ECA (R10) April 2012 PDF

Code No: R22043
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS (Com. to ECE, EIE)
SET - 1
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ 1.
Max. Marks: 75
a) Perform the small signal analysis of CS Amplifier and explain the characteristics with the help of relevant graphs. b) For the emitter follower with Rs = 1 K and RL = 5 K , determine the various characteristics parameters by assuming h-parameters as hfe = 75, hie = 1.1K, hoe = 25 A/v. (7M+8M)
2.
a) Enumerate the effects of negative feedback on the various characteristics of the amplifier. b) The open loop voltage gain of the amplifier of an amplifier is 50. Its input impedance is 1k . What will be the input impedance where a negative feedback of 10% is applied to the amplifier? (8M+7M)
3.
a) Draw the circuit of Hartley oscillator and explain its working. Derive the expressions for frequency of oscillation and condition for starting of oscillation. b) A crystal has the following parameters: L=0.33 H, Cs=0.0655 pF, Cp=1.0pF and R=5.5K . (10M+5M)
Find the series resonant frequency and Q-factor of the crystal.
4.
a) Perform the analysis of two stage RC Coupled JFET-CS Amplifier circuit. b) Draw and explain the circuit diagram of a RC Coupled amplifier. Derive the expression for voltage gain of the amplifier. (7M+8M)
5.
a) Derive the expressions for resistive parameters of Hybrid- model in terms of low frequency h-parameters. b) Following measurements of a certain transistor are available at room temperature and with Ic = 5 mA, VCE=10V, hfe = 100, hie = 600 . [Aie] = 10 at 10MHz. Cc = 3pF. Calculate f, fT, Ce, rbe and rbb. 1 of 2 (8M+7M)
Code No: R22043 6.
R10
SET - 1
a) Show that class B push pull amplifiers exhibit half wave symmetry. b) A power transistor is to be used as a class A transformer coupled amplifier and is to deliver a maximum of 5W to a 4 ohm load. Operating point is adjusted for symmetrical clipping with collector supply voltage of 20V. Assume ideal characteristics with Vmin = 0 V. Calculate. i) Transformer turns ratio. ii) Peak collector current iii) Operating point values of ICQ and VCEQ. iv) Power dissipation rating of transistor. v) Collector circuit efficiency. (7M+8M)
7.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of a double-tuned amplifier and explain different stages of simplification of its equivalent circuit. b) A circuit is resonant at 455 kHz and has a 10 kHz bandwidth. The inductive reactance is 1255 . What is the parallel impedance of the circuit at resonance? (8M+7M)
8.
a) Draw the circuit and explain how short circuit over load protection is provided in Voltage Regulators circuits. b) Design a zener-shunt regulator with the specifications using a zener diode with Vz = 10 V. Input supply voltage varies from 15V to 25V and the load current varies between 0 and 15 mA. Also determine the line and load regulation. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) With the help of necessary equations, discuss the variations of Av, AI, Ri, Ro, Ap with RS and RL in common Emitter configuration. b) For the emitter follower with Rs = 1 K and RL = 5 K Assume hfe = 75, hie = 1.1K, hoe = 25 A/v calculate Ai, Ri, Av, Avs and Ro. (7M+8M)
2.
a) What are the different types of negative feedback? Explain how the input and output impedances of an amplifier are affected by the different types of negative feedback. b) The open loop gain of an amplifier is 50Db. A negative feedback of feedback factor 0.004 is applied to it. If the open loop gain is thereby reduced by 10% find the change in the overall gain. c) How does negative feedback reduce distortion in an amplifier? (7M+5M+3M)
3.
a) Derive the expression for the frequency of oscillation and the minimum gain required for sustained oscillations of the RC phase shift oscillator using BJT. b) Draw the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal. What makes the quartz produce stable oscillations? (10M+5M)
4.
a) Draw the circuit for Darlington pair amplifier and derive the expressions for AI, Av, Ri and Ro. b) Three identical non-interacting amplifier stages are cascaded with an overall gain of 0.3dB down at 50 kHz compared to mid-band. Calculate the upper cutoff frequency of the individual stages. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R22043 5.
R10
SET - 2
a) Explain about Hybrid- capacitances. How do Hybrid- parameters vary with temperature? b) The following low-frequency parameters are available for a transistor at ICQ = 5 mA hie = 1K, hre = 10-4 hfe = 100 Cob = 2 pF hoe = 4 x 10-5 A/V fT = 10 MHz (7M+8M)
Compute the values of hybrid- parameters at room temperature.
6.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of class-B push pull amplifier and explain the operation. b) Explain Class D and Class S power amplifiers. Mention their salient features and applications. (8M+7M)
7.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of a double-tuned amplifier and explain its working and derive the expression for I2 max. b) A single-tuned class A transformer-coupled RF amplifier has the following parameters: Transconductance, gm of the transistor = 5mA/V Primary inductance = 100 H Secondary inductance = 50 H Coefficient of coupling = 0.01 Primary resistance = 10 Secondary resistance = 8 The primary is tuned with a 100 pF capacitor and the secondary is loaded by a 10K resistance. Find: The resonant frequency The effective Q of the tuned circuit The 3 dB bandwidth Assume ro of the transistor to be very large. (7M+8M)
8.
a) Define the terms i) Load Regulation ii) Line Regulation iii) Ripple Rejection and iv) Temperature Stability pertaining to Voltage Regulator ICs. b) 7824 regulator IC can deliver a maximum current of 700 mA. Design a circuit using same IC to deliver a current of 3.0 A. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 3
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Max. Marks: 75
1.
a) Perform the small signal analysis of CD Amplifier and explain the characteristics with the help of relevant graphs. b) Consider a single stage CE amplifier with Rs = 1K , Re = 50 K, R2 = 2K, Rc = 1K, RL = 1.2K, hfe = 50, hoe = hre = 0. hie = 1.1K. Find Ai, Ro, Av and power gain using approximate analysis. (7M+8M)
2.
a) Explain the general characteristics of negative feedback amplifiers. b) A single stage CE amplifier has a Voltage gain of 600 without feedback. When feedback is employed, its gain reduces to 50. Calculate the percentage of the output which is fed back to the input. (8M+7M)
3.
a) Explain the working of Wien Bridge Oscillator using BJT. Also derive the expression for the frequency of Oscillation. b) The ac equivalent circuit of a Crystal has the Values: L=3 H, CS=0.005pF, R= 2K Cm=10 pF. Determine the series and parallel resonant frequencies of the Crystal. and
(8M+7M)
4.
a) Perform the analysis of Boot-Strapped emitter follower Circuit. b) Design a two-stage CE-CE amplifier for the given data. hfe1=hfe2=180, RL=1K IE1=IE2=1mA, S=3, VCC=12V, f=100Hz. Assume identical transistors. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 3
5.
a) Draw the equivalent circuit of hybrid- model and derive the expressions for Hybrid- impedances in terms of low frequency h-parameters. b) The following low-frequency parameters are available for a transistor at IC =10 mA, VCE=10V and at room temperature hie = 500 hfe = 100 hoe = 10-5 A/V hre = 10-4 (8M+7M) At the same Operating point, fT=50 MHz and Cob = 3 pF Compute the values of all the hybrid- parameters.
6.
a) Deduce the expression which gives the relationship between maximum collector dissipation and maximum power output of class-B push pull amplifier. b) Write short notes on Heat Sinks used in power amplifiers and also give the classification. (8M+7M)
7.
a) Derive the expression for the gain of a single-tuned capacitance coupled amplifier. Discuss about its Selectivity. b) A parallel resonant circuit comprises of an inductor (having inductance of 1mH and resistance of 10 ) and a parallel capacitor of 100 pF. Calculate: i) Resonant frequency, ignoring the resistance. ii) Resonant frequency, considering the resistance. iii) Q-factor. iv) Impedance at resonant frequency. (7M+8M)
8.
a) Draw the circuit for series type voltage regulator and explain its working. b) A series regulator has stability factor of 6*10-3 and output resistance of 10-4 ohms. Calculate the change in output voltage when i) Unregulated input d.c voltage varies by 10V. ii) Load current varies by 250mA. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 4
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 75
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ a) Perform the small signal analysis of CG Amplifier and explain the characteristics with the help of relevant graphs. b) Consider a single stage CE amplifier with Rs = 1K , Re = 50 K, R2 = 2K, Rc = 1K, RL = 1.2K, hfe = 50, hoe = hre = 0. hie = 1.1K. Determine Ai, Ro, Av and power gain using exact method of Analysis. (7M+8M)
2.
a) Explain the concept of feedback and draw the topologies of various feedback amplifiers. b) Calculate the voltage gain, input impedance and output impedance of a voltage series feedback amplifier having an open-loop gain A=300, Ri=1.5K , Ro=50K and = -1/20. (7M+8M)
3.
a) Perform the Generalized analysis of LC oscillators with suitable block diagram and Obtain the circuit diagrams of Hartley and Colpitts oscillators. b) Design a RC phase-shift oscillator, which has the following specifications: hfe=200, IE=1.5mA, S=8, VCC=12V and oscillation frequency expected is 500Hz. (8M+7M)
4.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of Cascode-transistor amplifier Circuit and analyze its performance. b) Draw the circuit diagram for differential amplifier and perform the analysis with its equivalent circuit. (8M+7M)
5.
a) Explain the concept of CE short circuit current gain with the help of equivalent circuit. b) Following measurements of a certain transistor are available at room temperature and with Ic = 5 mA, hfe = 100, hie = 0.62 K . Short circuit current gain = Ais = 10 at 10MHz. Cbc = 3pF. Calculate fT and f. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 4
6.
a) Derive the expression for maximum value of conversion efficiency of Class A Power amplifier. b) Ideal class B transformer-coupled audio amplifier is fed from 20 V DC. Transformer ratio is Np Ns = 4 . A 4 ohm speaker is connected to load. Calculate:
i) Maximum signal power delivered to load. ii) Power dissipation rating to each transistor. iii) Maximum excitation current at input if transfer characteristic is linear (hfe = 20) (7M+8M)
7.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of double-tuned amplifier and simplify the same with its equivalent circuit. b) Draw the circuit for single tuned capacitive coupled amplifier and explain its working. Derive the expression for (A/Areso) . (7M+8M)
8.
a) Define different performance parameters of a voltage regulator and explain their importance. b) Design a voltage regulator using IC 723 to provide an output voltage of 5 volts at 1.5A. Fold back current limiting is to be provided so that knee current is 1.6A, short circuit current is 300mA and input voltage is 13 volts. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22031
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 MECHANICS OF SOLIDS (Com. to ME, AME, MM)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) Draw a typical stress-strain curve for mild steel, indicate salient point and define them b) Compute the stresses at various sections and the total elongation of the bar shown in Figure1. L1 = 4.0 m, L2 = 3.0 m, L3 = 2.0 m, A1 = 100 mm2, A2 = 400 mm2 and A3 = 200 mm2. Es = 2.05 X 105 N/mm2.
2.
Draw the bending moment and shear force diagram for the beam loaded as shown in Figure 2. Mark the values at the salient points. Determine the point of contra flexure also.
3.
Compare the moment carrying capacity of the section given in Figure 3 with equivalent section of the same area but i) Square section ii) Rectangular section with depth twice the width and iii) A circular section.
1 of 3
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 1
4.
The unsymmetric I-section shown in Figure 4 is the cross-section of a beam, which is subjected to a shear force of 100 kN. Draw the shear stress variation diagram across the depth.
5.
Determine the forces in the members FH, HG and GI in the truss shown in Figure 5. Each load is 10 kN and all triangles are equilateral with sides 4 m.
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 1
6.
A girder rests on two supports 5 m apart, and carries a distributed load of 60 kN, 2 m from one support. Find the ratio of maximum deflection to deflection under load. Calculate the increase in volume of a spherical shell of 1 m diameter 1 cm thick, when it is subjected to internal pressure of 2 N/mm2, E = 2.1 x 106 N/mm2 and poisons ratio is 0.3. The maximum stress permitted in a thick cylinder of internal diameter and external radii 20 cm and 30 cm respectively is 15.5 N/mm2. If the external pressure is 4 N/mm2, find the internal pressure that can be applied. Plot the curves showing the variation of hoop and radial stresses through the material. What will be the change in thickness of the cylinder? E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 and = 0.3.
7.
8.
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Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) The Poissons ratio of a material as 0.3 and its youngs modulus value is 2.1 x 105 N/mm2. What is the value of shear modulus? b) A steel rod of 20 mm diameter passes centrally through a tight copper tube of external diameter 40 mm. The tube is closed with the help of the rigid washers of negligible thickness and nuts threaded on the rod. The nuts are tightened till the compressive load on the tube is 50 kN. Determine the stresses in the rod and the tube, when the temperature of the assembly falls by 500C. Take Es = 200 GN/mm2, Ec = 100 GN/mm2, s = 12 x 10-6 per 0C, c = 18 x 10-6 per 0 C. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram of the beam shown in Figure 1. Mark the values at the salient points.
2.
3.
