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Test 7R P Physic 1 - 77 1 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77.

Test 7R Verbal 78 -137 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137.

Test 7R Biology 140 - 216 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. . 165. 190. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216.

7R Key

EXPLANATIONS for test 7R


1. A nitrogen atom has 3 single electrons and 1 lone pair. Hydrogen has one electron. The structure in C correctly shows each nitrogen with three bonds and a one lone pair. Each atom in this molecule has a full outer shell of electrons and all electrons are present. 2. Equation 1 shows that the Raschig process requires the reaction of 2 moles of ammonia to form 1 mole of hydrazine. The molar mass of ammonia is 17 g/mol (14 + 1 + 1 + 1). Therefore 34 g of ammonia is required to form 1 mole of hydrazine. 3. The passage states that the formula for hydrazine hydrate is N2H4H2O. The formula weight for hydrazine is 32 g/mol (14 x 2 + 4 x 1). The formula weight for hydrazine hydrate is 50 g/mol (32 + 2 x 1 + 16). The percent by weight of hydrazine in the hydrate would be 32.0/50.0 x 100%. 4. The reaction shows the formation of hydrazine from its elements. The value of Hf for a substance is the enthalpy change when one mole of that substance is formed at 1 atm pressure and 25C from the elements in their stable states at that pressure and temperature. Table 1 shows that Hf for hydrazine is 50.6 kJ/mol, therefore, the enthalpy change for the reaction shown would be 50.6 kJ/mol. 5. The basicity constant is a measure of the strength of a base. It is the equilibrium constant for the reaction of the base with water. The lower the value of Kb, the weaker the base. 6. In order for a reaction to be a spontaneous process, the value for Go must be less than 0. 7. Because there are 3 reactant moles, all liquids, and 7 product moles, all gases, the entropy increases in this reaction. Gas molecules have more freedom and randomness, and therefore higher entropy. 8. Since the ions are thousands of times more massive than the electron, answer B is justified (the hydrogen ion is the lightest ion and is nearly 2000 times more massive than the electron). An ion with so much mass compared to an electron will not be able to respond quickly because of its inertia. 9. The potential energy of an oscillatory motion is kx2 where x is the displacement. Since the maximum displacement occurs at A and C, answer D is justified. 10. The frequency is given by 9n0.5. With n = 1018, n0.5 = 109. Thus, frequency is 9 *109, which is answer C. 11. Wavelength is given by speed/frequency = 3 *107/109 or 3*10-2 m. This is the same as 3 cm or answer A. 12. This is basically a conservation of energy question. As the electrons move from A to B they convert potential energy into kinetic energy (mv2) and gain velocity

and hence momentum (mv) as they do so. This momentum is just enough to allow the electrons to go from B to C; i.e. the kinetic energy reconverts to potential energyjust equal to the amount of potential energy at point A. 13. This is basically a conservation of energy question. As the electrons move from A to B they convert potential energy into kinetic energy (mv2) and gain velocity and hence momentum (mv) as they do so. This momentum is just enough to allow the electrons to go from B to C; i.e. the kinetic energy reconverts to potential energyjust equal to the amount of potential energy at point A. As the electrons move from A to B they convert potential energy (kx2) into kinetic energy (mv2), where x is the displacement from point B. It is conservation of energy. 14. The passage states that silicon cannot be purified by electrolytic techniques. These techniques involve isolating silicon from silicate minerals by decomposing the minerals with an electrical current. It would follow that the silicon could not be purified by electrolytic techniques if the minerals do not decompose easily. 15. Silicon is the fourth element in the third row of the periodic table and has 14 electrons. The first 10 electrons would have the same electron configuration as Ne. The next 2 electrons would fill the 3s orbitals and the last 2 electrons would begin to fill the 3p orbitals following Hunds Rule (electrons will not pair up until each orbital in that sublevel has 1 electron.). The unpaired electrons have parallel spins. 16. According to VSEPR theory, 4 electron pairs around an atom will result in a tetrahedral geometry. 17. Elements in the same group share chemical properties. Because potassium is a Group 1 element, one would assume that sodium, another Group 1 element would be the best substitute. 18. Van der Waals forces are weak intermolecular attractive forces. The relatively low boiling point of the SiCl3H indicates that the intermolecular forces are not strong and are most likely van der Waals forces. 19. Fractional distillation can be used for purification when the components to be separated have different boiling points. 20. A1 and A2 represent the nuclear masses of the fragments of fission. This is given by the sum of their proton and neutrons. Since the reaction started with 236 nucleons and three neutrons were 3 = 233 mass units ortaken away the sum of the fragments must contain 236 nucleons. 21. This reaction is exactly a reproduction of the statement of beta decay as given in the stem. We see the new nucleus, a beta particle (an electron) and a neutrino. The new nucleus is one atomic number higher because of the emission of the electron leaving an extra proton in the nucleus. 22. The relative rate of decay for Ra compared to Pu is the inverse ratio of their halflives or 24000/1600 = 15. This is answer B.

23. The total volume held by 106 kg of ash would be (106 kg/1000 kg/m3) = 1000 m3. This volume is held in a cube 10 m on a side since (10 m)3 = 1000 m3. This is answer B. 24. The value for Eocell is equal to the sum of Eo of the half reactions. -1.23 + 0.34 = 0.89 V. 25. The ideal gas law makes the assumption that molecules have no volume. This assumption is adequate when the gas is at 1 atm, but when the pressure is increased to 500 atm the volume of the gas molecules is no longer negligible. 26. velocity.Power P is force Since speed v is fixed we must compare the forces F and Ft. The force is the coefficient of friction between tiresmg, where on the level road F is by notingand road. We can find

Now the force required to be overcome in going uphill Ft is

The power in t his case, Pt, is Ft v. The extra power needed is then Pt minus the original power P or:

Since cos 10o 1, This is answer D. 27. Light slows down because the index of refraction in the glass is greater than in the air. The index is a measure of the ratio of the velocity in air to the velocity in the medium. For sound the speed becomes greater because the speed of sound in a solid is much greater than in air (the glass has stiff rigid bonds which gives rise to a speed more than 10 times greater than in air). 28. The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine indicating that bromine is not involved in the rate determining step. If the reaction proceeds by the same mechanism with chlorine, then the reaction with chlorine

will have the same rate as it does with bromine because it would be zero order with respect to chlorine. 29. The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine, therefore bromine can be removed from Equation 2. A comparison of the results for Experiments 2, 4 and 6 (all with acetone concentrations of 0.80 M) shows that after dividing the rates of the reactions by the rate constants, the values obtained are directly proportional to the H+ concentration indicating the reaction is first order in H+.The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine, therefore bromine can be removed from Equation 2. A comparison of the results for Experiments 2, 4 and 6 (all with acetone concentrations of 0.80 M) shows that after dividing the rates of the reactions by the rate constants, the values obtained are directly proportional to the H+ concentration indicating the reaction is first order in H+. 30. The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine, therefore bromine can be removed from the expression. If the reaction is first order with respect to acetone and hydronium ion, then a = 1 and c = 1. 31. The passage states that the density of acetone is 0.791 g/mL and the molar mass is 58 g/mol. The molarity of pure acetone can be calculated as follows: (0.791 g/mL)(1000 mL/L)(1 mol/58 g) = 13.6 mol/L

