LIST OF VERSES CHRISTIAN CLAIM THAT JESUS IS GOD 1.

"I AND THE FATHER ARE ONE" JOHN 10:30 Must read item. 2. "HE WHO HAS SEEN ME HAS SEEN THE FATHER" JOHN 14:9 3. "GO THEREFORE AND MAKE DISCIPLES IN THE NAME OF..." MT. 28:19 4. "FOR THERE ARE THREE THAT BEAR WITNESS..." 1 JOHN 5:8 5. "...LET US MAKE MAN IN OUR IMAGE." GENESIS 1:26 6. "THOMAS SAID TO JESUS, 'MY LORD AND MY GOD" JOHN 20:28 7. "...AND (MAGI) FELL DOWN, AND WORSHIPPED HIM." MT. 2:11 8. "BEFORE ABRAHAM WAS BORN... I AM" JOHN 8:58 9. "...AND SAT DOWN AT THE RIGHT HAND OF GOD" MARK 16:19 10. "...IF YOU CONFESS JESUS AS LORD" ROMANS 10:9-10 11. "IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD" JOHN 1:1to 9 and 14 Must read item. 12. "AND HIS NAME SHALL BE ... ALMIGHTY GOD" ISAIAH 9:6 13. "AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL" MATTHEW 1:23 14. "WALKED UPON A SEA; RAISED LAZARUS" MT. 14:25 & JOHN 11:44 15. "EXISTED IN THE FORM OF GOD... DlD NOT REGARD EQUALITY" PHIL. 2:6/7 16. "I AM ALPHA AND OMEGA" REVELATION 1:8 New item. More to be added soon...

Verse No. 1 Jesus said: "The Father and I are one." (John. 10:30). Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse proves, Jesus was God, like his Father. Study No. 1 In Greek, the language of the John's Gospel, the word 'heis' (masc.) means; 'Numerical one' and 'hen' (neut.); means 'Unity - in purpose'. In this verse apostle John has used 'hen' (Strong's #1520). Hence, the apostle was speaking of the "Unity in purpose". Those who may not be familiar with the Greek language or cannot have the access to the world famous concordance by James Strong may please look up the marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB), to find out the specific meaning of this word with reference to this verse. The next obvious question could be; What was that "Unity in purpose"? It was of conveying the Divine Message to mankind. Jesus passed on that Message and his Mission to his disciples. After having done that Jesus declared: "And the glory which Thou hast given me, I have given to them (disciples); that they may be one, just as we are one." (John 17:22). Jesus also said: "Holy Father, protect them in your name that you have given me, so that they may be one, as we are one." (John 17:11). In both the above verses the Greek word used by the apostle is 'hen' (Strong's # 1520). No upright and God fearing individual would go to the length of admitting that Jesus had declared the Twelve Disciples to be "co-equal" in status, like him or like his Father. A question often raised is; If Jesus had not declared himself being "God", why did the Jews pick up the stones and were ready to kill him, upon hearing these words? The reply appears in the text that follows and there also appears a noteworthy conversation between Jesus Christ and Jews. Jesus did acknowledge before this angry crowd (see verse 36), that: a) He was "sanctified" by God. (This act cannot be performed unless there are "two distinctly independent entities or parties". One party was doing the act of "sanctifying" while another was being "sanctified"). b) He was "sent " by God. (This text proves; One entity was "the sender", while the other was "the sent").

c) He was "son" of God. (This text proves; Jesus who had earlier quoted a verse from the Psalm to his contenders, was only asserting to be"the children of the Most High". Please read Psalm 82:6 and 7, for the details). To say otherwise would simply indicate; Jesus who was "God Himself", upon seeing the stones being pickedwas petrified. He either mutated or modified his earlier Declaration of being "God" and involuntarily acknowledged that he was merely; "a child of God, sent by God and sanctified by God". Study Supportive Passage: Jesus said: "I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I."(Jn. 14:28). This verse unequivocally refutes the assertion that Jesus was "co-equal" in status, with his Father. Note: Anyone who thinks that the word "greater" does not necessarily mean being greater in authority or higher in status, may please read John 13:16 along with 17:3.