A symmetric I-section of size 200 mm 500 mm, 15 mm thick is strengthened with 300mm 20 mm rectangular plate on top flange as shown is Figure 2. If permissible stress in the material is 150 N/mm2, determine how much concentrated load the beam of this section can carry at centre of 6 m span. Given ends of beam are simply supported.
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Code No: R22031 4.
R10
SET - 2
A beam has cross-section as shown in Figure 3. If the shear force acting on this is 50 kN, draw the shear stress distribution diagram across the depth.
5.
Find the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Figure 4 suing method of joints.
6.
A uniform circular bar of diameter, d, and length, l, extends an amount, e, under tensile pull, P, Show that the maximum deflection of the bar when it is used as beam simply supported at its
wel 2 . Find the ratio of /e if l = 75d and 3Pd 2 the maximum bending stress due to W is equal to the tensile stress under the pull, P.
ends and carrying a central load, W, is given by =
7.
A thin cylinder, 5 cm internal diameter and 1 mm wall thickness is closed at its end. And subjected to an internal pressure of 1 N/mm2. Compute the longitudinal and hoop stress in the cylinder. A compound cylinder is formed by shrinkage one cylinder to another. The internal and external radii of the compound cylinder are 15 cm and 24 cm respectively. All the junction radius is 21 cm. If after shrinkage on the radial pressure at the common surface is 5 N/mm2. Calculate the initial stress across the section of the inner and outer cylinder. If the compound cylinder is subjected to an internal pressure of 80 N/mm2, calculate the flexural stress induced. 2 of 2
8.
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 3
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 75
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ a) A bar of uniform thicknesst tapers uniformly from a width b1 at one end to b2 at the other end in a length L. Find the expression for its extension under an axial pull P. b) Tension test was conducted on a specimen and the following readings were recorded. Diameter = 25 mm, Gauge length of extensometer = 200 mm Least count of extensometer = 0.001 mm, at a load of 30 kN, extensometer reading = 60 At a load of 50 kN, extensometer reading = 100, Yield load = 160 kN Maximum load = 205 kN, Diameter neck = 17 mm Final extension over 125 mm original length = 150 mm Find Youngs Modulus, yield stress, ultimate stress, percentage elongation and percentage reduction in area. Draw BM and SF diagrams for the beam shown in Fig. 1, indicating the values at all salient points.
2.
3.
The cross-section of a cast iron beam is as shown in Figure 2. The top flange is in compression and bottom flange is in tension. Permissible stress in tension is 30 N/mm2 and its value in compression is 90 N/mm2. What is the maximum uniformly distributed load the beam can carry over a simply supported span of 5 m?
1 of 2
Code No: R22031 4.
R10
SET - 3
Draw the shear stress variation diagram for the I-section shown in Figure 3, if it is subjected to a shear force of 200 kN.
5.
Determine the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Figure 4 using method of joints and indicate the magnitude and nature of forces on the diagram of the truss. All inclined members are at 60 to horizontal and length of each member is 3 m.
6.
A beam of uniform cross-section and of length, l, carries a uniformly distributed load, w, per unit length. It is simply supported at the left hand end and at a point 1/3 inside the right hand end. Show the deflection of overhanging end is elasticity and movement of inertia of the beam.
wl 4 , where E and I are the modulus of 648EI
7.
Calculate the increase in volume of a spherical vessel, 1 m diameter and 1 cm thick, when it is subjected to increase in pressure of 2 N/mm2, E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 and = 0.3. A compound tube is made by shrinkage one tube on to another, the final dimensions being internal diameter 10 cm external diameter 20 cm and the diameter at the junction between the tubes is 15 cm. If the radial pressure between the tubes to be 20 N/mm2 find the stress in the cylinder i) with no internal pressure and ii) with internal pressure of 100 N/mm2.
8.
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) A tapering rod has diameter d1 at one end and it tapers uniformly to a diameter d2 at the other end in a length L. If the modulus of elasticity is E, find the change in length when subjected to an axial force P. b) Derive the relationship between i) Modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity ii) Modulus of elasticity and bulk modulus. Draw the bending moment and shear force diagram for the beam loaded as shown in Figure. 1. Mark the values at the salient points Determine the point of contra flexure also.
2.
3.
a) Derive the bending equation. What are the assumptions made while deriving the bending equation? b) Figure 2 shows the cross-section of a cantilever beam of 5 m span. Material used is steel for which maximum permissible stress is 150 N/mm2. What is the maximum uniformly distributed load carried by the beam?
1 of 2
Code No: R22031 4.
R10
SET - 4
A beam has cross-section as shown in Figure 3. If the shear force acting on this is 25 kN, draw the shear stress distribution diagram across the depth.
5.
Determine the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Figure 4 using method of joints and indicate the magnitude and nature of forces on the diagram of the truss. All inclined members are at 60 to horizontal and length of each member is 2 m.
6.
Find the maximum deflection for the beam loaded as shown in Figure 5
7.
Calculate the increase in volume enclosed by a boiler shell, 2.5 m long and 1 m in diameter, when it is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 N/mm2. The wall thickness is such that the maximum tensile stress in the shell is 25 N/mm2 under pressure. Take = 0.3. The maximum stress permitted in a thick cylinder of internal diameter and external radii 25 cm and 35 cm respectively is 10.5 N/mm2. If the external pressure is 3 N/mm2, find the internal pressure that can be applied. Plot the curves showing the variation of hoop and radial stresses through the material. What will be the change in thickness of the cylinder? E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 and = 0.3.
8.
Code No: R22121
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 DATA COMMUNICATION (Information Technology)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) Define Open Systems Interconnection. Explain about the OSI seven-layer International Protocol hierarchy. b) Define Signal analysis. Give a brief description of periodic signals. (8M+7M) a) Explain about wave propagation on metallic transmission lines and metallic transmission line losses. b) Explain about the construction of Optical fiber. Also list the advantages and disadvantages of Optical fiber cables. (8M+7M) a) Define Pulse code modulation. Explain briefly about Pulse code modulation with suitable diagrams. b) Define Multiplexing. Explain briefly about Time-Division Multiplexing. (8M+7M) a) Explain about Skip distance and Free-space path loss. b) Describe in detail about Satellite Communication Systems. a) Discuss in detail about Basic Telephone Call procedures. b) Explain in detail about Message-Channel noise and noise weighting. a) Explain about in detail about Mobile Telephone services. b) Explain briefly about first generation Analog Cellular Telephone Systems.
2.
3.
4.
(8M+7M)
5.
(8M+7M)
6.
(8M+7M)
7.
a) Describe character synchronization and explain the differences between Asynchronous and Synchronous Data Formats. b) Explain in detail about Bar Codes. (8M+7M) a) Explain Voice-Band Modem with block diagram and also discuss its classifications. b) Distinguish between 56K Modems and Cable Modems. (8M+7M)
8.
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Code No: R22121
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain about various network topologies. Also give a brief description of network classification. b) Discuss briefly about Analog Modulation Systems. (8M+7M) a) Define Transmission line. Describe about balanced and unbalanced transmission lines. b) Explain briefly about the losses in Optical Fiber cables. (8M+7M) a) Describe in detail about Companding. b) Explain in detail about Frame Synchronization. a) Explain in detail about Rays and Wave fronts. b) Describe in detail about Wave Attenuation and Absorption. a) Give a detailed description of Paging Systems. b) Describe various Transmission Parameters in detail.
2.
3.
(8M+7M)
4.
(8M+7M)
5.
(8M+7M)
6.
a) Explain in detail about Cellular Telephone, Frequency Reuse and Interference. b) What is United States Digital Cellular System? Explain briefly about its control and digital voice channels. (8M+7M) a) Describe in detail about Error-Detection mechanisms. b) Determine the LRC and VRC for the following message (use even parity for LRC and odd Parity for VRC): D A T A sp C O M M U N I C A T I O N S (8M+7M) a) Explain about Digital and Channel Service Units. Also distinguish between them. b) Explain in detail about various classifications of Voice-Band Modems. (8M+7M)
7.
8.
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Code No: R22121
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain in detail about Layered Network Architecture. b) Explain in detail about Non-Sinusoidal, complex wave and list properties of these complex waves. (8M+7M) a) Define Transverse Electromagnetic waves. What are the characteristics of electro-magnetic waves? b) Explain about the Optical Fiber Modes and give their classifications. Also give advantages and disadvantages of each Optical Fiber Mode. (8M+7M) a) Differentiate between Delta Modulation PCM and Differential PCM. b) Explain in detail about Wavelength-Division Multiplexing. a) Explain briefly about Spherical Wave front and the Inverse Square Law. b) Describe in detail about Terrestrial Propagation of Electromagnetic Waves. a) Explain about Cordless Telephones and Electronic Telephones. b) Define Crosstalk. Explain in detail about Private-Line Circuits.
2.
3.
(8M+7M)
4.
(8M+7M)
5.
(8M+7M)
6.
a) Explain about Personal Communication System. Give its advantages and disadvantages. b) Give a brief description about various Network Components. (8M+7M) a) Briefly describe the following error-detection schemes: single-precision checksum, double precision checksum, Honeywell checksum, residue checksum. b) Determine the BCC for the following data- and CRC-generating polynomials: (8M+7M) G(x) = x7+x4+x2+x0 P(x) = x5+x4+x1+x0 a) Discuss briefly about Synchronous Voice-Band Modems. b) Distinguish Voice-Band Modem, 56K Modems and Cable Modems.
7.
8.
(8M+7M)
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Code No: R22121
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain about two-station data communication circuit. Also give a brief description about parallel and serial data transmission with suitable diagrams. (8M+7M) b) Explain about Quadrature Amplitude modulation and Trellis Code modulation in detail. a) Define Metallic Transmission Lines. Explain about types of metallic transmission lines. b) Explain about the Optical Fiber Communications System with a block diagram. (8M+7M) a) Explain briefly about Signal Voltage-to-Quantization Noise Voltage Ratio. b) Define Carrier Systems and explain in detail about T-Carrier Systems.
2.
3.
(8M+7M)
4.
a) Explain in detail about Electromagnetic Polarization and Optical properties of radio waves. b) Explain in detail about Microwave Communication Systems. (8M+7M) a) Define Subscriber Loop. Explain in brief about working of standard Telephone Set. b) Explain in detail about units of Powers Measurement. (8M+7M) a) Explain about Cell Splitting, Sectoring, Segmentation and Dualization. b) Explain about the architecture of Global System for Mobile Communications. a) Explain briefly about Data Communications Character Codes. b) Explain in detail about Error-Correction mechanisms. a) Discuss briefly about Asynchronous Voice-Band Modems. b) Give a detailed description about Cable Modems.
5.
6.
(8M+7M)
7.
(8M+7M)
8.
(8M+7M)
1 of 1
Code No: R22025
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT ANALYSIS -II (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) Compare a three phase star connected system with a delta-connected system. Discuss merits and demerits of the two systems. b) A star connected load with three equal impedances takes 10 kW at 0.8 power factor leading when connected to 440 V, three-phase, three-wire supply. Find the line current if one phase of the load is short-circuited. For the network shown in Fig. 2 calculate the line currents and power consumed if a) the phase sequence is ABC b) if the phase sequence ACB. A IA 100 V, 3-phase, 50 Hz Supply IB B IC Fig.2 3+ j4 2- j2
2.
5 C
3.
a) A dc voltage of 100V is applied in the circuit shown in fig. 3(a) and the switch is kept open. The switch K is closed at t = 0. Find the complete expression for the current. 20
+ -
10 K
100 V
t=0
0.1 H
Fig.3(a) b) A series R-L circuit has R=20 ohms and L=8 H. The circuit is connected across a DC voltage source of 120 V at t=0. Calculate the time at which the voltage drops across R and L are the same.
1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 1
4.
A series RL circuit with R=100 ohms and L= 1H has a sinusoidal voltage source 200 sin(500t + ) applied at time when = 0 . i) Find the expression for current ii) At what value of must the switch be closed so that the current directly enter steady state. a) Determine the Y- parameters of the network shown in fig. 5(a). 3 3 3 6 6 6
5.
Fig.5(a) b) The Z-parameters of a two port network are Z11=15 ABCD parameters. 6. , Z22=24 , Z12=Z21=6 . Determine
Determine the ABCD parameters of the network shown in fig. 6 1 V1 11 Fig.6 I1 4 1 4 2 4 1 4 2 2 V2 21
7.
The voltage having the waveform shown in fig. 7.1 is applied to the circuit shown in fig. 7.2. Determine i(t). Vin(t) A T 2T 3T Fig. 7.1 4T t Fig. 7.2 + Vin(t) 2F 3H i(t) 25
8.
Determine the Fourier transform of the triangular function shown in fig. 8. f(t) A -T/2 Fig. 8 2 of 2 T/2 t
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain how the reactive power is measured in a 3-phase balanced system. b) A balanced three-phase star connected load 210 kW takes a leading current of 160 A when connected across a symmetrical 1.1 kV, 50 Hz supply. Find the load circuit passive parameters per phase. The following impedances are connected in the form of a star connected unbalanced system and it is connected to a 400 V, 3-phase supply: Z R = j 30 , Z Y = j 3 , Z B = j3 . Calculate the line currents by using i) loop method ii) Star-delta transformation technique. In the circuit shown in fig. 3, switch S1 is closed at t=0 and S2 is opened at t=0.05 sec. Find the transient current. Use differential equation approach. 50 200 V
+ -
2.