32. Light in the visible region of the spectrum ranges from approximately 400 nm to 700 nm. The next region of light, below 400 nm is the ultraviolet region. 33. This is found as the difference between 894 MHz and 824 MHz since these are given as the upper and lower frequencies. This is 70 MHz and is answer C. 34. Since power P is current I multiplied by voltage V, V = 12 Volts, and the maximum power is 3 watts, then the current I must be 3/12 or 0.25 A. This is answer C. 35. This answer is implied by the passage. The conversations must be on different frequencies to be unique and so no two frequencies can be used by different phones at the same time. 36. Here we must calculate P/r2. The maximum value occurs for answer D. The intensities are: A. (0.6/4) W/mile2 = 0.15 W/mile2

B. (0.6/9) W/mile2 = 0.067 W/mile2 C. (3/25) W/mile2 = 0.12 W/mile2 D. (3/16) W/mile2 = 0.19 W/mile2, making D the key. 37. Light is a transverse wave with its electric and magnetic fields oscillating at right angles to the propagation vector where as sound is a longitudinal pressure wave. This comes from prior knowledge brought to bear on the problem. Answer A correctly states the result. 38. The two plates of the capacitor collect charges of opposite sign. As more charge arrives it is harder and harder to fill the plates until finally an equilibrium occurs, thus C is correct. 39. As the capacitor discharges the voltage across it falls, thus to maintain a constant current, R must be proportionately reduced. This is so from Ohms law, I = V/R. To keep I fixed, R must fall with V. This is answer B. 40. Since energy is lost by heating the small resistor, r, the energy stored in the capacitor must be less than the work done by the battery during the charging process. The battery supplies the energy for both processes and answer B is justified. 41. The capacitor charges up and stores energy in the electric field between the places. The energy stored is CVc2, where Vc is the voltage across the capacitor. The battery is the source of energy for the circuit and thus is a store of energy. The resistor is not a storage device for energy and answer C is the correct answer. 42. With 12 Volts initially across the capacitor during its discharge (the capacitor will charge to the battery voltage of 12V) and a current of 0.002 A as found in Figure 2, then the initial . This is answerresistance R must have been R = V/I = 12/0.002 = 6000 D. 43. The rate law for Reaction 3 is second order with respect to hydrogen ion. At a pH of 1 the hydrogen ion concentration is 1x10-1. When the pH is increased to 2, the hydrogen ion concentration is 1x10-2. Because all other conditions remain the same, the rate is decreased: (1 x 10-2)2/(1 x 10-1)2 or 1 x 10-2 times. The rate would therefore be (1.0 x 10-2 M/s) x (1 x 10-2) or 1 x 10-4 M/s. 44. No kinetic information is given for Reactions 1 and 2, only equilibrium constants. 45. Reaction 1 requires that a reaction takes place between two anions which would experience electronic repulsion due to their negative charges. Protonation of the oxygen would generate an electrically neutral species and the repulsion forces would be reduced. 46. The passage states that the reaction of H218O and SO3 is fast. Singly labeled SO4-2 would be prepared most quickly by reacting the unlabeled SO3 and the labeled H2O.

47. In this reaction the oxygen is transferred from the chlorine to the nitrogen. The transition state shown in Foil C is the only transition state that indicates the bond between the chlorine and oxygen breaking and a new bond between the oxygen and nitrogen forming. 48. The passage states that the Sequences I and III in Reaction 3 are fast and Sequence II is slow. This indicates that Sequence II would have the highest energy barrier, as is shown in the energy diagram in Foil B. 49. A substance boils when enough heat has been supplied to overcome the intermolecular forces. The fact that ammonia has a higher boiling point that phosphine indicates that ammonia requires more heat to overcome the intermolecular forces than does phosphine and therefore the intermolecular forces in ammonia are stronger than those in phosphine. 50. Density is mass/volume. The densities of the four objects are: A.(1.5/0.50) = 3.0 g/cc B.(3.0/0.75) = 4.0 g/cc C.(4.5/1.00) = 4.5 g/cc D.(6.0/1.50) = 4.0 g/cc Thus, answer C with 4.5 g/cc has the highest density. 51. Chlorine needs 1 electron to fill its outer shell. 52. The ammonium ion is an acid. It is a proton donor. 53. This is a Snell Law problem: where the ns are the indices of refraction. Taking the index of refraction of air to be nearly 1 then:

This is answer B. 54. According to the information in Table 1, the solution would contain 37.7 g Pb(NO3)2/100 mL H2O. The molality (mol solute/kg solvent) can be calculated as follows: (37.7 g Pb(NO3)2/100 mL H2O) x (1000 mL H2O/1 kg H2O) x (1 mol Pb(NO3)2/331 g Pb(NO3)2) = 1.14 mol Pb(NO3)2/kg H2 O = 1.14 m. 55. The passage states that the freezing point depression constant for water is Kf = 1.86oC/m. A solution that is 10.75 m ethylene chloride would lower the freezing point of water by 1.86oC/m x 10.75 m or 20.0oC. The freezing point of water is 0oC, so the freezing point of the solution would be 0oC - 20.0oC or -20.0oC. 56. The freezing point depression depends on the number of particles in the solution. A 0.1 M solution of lead nitrate would have a particle concentration of 0.3 M (1 mole of lead ions and 2 moles of nitrate ions for each mole of lead nitrate) while a 0.1 M solution of ethylene glycol would have a particle concentration of 0.1 M. The lead nitrate would therefore have a 3-fold greater effect on the freezing point of water.

57. Ethylene glycol has two alcohol functionalities making it a polar molecule. Water is also a polar molecule. Table 1 shows that ethylene glycol is infinitely soluble in water at both temperatures. Thus the like dissolves like generalization applies while temperature dependence of solubility generalization does not. 58. The interstitial fluid is hypertonic, meaning that the concentration is greater in the interstitial fluid than in the cellular fluid. There will be an osmotic effect because the cell wall is a semi-permeable membrane. Solvent will pass through the cell wall from the cell to the interstitial fluid resulting in an increase in the concentration of the cellular fluid. 59. Table 1 shows that lead nitrate has a solubility of 37.7 g/100 mL H2O at 0oC. The solution described in the stem would be saturated with 1.3 g (39.0 g - 37.7 g) of undissolved lead nitrate remaining. 60. The mole fraction can be determined as follows: 10 g Pb(NO3)2 x (1 mol Pb(NO3)2/331 g Pb(NO3)2) = 0.03 mol Pb(NO3)2 90 g H2O x (1 mol H2O/18 g H2O) = 5 mol H2O Mole fraction = 0.03 mol Pb(NO3)2/(0.03 mol Pb(NO3)2 + 5 mol H2O) = 0.006 61. Since acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, Case II will have the lower acceleration (or deceleration). It will be in the ratio of the inverse times or (0.1/0.25) or 0.4. This is answer B. 62. Each car has kinetic energy of mv2. Thus the total kinetic energy transformed into heat and deformation is 2 (mv2) = (1000)(20)2 = 400,000 J. This is answer B. 63. Certainly the change in the coefficient of friction as one goes from soft rubber to hard would not influence the required tire pressure. Thus answer D is correct in that we expect this prediction not to hold. 64. This answer follows directly from the passage. Without the spring the collision time will be short making the deceleration and the resulting force large. The spring absorbs some of the energy and is set into oscillatory motionthis will increase the net time of the collision. Thus the answer is A. 65. The passage tells us that during each second Car A travels 30 m and Car B travels 20 m. To make up 100 m the two cars must travel 10 seconds. This is answer D. 66. Since momentum is conserved and is given by mass multiplied by velocity we have mv + MV = (m + M) Va, where v and V are the initial velocities of cars A and B and Va is the velocity of both after the inelastic collision. So