Verse No. 2 Jesus said: "He who has seen me has seen the Father." (John 14:9). Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse proves Jesus was God. Study No. 2 One day to prove a point, Jesus picked up a child and said to his disciples; "Whoever receives this child in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives Him who sent me;" (Luke 9:48). This specific act of Christ Jesus and/or his explicit statement concerning this Child does not make; the Child and the Christ,co-equal or one in status. The next plausible question would be did Jesus admit he too was sent by God just as he was sending the Child? The answer is found several verses. Here are two: Jesus said: "...and that I do nothing on my own, but I speak these things as the Father instructed me." John 8:28. Jesus said: "...I have not spoken on my own, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment about what to say and what to speak." John 12:49. Study Supportive Passage: Jesus said; "Truly, truly, I say to you, a slave is not greater than his master; neither one who is sent greater than the one who sent him." (John 13:16).

Verse No. 3 Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19). Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse endorses the 'Doctrine of Trinity'. Study No. 3 Peake's Commentary on the Bible, published in 1919, is regarded by many scholars to be the standard book of reference for the Bible study. Commenting on the above quoted verse, it records; "This mission is described in the language of the church and most commentators doubt that the trinitarian formula was original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does not know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed in the name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."

Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor of New Testament, writes in his book 'For Christ's Sake'; "All but the most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church did not baptise people using these words - baptism was "into" or "in" the name of Jesus alone." The quoted verse (irrespective of it being authentic or otherwise), does not indicate that the three names mentioned are "co-equal" in their status and were also "co-eternal" in the time frame. Unless these two important qualifications are acknowledged, the verse fails to endorse the fundamental belief and principle of the 'Doctrine of Trinity'. Any one who joins Islam also recites two names ; "Allah" and "Muhammad", while admitting the ordained Islamic"Confession of Faith". But the later is regarded as the "servant" and "messenger" of Allah. If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one was "greater or lesser" in status, then why one is called the Father and the other His begotten Son? Study Supportive Passage: "And Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'" (Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter could have disobeyed the specific command of his master for baptizing in the "three names" and instead baptized these people in "one" name.

Verse No. 4 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one." I John 5:7. Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse endorses the 'Doctrine of Trinity'. Study No. 4 The text quoted above does appear in the older editions of the Kings James Version, but has been omitted in the recent editions of the Revised Version. It does not appear in the New American Standard Bible, the New English Bible, the New Revised Standard Version (Catholic Edition), the Revised English Bible, the New International Version and many other revised versions because the quoted passage does not appear in the older Greek manuscripts. Renowned historian Edward Gibbon calls the addition a "Pious Fraud" in his famous history book 'Decline and Fall of Roman Empire'. Peak's commentary on the subject reads; "The famous interpolation after "three witnesses" is not printed even in RSV., and rightly. It cites the heavenly testimony of the Father, the logos, and the Holy Spirit, but is never used in the early trinitarian controversies. No respectable Greek MS contains it. Appearing first in a late 4th-cent. Latin text, it entered the Vulgate and finally the NT of Erasmus. Study Supportive Passage: Notwithstanding the above rejections, here is the next verse, number 8, as it is found in Kings James Version; "And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three agree in one." Are these three witnesses "co-equal"? Can blood be substituted with water? Can water be regarded as the same in any respect with the Spirit? Just as the spirit, the blood and the water are three separate entities, so are the first three witnesses, namely; the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.