3.
100 S2 5H Fig.3
S1
4.
Find the current in the circuit shown in fig. 4 for t>0. At t=0- the network was unenergized. t=0 1H 1F 1
~ 10 sin2t
Fig.4 5.
a) Express z-parameters in terms of h-parameters and ABCD-parameters. b) The y-parameters of a two port network are y11=15 mho, y22=24 mho, y12=y21=6 mho. Determine ABCD parameters. 1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 2
6.
Determine the y-parameters for the two port network shown in fig. 6. j4 S 2S
3S
4S -j2 S -j6 S
Fig.6 7. a) Determine the Fourier series of the repetitive waveform shown in fig. (7.1) up to the 7th harmonic when the repetition time T=25 ms. b) Determine the fundamental frequency current in the circuit shown in fig. (7.2), where R=15 ohms and L=0.0438 H with the voltage waveform given in fig. (7.1). v(t) 150 V R L T t 0 v(t) T/2 -150 V Fig. (7.1) Fig. (7.2)
8.
Determine the Fourier transform of the trapezoidal function shown in fig. 8. f(t) A -b -a Fig. 8 a b t
2 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
Two wattmeters A and B give readings as 5000 W and 1000 W respectively of the power measurement in a 3-phase, three wire balanced load system. a) Calculate the power and power factor when both of them read in i) direct and ii) reverse if the voltage of the circuit is 400 V. b) What is the value of the capacitance which must be introduced in each phase so that the whole of the power will appear on wattmeter A? The frequency of the supply is 50 Hz. a) Explain how the three-phase power is measured using two-wattmeter method. b) Find the reading on the wattmeter when the network is connected to a symmetrical three phase, 440 V, supply as shown in fig. 2b. Neglect the electrostatic effects and instrument losses. The phase sequence is ABC. M A V1 V2 L IA 60 56
2.
IB
45
C 3.
IC Fig.2b
In a series RLC circuit, R=6 ohms, L=1 H, C=1 F. A DC voltage of 40 V is applied at t=0. Obtain the expression for i(t) using differential equation approach. For an RC series circuit, a sinusoidal voltage v(t ) = Vm sint is applied at t=0. Find the expression for transient current.
4.
1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 3
5.
a) Express y-parameters in terms of z-parameters and h-parameters b) Determine ABCD parameters of the network shown in fig. 5(b). 1H 2H 1 2 1F 11 Fig.5(b) 0.5 F 21
6.
Find the y-parameters for the network shown in fig. 6 by considering it to be a parallel combination of a capacitive network referred to as Na and a resistive network referred to as Nb. -j1 1 1 2
Fig.6 7. a) The input voltage in volts to a series 0 0 e(t ) = 180 sin(314t + 10 ) + 56 sin(942t + 35 ) + 18 The values of R and L are 18 H. Determine i) The expression for current, ii) The rms value of voltage and current, and iii) the power factor of the circuit. b) Explain about the exponential Fourier series. Determine the Fourier transform of the function shown in fig. 8. f(t) A 0 -T -A Fig.8 2 of 2 T RL is and 0.0413
8.
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain the relationship between line and phase quantities in a star and delta connected three phase systems. b) Each phase of a three-phase delta connected load has a 0.2 H inductor in series with a parallel combination of an 8 F capacitor and a 100 resistor. If a three phase voltage of 200 V at a frequency of 400 rad/sec is applied to this load, find i) the phase current ii) the line current iii) the total power absorbed by the load. A balanced three phase, three wire 50 Hz, 100 V supply is given to a load consisting of three impedances ZA=(1+j1), ZB=(1+j2) and ZC=(3+j4) ohms connected in star as shown in fig. 2. Compute the voltage across and currents in the three phases of the load using i) Millmans theorem ii) loop current method. Phase sequence is ABC. IA A + ZA
2.
V An = 1000
N + B
I1 ZB I2 ZC Fig.2 IC IB N1
VBn = 100 120

+ C
VCn = 100120
3.
In the circuit shown in figure 3, the switch S is in position 1 for 0.01 seconds and then changed to position 2. Find the time at which the current is zero and reversing its direction. 1 S 100 V
+ -
5 20 V
2 0.1 H
Fig.3 1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 4
4.
For an RL series circuit, a sinusoidal voltage of v(t ) = Vm sin(t + ) is applied at t=0. Find the expression for transient current.
5.
Determine the Z-parameters for the network shown in fig. 5 1 1 1 2 Port 1 V1 11 Fig.5 1 4V1 + 2 V2 Port 2 21
6.
Derive the ABCD parameters for the network shown in fig. 6 as a cascade connection of two identical networks. 2 2 4 1 2 V1 11 Fig.6 1F 1F V2 21
7.
a) The current in an RL circuit with R=12
and i( t ) = 12 sin(900t) + 7 sin(2700t) + sin(4500t) . Determine the effective applied voltage and average power. b) Obtain the trigonometric Fourier series for the waveform shown in fig. 7.b. Vin(t) A T/2 T Fig. 7.b t
8.
a) Explain the properties and applications of Fourier transform. b) Find the Fourier transform of the signal f (t ) = sin( 0 t ) . 2 of 2
Code No: R22051
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Computer Science and Engineering)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
Define the terms Software and Software Engineering. State and explain various software myths and reality. Compare the waterfall model with the Unified process. And also list out various categories of non-functional requirements and their importance.
2.
3.
What is meant by requirements management? Discuss in detail about requirements management and requirements validation.
4.
Explain various architectural styles and patterns. And also explain about architectural design.
5.
Discuss the advantages of ObjectOriented design over other design methods. Explain the process of user interface design evaluation.
6.
Define the term software quality. And explain the metrics for design model and metrics for source code.
7.
Distinguish between software Measurement and Metrics. And also discuss in detail the proactive strategies of risk management.
8.
Discuss the necessity for software quality assurance. And explain about the statistical software quality assurance.
1 of 1
Code No: R22051
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
1.
Distinguish between software process and software project. Explain about personal and team process models. Differentiate between Incremental process models and Evolutionary process models. And also discuss various topics in a software requirements specification document.
2.
3.
Explain the requirements validation process in detail. And also discuss about data models and object models with suitable examples.
4.
Discuss the importance of design phase in software development. And also explain various software design concepts with suitable examples.
5.
Explain in detail with a suitable example the Object-Oriented design process.
6.
State and explain various testing methods under white-box and black-box testing.
7.
What is the need for risk management? Explain the process of risk identification, risk projection and risk refinement.
8.
What are the formal technical reviews? Explain them. And also discuss about the ISO 9000 quality standards.
1 of 1
Code No: R22051
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
Discuss the changing nature of the software. And also explain about process patterns and CMMI.
2.
Distinguish between functional and non-functional requirements. And compare the waterfall model with the Evolutionary process models.
3.
Discuss the importance of system models. And also state and explain various techniques for requirements elicitation and analysis.
4.
Distinguish between data design and architectural design. And also explain the design principles for design quality.
5.
What are factors that will influence on a user interface design? Explain clearly about user interface analysis and design.
6.
What is the need for validation testing? Discuss it with suitable examples. And also discuss the metrics for software testing.
7.
What are the benefits of software measurement? Discuss in detail the RMMM Plan with a suitable example.
8.
State and explain various software quality assurance activities. And discuss how we measure software reliability.
1 of 1
Code No: R22051
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
1. Discuss the Evolving role of software and CMMI. And also compare the personal and team process models.
2. Explain with suitable examples the user requirements, system requirements and non-functional requirements.
3. What is meant by feasibility study? State and explain various feasibility studies that may be performed on a software project. And also discuss about context models.
4. What is meant by architectural design? Discuss its significance. And also explain various terminologies in software architecture.
5. Describe the golden rules for a user interface design. Explain the interface design steps.
6. What are the testing strategies for conventional software? Explain them in detail.
7. Explain various categories of software risks. Explain the risk identification and risk projection activities.
8. Explain about statistical software quality assurance and software quality standards.
1 of 1
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS (Com.to CE, ME, CHEM, AME, MM) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. a) The students in a class are selected at random, one after another, for an examination. Find the probability P that the boys and girls in the class arranged alternately if i) the class consists of 4 boys and 3 girls ii) the class consists of 3 boys and 3 girls b) In a certain college, 40%of men and 10% of women are taller than1.8 metres. Further more in the college 60% of students are women. If a student is selected at random and is taller than 1.8 metres find the probability that the selected student is a woman. A discrete random variable X has the following distribution function : 0, forx < 1 1 / 3, for1 x < 4 F ( x) = 1 / 2, for 4 x < 6 5 / 6, for 6 x < 10 1, forx 10
Find i) P(2 < X 6) 3. ii) P( X = 5) iii) P( X = 4) iv) P( X 6) v) P( X = 6)
Max. Marks: 80
2.
a) six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you except at least three dice to show a 5 or 6 b) Estimate the minimum marks a student must get in order to receive an A grade if the top 10% of the students are awarded A grade in an examination where the mean of the marks is 72 and standard deviation is 9. a) A random sample of size 64 is taken from a normal population with =51.4 and =68.What is the probability that the mean of the sample will i) exceed 52.9 ii) fall between 50.5 and 52.3 iii) be less than 50.6. b) The claim that the variance of a normal population is 2 = 4 is to be rejected if the variance of a random sample of size 9exceeds 7, 7535. What is the probability that this claim will be rejected even though 2 = 4 ?
4.
1 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 1
5.
a) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs.472.36 and the S.D of Rs.62.35.If X is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what confidence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10? b) Calculate 1 , 1 for the posterior distribution if the random sample size is 80.
X = 18.85, S = 5.55 using S.D of population .

6. a) Random samples of 400 men and 600 women were asked whether they would like to have a flyover near their residence.200 men and 325 women were in favour of the proposal .Test the hypothesis that proportions of men and women in favour of the proposal are same, at 5% level. b) An investigation of the relative merits of two kinds of flash light batteries showed that a random sample of 100 batteries of brand A tested on the average 36.5 hrs with a S.D. of 1.8 hrs while a random sample of 80 batteries of brand B tested on the average 36.8 hrs with a S.D. of 1.5 hrs. Use a level of significance of 0.05 to test whether the observed difference between the average life times is significant. a) The average breaking strength of the steel rods is specified to be 18.5 thousand pounds. To test this sample of 14 rods was tested. The mean and standard deviations obtained were 17.85 and 1.955 respectively. Is the result of experiment significant? b) 1000 students at college level were graded according to their 1.Q and the economic conditions of their homes. Use x2 test to find out whether there is any association between economic conditions at home and 1.Q 1.Q Economic conditions Rich Poor Total 8. High 460 240 700 Low 140 160 300 Total 600 400 1000
7.
Customers arrive at a one window drive-in bank according to a Poisson distribution with mean 10 per hour. Service time per customer is exponential with mean 5 minutes. The car space in front of the window including that for the serviced can accommodate a maximum of 3 cars. Other cars can wait outside the space. a) What is the probability that an arriving customer can drive directly to the space in front of the window? b)What is the probability that an arriving customer will have to wait outside the indicated space? c) How long is and arriving customer expected to wait before starting service.
2 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 2
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS (Com.to CE, ME, CHEM, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Six boys and six girls sit in a row at random. What is the probability that i) the six girls sit together ii) the boys and girls sit alternately b) A husband and wife appear in an interview for the same post .The probability of husbands selection is 1/7 and that of wifes selection is 1/5. What is the probability that i) both of them will be selected ii) none of them will be selected iii) only one of them will be selected. a) From a lot of 10 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 4 items is drawn a random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Find the probability distribution of X when the sample is drawn without replacement. b) X is a continuous random variable with probability density function given by
1.
2.
kx 1 (1 x) 1 , for 0 < x < 1. > 0. > 0 f ( x) = o, otherwise

3. a) Adie is thrown 6 times. If getting an even number is a success, find the probabilities of i) at least one success ii) 3 successes iii) 4 success. b) It has been claimed that in 60% of all solar heat installations the utility bill is reduced by at least one-third. Accordingly, what are the probabilities that the utility bill will be reduced by at least one third in i) four of five installations ii) at least four of five installations a) The mean height of students in a college is 155 cms and standard deviation is 15.What is the probability that the mean height of 36 students is less than 157 cms. b) A random sample of size 64 is taken from a normal population with =51.4 and =68.What is the probability that the mean of the sample will i) exceed 52.9 ii) fall between 50.5 and 52.3 iii) be less than 50.6. 1 of 2
4.
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 2
5.
a) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs.472.36 and the S.D of Rs.62.35.If X is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what confidence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10? b) What is the maximum error one can expect to make with probability 0.90 when using the mean of a random sample of size n= 64 to estimate the mean of population with 2 = 2.56.
