During thymic education, T cell that binds host HLA too strongly are removed by A. positive selection B. negative selection C. both positive and negative selection D. neither positive nor negative selection. This is not the function of the thymus. E. an unknown mechanism

78. Which of the following is not involved in Cell Mediated Immunity? A. B cells B. TH1 C. CTLs D. Macrophages E. All of the above 79. Removal of virus infected cells is preformed by A. cell mediated immunity B. humoral immunity C. innate immunity D. both A and B 80. Preventing the spread of virus to uninfected cells is accomplished via A. cell mediated immunity B. humoral immunity C. innate immunity D. both A and B 81. Which of the following is not a part of humoral immunity? A. ADCC B. Specific complement activation C. CTLs D. Phagocytosis E. Virus neutralization 82. CTLs usually recognize antigen presented in which context? A. class I B. class II C. class III D. both class I and class II E. all three classes 83. During the primary response to antigen, the first antibody produced is A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. All of the above depending on the nature of the antigen

84. During the secondary response, the greatest quantity of antibody produced is A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. All of the above depending on the nature of the antigen 85. The reason the secondary response is greater than the primary response is the presence of memory cells. A. True B. False 86. In the alternate complement pathway, what is the protein that is activated by C5? A. C3 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6 E. C1 87. In the classical complement pathway, antibody is bound to which factor? A. C3 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6 E. C1 88. Which of the following products of the complement cascade is an anaphylatoxin? A. C1q B. C2b C. C3b D. C5a E. C4b 89. Which is more important during a primary immune response? A. alternative complement pathway B. classical complement pathway C. both alternative and classical pathways D. complement is not active during a secondary immune response, only primary responses. 90. During a secondary immune response, which complement pathway is activated?

A. alternative complement pathway B. classical complement pathway C. both alternative and classical pathways D. complement is not active during a secondary immune response, only primary responses. 91. Which of the following is a primary immunodeficiency? A. AIDS B. Alcoholism C. Measles D. CID E. Rubella 92. Which of the following affects primarily boys? A. Nezelofs syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. CID D. Chedick-Higashi syndrome E. DiGeorges syndrome 93. Which of the following is the most frequently observed immune deficiency? A. Nezelofs syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. IgA deficiency D. Hyper-IgM syndrome E. DiGeorges syndrome 94. Which of the following conditions is thought to arise from a failure of VDJ rearrangement? A. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia B. x-linked infantile hypogammaglobulinemia C. DiGeorges syndrome D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome E. Chronic granulomatous disease 95. Which of the following results from a dysfunction in the respiratory burst? A. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia B. x-linked infantile hypogammaglobulinemia C. DiGeorges syndrome D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome E. Chronic granulomatous disease

96. Individuals with a deficiency of C3 of ten present with which clinical disease? A. Graves disease B. Hashimotos thyroiditis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Multiple sclerosis 97. Which is caused by an autoantibody against thyroid tissue? A. Graves disease B. Hashimotos thyroiditis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Multiple sclerosis 98. Which of the following is due to a type III hypersensitivity- like mechanism? A. Graves disease B. Hashimotos thyroiditis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Multiple sclerosis 99. Which of the following is not antibody mediated? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity E. Type V hypersensitivity 100. Erythroblastosis fetalis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity E. Type V hypersensitivity 101. Antibodies subjected to an electrophoretic field migrate primarily as A. albumin B. ? globulin C. ? globulin

D. ? globulin E. ? globulin 102. If a 7S antibody is treated with papain, what is the result? A. 1 Fab and 2 Fc fragments B. 1 Fab2 and 2 Fc fragments C. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragments D. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments E. 1 Fab2 and 1 Fc fragments 103. The IgA in mammalian milk consists, predominately, of which of the following? A. 2 heavy and 2 light chains B. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains and 1 J chain C. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains, 1 J chain, and 1 secretory component D. 10 heavy chains, 10 light chains, and 1 J chain E. 1 heavy chain and 1 light chain 104. IgG from the interstitial spaces consists, predominately, of which of the following? A. 2 heavy and 2 light chains B. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains and 1 J chain C. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains, 1 J chain, and 1 secretory component D. 10 heavy chains, 10 light chains, and 1 J chain E. 1 heavy chain and 1 light chain 105. How many paratopes doe IgM contain? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10 106. Serum IgM consists, predominately, of which of the following? A. 2 heavy and 2 light chains B. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains and 1 J chain C. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains, 1 J chain, and 1 secretory component D. 10 heavy chains, 10 light chains, and 1 J chain E. 1 heavy chain and 1 light chain 107. Serum IgA consists, predominately, of which of the following? A. 2 heavy and 2 light chains

B. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains and 1 J chain C. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains, 1 J chain, and 1 secretory component D. 10 heavy chains, 10 light chains, and 1 J chain E. 1 heavy chain and 1 light chain 108. A minority of serum IgA is composed of which of the following? A. 2 heavy and 2 light chains B. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains and 1 J chain C. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains, 1 J chain, and 1 secretory component D. 10 heavy chains, 10 light chains, and 1 J chain E. 1 heavy chain and 1 light chain 109. How many paratopes does IgE contain? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10 110. Which of the following is present is the highest concentration in interstitial(extravascular) fluid? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 111. Which of the following has the longest half-life? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 112. Which of the following is best at activating (fixing) complement? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE

113. Which of the following is thought to play only a regulatory role? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 114. Which of the following is secreted into saliva in the greatest amount? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 115. Which of the following is the largest based on size (molecular weight)? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 116. Which portion of an IgG molecule interacts with complement? A. V region B. CH1 C. CH2 D. CH3 E. C and D 117. Which of the following tests is used in blood typing? A. hemagglutination B. passive agglutination C. precipitation D. ELISA E. Radial Immunodiffusion (RID) 118. Which of the following tests is most sensitive? A. agglutination B. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) C. immunoelectrophoresis D. ELISA

E. Radial Immunodiffusion (RID) 119. Which is rearranged first during B cell development? A. VJ B. VD C. DJ D. VC E. There is no particular order. 120. The J gene segment in antibody genes produces which structure in the antibody? A. CDR1 B. CDR2 C. CDR3 D. CDR4 E. CDR5 121. Which of the following is true of the k light chain genes? A. There are multiple C genes. B. There are many more J segments than V segments. C. There are many more D segments than J segments. D. There are many more V segments than J segments. E. The V segments from the k genes may become associated with the ? constant region genes. 122. Which of the following is true of the ? light chain genes? A. There are multiple C genes. B. There are many more J segments than V segments. C. There are many more D segments than J segments. D. There are many more V segments than J segments. E. The V segments from the k genes may become associated with the ? constant region genes. 123. How many CDRs are present in a secretory IgA molecule? A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24 E. 60 124. A B-cell clone, secreting IgG4 with a ? light chain, receives a signal to undergo isotype switching. What are the possible isotypes that could be produced?

A. IgA2 B. IgA1 C. IgG2 D. IgM E. IgG3 125. In the above question what light chain will be expressed on the new antibody product? A. ? B. ? C. either ? or ? D. both ? and ? E. ? 126. On the surface of a nave B cell which of the following isotypes could be found? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. Both C and D 127. Which of the following is a class I molecule? A. HLA-DP B. HLA-DQ C. HLA-DR D. HLA-C E. HLA-D 128. A muscle cell with a virus replicating inside would present viral antigens on A. class II molecules B. class III molecules C. HLA-D D. HLA-C E. All of the above 129. The muscle cell in the above question would present the viral antigens, primarily, to which of the following cells? A. macrophages B. B cells C. CD8 positive T cells D. CD4 positive T cells

E. Both B and C 130. A macrophage ingests a virus. The macrophage would present viral antigens on which of the following molecules? A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. HLA-D E. HLA-E 131. The macrophage in the above question would present the viral antigens to which of the following cells? A. macrophages B. B cells C. CD8 positive T cells D. CD4 positive T cells E. Both B and C 132. A naive B cell binds to a virus with its surface antibody. The B cell would present the viral antigens on which of the following HLA molecules? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. None of the above 133. The B cell in the above question would present the viral antigens to which of the following cells? A. macrophages B. B cells C. CD8 positive T cells D. CD4 positive T cells E. Both B and C 134. Which of the following TCRs on T cells are found in the highest concentrations in circulation? A. ?/? B. ?/? C. ?/? D. ?/? E. ?/?

135. Thymocytes die if they do not bind to self HLA. This phenomenon is called what? A. negative selection B. positive selection C. HLA selection D. None of the above 136. The organ(s) in which the process in the previous question occurs is (are) the A. bone marrow B. lymph nodes C. Peyers patches D. thymus E. Bursa of Fabricius 137. In the last 2 questions, the portion of this organ where this event occurs is the A. medulla B. cortex C. zona pellucida D. capsule 138. Which of the following cells is not an APC (antigen presenting cell)? A. macrophages B. PMNs C. dendritic cells D. B cells E. All of the above are APCs 139. A naive B cell binds an antigen with its surface antibody. Before this B cell can differentiate into an antibody producing cell (plasma cell), it must receive a second signal from where? A. TH cell B. macrophage C. CTL D. another B cell E. either A or B 140. Thymocytes die if they do bind too strongly to self HLA. This phenomenon is called what? A. negative selection B. positive selection C. HLA selection D. none of the above