Verse No. 5 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..." Gen. 1:26. Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": The use of terms "us" and "our" proves; the God created man through Jesus in "their" image. The Creator was not a singular entity. Study No. 5 The editors of King James Version (The Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible, 6th edition) write this in their commentary: "The Hebrew word for God is 'Elohim' (430), a plural noun. In Genesis 1:1, it is used in grammatical agreement with a singular verb `bara' (1254), created. When plural pronouns are used, "Let us make man in our image after our likeness," does it denote a plural of number or the concept of excellence or majesty which may be indicated in such a way in Hebrew? Could God be speaking to angels, the earth, or nature thus denoting Himself in relation to one of these? Or is this a germinal hint of a distinction in the divine personality? One cannot be certain." The response to the commentators remark; "One cannot be certain", lies not very far, but in the next verse (Genesis 1:27), which reads; "And God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them." This statement tells us that the actual act of creation when performed, was performed by "Him" and in "His" image and not by "Us" in "Our" image. Furthermore, upon reading the following four verses from the Book of Genesis in connection with the creation, wherein the pronoun used by the author is "he" and not "we", clears the doubt and positively indicates; God Created His Creation Himself. The verses are Genesis 1:31, 2:2; 2:8 and 5:2. Study Supportive Passage: "And he (Jesus) answered and said unto them, 'Have you not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female.'" (Matthew 19:4). This statement by Jesus also affirms that the Creator was a singular entity.

Verse No. 6 Thomas said to Jesus; "My Lord and my God." John 20:28 Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": Since Jesus did not rebuke Thomas, upon hearing the above explicit statement declaring him as God, proves he was God. Study No. 6 Here is the entire text from the 'New American Standard Bible' John 20 : 27-28: "Then he (Jesus) said to Thomas, 'Reach here your finger, and see my hands, and reach here your hand, and put it into my side; and be not unbelieving, but believing.' Thomas answered and said to him, 'My Lord and my God!'" Please observe the mark of exclamation (!) at the end of the phrase. The King James Version has removed the exclamation mark. Please notice there was no question asked in the entire narration. Hence, the text which reads "Thomas answered" is inaccurate. The last phrase "My Lord and my God!" was not an answer but it was an outburst by Thomas, having seen something inexplicable and baffling. It is not unusual that a man cries out; "O' my God!" when he sees something totally bizarre. Below are the texts from two reputed versions of the Bible answer to any question. 'New English Bible': Thomas said, "My Lord and my God!" that support what Thomas said was not an

'Phillips Modern English Bible': "My Lord and my God!" criedThomas. Study Supportive Passage: Apostle John writes, immediately after the discourse between Jesus and Thomas; "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples,which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ." If John had recognized the answer by Thomas to be a testimony for the 'Deity of Jesus', and the observed silence by Jesus to be his acquiesce to such a testimony, then the apostle John would have asked us to believe "Jesus is the God", instead of "Jesus is the Christ" in the above verse.

Verse No. 7 "And when they (wise men from east) were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary his mother, and (they) fell down, and worshipped him." Matthew 2:11 Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": Worshipping anyone other than God is a major sin and yet the wise knowingly worshipped Jesus, shows he was God. Study No. 7 The Greek word used by the apostle in the above verse is 'prosekunesan'. It is derived from 'proskuneo' (4352), which literally means bow, crouch, crawl, kneel or prostrate. The three wise men were looking for the prophesied Messiah. Upon seeing the one, they bowed to the ground and paid their homage which is expected. There is no text of their prayers. The editors of K.J.V. have mistranslated the text. Below are the two versions with the correct translations. Study Supportive Passage: In the 'New English Bible' the text of the quoted verse reads;'bowed to the ground". In the 'New Revised Standard Version' the text of the quoted verse reads: "they knelt down and paid him homage". A Christian response to some of the above.

_________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Verse No. 8 When confronted by Jews; Jesus said unto them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." (John 8:58) Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This proves; a) Jesus existed before his birth. b) Jesus was the same entity who replied to prophet Moses when he asked his God; What was His name? What shall he say to his people? From behind the Burning Bush God replied;"I AM THAT I AM." (Exodus 3:14). Answer No. 8 a) Jesus was consecrated (anointed) by God before he was born and so was prophet Jeremiah. The Bible records, God came to prophet Jeremiah and said to him; "Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations." Jer. 1:5. God "loved" his chosen prophets before they were born. The Bible confirms; God "loved" Jesus before the foundation of the world. (Jn. 17:24). This act of loving by an entity called God, undoubtedly proves that Jesus was not God "Himself", before he was born or after he was born. Jesus was a distinctly separate entity that was "being loved" by God, records this verse for the people who are upright and open minded.