6.
a) In a big city 325 men out of 600 men were found to be smokers. Does this information support the conclusion that the majority of men in this city are smokers? b) Random samples of 400 men and 600 women were asked whether they would like to have a flyover near their residence.200 men and 325 women were in favour of the proposal .Test the hypothesis that proportions of men and women in favour of the proposal are same, at 5% level. a) A sample of 26 bulbs gives a mean life of 990 hours with a S.D. of 20 hours. The manufacturer claims that the mean life of bulbs is 1000 hours. Is the sample not up to the standard? b) The mean life time of a sample of 25 fluorescent light bulbs produced by a company is computed to be 157 hours with a S.D. of 120 hours. The company claims that the average life of the bulbs produced by the company is 1600 hours using the level of significance of 0.05. Is the claim acceptable? a) Explain briefly the main characteristics of queuing system. b) A TV repair man finds that the time spent on his jobs has an exponential distribution with mean 30 minutes. He repairs sets in the order in which they arrive. The arrival of the sets is approximately poisons with an average of10 per an eight hour day. Find the repairmans idle time each day. How many jobs are ahead of the average set just brought in?
7.
8.
2 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 3
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Six boys and six girls sit in a row at random. What is the probability that i) the six girls sit together ii) the boys and girls sit alternately b) A test of multiple choice questions with four choices is held. A candidate appearing for the test either guesses or recalls or computes the answer for any question. The probability that he makes a guess is 1/6 and the probability that he recalls the answer is 1/3.The pro0bability that his answer is correct, given that he recalls it is 1/8.Find the probability that he computes the answer to the question, given that he answered it correctly. a) From a lot of 10 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 4 items is drawn a random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Find the probability distribution of X when the sample is drawn without replacement. b) The probability density function of a variate X is as follows: X P(X) 0 K 1 3K 2 5K 3 7K 4 9K 5 11K 6 13K
1.
2.
i) Find P(X<4), P( X 5), P(3 < X 6) 3. a) Find the probability that at most 5 defective components will be found in a lot of 200.Experilence shows that 2% of such components are defective. Also find the probability of more than five defective components. b) A box contains 100 transistors,20 of which are3 defective and 10 are selected at random, find the probability that i) all re defective ii) at least one is defective iii) all are good iv)at most 3 are defective a) The average cost of a studio condominium in the cedar lakes development is Rs.62,000 and the S.D is Rs.4200 .What is the probability that a condominium in this development will cost at least Rs.65,000. b) The claim that the variance of a normal population is 2=21.3 is rejected if the variance of a random sample of size 15 exceeds 39.74. What is the probability that the claim will be rejected even though 2=21.3?
4.
1 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 3
5.
a) It is desired to estimate the mean time of continuous use until an answering machine will first require service. If it can be assumed that = 60 days, how large a sample is needed so that one will be able to assert with 90% confidence that the sample mean is off by at most 10 days. b) A professors feelings about the mean mark in the final examination in probability of a large group of students is expressed subjectively by normal distribution with 0 = 67.2and = 1.5. a) In two large populations, there are 30%,and 25% respectively of fair haired people. Is this difference likely to be hidden in samples of 1200 and 900 respectively from the two populations? b) In a survey of buying habits, 400 women shoppers are chosen at random in super market A located in a certain section of the city. Their average weekly food expenditure is Rs.250 with a S.D of Rs.40.For 400 women shoppers chosen at random in super market B in another section of the city, the average weekly food expenditure is Rs220 with a S.D.of Rs.55.Test at 10% level of significance whether the average weekly food expenditure of the two populations of shoppers are equal. a) The average breaking strength of the steel rods is specified to be 18.5 thousand pounds. To test this sample of 14 rods was tested. The mean and standard deviations obtained were 17.85 and 1.955 respectively. Is the result of experiment significant? b) From the following data, find whether there is any significant liking in the habit of taking soft drinks among the categories of employees Soft Drinks Pepsi Thumsup Fanta Clerks 10 15 50 Teachers 25 30 60 Officers 65 65 30
6.
7.
8.
A toll gate is operated on a freeway where cars arrive according to a Poisson distribution with mean frequency of 1.2 cars per minute. The time of completing payment follows an exponential distribution with mean of20 seconds. Find i) The idle time of the counter ii) Average number of cars in the system iii) Average number of cars in the queue iv) Average time that a car spends in the system v) Average time that a car spends in the queue. vi) The probability that a car spends more than 30 seconds in the system.
2 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 4
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) A can hit a target 3 times in 5 shots, B hits target 2 times in 5 shots ,C hits target 3 times in 4 shots. Find the probability of the target being hit when all of them try. b) Suppose three companies X,Y,Z produce T.Vs X produce twice as many as Y While Y and Z produce the same number .It is known that 2% of X,2% of Y and 4% of Y are defective. All the T.Vs produced and put into one shop and then one T.V. is chosen at random i)What is the probability that the T.V is defective ? ii)suppose a T.V chosen is defective, what is the probability that this T.V is produced by company X ? a) A random variable gives measurements X between 0 and 1 with a probability function 12 x 3 21x 2 + 10 x, for 0 x 1 F ( x) = 0, elsewhere 1 1 i) Find P ( X ) and P ( X > ) 2 2 1 ii) Find a number K such that P( X K ) = 2 b) If the probability density function of random variable X is given by
2 kxe x , forx > 0 F ( x) = 0 , forx 0
2
1.
2.
Determine i) k ii) the distribution function for X 3. a) six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you except at least three dice to show a 5 or 6 b) Find the probability that out of 100 patients between 84 and 95 inclusive will survive a heart operation given that the chance of survival is 0.9. a) The guaranteed average life of a certain type of electric bulbs is 1500 hrs with a S.D of 120 hrs. It is decide to sample the output so as to ensure that 95% of bulbs do not fall short of the guaranteed average by more than 2%.What will be the minimum sample size. b) The claim that the variance of a normal population is 2 = 4 is to be rejected if the variance of a random sample of size 9exceeds 7,7535. What is the probability that this claim will be rejected even though 2 = 4 ? 1 of 2
4.
Code No: V0121 5.
R07
SET - 4
a) A random sample of 20 fuses subjected to overload has mean time for blow of 10.63 minutes with S.D of 2.48 mt. What can we assert with 95% confidence about the maximum error if we use X =10.63 mts as a point estimate of true average it takes such fuses for blow when subjected to overload. b) Calculate 1 , 1 for the posterior distribution if the random sample size is 80.
X = 18.85, S = 5.55 using S.D of population .

6. a) A sample of 900 members has a mean of 3.4 cms and S.D 2.61 cms. Is the sample from a large population of mean 3.25 cm and S.D 2.61 cms. If the population is normal and its mean is unknown find the 95% fiducial limits of true mean. b) An investigation of the relative merits of two kinds of flash light batteries showed that a random sample of 100 batteries of brand A tested on the average 36.5 hrs with a S.D. of 1.8 hrs while a random sample of 80 batteries of brand B tested on the average 36.8 hrs with a S.D. of 1.5 hrs. Use a level of significance of 0.05 to test whether the observed difference between the average life times is significant. a) A random sample of size 16 values from a normal population showed a mean of 53 and a sum of squares of deviation from the mean equals to 150.Cand this sample be regarded as taken from the population having56 as mean ?. Obtain 95% confidence limits of the mean of the population. b) 12 dice were thrown 4096 times and a throw of 6 was reckoned as success. The observed frequencies were as given below. Success 0 Frequencies 447 1 1145 2 118 3 796 4 380 5 115 6 24 7 and over 8
7.
Find the value of x2 on the hypothesis that the dice were unbiased and hence show that the data are consistent with this hypothesis so far as the x2 test is concerned. 8. The mean rate of arrival of planes at an airport during the peak period is 20 hours. The number of arrivals in any hour follows a Poisson distribution. When there is congestion the planes are forced to fly over the field in the stack awaiting the landing of other planes that arrived earlier.60 planes per hour can land in good weather and 30 planes per hour can land in bad weather. i) How many planes would be flying over the field in the stack on an average in good weather and in bad weather? ii) How long a plane would be in the stack in the process of landing in good and bad weather?
2 of 2
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April - 2012 POWER SYSTEMS-I (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks
**************
Max Marks: 80
1.
a) What are the factors to be considered for selection of the static for a thermal power station? b) A steam power station has an overall efficiency of 20% and 0.6Kg of coal is burnt per KWh of electrical energy generated. Calculate the calorific value of fuel. a) What are the methods of producing nuclear reaction? What is chain reaction? b) Explain the working of a Gas turbine plant with a schematic diagram? a) How are distributions systems classified? b) Discuss the relative merits and demerits of underground and overhead systems. a) Describe briefly how you will solve AC distribution problems. b) A single phase distributor one km long has resistance and reactance per conductor of 0.1 ohm and 0.15 ohm respectively. At the far end, the voltage VB=200V and the current is 100 A at a p.f of 0.8lagging. At the mid-point M of the distributor, a current of 100 A is tapped at a p.f. of 0.6 lagging with reference to the voltage VM at the mid-point . Calculate i) voltage at mid-point ii) sending end voltage VA a).What is sub-station? Name the factors that should be taken care of while designing and erecting a substation. b) State the advantages of out-door sub-stations over in-door sub-stations. a) Explain the causes of low power factor of the supply system? b) Discuss the importance of voltage control in the modern power system. a) What do you understand by the load curve? What informations are conveyed by a load curve? b) A generating station has a connected load of 43MW and a maximum demand of 20MW. The unit generated being 615x106 per annum. Calculate (i) demand factor (ii) load factor. Write short notes on a) Simple tariff b) Flat rate tariff c) Three part tariff 1 of 1
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 2
**************
Max Marks: 80
1. 2. 3.
Briefly describe the main parts and the working of a steam power station with a neat sketch. Draw the schematic diagram of a nuclear power station and discuss its operation. a) Derive an expression for the voltage drop for a uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end. b) How does AC distribution differs from D.C distribution. a) What is the importance of load power factors in AC distribution system? b) A 500 m long single-phase A.C. distributor has a total impedance of (0.02+j0.04) ohm and is fed from one end at 240V. It is loaded as follows: 50A at unity power factor, 200m from feeding point; 100A at 0.8 p.f. lagging, 300m from feeding point; 50A at 0.06 p.f. lagging at the far end. Calculate: i) Total voltage drop ii) Voltage at the far end. a) Discuss the different types of gas insulated sub-stations. b) What are the considerations for the selection of site for an out-door sub-station. a) Discuss the disadvantages of a low power factor? b) What are the various methods of voltage control in a power system? Define and explain importance of the following a) Connected load b) Maximum load c) Demand factor a) Describe the desirable characte5ristics of a tariff? b) What is mean by power factor tariff? What are its types?
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
1 of 1
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 3
**************
Max Marks: 80
1.
a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a thermal power station? b) How the coal is utilized in power generation? Describe how it is handled starting from delivery of coal to final combustion stage. a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Nuclear power station b) What are factors to be considered for the selection of site of a nuclear power station? a) State the main types of distribution systems used and compare their applications. b) What are the requirement s of a distribution system. a) Draw the phasor diagram of AC distributor power factor with respect to receiving end. b) A single phase AC distributor AB 300 meters long is fed from end A and is loaded as under: i) 100A at 0.707 p.f. lagging 200 m from point A ii) 200A at 0.8 p.f. lagging 300 m from point A iii) The load resistance and reactance of the distributor is 0.2 ohm and 0.1 ohm per kilometer. Calculate the total voltage drop in the distributor. The load power factors refer to the voltage at the far end. a) Give the comparison of out-door sub-stations and in-door sub-stations. b) What ate advantages of Gas insulated sub-stations? a) Discuss the various methods for power factor improvement? b) Explain with a neat sketch on-load tap changing transformer. Explain briefly a) Load duration curve b) Load curve c) Plant use factor. Describe some of the important types of tariffs commonly used?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
1 of 1
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 4
**************
Max Marks: 80
1. a) What are the functions of economizer and super heater in a thermal power plant? b) A thermal power stations ha the following data: Max. Demand =20,000KW : Load factor =40% Boiler efficiency=85% : Turbine efficiency =90% Coal consumption=0.9Kg/KWh : Cost of 1 ton of coal=Rs.300 Determine i) thermal efficiency and ii) coal bill per annum. 2. What are the basic components of nuclear reactor? Explain the function of each component.
3. a) Give the comparison between over head system and underground system. b) Write short notes on Ring main distributer. 4. a) What is the method of calculations in A.C. distribution? b) A single phase distributor 2kilometers long supplies a load of 120 A at 0.8 p.f. lagging at its far end and a load of 80 A at 0.9 p.f. lagging at its mid-point. Both power factors are referred to the voltage at the far end. The resistance and reactance per Km (go and return) are 0.05ohm and 0.1 ohm respectively. If the voltage at the far end is maintained at 230V, calculate the voltage at sending end. 5. What are the different types of bus-bar arrangements used in sub-stations? Illustrate your answer with suitable diagram. 6. a) Derive an expression for the most economized value of power factor which may be attained by a consumer. b) Explain the purpose of Booste5r transformer? What are its limitations? 7. Define the following a) Diversity factor
b) Utilization factor
c) Load factor.
8. a) What do you understand by tariff? Discuss the objectives of tariff. b) What is mean by two-part tariff? What are the advantages and disadvantages of twopart tariff?