This is answer C. 67. Since we would expect the quake information to propagate in all directions, it does not support the coincidence hypothesis to learn that subsequent quakes occurred in all directions. The other three answers all stress the possibility of coincidence. 68. Lasting deformations go as (L/d)3 according to the passage. Thus for two different values of d, d1 and d2, the ratio of lasting deformations will go as (d2/d1)3. This value will be (4/16)3 = (1/4)3 = 1/64. This is answer C. 69. Answer A certainly makes sense qualitatively. The relatively small trigger unleashed a quake that was basically ready to go with a small provocation. Answer B sounds good but the passage argues against elastic oscillations causing lasting deformations. Answers C and D make no sense and are wrong. Thus A is the best answer. 70. The speed of a wave v is given by its wavelength divided by its period T:

The order of magnitude is then thousands of meters per second or answer B. 71. The Doppler Effect will cause a bunching or squeezing of the waves moving with the rupture and an elongation of the waves opposing the rupture. This is answer C. 72. The difference in pressure in a fluid on Earth is: (change in g (density of fluid) height) = (1000)(10)(0.25) = 2500 N/m2 This is answer C. 73. The reaction equation shows the reduction of H+ by Cd. Because the H+ accepts the electron readily from Cd, it can be determined that H+ has the highest electron affinity. 74. According to the relation given in the passage, the energy of an electron in orbit n = 3 is less negative or greater than the energy in orbit n = 2. Thus energy is required to make the transition from n = 2 to n = 3 and the atom gains energy. Answer D states precisely this and only D is consistent with this result. 75. To find the relative refractive index to air one needs both the incident and refracted angles. Since the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection we will know the angle of reflection. We still must know the angle of refraction and

this is answer B. None of the other answers will allow one to know the angle of refraction. 76. A faraday is equal to one mole of electric charge. Because each aluminum ion gains 3 electrons, 0.1 faraday of charge will reduce 0.1/3 moles of aluminum, or 0.033 moles of aluminum. 77. The indicator will change color over a specific pH range. The range at which the color change takes place depends on the point at which HIn is converted to In-, and this depends on the pKa of the indicator. 78. Changes brought on by human judgment are natural. This thesis is implied or stated by the author throughout the passage, including the view that such adaptation is natural to a peculiarly human evolution: If we believe that all life shares a certain quality of sensitivity, or self-awareness, then Homo sapiens was an astonishing and wholly unpredictable leap forward in this respect. This view is reinforced by the authors point about the superiority of cultural over genetic adaptation: When human beings encounter new circumstances, adaptation rarely depends on which individuals are genetically best suited to adjust. No, human beings tend to cut the loop short by noticing the new, puzzling over itattempting to find out immediately what is edible, combustible, domesticable. The author sets this view against the view of human presence is a sort of monolithic [natural] disaster that is making the worlds natural continuance impossible. 79. The author states that the human capacity for reasoned judgment sets it apart from other creatures: What seems simple to us is far beyond them. The author elaborates by focusing on human problem-solving and inventiveness as a means of adaptation. By reasonable implication, the author would say the same for a species with greater capacities than humans. 80. While the author acknowledges the concerns about the rates of extinctions, saying these are what alarms so many life historians, the author does not share their alarm, instead asserting that change, one of the most reliable constants, occurs rapidly because of human agency: I dont think [North America] is a poorer place now than it was twenty thousand years ago. Compared with other creatures, its almost as if we move so fast that we are invisible [to other creatures], and they are still trying to pretend that the world is the same as it was before we arrived. The speed of human adaptability accounts for humans wholly unpredictable [evolutionary] leap forward, according to the author. This implies that human adaptability is a natural occurrence. 81. The superiority of human cultural adaptation over genetic adaptation is a key feature of the authors central argument that humans are conscious agents of change on this planet. It follows that the author would focus on human inventiveness as the key to survival on Mars. 82. The author emphasizes how life historians support this particular argument: What alarms so many life historians is not that extinctions are occurring but that

they appear to be occurring at a greater rate than they have at all but a few times in the past. 83. In discussing cultural adaptation, the author states: When humans encounter new circumstances, adaptation rarely depends on which individuals are genetically best suited to adjust. Instead, humans adapt by noticing the new, puzzling over it, telling their friends, and attempting to find out immediately whether it is edible, combustible, domesticable. 84. The author is fairly direct on this point; after questioning the belief of many people that these changes [brought about by human cultural adaptation] are often for the worse, the author states: The more convinced we are that our species is a plague, the more we are obliged to yearn for disasters. The author is convinced that human potential allows for rapid and beneficial adaptation: Consciousness. Mind. Insight. Here are qualities that, if not exclusively human, seem appallingly rudimentary elsewhere. Plainly, our planet contained vast opportunities for creatures willing to shape it consciously toward their ends. The author strongly implies that only humans took this opportunity in the form of cultural adaptation. 85. After stating that no artist prior to Czanne had attempted to view the world objectively, and pointing out how several periods in art history had attempted to make art imitative, the author points out that there always intervened between the visual event and the act of realizing the vision an activity which we can only call interpretative. The author elaborates on this by stating the differences between sensual perception and art: This intervention seemed to be made necessary by the very nature of perception, which does not represent to the senses of flat two-dimensional picture with precise boundaries but a central focus with a periphery of vaguely apprehended and seemingly distorted objects. The author discusses the role of imagination and intellect being like a map in helping the artist interpret perceived reality by means of, for example, a system of perspective, and then states: One might conclude from the history of art that reality in this sense is will-o-the wisp, an actuality we can see but never grasp. Interpretation, for the artist, becomes part of the act of seeing. 86. The author establishes the central thesis in the first paragraph, citing the singleminded determination of [Czanne] to see the world objectively. The author devotes much of the remainder of the passage to discussing how much of art previous to Czanne represented an interpretation of reality by bringing extravisual faculties such as imagination and intellect into play. Czanne by seeing the world as object attempted to succeed in this where [his predecessors] had failed. 87. The author states this idea outright: Great revolutionary leaders are people with a single and a simple idea, and it is the very persistency with which they pursue this idea that endows it with power. 88. The author says: [Czannes] immediate predecessors, the Impressionists, had seen their world subjectivelythat is to say, as it presented itself to their senses in