King Melchizedek of Salem was an eternal priest with no records of his beginning and ending. (Heb. 7:1-3). No Christian would admit, based upon this stated of "eternal life span", that the King of Salem was God, so how can Jesus be who claimed his existence before Abraham? b) The entire concept is based upon a simple conjecture. In the foot notes of Exodus 3:14 the editors of K.J.V. write; "Jesus probably alluded to this name of God in John 8:58, 'Before Abraham was, I AM." The use of phrase "probably alluded" indicates; this does not happen to be an established truth or certainty. The Greek words "ego eimi" are here translated as "I Am". However, the literal translation mentioned in the marginal notes of the New American Standard Bible reads; "I have been". Study Supportive Passage: Repeating the same phrase "I am", Jesus said; "I am (he), and that I do nothing on my own; but as my Father has taught me, I speak these things." (John 8:28). God of Moses had no instructor. If he had one, then that entity would be the God's mentor or boss!

Verse No. 9 Mark records; "...He (Jesus) was received up into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God." (16:19). Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": In the entire Bible no one else has that unparalleled privilege and distinction. Jesus being the "co-equal" with God has that honour. Study No. 9 One of the two great achievements of an eminent biblical scholar of the nineteenth century, Lobegott Friedrich Konstantin Von Tischendorf, was the historical discovery of the oldest known Bible manuscript 'Codex Sinaiticus' from St. Catherine's Monastery in Mt. Sinai. Dr. Tischendorf discovered that in this 5th century document the gospel of Mark ended at 16:8. In other words, the last 12 verses (9 to 20) were "injected" sometime after the 5th century. Clement of Alexandria and Origen never quoted these verses. You have quoted verse number 19. Today, in many of the revised versions of the Bible, the said last twelve verses appear within parentheses. (For further information please read 'Secrets of Mount Sinai' by James Bentley, Orbis, London, 1985). Peake's Commentary on the Bible records; "It is now generally agreed that 9-20 are not an original part of Mk. They are not found in the oldest MSS, and indeed were apparently not in the copies used by Mt. and Lk. A 10th-cent. Armenian MS ascribes the passage to Aristion, the presbyter mentioned by Papias (ap.Eus.HE III, xxxix, 15)." Study Supportive Passage: Acknowledgement of the quoted verse to be authentic rather proves; Jesus is not God. Paul postulates that while upon this earth Jesus "who was in the form of God" simply acted and"took upon him the form of a servant". (Phil. 2:7). Once in heaven, the part of acting was over and done with. Why Jesus the full fledged God was not sitting on the center seat? Since someone else had occupied the center seat and He "Commanded" Jesus to seat on his right hand (Lk. 20:42 and Acts 2:32-37) proves Jesus was neither the Almighty God during his Ministry, nor he is now in the Heaven. Having two seats, one for the First Person of the Trinity and one for the Second Person of the Trinity, clearly shows DUALITY. One asking another to "seat on my right hand" shows unequally within the Duality.

Verse No. 10 In the Epistle of Paul, it reads; "... if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you shall be saved.."; (Romans 10:9-10). Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": One must confess Jesus is God to be saved.

Study No. 10 The editors of the New Testament have created perplexity and confusion by translating the Greek word 'Theos' (meaning, God) as "Lord" and also translating the Greek word 'Kurios' (meaning, Master, Owner, Head of a house, Teacher) as "Lord". In the Greek scripture the word used is "Kurios". It does not translate God. Study Supportive Passage: "And there is no other God besides Me, A righteous God and a Saviour; There is none except Me. Turn to Me, and be saved, all the ends of the earth; For I am God, and there is no other."Isaiah 45:21-22.