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Code No: T1021/R07
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 CALIBRATION AND ELECTRONIC MEASUREMENTS (Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks
1. The table given below lists a sample of experimental data: Voltage 1.01 1.02 1.03 1.04 1.05 1.06 1.07 1.08 1.09 1.10 1.11 Frequency of 1 3 6 8 10 7 8 4 3 0 1 occurence Calculate (a) the arithmetic mean (b) the deviation from the mean (c) Standard deviation (d) Variance (e) Probable error of one reading (f) Probable error of mean (g) Standard deviation of the mean (h) Standard deviation of standard deviation 2. Write short notes on any THREE standards (a) Resistance (b) Voltage (c) Current (d) Capacitance 3. (a) Explain the following terms i. ii. iii. iv. Measurement and test equipment Traceability Reliability Tolerance limits [16] [16]
(b) Explain the procedure that should be followed before attempting to calibrate deecting instruments? [8+8] 4. (a) Explain the successive approximation type DVM?
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Code No: T1021/R07
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(b) Distinguish between series and shunt type ohmmeter from the dial calibration? How can you estimate the internal resistance of an ohmmeter from its dial? [8+8] 5. (a) Explain the principle and working of Q meter? (b) To check the distributed capacitance of a coil, the coil is resonated at 10 MHz with 120 pF and then is resonated at 15 MHz with 40 pF. What is the inductance of the coil and what is the equivalent distributed capacitance. [8+8] 6. (a) What is the function of a gate control Flip-Flop in a frequency counter? Explain its operation. (b) Explain how do you interface the seven-segment display to a counter. 7. (a) Explain the operation of 10 to 1 probe . (b) A given oscilloscope has an input resistance of 10 M ohm shunted by 20 pf. Design a 10 to 1 probe. [8+8] 8. (a) Draw and discuss the spectral displays of various modulations using spectrum analyzer. (b) Explain the F M method of magnetic tape recording and explain its advantages and disadvantages. [8+6+2] [8+8]
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Code No: T1021/R07
Set No. 2
1. The table given below lists a sample of experimental data: Value 3 4 5 6 7 8 Frequency of occurence 1 2 3 6 7 6 Calculate (a) the arithmetic mean (b) the deviation from the mean (c) Standard deviation (d) Variance (e) Probable error of one reading (f) Probable error of mean (g) Standard deviation of the mean (h) Standard deviation of standard deviation 2. (a) Distinguish between International and absolute standards. (b) What are the international standards of length and volume? (c) Write short notes on concept of inductance standards? 3. (a) Write short notes on how the calibration records are maintained? (b) Dene the following terms : i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. Accuracy Bias Calibration Calibration interval Measurement and testing equipment Traceability [5+5+6] [16] 9 10 11 4 2 1
[4+12] [16]
4. Explain the working of multimeters with a neat block diagram?
5. (a) Derive an expression for balance in an Andersons bridge. Draw the phasor diagram under balance conditions. (b) List the advantages and disadvantages of Andersons bridge. 1 of 2 [10+6]
Code No: T1021/R07
Set No. 2
[8+8]
6. (a) With a suitable block diagram explain the operation of digital frequency meter. (b) Explain gating errors and time base errors. 7. (a) Describe the electrostatic focusing system of a CRT. (b) What is the minimum distance L, that will allow full deection of 4 cm at the oscilloscope screen with a deection factor of 100 V/cm and with an accelerating potential of 2000 V ? [8+8] 8. (a) Explain the operation of logic timing analyzer and logic state analyzer. (b) What are the merits and demerits of Magnetic recording? [5+5+6]
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Set No. 3
1. (a) Ratings of two resistors are as shown below. R1 = 200 5% R2 = 100 5% Calculate i. magnitude of error in each case ii. the limiting error in ohms and in percent when resistor are connected in series and iii. the limiting error in ohms and in percent when the resistor are connected in parallel (b) Explain the following terms i. ii. iii. iv. Probable error of one reading Probable error of mean Standard deviation of the mean Standard deviation of standard deviation
[8+8]
2. Write short notes on any THREE standards: (a) Resistance (b) Voltage (c) Current (d) Capacitance [16]
3. List out dierent types of calibrations used and discuss each of them briey? [16] 4. (a) Write short notes on measurement of very large current by thermocouple method? (b) With a neat block diagram explain the microprocessor based ramp type DVM? [8+8] 5. (a) Draw the circuit of a Maxwell?s inductance bridge and derive an expression for the unknown inductance. Draw the phasor diagram at balance. (b) A Maxwell bridge is used to measure an inductive impedance. The bridge constants at balance are C1=0.05F, R1=100K,R2=500 and R3=10K. Find Rx and Lx. [8+8] 6. Write short notes on:
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Code No: T1021/R07 (a) Frequency synthesizer (b) Zero crossing detectors (c) Wave meters
Set No. 3
[6+4+6]
7. (a) Give the standard specications of horizontal amplier used in a single beam CRO (b) Explain the spot wheel method for frequency measurement. [8+8]
8. (a) Draw and discuss the spectral displays of various modulations using spectrum analyzer. (b) Explain the F M method of magnetic tape recording and explain its advantages and disadvantages. [8+6+2]
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1. (a) What are the dierent types of systematic errors present? Explain each of them with an example? (b) A voltmeter having a sensitivity of 1K/V is connected across an unknown resistance in series with a milli ammeter reading 80V on 150V scale. When the milli ammeter reads 10mA, calculate the i. Apparent resistance of the unknown resistance ii. Actual resistance of the unknown resistance iii. Error due to the loading eect of the voltmeter.
[8+8]
2. List the various levels of measurement standards, and discuss the application of each classication. [16] 3. (a) Write short notes on how the calibration records are maintained? (b) Dene the following terms : i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. Accuracy Bias Calibration Calibration interval Measurement and testing equipment Traceability
[4+12] [16]
4. Draw the block diagram of multimeters and explain its operation? 5. (a) What causes problems for bridges at radio frequencies? (b) Mention the applications of Wien bridge. (c) Point out the sources of errors in Q meter.
[6+4+6]
6. (a) What is the function of a gate control Flip-Flop in a frequency counter? Explain its operation. (b) Explain how do you interface the seven-segment display to a counter. 7. (a) Describe the electrostatic focusing system of a CRT. (b) What is the minimum distance L, that will allow full deection of 4 cm at the oscilloscope screen with a deection factor of 100 V/cm and with an accelerating potential of 2000 V ? [8+8] [8+8]
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Code No: T1021/R07
Set No. 4
[3+5+8]
8. (a) Draw the block diagram of a lter bank spectrum analyzer and explain its operation. (b) Write short notes on display systems.
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Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. Define the terms Software and Software Engineering. State and explain various software myths and reality. Compare the waterfall model with the Unified process. And also list out various categories of non-functional requirements and their importance. What is meant by requirements management? Discuss in detail about requirements management and requirements validation. Explain various architectural styles and patterns. And also explain about architectural design. Discuss the advantages of ObjectOriented design over other design methods. Explain the process of user interface design evaluation. Define the term software quality. And explain the metrics for design model and metrics for source code. Distinguish between software Measurement and Metrics. And also discuss in detail the proactive strategies of risk management. Discuss the necessity for software quality assurance. And explain about the statistical software quality assurance. Max. Marks: 80
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SET - 2
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* Max. Marks: 80
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Distinguish between software process and software project. Explain about personal and team process models. Differentiate between Incremental process models and Evolutionary process models. And also discuss various topics in a software requirements specification document. Explain the requirements validation process in detail. And also discuss about data models and object models with suitable examples. Discuss the importance of design phase in software development. And also explain various software design concepts with suitable examples. Explain in detail with a suitable example the Object-Oriented design process. State and explain various testing methods under white-box and black-box testing. What is the need for risk management? Explain the process of risk identification, risk projection and risk refinement. What are the formal technical reviews? Explain them. And also discuss about the ISO 9000 quality standards.
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Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 3
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. Discuss the changing nature of the software. And also explain about process patterns and CMMI. Distinguish between functional and non-functional requirements. And compare the waterfall model with the Evolutionary process models. Discuss the importance of system models. And also state and explain various techniques for requirements elicitation and analysis. Distinguish between data design and architectural design. And also explain the design principles for design quality. What are factors that will influence on a user interface design? Explain clearly about user interface analysis and design. What is the need for validation testing? Discuss it with suitable examples. And also discuss the metrics for software testing. What are the benefits of software measurement? Discuss in detail the RMMM Plan with a suitable example. State and explain various software quality assurance activities. And discuss how we measure software reliability.
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Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 4
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. Discuss the Evolving role of software and CMMI. And also compare the personal and team process models. 2. Explain with suitable examples the user requirements, system requirements and nonfunctional requirements. 3. What is meant by feasibility study? State and explain various feasibility studies that may be performed on a software project. And also discuss about context models. 4. What is meant by architectural design? Discuss its significance. And also explain various terminologies in software architecture. 5. Describe the golden rules for a user interface design. Explain the interface design steps. 6. What are the testing strategies for conventional software? Explain them in detail. 7. Explain various categories of software risks. Explain the risk identification and risk projection activities. 8. Explain about statistical software quality assurance and software quality standards.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks *********
1. a) Prove that an RC circuit behaves as a reasonably good integrator if RC>>15T, where T is the time period of input waveform . Also show that the output is approximately
Max. Marks: 80
Vm cos t /( RC ) b) The square wave shown in Fig.1.1 is fed to an RC coupling network. Time period of both positive cycle and negative cycle is same. What are the voltage waveforms across R and across C if (i) RC is very large, say RC = 10 T, and RC is very small, say RC = 0.1 T.
Fig. 1.1. A square waveform with a DC shift.
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a) State and explain clamping circuit theorem. Discuss about the practical clamping circuit with suitable sketches. b) A rectangular waveform of Vp-p =10 V, with on time T1 = 2 ms, and off time T2 = 20 ms is applied to the dc restorer circuit. The circuit has source resistance Rs = 0 ohms, diode forward resistance Rf =10 , cutin voltage V = 0 V, Rr = , R = 500 , C = 0.1F. Compute the steady state output waveform. Repeat the same for R = 1M .
a) Discuss about transistor switching times with suitable sketches. What are the three important factors that contribute to the delay time in a transistor? Explain. b) Derive the expressions for rise time, fall time of a BJT when it is used as an electronic switch.
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a) Explain the operation of an emitter coupled astable multivibrator circuit. b) Design a collector coupled monostable multivibrator circuit for the given specifications: VCC = 8V, VBE = -1V, IC(sat) = 2 mA, period of the quasi stable state is 2.5 s. hFE(min) = 20, the ON transistor (Si) has base current which is 50% in excess of minimum base current. Assume R2 = 2R1, and ICBO = 0. Assume suitable data. 1 of 2
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R07
SET - 1
5.
a) With the help of circuit diagram, explain the principle of operation of a constant current sweep circuit. b) Design a transistor bootstrap ramp generator to provide an output amplitude of 12 V over a time period of 2 ms. The input signal is a negative going pulse with an amplitude of 5 V, a pulse width of 2 ms and the time interval between pulses is 0.5 ms. The load resistance is 2 k and the ramp is to be linear within 1%. The supply is to be 15 V. Assume hFE(min) = 80. a) How an astable multivibrator can be synchronized? Illustrate with waveforms. b) A symmetrical astable multivibrator using Germanium transistors and operating from a 10 V collector supply voltage has a free period of 1ms. Triggering pulses whose spacing is 750 s are applied to one base through a small capacitor from a high impedance source. Find the minimum triggering pulse amplitude required to achieve 1:1 synchronization. Assume that the timing portion of the base waveform is linear. a) With neat diagrams, explain the principle of operation of six diode bidirectional sampling gate. b) Describe the operation of chopper amplifier. Give the operation of the transistor as a chopper switch in ON state and in OFF state. c) Describe the operation of balanced choppers. Write the following: a) DTL NAND gate, b) RTL NOR gate, c) Prove that NAND and NOR gates are universal gates.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 2
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Derive an expression for the output voltage levels under steady state conditions of a low pass circuit excited by an exponential input. b) The limited ramp shown in Figure 2.1 is applied to an RC differentiator. Draw to scale, the output waveform for the cases i) T = RC ii) T = 0.2 RC iii) T = 5RC.
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a) Draw the circuit diagrams for double ended clipping of a sinusoidal input signal using diodes and zener diodes. Explain its operation using transfer characteristics of each circuit. b) Draw the circuit diagram for positive clamper circuit and explain its principle of operation.
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a) Explain how a transistor can be used as an electronic switch. Compare switching operation with that of FET. b) Design a high speed Si transistor switch (connected in CE configuration) for the given specifications: VCC = 12 V, -VBB = -10V, IC = 8 mA, hFE(min) = 30, and R2 = 3R1. The resistor R1 is connected between the base of the transistor and the input, and R2 is connected between base of the transistor and VBB. Assume suitable saturation, cut off voltages for the given transistor. a) Derive an expression for the gate width of a monostable multivibrator circuit. b) Design an astable multivibrator to generate a square wave of 2 kHz frequency with a duty cycle of 35%. The specifications of switching transistors used in the circuit are: Supply voltage = 10 V, IC(ON) = 4 mA, hFE = 20, Si transistors. Assume necessary data. 1 of 2
4.
Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 2
5.
a) Discuss the advantages of Bootstrap time base generators over the Miller circuit, and
explain the operation of Bootstrap time base generator. b) Design a sweep circuit using silicon transistor in the CB configuration to generate a 20 V sweep in a time of 0.1 ms with a slope error not to exceed 0.2%. The circuit uses two supply voltages. The transistor has = 0.98, hib = 20 ohms, hrb = 0.4 x 10-3 and hob = 0.5 mho. Use RE = 1.5 K and select reasonable values of VCC, VEE and capacitor C. 6. a) Discuss about synchronization of a sweep circuit with symmetrical signals. b) How a monostable multivibrator circuit can be used for frequency division? Explain with suitable sketches. c) What do you mean by phase delay and phase jitters? a) Illustrate with neat circuit diagram, the operation of unidirectional sampling gate for multiple inputs. b) Explain the operation of a two input sampling gate which does not have any loading effect on control signal. c) Give the importance of chopper amplifier. Explain the following terms: a) Realization of AND and OR gates using universal gates, b) What is the use of Totem pole configuration? Explain its operation with suitable sketches. Give an example to calculate Fan-out of the circuit.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 3
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Design a high pass circuit for three different time constants, low, high and medium. Assume a 4 kHz square wave with 4Vp-p is applied to the circuit. Draw the output waveforms for the time constants mentioned above. b) A square wave whose peak-to-peak amplitude is 2V extends 1V with respect to ground. The duration of the positive section is 0.1 sec and that of the negative section is 0.2 sec. If this waveform is impressed upon an RC integrating circuit whose time constant is 0.2 sec, what are the steady state maximum and minimum values of the output waveform?
a) Explain transfer characteristics of the emitter coupled clipper and derive the necessary
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equations. b) Draw a clamping circuit in which the source resistance Rs of the signal source is taken into account, and also resistance R is connected across the output. Find the state output waveform indicating voltage levels for a complete cycle for a square wave input signal shown in Fig.3.1.
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a) What are the important parameters to be observed when the transistor is operated as electronic switch? Explain them. b) A transistor initially at cutoff with a base to emitter voltage nearly zero, operates with VCC = 12 V and Rc = 1 K . A positive step input voltage of 10 V is applied through a 10 K resistance to the base. It is found that the transistor reaches saturation in 0.3 s. The silicon transistor has hFE = 30 and a collector transition capacitance of 10 pF. What is the common emitter gain-bandwidth product of the transistor? 1 of 2
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SET - 3
4.
a) What is Schmitt trigger? With the help of a neat circuit diagram and waveforms, explain the working of Schmitt trigger? b) A self biased bistable multivibrator uses silicon transistors with the following specifications: hFE = 25, VCC = 20V, VBB = 2V, RC =1k , R1 = R2, IC(sat) = 10mA . If VBE(off) = -1V and the base current of the ON transistor is twice the minimum base current, design the circuit and show the diagram with appropriate values of the components. a) Discuss about general considerations of Miller and Bootstrap time base generators. b) Design a free running UJT sweep waveform generator with the sweep amplitude of 6 V. The sweep interval of the waveform is expected to be 3 ms with negligible retrace interval. The slope error is 0.75. Determine the values of RB1, RB2, VBB, R, and C in the relaxation circuit. a) Illustrate the terms Synchronization and frequency division of a sweep generator. b) A free running relaxation oscillator has sweep amplitude of 100 V and a period of 1 ms synchronizing pulses are applied to the device such that breakdown voltage is lowered by 50 V at each pulse. The synchronizing pulse frequency is 4 kHz. What is the amplitude and frequency of synchronized oscillator waveform? a) With neat diagrams, explain the principle of operation of four diode bidirectional sampling gate. Compare the performance of the circuit with that of six diode bidirectional sampling gate. b) Describe the errors encountered in series sampling and what is the design procedure that is adopted to minimize these errors. a) With the help of neat circuit diagram and truth table, explain the working of three- input DTL NAND gate. b) What do you mean by fan in and fan out? Discuss about the DTL NAND gate circuit which can improve Fan-out of the gate.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 4
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. a) Derive an expression for the output voltage levels under steady state conditions of a low pass circuit excited by an exponential input. b) A square wave whose peak-to-peak amplitude is 1V extends 0.5V with respect to ground. The duration of the positive section is 0.1 sec and that of the negative section is 0.2 sec. If this waveform is impressed upon an RC differentiating circuit whose time constant is 0.2 sec, what are the steady state maximum and minimum values of the output waveform? a) List out the types of clamping circuits used in the industry. Give the circuit diagram of each type. Explain the operation of a clamping circuit whose output signal has negative offset. b) Design a diode clamper circuit to restore the positive peaks of 1 kHz input signal to a voltage level equal to 5V. Assume that the diode voltage during forward bias condition is 0.7 V. a) Define rise time, storage time, fall time, and turn off time in the case of transistor as a switch. b) Design a common emitter transistor switch operating with two power supplies VCC = 18 V, -VBB = -12 V. The transistor is expected to operate at IC = 8 mA, and IB = 0.75 mA. The static current gain is 25. Assume Si transistor, and R2 = 5R1. a) Explain the working principle of an emitter coupled monostable multivibrator with neat sketches. b) A fixed bias binary uses NPN silicon transistors with hFE = 25. The circuit parameters are VCC = 10V, VBB = 2V, RC =1k , R1 = 5 k , and R2 = 10 k , VCE(sat) = 0.3V, and VBE(sat) = 0.7V. Verify that one transistor is in cut off and the other one is in saturation. Also find the steady state values of currents and voltages. What is the maximum value of ICBO tolerated before the condition is reached where neither transistor is cut off? Max. Marks: 80
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SET - 4
5.
a) A UJT is used as a switch across a sweep capacitor C which is charged through a resistor R to a maximum voltage supply VBB. Prove that the sweep duration is given by. V B B VV Ts = RC ln V B B VP b) With the aid of circuit diagram, explain the operation of constant current sweep generator using CB configuration and write the expression for slope error.
a) Describe the frequency division employing a transistor monostable multivibrator. b) A UJT sweep circuit operates with a valley voltage of 3 V and a peak voltage of 16 V. A sinusoidal synchronizing voltage of 2 V peak is applied between bases. The intrinsic standoff ratio is 0.5. If the natural frequency of the sweep is 1 kHz, over what range of synchronization signal frequency will the sweep remain in 1:1 synchronization with the synchronization signal? a) Sketch circuit of a simple diode bidirectional sampling gate and describe its functioning with neat waveforms. Obtain the expressions for gain A, and the two minimum control voltage levels. b) Discuss about the balance conditions in a bidirectional diode sampling gate. a) Realize two-input TTL NAND gate truth table and explain its operation with suitable circuit diagram. Which type of NAND gate is immune to noise? Explain its working. b) With the help of neat circuit diagram and truth table, explain the working of diode logic AND gate, and RTL AND gate.
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Code No: T0201/R05
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 POWER SYSTEMS-I (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) What is the dierence between re tube boiler and water tube boiler? (b) What is super heater? What are its advantages in the thermal station? How many types of super heaters are there? What are the dierences between them? [6+10] 2. (a) What is the need of nuclear power generation? (b) What are the merits and demerits of nuclear power plant? [6+10]
3. (a) What are the advantages of a doubly fed distributor over single fed distributor? (b) Figure 3b shows a ring distributor with inter connector BD. The supply is given at point A. The resistances of go and return of various sections are indicated in the gure. Calculate i. current in the inter connector ii. voltage drop in the inter connector. [8+8]
Figure 3b 4. (a) Discuss in brief various methods of AC distribution. (b) A single-phase distributor 2 km long supplies a load of 120 A at 0.8 power factor lagging at its far end and a load of 80 A at 0.9 power factor lagging at its midpoint. Both power factors are referred to the voltage at the far end. The impedance per km (go and return) is (0.05+ j0.1) ohms. If the voltage at the far end is maintained at 230 V, determine the following i. Voltage at the sending end and ii. Phase angle between the voltages at both the ends. [8+8]
5. (a) What is a substation? Name the factors that should be taken care of while designing and erecting substation. 1 of 2
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(b) What is group switching? Explain its operation in detail with help of suitable diagram. [8+8] 6. (a) Explain the function of a synchronous phase modier placed at the receiving end of the transmission line (b) A 3 phases 500 H.P, 50 Hz, 11 KV star connected induction motor has a full load eciency of 85% at lagging p.f. of 0.75 and is connected to a feeder. If it is desired to correct the p.f of 0.9 lagging load. Determine the i. The size of the capacitor bank in KVAR ii. The capacitance of each unit if the capacitors are connected in as well as in Y. [8+8] 7. (a) Discussion eect of load factor and diversity factor on the cost of generation in a power system. (b) A power station has a maximum demand of 15MW, a load factor of 70%, a plant capacity factor of 52.5% and a plant use factor of 85%. Find i. the daily energy produced ii. the reserve capacity of the plant and iii. the maximum energy that could be produced daily if the plant were in use all the time. [8+8] 8. Describe the dierent types of taris. [16]
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Code No: T0201/R05
Set No. 2
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 POWER SYSTEMS-I (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Draw the schematic diagram of thermal power station and also briey discuss the main components of the station. [16] 2. Briey discuss the main parts of a nuclear reaction and explain the principle of operation. [16] 3. (a) Discuss briey the requirements of a distribution system (b) A 2-wire DC ring distributor is 300m long and is fed at 240V at point A. At point B, 150m from A, a load of 120A is taken and at C, 100m in the opposite direction, a load of 80a is taken if the resistance per 100m of single conductor is 0.03, nd i. current in each section of distributor ii. voltage at points B and C. [8+8]
4. A 3-phase distribution system is shown in gure 4 Power is supplied at A at line voltage of 6.6 kV and balanced loads of 25A per phase at 0.8 lagging p.f and 35A per phase at 0.9 lagging p.f are taken at B and C respectively. The impedances of the feeders are AB = (5 + j9) , BC = (6 + j10) and CA = (4 + j8) . Calculate the voltage at B and C and the current in each branch p.f.s are assumed w.r. to voltage at A. [16]
Figure 4 5. (a) What is a substation? Name the factors that should be taken care of while designing and erecting substation. (b) What is group switching? Explain its operation in detail with help of suitable diagram. [8+8] 1 of 2
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6. (a) Why is excitation control necessary in an alternator? (b) An industrial load consists of i. 250 h.p (metric) induction motor having overall power factor 0.8 lagging and eciency 85%. ii. 150 h.p. Synchronous motor of eciency 85% and works at a power factor 0.707 lagging. The consumer is charged at the rate of Rs. 75 per kVA of maximum demand plus 3 Paise per kWh. Calculate the annual saving of the synchronous motor, which works at a leading power factor of 0.8. Assume 100 percent load factor. [8+8] 7. (a) Discussion eect of load factor and diversity factor on the cost of generation in a power system. (b) A power station has a maximum demand of 15MW, a load factor of 70%, a plant capacity factor of 52.5% and a plant use factor of 85%. Find i. the daily energy produced ii. the reserve capacity of the plant and iii. the maximum energy that could be produced daily if the plant were in use all the time. [8+8] 8. (a) What is the objective of tari? What type of tari is employed for domestic consumers? Why is this tari not employed for a bulk power consumer? (b) The xed costs of a thermal power station are Rs. 500 per KW of installed capacity per year. The fuel and operating costs are 10 paise per KWh generated. Determine the cost of the electrical energy generated per KWh at station load factor of 25%, 50%, 75%, 90% and 100%. Comment on the results. [8+8]
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Code No: T0201/R05
Set No. 3
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 POWER SYSTEMS-I (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Explain the following with block diagram. (a) Air and ue gas circuit (b) Feed water - steam ow circuit. 2. (a) What are the various ways in which you can classify nuclear reactors? (b) What are the dierent safety methods to be applied in the nuclear power station? [8+8] 3. (a) Find out the voltage drop expression of a two wire DC distribution with a uniformly load being fed at one end. (b) A 2-wire DC distributor cable AB is 2Km long and supplies loads of 100A, 150A, 200A and 50A situated 500m, 1000m, 1600m and 3000m from the feeding point A. Each conductor has a resistance of 0.01 per 1000m. Calculate the p.d at each load point if a p.d. of 300V is maintained at point A. [8+8] 4. (a) What are the factors to be considered during the voltage drop calculation in AC distribution. (b) A single phase, two wire A.C. feeder is loaded as shown in Figure 4b. The power factors are lagging and are referred to the voltage at the respective load points. The impedances of section PQ and QR are (0.03 + j 0.05) and (0.05 + j 0.08) ohm respectively. Determine the voltage magnitude and phase angle at the supply end, if the voltage at the far end is 230 V. [8+8] [8+8]
Figure 4b 5. (a) Explain the construction aspects of gas insulated substations. (b) What is the dierence between air insulated substations and gas insulated substations. [10+6] 6. (a) Why is excitation control necessary in an alternator? (b) An industrial load consists of
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Code No: T0201/R05
Set No. 3
i. 250 h.p (metric) induction motor having overall power factor 0.8 lagging and eciency 85%. ii. 150 h.p. Synchronous motor of eciency 85% and works at a power factor 0.707 lagging. The consumer is charged at the rate of Rs. 75 per kVA of maximum demand plus 3 Paise per kWh. Calculate the annual saving of the synchronous motor, which works at a leading power factor of 0.8. Assume 100 percent load factor. [8+8] 7. (a) Dene the terms: annual plant use factor and annual plant capacity factor of a power station and discuss the eect of these factors on the choice of the size and number of units, the reserve capacity of plant and the operating schedule of the station. (b) A consumer has the following connected loads: 15 lamps of 40W each and two heaters of 1,000W each. His maximum demand is 15000W. On the average he uses 10 lamps 5 hours a day and each heater for 3 hours a day. Find his average load, monthly energy consumption and load factor. [8+8] 8. (a) Explain with examples : i. ii. iii. iv. Flat rate tari Block rate tari Two part tari power factor tari.