141. The organ(s) in which the process in the previous question occurs is (are) the A. bone marrow B. lymph nodes C. Peyers patches D. thymus E. Bursa of Fabricius 142. In the last 2 questions, the portion of this organ where this event occurs is the A. medulla B. cortex C. zona pellucida D. capsule 143. How long does it take to mount an immune response to an antigen the first time it is encountered? A. 1 to 2 weeks B. 1 to 24 hours C. 1 month D. 3 weeks E. None of the above 144. What is the first antibody produced in a primary response? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 145. How long does it take to mount an immune response to an antigen the third time it is encountered? A. 1 to 2 weeks B. 1 to 24 hours C. 1 month D. 3 weeks E. None of the above 146. What happens to the level of IgG during a secondary response when compared with its level during the primary response? A. increases B. decreases

C. remains virtually the same 147. What happens to the level of IgM during a secondary response when compared with its level during the primary response? A. increases B. decreases C. remains virtually the same 148. During a humoral immune response, against a given antigen, what happens to the affinity (avidity) of the antibody population? A. increases B. decreases C. remains virtually the same 149. The alternative and classical pathways join at A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C4 E. C5 150. Which of the following is not a part of the membrane attack complex of complement? A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C4 E. C5 151. Which of the following is an immunodeficiency in humoral immunity? A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Wieskott-Aldrich syndrome C. chronic granulomatous disease D. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the above 152. Which of the following is a result of thymic aplasia? A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Wieskott-Aldrich syndrome C. chronic granulomatous disease D. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the above

153. Young boys are mostly affected by which of the following? A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Wieskott-Aldrich syndrome C. chronic granulomatous disease D. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the above 154. Which of the following is often caused by a defect in the enzyme myeloperoxidase? A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Wieskott-Aldrich syndrome C. chronic granulomatous disease D. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the above 155. Which of the following does not involve antibody? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 156. Which of the following involves complement? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 157. A patient is air-lifted into your hospital emergency room. As the attending physician, you treat the patent for a rattlesnake bite. Two weeks later the patient developsglomerulonephritis, fever, arthritis and a rash. What is your diagnosis? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 158. Another patient enters your emergency room. This patient has difficulty breathing (asthma) and has low blood pressure (hypotensive). Upon physical examination, you discover an insect bite/sting. The patient is wearing a bracelet that says they are allergic to bee venom. What is your diagnosis?

A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 159. Myasthenia gravis has is an autoimmune disease with a mechanism of action similar towhich of the following? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 160. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is an autoimmune disease with a mechanism of action similar to which of the following? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 161. Cyclosporine inhibits the primary immune response. Which cell does it inhibit? A. TH cell B. macrophage C. CTL D. B cell E. TS 162. Nursing is an example of which type of immunity? A. passive/natural B. active/natural C. passive/induced D. active/induced 163. The administration of RhoGam to an Rh negative mother who has just given birth to an Rh positive daughter is an example of which of the following? A. passive/natural B. active/natural C. passive/induced D. active/induced

164. A patient comes into your office with a rash covering most of their body but no other symptoms of disease. Upon questioning the patient, you find that she has recently changed brands of soap. What is your diagnosis? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 165. Another of your patients suffered a burn on their arm during a car accident. You remove some skin form their rump and suture it in place over the burned area. This is an example of which of the following transplants? A. autograft B. syngraft C. allograft D. xenograft E. none of the above 166. A close family friend has a serious heart murmur. Pig heart valves are used to replace the damaged valve. This is an example of which of the following transplants? A. autograft B. syngraft C. allograft D. xenograft E. none of the above 167. A kidney graft has failed after 10 years. This was most likely caused by A. chronic rejection B. hyperacute rejection C. acute rejection D. all of the above 168. One of your patients received a kidney from their identical twin. This is an example of which of the following? A. autograft B. syngraft C. allograft D. xenograft E. none of the above

169. In which of the following do antibodies bind to the surface of cells, causing their destruction? A. Type I Hypersensitivity B. Type II Hypersensitivity C. Type III Hypersensitivity D. Type IV Hypersensitivity E. Both B and C 170. Which of th following can be caused by an adenosine deaminase deficiency? A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Hyper-IgM syndrome C. IgA deficiency D. Hyper-IgM syndrome E. CID 171. Forty percent of patients with Ataxia Telangiectasia have this condition. A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Hyper-IgM syndrome C. IgA deficiency D. Hyper-IgM syndrome E. CID 172. A B cell clone, secreting IgG2 with a ? light chain, receives a signal to undergo isotype switching. What are the possible isotypes that could not be produced? A. IgA2 B. IgA1 C. IgG4 D. IgE E. None of the above 173. A B cell clone in a lymph node has only IgM on its surface (no IgD), this is probably what type of cell? A. defective B. nave C. a pre-B cell D. memory B cell E. none of the above 174. Which of the following is not part of innate immunity? A. skin B. mucous membranes