various lights, or from various points of view. Each occasion made a different and distinct impression on their senses.. 89. The context of the phrase indicates that it refers to the inability of artists before Czanne to effectively depict reality: One might conclude from the history of art that reality in this sense is a will-o-the wisp, an actuality we can see but never grasp. Prior to this statement, the author had discussed how reality had eluded artists before Czanne, including through the use of the system of perspective: like a map, [perspective] serves to guide the intellect; perspective does not give us any glimpse of the reality. 90. The author asserts Greek and Roman art was possessed of a desire to represent the world as it really is without offering specific examples or discussion of exactly how Greek and Roman artists attempted this. 91. The key to the authors point about Czanne is the influence Czannes persistence exerted on modern art: There is no doubt that what we call the modern movement in art begins with the single-minded determination of a French painter to see the world objectively. The author, referring to Czanne, discusses the persistence of great revolutionaries in pursuing an idea. Near the end of the passage, the author reinforces this point, saying, But Czannedid not despair of succeeding where his predecessors had failed. 92. The author asserts in the beginning of the passage that Czanne founded the modern movement with his single-minded determinationto see the world objectively and later implies that Czannes contribution to art was revolutionary. This discovery would represent a strong challenge to the authors premise. 93. The argument that extra-visual faculties enabled artists to interpret their perception of the world through art is one of the most fully developed in the passage. The author discusses the role of imagination in creating an ideal space occupied by ideal forms and the role of intellect in creating a scientific chart, a perspective in which the object could be given an exact situation. The author also says that these faculties helped guide the intellect but did not grasp objective reality.

94. The author is explicit on this point, drawing a direct analogy between maps and the system of perspective: But a system of perspective is no more an accurate representation of what the eye sees than a Mercators projection is what the world looks like from Sirius. Like a map, it serves to guide the intellect. 95. The poetic qualities of the passage occur in the emphasis on vivid physical descriptions and imagery that appeal to the senses or the emotions rather than reflect scientific accuracy: this sunflower became incredibly beautiful, subtly

turning its face daily, always toward the light, its black center alive with a deep blue light, as if flint had sparked an elemental fire there; bees with legs fat with pollen, grasshoppers with clattering wings and desperate hunger; I never learned the sunflowers golden language. The author observes both changes and orderly occurrences, one example being the bamboo that flowers once a century on the same day no matter where they are located. 96. One example in the passage where cyclical regularity occurs is with the bamboo that blooms once a centuryall plants, no matter their location, bloom on the same day by some special hidden mode of communication. The author observes: Some current we cannot explain passes through this primitive life. Each with a share of communal knowledge, all are somehow one plant. 97. Prior to describing the sandstorm and the dead horse, the author observes: Changes also occurred in the greater world of the plant. The sandstorm particularly had an impact, drying out and blowing away the petals before another change came: Then birds arrived to carry the seeds to the future. The author in non-judgmental fashion simply observes these changes as necessary, especially birds carrying the seeds away, with the implication being that this is a means by which new flowers are planted. 98. Nowhere does the passage suggest humans will satisfy their curiosity about nature. The tone of the passage reflects the authors sense of wonder at the variety and tumult of life in its changing and recurring patterns, especially the more aware a person becomes. This is reflected in the following: Sometimes you can hear the language of the earth. Once, in the redwood forest, I felt something like a heartbeat, a hardly perceptible current that stirred kinship and longing in me. The final paragraph, especially, touches on the notion that human wonder and curiosity before the natural world will never cease, but is passed on though the ages: Without written records, they registered the passage of the gods of night, noting the fine details of the world around them and the immensity above them. The author shares this sense of wonder with ancestors: Behind me, my ancestors say, Be still. Watch and listen. You are the result of the love of thousands. 99. The emphasis in the passage is on symbiotic relationships: the sunflower as a host to various insect species, birds carrying away the seeds of the sunflower. The further implication of this is that these symbiotic relationships in nature continue even with human land use. Another implication in the passage and in final paragraph is that humans can know, appreciate, and become a part of the natural world and its symbiotic relationshipshuman awareness of these relationships may even be the key to their continuation. 100. The major emphasis in the passage, especially in the tone and attitude, is the author observing and learning from nature, culminating in the final paragraph with the author participating in the collective knowledge and wisdom of previous generations: Tonight I watch the sky, thinking of the people who came before me and their knowledge of the placement of stars. Whichever road I follow, I walk in the land of many gods. Behind me my ancestors say, Be still. Watch and listen.

101. The sense of unity is communicated by the authors word choice, in particular, kinship: Once, in a redwood forest, trees, I felt something like a heartbeat, a hardly perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing in me. Other word choice, such as heartbeat, implies that the authors kinship is with some of the vital life-producing currents. 102. The author supports this by explaining that Schenberg disclosed that the ultimate expansion of possible relations to include the whole range of combinations contained in the semitonal scale demands a revaluation of every aspect of musical language. The author further explains that the atonal composercan take nothing for granted and that atonality merely [stipulates] the absence of a priori functional connections among the twelve notes of the semitonal scale. Among these a priori functional connections would be the seven-tone scale, triadic harmonic structure, andkey center the author refers to earlier. 103. The author first states that the diatonic tonal system presupposes the existence of specific properties of that system: a seven-tone scale, triadic harmonic structure, a key center. The author then goes on to state that atonality is defined as merely stipulating the absence of a priori functional connections among the twelve notes of the atonal scale. The purpose of this comparison is then to show how atonality largely resists the limitations of adhering to preconceived concepts of musical organization. 104. This conclusion is implied more than once in the passage. The author states that a composer working within the diatonic tonal system may take for granted the existence of specific properties of that system [such as a seven-tone scale]. The word choice of take for granted implies that the composer assumes those limitations whereas the atonal system implies that a composer has far more choices: The atonal composercan take nothing for granted except the existence of a given limiting sound world, the semitonal scale. The author alludes to a greater range of choice for the composer later in the passage when discussing how the general composition of an atonal work may vary greatly from one work to the next, even in works by the same composer. 105. The absence of a priori functional connections among the twelve notes of the semitonal scale means that other more readily apparent structures such as triadic harmonic structures will not be available to the listener. The idea that atonal music will have a less readily apparent structure is implied by the statement that the composer is still working under certain constraints such as the existence of a certain limiting sound world, the semitonal scale.

106. The author infers that in the atonal system the ordering is determined more by the composers choices than by the compositional conventions of the diatonic tonal system: An unambiguous ordering is assumed; but the degree to which this ordering actually determines the general musical procedures varies greatly from one work to another, even though they may be by the same composer. 107. The author makes two observations revealing that the author is particularly concerned about the United States. The first concerns the part of U.S. work force that is employed by low-road firms: About 40 percent of U.S. workers receive no formal training beyond a high-school education. The second concerns U.S. competitiveness in particular: For the United States to compete in an eventual global economy based on skilled workers and quality products, additional employer investment in training is needed now. 108. The author points out that high-road firms emphasize investments in highly skilled workers and long-term goals, both of which may delay profits and discourage investors wanting short-term profits. The author further points out that only dominant firms protected from domestic or international competitors by technological advantages, large-scale production, or government regulations can afford to invest in skilled workers and long-term goals. With this last observation, the author is saying such a firm is going to have to grow before it can be competitive and go public. 109. The author asserts the earning power of being able to use a computer on the job: Workers who use computers on the job also earn more than do those of the same education level who do not use computers at work. Moreover, the earning difference increases with the level of technological competence. 110. The author emphasizes the importance of investing in worker training in high-road firms and producing highly skilled employees who can react quickly to changing technologies and markets. The author also emphasizes what kind of investment in worker training is most desirable: Workers who receive formal company training command higher wages than do similar workers who attend only vocational school or receive informal on-the-job instruction. 111. In discussing the muddy road, the author specifically refers to workers who get Some advanced education or job-related training but [are] unlikely to enter the dynamic high-road labor market. The author later warns of this phenomenon again in discussing job-related training: Although for a particular job, employer-based training or vocational preparation can substitute for general schooling, specific training degrades rapidly, and narrow skills seldom transfer well to new job requirements. 112. The author encourages policies that realize the highest returns, and, while the author does not discuss a policy of repaying tuition, such a policy would be consistent with the authors advocacy of putting policies in place that further