Verse No. 11 " In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." (John 1:1) Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": The verse says; In the beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God. Study No. 11 The text does not read "In the beginning was Jesus". John did not write the word Jesus in his original manuscript. If he had meant that, he could have simply used the name Jesus. John wrote what he knew to be the Truth. In the beginning was the "Spoken Word" (i.e. God's Command). "Jesus" happens to be a SUBSTITUTION of the Greek word "Logos" used by the apostle. In reality the bible readers are implying, suggesting, alluding or insinuating the name of Jesus. The concept ofSUBSTITUTING the original Greek term 'Logos' with "Jesus" has been the traditional norm for the past many centuries. Hence it is not easy to believe otherwise. Is this "substitution" any where closer to the literal translation of the Greek word "Logos"? The answer is, No. The Greek term 'Logos' is derived from the root word 'Lego' meaning "to speak". The literal translation of the word 'Logos' is "something spoken, thought". A Command that is spoken. A thought that is expressed. The verification of this literal translation is very simple. Please refer to any good English Dictionary. Under the word 'Decalogue' you will find the meaning; "The Ten Commandments", (deka = ten; logous = commands). The dictionary also translates the word 'Logos' as "discourse, reason, (rarely) word". With the traditional "substitution" the verse reads; "and Jesus was with God and Jesus was God." How can Jesus be "with"God, and "was" God, as well? It defies the logic(the chain ofthoughts). The literal translation reads: In the beginning was the 'spoken word, command', and the 'spoken word, command' was with God, and the 'spoken word, command' was Divine. (John 1:1) The opening of John's Gospel coincides perfectly with the prologue of the Book of Genesis which reads; "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. And the God said, Let there be light; and there was light." (Genesis 1:1/ 3). The translation of 'Logos' as "Divine" in the last line is based upon the usage of Greek grammar. Here is the brief explanation for those who are interested in the grammar. In the second line, the phrase used by John for "God" is 'ho theo', meaning 'the God'. In the last line it is simply 'theo', the definitive article 'the' is missing. It is not written because here 'Theo' is a predicate of the preceding subject. The predicate is used to denote the nature, quality, attribute or property of the subject. In this instance the nature of the God's spoken command happens to be "Divine". In 'New translation of the Bible' (1922) by the famous Dr. James Moffatt, it reads; "the Logos was Divine". And, the similar translations appear in 'The Complete Bible - An American Translation' (Smith-

Goodspeed); 'The Authentic New Testament' by Hugh J. Schonfield and the translations done by; Haenchen, Lyder Brun and Madsen. Notes: John 1:2 & 3 would also translate perfectly with the literal translation and further compliment the opening passages from the Book Of Genesis. The Greek word 'houtos' {3778} should be literally translated as "the same" (meaning, the spoken word), instead of "he". In the King James Version, it reads;"The same was in the beginning with God", which supports the above clarification. Hence, John 1:2 & 3 should read: It (the Command) was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through it (the Command) and without it (the Command) not one thing came into being. Please read Genesis 1: 3, 6, 11, 14, 20 & 24. It will compel the readers to admit the Truth. In Isaiah 45:12 God says; I made the earth and created humankind upon it; it was my hands that stretched out the heavens, and I commanded all their hosts. Those who prefer to substitute the "Logos" with Jesus and read; "All things came into being through him (Jesus)", are requested to read Mt. 19:4. While drawing the attention of the Pharisees to the Old Testament passages (e.g. Gen. 1:27, 5:2 and Is. 45:12), Jesus clearly points out that it was God Himself (not he), who created the mankind. Notes: John 1: 4 With the literal translation John 1:4 would read: In it (the spoken Command) was life, and the life was the light for all people. Notes: John 1: 6 to 9 Here we aretold that John the Baptist was sent into this world in advance. He himself was not the light. But John was sent as a witness to testify that light, so that all might believe through him in what was to come. This true light, which enlightens everyone , was coming into this world after him. The rest is easy to follow once we understand the most important verse number 14. Notes: John 1:14 And the "Logos" (the spoken word, Command, wherein was life and light) became flesh (by entering the womb of Virgin Mary). No Bible reader can deny the fact that whenever God wanted to create anything (e.g. Light, Vegetation, Living Creatures, etc.,) He had been usingHis Commands to do just that. In this instance, He chose to make His Righteous Messiah through this unique "one of a kind" (John 3:16) Command. Briefly, it was the Command of God that became flesh (the body of Jesus within Mary). This also explains the Virgin Birth through Mary. To say that God Himself became flesh (Jesus, upon this earth) is not only a grave blasphemy but has been explicitly and repeatedly negated by Jesus himself, as shown from the beginning of this article. The only other alternative would be to say; the God Incarnate came to this earth and the God made an utterly false statement, concerning the CRUCIAL issue of having "the eternal life", in John 17:3. The choice is yours, which to adopt and what to reject. Study Supportive Passage: If John wanted to write "Jesus", why would he write "Logos" instead? There is no record of Jesus being ever addressed as "Logos" by any one in the New Testament. "...if any one proclaims to you a Gospel contrary to what you have received, let that one be accursed." Galatians 1:9.