C. CTLs D. lysozyme E. phagocytosis 175. Which of the following is a symptom of inflammation? A. Chloror B. Stupor C. Dolor D. Valor E. Turpor 176. Which of the following does not occur as a result of an inflammatory response? A. vasodilation B. histamine release C. release of kinins D. repair of damaged tissue E. all of the above are results of an inflammatory response 177. Which of the following is not involved in hematopoiesis? A. multi-CSF (IL-3) B. GM -CSF C. G-CSF D. IL-25 E. M-CSF 178. Erythropoietin induces the development of which of the following? A. erythrocytes B. macrophages C. T cells D. B cells E. PMNs 179. Which of the following is not a phagocyte? A. monocyte B. macrophage C. basophil D. eosinophil E. neutrophil 180. Which of the following is not a mononuclear cell?

A. TH cell B. PMN C. CTL D. B cell E. macrophage 181. Which of the following is not an organ of the immune system? A. lymph nodes B. spleen C. thymus D. liver E. Peyers patches 182. Which of the following does a nude mouse lack? A. lymph nodes B. spleen C. thymus D. liver E. Peyers patches 183. Which of the following is not a chemical factor in your innate immunity? A. sebum B. low pH C. high pH D. lysozyme E. All of the above are chemical factors involved in innate immunity 184. Which of the following is the definition of an immunogen? A. A substance which can react with products of the immune system B. A substance which can elicit an immune response C. A substance which can react with antibody, but not with T cells D. An antigen which cannot elicit an immune response alone E. A substance which can react with T cells, but not with antibody 185. Which of the following is the definition of a hapten? A. A substance which can react with products of the immune system B. A substance which can elicit an immune response C. A substance which can react with antibody, but not with T cells D. An antigen which cannot elicit an immune response alone E. A substance which can react with T cells, but not with antibody

186. Which of the following is not a property of a good immunogen? A. shape B. size C. chemical complexity D. degradability E. foreignness 187. How big is a typical epitope recognized by a B cell? A. 2-3 amino acids B. 6-7 amino acids C. 15-20 amino acids D. 10-11 amino acids E. There is no set size 188. In general, the epitopes recognized by B cells are A. on the surface of the protein or carbohydrate B. usually hydrophilic in nature C. often sequential amino acids or carbohydrate residues D. often nonsequential amino acids or carbohydrate residues E. All of the above 189. The epitopes recognized by T cells F. on the surface of the protein or carbohydrate G. usually hydrophilic in nature H. often sequential amino acids or carbohydrate residues I. often nonsequential amino acids or carbohydrate residues J. All of the above except D 190. Which of the following classes of biomolecules make the best immunogens? A. lipids B. nucleic acids C. proteins D. steroids E. all of the above 191. Some patients become allergic to some drugs (i.e., penicillin) because the drug is behaving as A. an immunogen B. an antigen C. a hapten

D. A and B E. all of the above 192. The ABO transfusion reaction due to A. the presence of cross-reacting antibodies originally generated against intestinal flora B. previous transfusions C. unsafe sex D. unsterile procedures during the handling of the blood E. none of the above 193. Proteins which are soluble in water are called what? A. albumins B. globulins C. immunoglobulins D. serum proteins E. all of the above 194. The fact that the antibody gene from only one chromosome is expressed is termed what? A. allelic exclusion B. cross-reactivity C. anti-idiotype D. inflammation E. thymectomy 195. Which of the following is not a function of IgG? A. crosses the placenta B. neutralizes toxins C. secreted into the gut lumen D. binds to motility structures E. facilitate phagocytosis 196. In the radial immunodiffusion test (RID), the diameter of the precipitin ring is dependent upon what? A. concentration of Ab in the agar B. concentration of Ag in the well C. the size of the well D. the age of the agar E. none of the above . In the double immunodiffusion test (Ouchterlony) two precipitin bands meet and form an

"X" What does this mean? A. identity B. partial identity C. nonidentity D. photoidentity E. bad test 198. In the ELISA test, the color is produced by A. a radioactive compound B. an enzyme attached to the well C. an enzyme attached to the Ag D. the enzymatic breakdown of protein E. an enzyme attached to an antibody 199. Regarding a test for suspected Erythroblastosis Fetalis (EBF), the mothers serum is added to the infants cells. No agglutination occurs. What is your conclusion? A. EBF is not the cause of the infants condition B. The test was performed improperly C. You cannot conclude anything until the Coombs reagent is added D. This is a positive test for EBF 200. Which of the following immunodeficiency conditions is caused by a thymus insufficiency? A. DiGeorges syndrome B. Wieskott-Aldrich syndrome C. chronic granulomatous disease D. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the above