worker training goals, for example, policies that encourage the coordination of employer-provided training and broader schooling. 113. In discussing automated production processes, the author advocates encouraging workers at all stages of their operation to demonstrate expertise and responsibility. Using a computerized bulletin board to share tips with one another is a way of empowering workers by giving them expertise and responsibility. 114. The author explains increasing disparity in earnings by how earnings increase when computers are used at work, adding that earning difference increases with the level of technological competence. This observation is most consistent with this example in instances where former low-level workers get more sophisticated equipment and training when they move into managerial-level positions. 115. The author, in advocating training workers for high-skilled positions, offers by way of warning the caveat that all trained workers may not benefit from advanced training: If the investment in workers outpaces the number of good jobs, many very competent workers will face an employment market of many very undemanding jobs. 116. The author states that the low-road emphasizes downsizing and outsourcing to cut labor costs, so it logically follows that a firm that emphasizes cutting jobs is likely going to have fewer workers. This explains why there is a greater percentage of these firms in the U.S., since there are going to need to be more of these firms with fewer workers in order to accommodate the U.S. work force. 117. The author cites the following mortality figures: A quarter of the people born in seventeenth-century France died during their first year, another quarter died before the age of twenty, and a third quarter died by the age of forty-five. Therefore, it follows that a person who lived to age forty and began having children at age twenty could see 50 percent of these children die. 118. The author notes that 75 percent of all people who died did so by age 45. The author further notes that by 1980 average life expectancy was 73.6 years, which was mainly due to success in reducing infant, childhood, and maternal mortality. To put it another way, many more people now live past age 60, which is why the association of death with old age has become a recent phenomenon. 119. The author states that advertisements for retirement living made promises of the good life and reflected a sense of optimism and common goals: Lured by glossy advertisements depicting a life of warm friendships and endless pleasures, many retirees welcomed these new complexes as a new adventure. The author

later notes that surveys of elderly showed that these promises largely proved to be true as the elderly found the friendship and leisure in these retirement communities that was advertised. Therefore, the directors statement supports the optimistic assumptions made by the author and the fact that many retirement communities have evolved from mere developers tracts into communities with traditions of their own. 120. The emphasis in the passage is that the current rate of longevity is unprecedented and that the comparison between now and seventeenth-century France documented this. The authors thesis is that the appearance of retirement communities is a kind of frontier: Old age is hardly new, but for an entire generation to reach old age with its membership almost intact is new. This comparison supports that thesis. 121. The author, in discussing longevity, shows that people are not living appreciably longer in actual years but that more people are living into old age and that life expectancy depends on health in earlier years. This statistic underscores this crucial difference between life expectancy, which has increased dramatically, and longevity, which has increased comparatively little. 122. By referring to the school readiness theory of education as a usual practiceof treating learning as an abstraction, the author is implying that this theory is generally accepted. The author points out that the outlook behind this theory was opposed by educational theorists Jean Piaget and A.L. Gesell who advocated developmentally appropriate, personally meaningful education for children, a view supported by observers of modern education: Most modern observers of children think that if a task is developmentally appropriate and has personal meaning for a child, it is approached as a pleasing challenge, not a struggle. The author implies that any educational theory that goes counter to the kind advocated by Piaget and Gesell is ineffective. 123. The author states: In the literature promoting their approach, the advocates of generalized readiness are clearly directing their appeal to school administrators. 124. The author points out: Developmentally appropriate instructionappears to be a hard sell to decision makers concerned with uniformity. This statement implies that uniformity is more convenient than an individualized approach, with the added benefit of higher percentages on standardized tests. 125. This analogy is most apropos because the author contends that, much like a form letter, school readiness is too impersonal and standardized whereas developmentally appropriate instruction, much like a personal note to a friend, is focused on the individual needs of children and is designed to be personally meaningful to them.

126. The author discusses the importance of developing a test to validate curricular reforms and educational effectiveness. 127. .The author would likely doubt the accuracy and quality of the report since that is how the author reacted to efforts to introduce school readiness. The author also devotes the first two paragraphs to explaining why reformers should take care to prove their reforms are needed and credible. 128. The objector does not say that politicians are better decision makers than anyone else, so the argument that politicians could decide anything is relevant. The author reinforces that argument by saying: A government is made up of individuals who are fundamentally similar to me, and to err is human applies to us all. The author concedes that a government leader or official may be more well informed or expert in a particular issue. Therefore, an individual could accept the decision on the basis that the decision is likelier to achieve a better outcome, but even the decision to decide whether the government is right or wrong still is the responsibility of the individual. 129. The author commits somewhat of a logical fallacy by asserting that it is impossible to surrender responsibility. One could do so freelyalthough the author is right in saying that once you make that choice you have enslaved your will to some elses will. In the case of someone with the hypothetical psychological condition referred to in the question, a person surrenders responsibility involuntarily, because that person would be incapable of making the decision whether to be responsible or abdicate responsibility; nonetheless, that person surrenders it. 130. This theme runs throughout the passage. The author states: You cannot hand over your autonomy willy-nilly tothe government or any one else. The author also states: No government, no body of people, no position, no individual can have moral authority over any individual. The author also points out that the final arbiter is the individual, even if the government has good reason to require a particular behavior. 131. This hypothetical finding theoretically represents a strong challenge to the assertion that the individual is the final moral arbiter, even if that assertion remains a valid argument, because it greatly increases the individuals burden of proof and, hence, individual responsibility for decisions. 132. Even if people drive on different sides of the road in different countries, the central thesis is unchanged by knowing this. The author already gives the example of driving on the left side of the road; therefore, introducing the example of people driving on the right side of the road in another country neither weakens nor lends further support to the central thesis than is already in the passage. At most this new information is simply a variation on the exact same argument. The decision to drive on the right side of the road in a country where it is the law to do so has the same obvious benefits in that country as it does in a country where it is the law to drive on the right side of the road. A responsible individual would obey the law because of these obvious benefits, not because the government mandates driving on the left side, or right side, of the road.