Verse No. 12 "Unto us a Child is born, unto us a son is given, and the government shall be upon His shoulders. And His name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Almighty God, the Everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace." Isaiah 9:6

Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This prophecy was for Jesus and he was the Almighty God. Study No. 12 1. The opening sentence reads; "Child is born". It speaks of someone who had already been born. 2. The second sentence reads; "His name shall be". No one called Jesus by any of these four names. 3. In the the Old Testament, according to the Masoretic Text,the name is called; Pele-joez-el-gibborAbi-ad-sar-shalom; that is, Wonderful in counsel is God the Mighty, the everlasting Father, the Ruler of peace. These are not the names of Jesus but the Attributes of Almighty God. Study Supportive Passage: It is inconceivable the Almighty God, the very symbol of Honesty, Truth and Piety, would unjustly rebuke His diligent students, and say to them; "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone." (Mark 10:18)! It is also inconceivable, Him being a Judge of the Day of Judgment! The TRUTH is; what Jesus taught was the TRUTH. One may accept it at its face value or reject it is a different matter.

Verse No. 13 "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel; which translated means, "God with us." Matthew 1:23. Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This prophecy was for Jesus, who was "God with us". Study No. 13 Matthew repeats this prophecy from Isaiah 7:14. However the translated Hebrew text of the Old Testament differs from the translated Greek text of Matthew. Here is the translation of Isaiah 7:14 from the N.R.S.V. - 1989: "Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel." The Old Testament text tell us that Isaiah was speaking about a child bearing (pregnant) young woman whereas the New Testament text speaks of a virgin. The Old Testament text reads the woman is (in the past tense), whereas the New Testament text reads shall be (in the future tense). The Old Testament text reads the young woman shall name her child "Immanuel", which the Virgin Mary did not do. In the New Testament text it reads; They shall call his name "Immanuel". We have no records of anyone calling Jesus by that name. Most of the scholars agree today that this prophecy does to belong to Jesus. "Some have compared this young woman to Isaiah's young wife and newborn son (8:1-4)" records the marginal notes to Is. 7:14 in N.R.S.V. Study Supportive Passage: Before the birth of Jesus, an angel of the God told Mary; "You shall call His name Jesus," (Matthew 1:21). If the son of virgin Mary was to be called "Immanuel", why did the angel of God tell virgin Mary to call him Jesus, INSTEAD?

Verse(s) No. 14 "And in the fourth watch of the night Jesus went unto them, walking on the sea." (Matthew 14:25) "And he (Lazarus) that was dead came forth, bound hand and foot with grave clothes ..." (John 11:44) Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": Only God can walk on the sea and raise the dead.