(b) A 125 kVA transformer with a copper loss of 1.4 kW at full load an iron loss of 1.2 kW has the following operating schedule per year. Full load at 0.8 p.f. for 2,000 hrs Half - full load at 0.8. p.f. for 2,500 hrs No-load for the remaining hours. Find the total annual electricity bill if the at rate tari is 60 paise / kWh. [8+8]
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Code No: T0201/R05
Set No. 4
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 POWER SYSTEMS-I (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) What is economizer? What is its advantages. (b) Describe the various systems of ash handling methods. [8+8]
2. (a) Discuss briey the ratio-active pollution of environment by nuclear power plant. (b) Describe the dierent types of fuels used in a nuclear power plant and discuss the problems of nuclear waste disposal. [6+10] 3. (a) Derive an expression for the power loss in a uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end. (b) The gure 3b show a ring main supplied at point X and loaded at points A and B. The resistance of the various sections (both go and return) are shown. Find i. the current in AB section and voltages at load points A and B ii. the voltage drop between X and A, when load at B is removed. [8+8]
Figure 3b 4. (a) Discuss in brief various methods of AC distribution. (b) A single-phase distributor 2 km long supplies a load of 120 A at 0.8 power factor lagging at its far end and a load of 80 A at 0.9 power factor lagging at its midpoint. Both power factors are referred to the voltage at the far end. The impedance per km (go and return) is (0.05+ j0.1) ohms. If the voltage at the far end is maintained at 230 V, determine the following i. Voltage at the sending end and 1 of 2
Code No: T0201/R05
Set No. 4
[8+8]
ii. Phase angle between the voltages at both the ends. 5. (a) Explain the main and transfer bus bar system with circuit diagram.
(b) What is the dierence between single bus bar with and without sectionalization arrangement? [8+8] 6. (a) What factors determine the economical limit of p.f. correction? Show that the economical limit to which the p.f. of a lagging p.f. load can be raised is independent of the original value of the p.f. if the tari consists of a xed charge per KVA of maximum demand plus a at rate per KWh. (b) Calculate the value of the new p.f. when the tari is Rs. 1,350 per KVA of maximum demand plus a at rate paise 80 per kWh. Assume additional cost of condensers etc. at Rs. 1,050 per KVA of such plant. Rate of interest and depreciation together is taken as 10%. [8+8] 7. (a) Dene the load factor? What is it importance? (b) A central station supplied energy to two substations A and B, four feeders take o from each of the sub-stations the maximum demand are as given below Central station : 10MW Feeders on substation A : 1.5, 2, 5, 3 MW Substation A : 6 MW Feeders on substation B : 2, 4, 5, 1 MW
Substation B : 8 MW Calculate the diversity factors between i. substations ii. feeders on substation A and iii. Feeders on substation B.
[10+6]
8. (a) Explain the simple type of tari. What are the defects of simple tari? (b) A consumer has an annual consumption of 70, 80 KWh, the charge is Rs. 100 per kW of maximum demand plus 5 paise per KWh. i. Find the annual bill and the overall costs per KWh if the load factor is 40%. ii. What is the over all cost per KWh if consumption was reduced by 25% with the same load factor. [8+8]
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Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 1
1. Write short notes on any of the F OU R: (a) Arithmetic mean (b) Deviation from the mean (c) Average deviation (d) Standard deviation (e) Variance. 2. (a) Write short notes on atomic standards for frequency and time? (b) State the SI units, unit symbols and dene each unit for the following: i. ii. iii. iv. Voltage Resistance Inductance Capacitance [16]
[8+8]
3. (a) Explain the following terms: i. ii. iii. iv. Accuracy Bias Calibration Calibration interval [8+8]
(b) What are the things involved in calibration program? 4. (a) Write short notes on the principle of peak reading voltmeter?
(b) Illustrate the principle and working of ramp type DVM? Compare its performance with other types of DVMs? [8+8] 5. (a) Discuss the problems associated in AC bridges if used for measurement at very high frequencies. (b) A Hay bridge is used to measure an inductive impedance.The bridge constants at balance are C1=0.1F, R1= 20K, R2= 5K R3= 2K and W=3000 rad/s. Calculate Lx, Rx. [8+8] 6. (a) What is the function of a gate control Flip-Flop in a frequency counter? Explain its operation. (b) Explain how do you interface the seven-segment display to a counter. 1 of 2 [8+8]
Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 1
7. (a) Describe the electrostatic focusing system of a CRT. (b) What is the minimum distance L, that will allow full deection of 4 cm at the oscilloscope screen with a deection factor of 100 V/cm and with an accelerating potential of 2000 V ? [8+8] 8. (a) Compare the selectivity characteristics of the spectrum analyzer and wave analyzer. (b) Explain the following terms associated with spectrum analyzer. i. Sensitivity ii. Dynamic Range iii. Harmonic mixing
[7+3+3+3]
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Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 2
1. (a) Explain the following terms: i. ii. iii. iv. Precision Sensitivity Resolution Error
(b) A voltmeter, having a sensitivity of 1000/V, reads 40V on its 150V scale when connected across an unknown resistor in series with a milli ammeter. When the milli ammeter reads 800mA, calculate i. the apparent resistance of the unknown resistor ii. the actual resistor of the unknown resistor iii. the error due to the loading eect of the voltmeter? 2. (a) What are the international standards of mass and length? (b) Distinguish between a primary and secondary standard. (c) Write short notes on the concept of current standards? 3. (a) Explain the following terms: i. ii. iii. iv. (b) SCALE READING 100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 PRECISION VOLTAGE CORRECTION 103 +3 93 +3 82.5 +2.5 72.5 +2.5 62 +2 51.7 +1.7 41.5 +1.5 31 +1 19.7 -0.3 9.5 -0.5 0 0 1 of 2 Measurement and test equipment Traceability Reliability Tolerance limits [5+5+6]
[8+8]
Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 2
For the 10 and 50 readings in the calibration chart shown above determine the instrument accuracy as a percentage of the reading and as a percentage of full scale? [8+8] 4. (a) Describe the working of integrating type DVM? (b) Explain the working of AC voltmeter using half wave rectier? (c) What are the advantages of using full wave rectier over half wave rectier while measuring AC voltage? [8+4+4] 5. (a) What is a Wagners earth connection? Explain how does it eliminate the stray capacitances. (b) Give the list of the detectors used in both ac and dc bridges. [8+8]
6. (a) Draw the block diagram of frequency counter used for the frequency ratio measurement .Explain its operation. (b) With a neat sketch explain the operation of a co-axial wave meter. 7. (a) Derive an expression for the deection sensitivity of electrostatic CRT. (b) The Lissajous pattern on an CRO is stationary and has 6 horizontal and 3 vertical tangencies. The frequency of the vertical input is 600Hz. Determine the frequency of horizontal input. [9+7] 8. (a) What are the advantages of LCD display over LED display. (b) With block diagram explain the operation of FFT spectrum analyzer.[8+2+6] [8+8]
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Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 3
1. (a) A voltmeter reading 70V on its 100V range and an ammeter reading 80mA on its 150mA range are used to determine the power dissipated in a resistor. Both these instruments are guaranteed to be accurate within 1.5% at full scale deection. Determine the limiting error of the power? (b) Write short notes on accuracy and precision? 2. (a) Distinguish between International and absolute standards (b) A bar magnet has a cross section of 1in * 1in and a ux density of 1290 lines per square inch. Calculate the total ux in Wb (c) Write short notes on the international standard of mass, length and volume? [4+4+8] 3. (a) Explain the following terms: i. ii. iii. iv. (b) SCALE READING 100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 PRECISION VOLTAGE CORRECTION 103 +3 93 +3 82.5 +2.5 72.5 +2.5 62 +2 51.7 +1.7 41.5 +1.5 31 +1 19.7 -0.3 9.5 -0.5 0 0 Measurement and test equipment Traceability Reliability Tolerance limits [8+8]
For the 10 and 50 readings in the calibration chart shown above determine the instrument accuracy as a percentage of the reading and as a percentage of full scale? [8+8] 4. (a) Write short notes on the principle of peak reading voltmeter? 1 of 2
Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 3
(b) Illustrate the principle and working of ramp type DVM? Compare its performance with other types of DVMs? [8+8] 5. (a) Explain the parallel-connection method of using Q-meter and Obtain the expressions for resistance , reactance and Q factor. (b) Give the list of the detectors used in ac bridges. [10+6]
6. (a) What is the function of a gate control Flip-Flop in a frequency counter? Explain its operation. (b) Explain how do you interface the seven-segment display to a counter. [8+8]
7. (a) Distinguish between alternate and chopped modes of operation of CRO. (b) Explain the gear wheel method for frequency measurement [8+8]
8. (a) With a schematic diagram explain the operation of pulse duration modulation(PDM) recording system. (b) Draw the block diagram of a logic analyzer and explain its operation. [8+2+6]
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Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 4
1. (a) Explain the following terms i. ii. iii. iv. Instrumental error Limiting error Random error Probable error
(b) The current passing through a resistor of 100 0.2 is 2.00 0.5A. Using the relationship P = I 2 R, Calculate the limiting error in the computed value of power dissipation? [8+8] 2. (a) Describe the international standard of mass, length and volume? (b) What are atomic standards for frequency and time? 3. (a) What are the necessary steps taken before performing calibration? (b) What is meant by testing, where is it performed and give the applications of testing? (c) Why ISO 9001 and ISO 9002 standards are required for calibration? [4+8+4] 4. (a) Write short notes on the principle of RMS voltmeter? (b) Explain with a neat block diagram dual slope type DVM? [8+8] [8+8]
5. (a) A bridge is balanced at 1 KHz and has the following constants; AB=0.5 F capacitance in parallel with 1 K resistance; BC, 2000 pure resistance ;CD unknown capacitor and resistance in series; DA , C=0.5F. Find the constants of arm CD, and dissipation factor. (b) What are the limitations of Wheatstones bridge? [10+6]
6. (a) With the help of a block diagram explain the multiplexed display technique used in a frequency counter. (b) Explain in detail about frequency mode errors and period mode errors. [4+6+6] 7. Write short notes on the following controls. (a) Delayed Sweep (b) ALT/ CHOP mode (c) Astigmatism [4+8+4]
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Code No: T1001/R05
Set No. 4
8. (a) With a schematic diagram explain the operation of pulse duration modulation(PDM) recording system. (b) Draw the block diagram of a logic analyzer and explain its operation. [8+2+6]
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Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS ( Common to Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Mechatronics, Production Engineering, Bio-Technology and Automobile Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks
1. (a) State and prove Bayes theorem (b) In a certain college 25% of boys and 10% of girls are studying mathematics. The girls constitute 60% of the students. If a student is selected at random and is found to be studying mathematics, nd the probability that the student is a i. girl ii. boy 2. (a) If X is a continuous random variable with distribution. 1 x+k if 0 x 3 6 f (x) = 0 elsewhere determine i. the value of k ii. the mean iii. P(1 x 2) (b) Derive the formula to nd the mean and variance of Binomial distribution [8+8] 3. (a) 2% of the items of a factory are defective. The items are packed in boxes. What is the probability that there will be i. 2 defective items ii. at least three defective items (b) The marks obtained in statistics in a certain examination found to be normally distributed. If 15% of the marks of the students 60, 40% < 30% marks, nd the mean and standard deviation. [8+8] 4. A population consists of ve numbers 2,3,6,8,11. Consider all possible samples of size two which can be drown without replacement from the population. Find (a) The mean of the population (b) Standard deviation of the population. (c) The mean of the sampling distribution of means [8+8]
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Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 1
[4+4+4+4]
(d) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of means.