133. Even if people drive on different sides of the road in different countries, the central thesis is unchanged by knowing this. The author already gives the example of driving on the left side of the road; therefore, introducing the example of people driving on the right side of the road in another country neither weakens nor lends further support to the central thesis than is already in the passage. At most this new information is simply a variation on the exact same argument. The decision to drive on the right side of the road in a country where it is the law to do so has the same obvious benefits in that country as it does in a country where it is the law to drive on the right side of the road. A responsible individual would obey the law because of these obvious benefits, not because the government mandates driving on the left side, or right side, of the road. 134. The ethnic conflict in Bosnia reflects Gibbons view of history as well as view of human nature that extends from his historical analysis: [Gibbon] instructs us that human nature never changes and that humanitys predilection for factionalism, augmented by environmental and cultural differences, is the determinant of history. 135. According to the author, Gibbon was a conservative along the lines of his contemporary, Edmund Burke, who saw humankinds best hope in moderate politics and flexible institutions that would not become overbearing. The author also observes that a state or an empire can endure only if it generally limits itself to adjudicating disputes among its citizens. The role of the U.S. Constitution, with its checks and balances among the three branches of government, is to limit government in this way.

136. Ethnic diversity, in Gibbons view, is one of the destabilizing factors in human history. Therefore, a stable society that is ethnically diverse would most challenge Gibbons viewhis view might hold up if this society were explained by a system of limited government that adjudicated these ethnic differences. 137. The role of Milan and Nicomedia as functional capitals shows how historical changes occur gradually, because these roles came decades before the formal division of the Empire into western and eastern halves and almost two centuries before Rome officially ceased to be the imperial capital.

140. According to Theory II, the metabolic rates of mammals are directly proportional to the rate of generation of free radicals. The information presented in the item stem, comparing humans, rats, and mice indicates that metabolic rate for humans is at 25cal/g/day, that of rats is at 150 cal/g/day, and that of mice is greatest at 180 cal/g/day. Thus the generation of free radicals, and subsequent evidence of a free-radical-induced DNA damaged product in urinary output, is consistent with the graph shown in foil A. Foil A shows a direct relationship between metabolic rate (x-axis) and the urinary output of a free-radical-induced DNA damaged product (y-axis). This is consistent with Theory II. 141. According to Theory II, aging and cell death is caused by the accumulation of damaged DNA, RNA, and other molecules in the cell. This damage is caused by free radicals. This theory also indicates that addition of antioxidant vitamins, such as Vitamins C and E, can reduce the amount of damage caused by free radicals, and therefore slow the rate of aging and cell death. Additionally, according to Theory I, connective tissue cells are known to divide a total of 50 times before dying, regardless of the conditions and treatments. Assuming that connective tissues have already undergone 30 divisions prior to treatment with Vitamin E, Theory I would be supported if the cells undergo 20 more divisions before dying, but Theory II would be supported if the cells undergo more than 20 additional divisions. If the cells undergo 40 divisions after treatment, this would clearly support Theory II. 142. According to the item, the female octopus broods her eggs, but eats less than normal while caring for them, then dies after the eggs hatch. If a certain endocrine gland is removed, the brooding behavior is eliminated, so the female resumes regular feeding and her life cycle is extended. This provides the strongest support for Theory I because it shows that various characteristics of the organisms life (brooding and feeding behavior) are hormonally controlled. Thus, removing the endocrine gland, and source of hormones, can alter the behavior and lifespan of the organism. 143. The item asks the examinee to identify the process that would not lead to free-radical-induced aging. According to the passage, Vitamins C and E remove free radicals, thus rendering them harmless. Thus, Vitamins C and E would not facilitate aging caused by free radicals. 144. According to Theory II, lifespan is proportional to metabolic rate, and metabolic rate can be reduced somewhat by limiting dietary intake. Thus, supporters of Theory II would predict that the rats in the fasting group would outlive the rats in the fed group by some finite amount. The results presented under Theory II indicate that rats with a minimal diet live approximately 60 weeks longer than rats that are fed more food.

145. According to the passage, Sarah was in excellent physical condition prior to her trip to the Caribbean Sea to go skin diving. After her first diving experience, she noticed an elevated pulse rate and ventilation rate. The most likely explanation for her bodys response was the activation of her sympathetic autonomic nervous systemthe fight or flight response caused by adrenaline. 146. According to the passage, Sarah went skiing in the mountains of Colorado. At first, she noticed an elevated pulse rate and ventilation rate. As the week progressed, these rates dropped, but were still higher than usual. This prolonged increase in heart rate and breathing rate was most likely the cause of hypoxia (insufficient oxygen to the body cells) caused by insufficient blood hemoglobin to supply oxygen for exercise at the low oxygen pressure found at high altitudes. 147. According to the passage, Sarah was in excellent physical condition prior to her trip to the Caribbean Sea to go skin diving. After her first diving experience, she noticed an elevated pulse rate and ventilation rate. According to the item, she also noticed that she produced more urine than usual. The increased urine production can be explained by an increased blood pressure caused by adrenaline, released in response to excitement or anxietythe fight or flight response. 148. After Sarahs accident, the physician detected myoglobin in Sarahs urine. Myoglobin is the substance that holds oxygen in the muscles and organs. The physicians observation is consistent with an injury to muscle or organs, but not bone. 149. Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and appetite is maintained by the brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus, respectively. 150. According to the item, Sarah noticed that her skin blood vessels were usually constricted to conserve body heat in the cold environment of the Colorado mountains where she went skiing. Occasionally, however, her vessels would dilate for short periods of time to enable a sufficient supply of blood (and oxygen) to her cells. Due to the physical exertion of skiing, her cells had an increased need for oxygen. 151. The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system, susbtituents are listed in order of decreasing atomic number. The atoms directly bonded to the chiral carbon atom (x) are H, C, C, and N. Nitrogen has the highest atomic number and therefore the NHCHO group has the highest priority. 152. The analog of Compound 8 would undergo a Wittig reaction with Ph3P=CH2 to form the double bond in Compound 1.

153. The number of stereoisomers can be calculated using the formula 2n, where n is the number of stereocenters in the molecule. Compound 1 has 4 stereocenters. 154. The hydrogen on -carbons c and d are most acidic. It can be determined that the hydrogen at carbon c is removed because alkylation occurs at this carbon. 155. The compound contains one ketone group, one ester group, and one carboncarbon double bond. 156. According to the passage, reverse transcriptase uses viral RNA as a template for making viral DNA inside the cell of the host. This process is the reverse of RNA synthesis, a process that normally occurs in the host cell. 157. According to the passage, one method of combating the AIDS virus is to interfere with the binding of the virus to the helper T cell. This is done by producing antibodies to the gp120 proteins on the viral surface. However, the variability of the antibody-evoking region of the gp120 protein makes it difficult for B cells to produce antibodies that neutralize the AIDS virus in the host because antibodies are very specific 158. AZT is effective for treating AIDS because it is missing a hydroxyl group on the 3 carbon, a normal site for the bonding between a phosphate and sugar in the growing DNA polymer. AZT becomes incorporated into the growing DNA chain in place of a regular nucleotide (which would have the hydroxyl group on the 3 carbon), thereby interfering with the process of DNA polymerization. 159. Antibiotics that are effective in interfering with bacterial (but not eukaryotic) ribosomes are ineffective at combating viruses because viruses typically lack ribosomes. Thus, a drug that interferes with ribosome function would have no effect against a virus. 160. According to the passage, during the infection of a helper T cell, gp120 proteins of the viral coat first bind to the CD4 antigens on the cell membrane. Then the viral coat fuses with the membrane, dumping its RNA core into the cell. Once dumped, this RNA core would be transformed into DNA by reverse transcriptase, and the viral DNA would then become incorporated into the host cells chromosomes until activated (replicated) at a later time. Thus, when an AIDS virus has been incorporated into a CD4 cell, but has not yet been replicated, the viral genetic information is located in the CD4 cells nucleusincorporated into the hosts DNA.