Answer No. 14 Performance of extraordinary miracles is not the litmus test for being God. If that shall be the criteria then we should be ready to acknowledge many more Miracle performing Gods. 1. Prophet Joshua commanded the Sun and the Moon to stop for one whole day. Moved a shadow of the sun-dial ten degrees backward. 20:10).

(Joshua 10:13 and 2 Kings

2. Prophet Elisha brought back to life a dead son of a Shunammite woman. Resurrected himself. After being dead and buried, he stood up on his feet. Healed a Syrian named Naaman of leprosy. (2 Kings 4:35; 13:21 and 5:14). 3. Prophet Ezekiel made dry bones come together, grow flesh, cover with skin and come to life. (Ezekiel 37:3-10). 4. Prophet Elijah brought back to life a son of a widow. Made a bowl of flour and a jar of oil, inexhaustible for days. (1 Kings 17:22 and 14). Study Supportive Passage: "...Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through him in your midst..." (Acts 2:22). God was the Master Performer and Jesus was His medium.

Verse No. 15 "...although he (Jesus Christ) existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, taking the form of a bond servant, and being made in the likeness of men." (Philippians 2:6-7) Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": Jesus was God with us but he merely acted as a "bond servant". Answer No. 15 1. The Greek word used for "form" is 'morphe' (3444) which means; shape, fig, image, appearance. Hence, the phrase simply means, "in the image of God", as it reads in 2 Corinthians 4:4, "...Christ, who is the image of God." 2. "The image of God" does not mean "God". Genesis 1:26 confirms that man was also made in the "image of God". 3. In the New English Bible the word 'morphe' is translated as "nature". The text conveys; Jesus had the Divine nature. Study Supportive Passage(s): "Here is my servant, whom I have chosen..." (Mt. 12:18). "...the God of our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus" (Acts 3:13) N.R.S.V. "and you belong to Christ; and Christ belongs to God." 1 Corin. 3:23

Verse No. 16 "I am the Alpha and the Omega." (Rev. 1:8) Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": One who claimed this was Lord Jesus.

Answer No. 16 1. The entire text in N.R.S.V. reads: "I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty." Following the verses of Greetings to the Churches in Asia, which end with the word "Amen", this happens to be an opening statement of a fact praising the "Lord God - the Almighty". The testimony of Jesus begins with verse number 9. 2. In K.J.V. the above phrase is repeated in verse number 11. Since this phrase has been removed from the majority of the revises versions, it shows it was a superfluous addition. The need of injecting this phrase in verse 11 gives rise to the indication that the phrase in verse 8 was not spoken by Jesus. 3. In chapter 21 the phrase is once again repeated. Before we examine this particular verse it is essential to note that the Revelation is written in "apocalyptic" form - a style of ancient Jewish literature wherein symbolic imagery is used to demonstrate the ultimate triumph of the Almighty God, to those who are under constant persecutions (author John was a Jew). The author saw the vision of God, God's angel and of Jesus besides other things. Upon the reading of the verse number 6 of the earlier chapter (20), we notice that the God andthe Christ are "two" separate entities. And, in verse number 9 the author speaks of a fire coming down from "God". And, in verse 11 the author saw the throne of "God". And, the One who was seating on that White throne spoke the phrase and not Jesus. 4. In 1:1 John clearly mentions, at the very beginning of his book, that the Revelation was of Jesus Christ which God gave him. 5. In 1:2 John writes, he was testifying; the word of God and of Jesus. Study Supportive Passage: If John had seen, heard, known and believed that his Rabbi Teacher Jesus was the Almighty Alpha and Omega Himselfthen he would not have written (or allowed it to remain unaltered), that the sole aim of the writing of his Gospel was to prove that Jesus was the expected "Messiah", in John 20:31. If Jesus was "Alpha and Omega" then it would also contradict the verse 1 Corin. 15:28 of the New Testament. (The Verse Number 17 will be, God willing, soon added.)