5. (a) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs. 472.35 and a standard deviation of Rs 62.35. If x is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what condence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10. Find also the condence interval with that condence. (b) A manufacturer of electric bulbs claims that the percentage defectives in his product doesnt exceed 6. A sample of 40 bulbs is found to contain 5 defectives. Would you consider the claim justied? [8+8] 6. (a) To examine the hypothesis that the husbands are more intelligent than the wives, an investigator took a sample of 10 couples and administered them a test which measures the IQ as follows: Test the hypothesis with a reasonable test at the level of signicance of 0.05? Husbands: 117 105 97 105 123 109 86 78 103 107 Wives 106 98 87 104 116 95 90 69 108 85 (b) In an investigation on the machine performance the following results were obtained: No.of Units inspected No. of defectives Machine 1 375 17 Machine 2 450 22 Test whether there is any signicant performance of two machines at =0.05 [8+8] 7. (a) Find the most possible values of x and y from the following equations x 5y + 4 = 0, x + 2y 3 = 0, 2x 3y + 5 = 0 4x + 3y + 1 = 0 [8+8]
(b) Fit a curve of the form y = aebx for the following data x y 1 2 3 4 5 6 1.6 4.5 13.8 40.2 125 300
8. The following are the data on the number of twists required to break a certain kind of forged alloy bar and the percentage of two alloying elements present in the metal. Fit at least sequence regression line on x1 and x2 . [16] No. of tuirists (y) 41 49 69 65 40 50 58 57 31 36 44 57 19 31 33 43 % of elements of A (x1 ) 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 % of elements of B (x2 ) 5 5 5 5 10 10 10 10 15 15 15 15 20 20 20 20
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Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 2
1. (a) The probabilities that students A,B,C,D solve a problem are 1/3, 2/5, 1/5 and 1/4 respectively. If all of them try to solve the problem, what is the probability that the problem is solved. (b) In a bolt factory machines A,B,C manufacture 20%, 30% and 50% of the total of their output and 6%, 3% and 2% are defective. A bolt is drawn at random and found to be defective. Find the probabilities that it is manufactured from i. Machine A ii. Machine B iii. Machine C 2. (a) If F(x) is the distribution function of X given by F (x) = 0 if x 1 4 = k(x D) if 1 < x 3 =1 if x>3 determine i. f(x) ii. k iii. Mean (b) Find the maximum n such that the probability of getting no head in tossing a coin n times is greater than .1 [8+8] 3. (a) Suppose 2% of the people on the average are left handed. Find i. the probability of nding 3 or more left handed ii. the probability of nding 1 left handed. (b) The mean and standard deviation of a normal variate are 8 and 4 respectively nd i. P(5 x 10) ii. P(x 5) [8+8]
[8+8]
4. Sample of size 2 are taken from the population 1,2,3,4,5,6 without replacement Find (a) The mean of the population. (b) The standard deviation of the population. 1 of 2
Code No: V0101/R05 (c) The mean of sampling distribution of means.
Set No. 2
[44]
(d) The standard deviation of sampling distribution of means.
5. (a) Experiences had shown that 20% of a manufactured product is of the top quality. In one days production of 400 articles only 50 are of top quality. Test the hypothesis at .05 level. (b) If the mean breaking strength of copper wire is 505 lbs with a standard deviation of 15 lbs. The sample is 49 construct 95% condence interval for the mean. (c) If the standard deviation of a sample is 20 and the maximum error with 99% condence is 1.72. How large the sample might be? [5+5+6] 6. (a) To examine the hypothesis that the husbands are more intelligent than the wives, an investigator took a sample of 10 couples and administered them a test which measures the IQ as follows: Test the hypothesis with a reasonable test at the level of signicance of 0.05? Husbands: 117 105 97 105 123 109 86 78 103 107 Wives 106 98 87 104 116 95 90 69 108 85 (b) In an investigation on the machine performance the following results were obtained: No.of Units inspected No. of defectives Machine 1 375 17 Machine 2 450 22 Test whether there is any signicant performance of two machines at =0.05 [8+8] 7. (a) Derive normal equations to t y = axb (b) Fit a parabola of the form y = a + bx + cx2 for the following data x y 2 4 6 8 10 3.07 12.85 31.47 57.38 91.29 [6+10]
8. Calculate the coecient of correlation and the two lines of regression for the following data. [16] X 1 2 3 Y 9 8 10 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 11 13 14 16 15
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Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 3
1. (a) Two dice are thrown. Let A be the event that the sum of the points on face is 9. Let B be the event that at least one number is 6. Find the probability. i. P (A B) ii. P (A B) iii. P (A B c ) (b) Let X,Y,Z be three coins in a box. Suppose X is a fair coin. Y is two headed, and Z is weighted so that the probability of heads is 1/3. A coin is selected at random and is tossed. i. If head appears, nd the probability that it is fair. ii. If tail appears, nd the probability that it is the coin Z. [8+8]
2. (a) Calculate expectation and variance of x, if the probability distribution of the random variable x is given by X f -1 0 1 2 3 0.3 0.1 0.1 0.3 0.2
(b) The probability of a man hitting a target is 1/3. i. If he res 5 times, what is the probability of his hitting the target at least twice ii. How many times must he re so that the probability of his hitting the target at least once is more than 90%. [8+8] 3. (a) Using recurrence formula nd the probabilities when x=0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 If the mean of Poisson distribution is 3. (b) If the masses of 300 students are normally distributed with mean 68 kgs and standard deviation 3 kgs how many students have masses. i. Greater then 72 kg ii. Less than or equal to 64 kg iii. Between 65 and 71 kg inclusive 4. If the population is 3,6,9,15,27. (a) List all possible samples of size 3 that can be taken without replacement from the nite population. 1 of 2
[8+8]
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 3
[5+5+6]
(b) Calculate the mean of each of the sampling distribution of means. (c) Find the standard deviation of sampling distribution of means.
5. (a) A sample of 400 items is taken from a population whose standard deviation is 10. The mean of the sample is 40. Test whether the sample has come from a population with mean 38. Also calculate 95% condence interval for the proportion. (b) A social worker believes that greater than 25% of the couples in a certain area are ever used any form of birth control. A random sample of 120 couples was contacted. Twenty of them said that they have used. Test the belief if social worker at 0.05 level. [8+8] 6. The following are the average weekly losses of worker hours due to accidents in 10 industrial plants before and after a certain safety programme was put into operation: Before: 45 73 46 124 33 57 83 34 26 17 After: 36 60 44 119 35 51 77 29 24 11 Test whether the safety programme is eective in reducing the number of accidents at the level of signicance of 0.05? [16] 7. Fit a parabola of the form y = a + bx + cx2 for the following data by the method of least squares [16] x 20 40 60 80 100 120 y 5.5 9.1 14.9 22.8 33.3 46
8. Observations on price x and supply y the following data was obtained. x = 130, Find (a) coecient of correlation (b) The line of regression of y or x (c) The standard error of estimate. [6+5+6] y = 220, x2 = 2288, y 2 = 5506 and xy = 3467
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Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 4
1. (a) There are 12 cards numbered 1 to 12 in a box. If two cards are selected what is the probability that the sum in odd i. With replacement ii. Without replacement (b) Suppose colored balls are distributed in three indistinguishable boxes as follows: Box-I Box-II Red 2 4 White 3 1 Blue 5 3 Box-III 3 4 3
A box is selected at random from which a ball is selected at a random. What is the probability that the ball is colored (a) red (b) blue 2. (a) If F(x) is the distribution function of X given by F (x) = 0 if x 1 = k(x D)4 if 1 < x 3 =1 if x>3 determine i. f(x) ii. k iii. Mean (b) Find the maximum n such that the probability of getting no head in tossing a coin n times is greater than .1 [8+8] 3. (a) The mean diameter is 12 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm in a sample of 200 washers produced by a machine. Find the percentage of washers produced whose diameters lie i. within 11.97 to 12.03 mm ii. outside 12.03 mm 1 of 2 [6+10]
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 4
(b) Suppose the heights of American men are normally distributed with mean=68 inches and standard deviation 2.5 inches. Find the percentage of people whose heights lie between i. 66 inches and 71 inches ii. atleast 6ft. [8+8]
4. A population consists of 5,10,14,18,13,24 consider all possible samples of size two which can be drawn without replacement from the population. Find (a) The mean of the population. (b) The standard deviation of the population. (c) The mean of the sampling distribution of means (d) The standard deviation of sampling distribution of means. [44]
5. (a) A sample of size 64 and mean 60 was taken from a population whose standard deviation is 10. Find 95% condence interval for the mean. (b) Experience has shown that 10% of a manufactured product is of top quality. What can you say about the maximum error with 95% condence for 100 items (c) A coin is tossed 512 times. Head turned up 244 times. Can you say that the coin is unbiased. [5+5+6] 6. From the following data nd whether there is any signicant liking in the habit of taking soft drinks among the categories of employees. [16] Soft drinks Pepsi Thumsup Fanta Clerks 10 15 50 Employees Teachers Ocers 25 65 30 65 60 30
7. (a) Derive normal equations to t the curve of the form y = a + bx2 (b) Fit a curve of the form y = a + bx for the following data and nd y when x = 12 [6+10] x 1 2 3 y 9 8 10 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 11 13 14 16 15
8. Find the least squares regression equation of X1 on X2 and X3 from the following data. [16] X1 X2 X3 3 5 6 8 16 10 7 4 90 72 54 42 12 14 3 2 30 14
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Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Discuss the key challenges facing the software Engineering. 2. (a) What is non-functional requirements? Give examples for it. (b) Explain the matrices for specifying non-functional requirements. 3. (a) Discuss how feasibility studies is conducted. (b) Why requirements elicitation and analysis is a dicult process? [8+8] [8+8] [16]
4. (a) Discuss the statement, Not every software quality attribute is weighted equally as the software design is developed. (b) Explain the general task set for design. [8+8]
5. Consider the interactive application of Library Management system and develop a design model, a user model, a system image, and a system perception in the user interface modeling. [16] 6. (a) What is CK metrics suite? State and explain the six class-based design metrics for Object-Oriented systems. (b) Discuss the MOOD metrics suit. [10+6]
7. (a) What is the dierence between private and public uses for software metrics? (b) Discuss the guidelines which should be applied when we collect software metrics. [8+8] 8. (a) What is SQA plan? (b) Some people argue that an FTR should asses programming style as well as correctness. Is this a good idea? Why? [8+8]
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Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 2
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Explain various classes of software. (b) Dene Software. Why it does not wear out? [6+10]
2. Discuss the use of fourth generation techniques ( 4GT) for software development. [16] 3. Discuss the statement, Software system requirements may be derived or constrained by social and organizational context. [16] 4. (a) Discuss various top-down design strategies. (b) Explain about renement. Why always stepwise renement is preferred? [10+6+4] 5. What are the dierent static and dynamic models that UML provides to document the design? Discuss them clearly with suitable examples. [16] 6. (a) The software analysis and design are constructive tasks, and software testing is considered to be destructive from the point of view of developer. Discuss. (b) Who will test the software, either developer or an independent test group? Discuss the advantage and draw backs of each one. [8+8] 7. (a) Present an argument against lines of code as a measure for software productivity. Will your case hold up when dozens or hundreds of projects are considered? (b) The software used to control a photocopier requires 32,000 lines of C and 4200 lines of Small talk. Estimate the number of function points for the software inside the copier. [8+8] 8. (a) Explain about Sample-Driven reviews. (b) What is statistical SQA? What steps are required to perform it? [8+8]
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Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 3
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Suggest two application domains where SEI Capability model is unlikely to be appropriate. Give reasons why this is the case. [16] 2. Recommend the life cycle model (waterfall or evolutionary) for the following software systems. (a) Enterprise Software (b) Management Information Systems. [8+8]
3. What is a behavioural model? Discuss various types of behavioural models with examples for each. [4+12] 4. (a) Explain about data ow and layered architectures. Dierentiate between them. (b) Discuss the criteria used to assess an architectural design. [6+2+8]
5. State and explain with an example the various methods to identify object classes. [16] 6. (a) What questions do black-box tests answer? (b) What is meant by BVA? Discuss the guidelines to create BVA test cases. (c) Discuss about software tools for test case design. 7. (a) With a sample risk information sheet, explain the RMMM plan. (b) Discuss about software tools for risk management. 8. (a) What is SQA plan? (b) Some people argue that an FTR should asses programming style as well as correctness. Is this a good idea? Why? [8+8] [10+6] [5+5+6]
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Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 4
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Discuss about software process assessment in detail. [16]
2. Recommend the life cycle model( waterfall or evolutionary ) for the following software systems. a) Customer relations management b) Supply chain management. [8+8] 3. Discuss the statement, Ethnographic studies can reveal critical process details which are often missed by other requirement elicitation techniques. [16] 4. (a) Discuss various top-down design strategies. (b) Explain about renement. Why always stepwise renement is preferred? [10+6+4] 5. What is meant by OOD? Explain various stages in OOD? [16]
6. (a) What is meant by software quality? Discuss clearly the McCalls software quality factors. (b) Discuss about ISO 9126 Quality factors. [10+6]
7. (a) Compute the function point value for a project with the following information domain characteristics. Number of external inputs: 32 Number of external outputs: 60 Number of external inquires: 24 Number of external interface les: 2 Number of internal logical les: 8 Assume that all complexity adjustment values are average. (b) What is an indirect measure? And how are such measures common in software metrics work? [8+8] 8. (a) Discuss the role of an SQA group. (b) Distinguish among bug, error, and defect. [10+6]
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