161. The item asks which evolutionary mechanism would most likely explain the presence in humans of CD4 receptors on the helper T cells that bind to the gp120 proteins of the AIDS virus. The most likely scenario is natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of the virus. This answer is supported by the information in the passage, indicating that there is a high rate of mutation in the gp120 protein of the virus. In addition to having a high rate of mutation, the generation time for a virus is quite short, which enhances the ability of natural selection to make a difference on the viral population, even in a single generation time for humans. 162. The item indicates that there is a virus similar to the AIDS virus, but that this virus infects only B lymphocytes (not the T cells invaded by AIDS virus). The function of a B lymphocyte is to produce and secrete antibodies when it encounters a foreign particle or substance. Thus, a virus that infects only B lymphocytes would be expected to affect the production of antibodies. 163. This reaction is an example of the formation of a hydrazone by the condensation of a hydrazine with an aldehyde. 164. Tertiary alcohols react much more quickly with HCl than do other types of alcohols. 165. The graph shown in the item indicates that the concentration of cyclin rises and falls in a regular manner throughout the cell cycle, reaching a peak just at the beginning of mitosis, gradually declining during mitosis, reaching a minimum at the end of mitosis, and gradually increasing during interphase. The mechanism that can best account for this oscillation in the concentration of cyclin is translation of cyclin mRNA (creating the protein from mRNA template) followed by proteolysis (destruction) of cyclin protein during mitosis. 166. According to the item, embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours at o 37 C. Under such circumstances, and starting with a single egg, x cells would be present after three days (or 24 x 3=72 hours). The number can be calculated by tracking the doubling time: 1 2 4 8 16 32 64 128 256. At the end of 70 hours (approximately 3 days), there would be 128 cells, assuming that each cell underwent division 10 hours after its previous division. 167. At C-5 the molecule is drawn so that the hydrogen, the group with lowest priority, is pointing away from the viewer. The O has the highest priority, followed by C-4 and then C-6. The groups are oriented in clockwise order of decreasing priority indicating that C-5 has an R-configuration. At C-7 again the molecule is drawn so that the hydrogen is pointing away from the viewer. The O

has the highest priority, followed by C-8 and then C-6. The groups are oriented in counterclockwise order of decreasing priority indicating that C-7 has an Sconfiguration 168. The Grignard reagent will add a methyl group to the ketone generating a tertiary alcohol. 169. The Grignard reagent is CH3MgBr prepared by the reaction of CH3Br with Mg in diethyl ether. 170. The passage states that Compound 5 undergoes a regiospecific DielsAlder reaction indicating that Compound 6 was added so that the Cl and CN groups are present in the position in the ring as shown in Compound 7, however both stereoisomers of this compound would be present. 171. Step 4 involves the addition of an acetyl group (CH3CO) to Compound 4 which is an acetylation reaction. 172. The passage presents information about inflammatory bowel disease, including Chrons disease and ulcerative colitis, the latter of which is associated with inflammation of the colon. The item asks what process would be most disrupted by an inflammation in the colon. Since the primary process that takes place in the colon is absorption of water, then the absorption of water is the most likely process to be disrupted. 173. The immune system is designed to attack foreign material in the body. It avoids attacking tissues of its own body because it suppresses cells that are specific to its own bodys antigens (surface molecules that would otherwise initiate an immune response).

174. If an ulcer penetrated the walls of the intestine, this would allow the contents of the gastrointestinal tract to enter the peritoneal cavity. Membranes surround this cavity, which would prevent further transport of the gastrointestinal contents through the rest of the body. An ulcer in the small intestine would not allow the contents to enter the lumen because this is the normal place in which the contents are found. 175. Assuming the genetic and autoimmune theories of inflammatory bowel disease are true, then the gastrointestinal antigen being targeted must be located on the surface of proteins encoded by the genes for the disease. Antigens are carried on the surface of cells, not on the chromosomes, DNA segments, or RNA.

176. Inflammatory bowel disease appears to have a genetic component, but it does not show clear evidence of Medelian inheritance. This means that the trait cannot simply be recessive since, if it were, it would show Mendelian inheritance patterns.

177. The passage describes a study in which the blood flow of participants was measured before and after 60 days of exposure to one of four treatments. The treatments included placebo, placebo + vitamin E, fatty acid, and fatty acid + vitamin E. The passage indicates that vitamin E is an antioxidant that reduces in vivo oxidation of ingested fatty acids. As shown in Figure 1, the fatty acid group showed a reduction in blood flow by more than 40%, while the fatty acid + vitamin E showed an increase of about 10%. The most likely explanation for the difference in blood flow between the fatty acid group and the fatty acid + vitamin E group is that the products of fatty acid oxidation (which would be formed when vitamin E is absent) reduce blood flow. 178. One hypothesis suggests that the decrease in blood flow to the skin results from a change in the activity in the sympathetic nerves to the skin. This hypothesis would be supported if researchers observed a change in the norepinephrine content of blood draining from the skin. 179. An alternative method for examining the effects of fatty acids on blood flow would be to measure changes in blood pressure. It blood pressure were measured, one would predict that blood pressure would be lowest in the capillaries, as compared to the heart, arteries, or arterioles. Pressure would be even lower in the veins, but this option was not offered. 180. The passage describes a study in which the blood flow of participants was measured before and after 60 days of exposure to one of four treatmentsafter collecting lifestyle information abut each subject. The treatments included placebo, placebo + vitamin E, fatty acid, and fatty acid + vitamin E. The passage indicates that vitamin E is an antioxidant that reduces in vivo oxidation of ingested fatty acids. To interpret the results of the passage, researchers must assume that subjects do not alter their lifestyle (eg. eating habits) during the course of the experiment. 181. According to the item, the fatty acid used was a 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid. The difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is that saturated fatty acids lack carbon-carbon double bonds (because all carbons are saturated with hydrogen). 182. Researchers collected information about each subjects age, dietary habits, etc. They made sure that skin temperature was constant during the blood flow

measurement. The one variable that was not controlled or accounted for was skin blood flow. This was dependent variable. 183. The passage states that alkyl groups bonded to a carbocation center may stabilize the carbocation through hyperconjugation. 184. The proton NMR shows 9 equivalent H and an additional H downfield. This is consistent with the structure of t-butyl alcohol. The 9 hydrogen on the 3 methyl groups are all equivalent. 185. If ethanol was heated with sulfuric acid the oxygen of the ethanol would be protonated in the first step with the alcohol acting as a base accepting a proton from the acid and forming water as a leaving group. 186. The passage states that sec-butyl alcohol is the second most abundant product. The peak in the chromatograph with area of 3 would correspond to the sec-butyl alcohol. The total area is (45 + 3 + 1 + 0.5 + 0.5) = 50. The percentage sec-butyl alcohol would therefore be 3/50 = 6%. 187. All of the products are formed from the quenching of various carbocations, therefore all should have -OH groups. In the infrared spectrum, bands characteristic of -OH groups are found near 3500 cm-1. 188. An organism that causes human disease is isolated and studies. Researchers would conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus if the organism reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue. Bacteria do not require host tissue to reproduce, whereas viruses do. 189. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum most resembles the Golgi apparatus in an intact eukaryotic cell when viewed under the microscope. Both organelles appear to be membranes with many folds.

190. If the ratio of R to R in the product mixture is 2:1, then the starting triglyceride must consist of two R-containing esters and one R-containing ester.

191. Lipases catalyze the hydrolysis of fats and other carboxylic esters similar to fats, but not fats. Lipases ability to catalyze the hydrolysis of fats and similar molecules reveals that some enzymes interact with several different substrate molecules that have similar chemical linkages. 192. In horses, the genes for red coat color and white coat color are codominant. Heterozygous horses have roan color. If a roan-colored colt (CRCW) has a white mother (CWCW), the fathers coat must be either roan (CRCW) or red (CRCR). The mother could only give the white color gene, so the father must have given the red. For the father to give the red color gene, he would have to carry one or two copies of it, meaning he must be either red or roan, respectively. 193. The passage discusses the connection between H. pylori infection and increased risk of gastric cancer. If H. pylori infection causes increased proliferation of mucosal cells in the stomach, this could lead to gastric cancer if genetic mutations occur in proliferating somatic cells that line the stomach. 194. According to the passage, stomach ulcers and some forms of gastric cancer may be linked to H. pylori infections in the stomach. Without treatment by antibiotics, such infections can be persistent. The most plausible explanation for why host antibodies are ineffective against H. pylori is that antibody proteins may be denatured (destroyed) in the harsh (acidic) environment of the stomach. If the antibody proteins are denatured, they will not function properly. 195. According to the passage, there is more than one strain of H. pylori. One strain expresses the gene vacA that encodes a toxin. The other strain encodes a gene cagA that leads to inflammation and might be related to the genesis of gastric cancer. Thus, a significant difference between the strains is that the strains express different genes. 196. According to the passage, expression of the cagA gene leads to inflammation of the mucosal lining of the stomach. Thus, the cagA gene product triggers the movement of leukocytes into the mucosal tissuebecause leucocytes gravitate toward an inflammation. 197. According to the passage, infection by H. pylori increases ones risk of gastric cancer, but less than 25% of people affected ultimately develop such cancer. Most people affected with H pylori do not develop cancer because they tolerate the infection without developing tumors. The DNA is not damaged and uncontrolled cell division does not occur.

198. According to the passage, infection by H. pylori increases ones risk of gastric cancer, but less than 25% of people affected ultimately develop such cancer. To be most effective, a gene therapy for gastric cancer should be directed against epithelial cells that give rise to tumors. The infection originates in the epithelial tissue, which is the same location of the cancersand the first place to focus preventative measures. 199. Enzymatic activity in the stomach initiates the digestion of proteins. Pepsin is the enzyme, secreted into the stomach, that catalyzes the hydrolysis of proteins into peptides and amino acids. Pepsin works most efficiently at the low pH of the stomacha pH that is obtained by secretion of HCl. 200. According to the passage, the AB cell from the two-cell stage of the nematode, when kept in contact with the P1 cell, goes on to produce neurons, skin, and muscle. In Experiment 1, researchers investigated the role of cell-to-cell communication by separating the cells of a two-cell embryo (AB and P1), and culturing them independently. The cultured AB cells produced neurons and skin, but no muscle, whereas the cultured P1 cells gave rise to all of the tissues produced by P1 cells of an intact embryo. The observation that the fate of an isolated AB cell is different from that of an AB cell in an intact embryo supports the hypothesis that cell-to-cell communication is involved in the determination of cell fate. 201. In Experiment 1, researchers investigated the role of cell-to-cell communication by separating the cells of a two-cell embryo (AB and P1), and culturing them independently. The cultured AB cells produced neurons and skin, but no muscle, whereas the cultured P1 cells gave rise to all of the tissues produced by P1 cells of an intact embryo. The results of Experiment 1 indicate that the direction of signaling between the blastomeres of a two-cell embryo is P1 AB (since ABs fate differed when isolated from P1, while P1s fate was the same regardless of whether AB was present or not). 202. In Experiment 2, two-cell embryos were incubated in either cycloheximide (an inhibitor of translation) or actinomycin D (an inhibitor of transcription). The AB cells were then isolated and washed to remove inhibitors, and grown in culture. AB cells of embryos treated with cycloheximide (the translation inhibitor, which would have prevented production of proteins at the ribosomes of both AB and P1 cells) produced only neurons and skin, while AB cells of embryos treated with actinomycin D (the transcription inhibitor, which would have prevented production of mRNA) produced neurons, skin and muscletheir normal fate. These results indicate that the signaling interaction (between P1 and AB cells) at the two-cell stage probably involves protein, since proteins of the P1 cells could not have been produced to carry the necessary message(s) to the AB cells prior to isolation.

203. The results of Experiment 3 support the conclusion that gut specification during the four-cell stage requires cell-to-cell communication between P2 and EMS. As indicated in Figure 2, the only case in which gut differentiation resulted, regardless of how long the cells were left in the four-cell stage, was the combination of EMS and P2 cells. EMS and P2 cells that had zero minutes incubation in the four-cell stage still resulted in gut differentiation. 204. If the zygote contains all unique cell contents that are necessary for gut differentiation, segregation of these substances during cell division would occur in the sequence of zygote to P1 to EMS to E. This information comes directly from the flow chart in Figure 1, which shows that gut cells are derived from the following source: zygote P1 EMS E. 205. According to the information provided, the only somatic or visceral celltype tissue that derives from a single blastomere is gut. This result is shown in Figure 2, which indicates that after 10 minutes in the four-cell stage, an isolated EMS cell can lead to gut differentiation. In addition to this, the only cases in which gut differentiation occurred were cases in which EMS cells were present. 206. The experiments indicate that nematode cells adopt different fates from those of their neighbors during development by both cell-to-cell signaling and segregation of cytoplasmic contents during cell division. The importance of cellto-cell signaling is supported by the results of Experiment 1, in which the fate of an AB cell depended on whether it was cultured in the presence of P1 or not. The importance of segregation of cytoplasmic contents during cell division is supported by the results of Experiment 3, in gut differentiation only occurred in cases where an EMS cell was present. 207. The passage shows that Compound 1 undergoes a rearrangement to form a ketone and the double bond in the side chain is retained. If the compound shown in the stem reacts in the same way an aldehyde would form and the double bond in the chain would be retained. 208. A negative entropy of activation indicates that the order of the transition state is increasing. This is true of Chemist 1s mechanism because the molecule would have to achieve the correct conformation for the reaction to take place. 209. The rearrangement shown proceeding by Chemist 1s mechanism can give only one product. If Chemist 2s reaction mechanism were correct there could possibly be cross products.

210.

The -OH stretching band appears in the IR at approximately 3500 cm-1.

211. Based on the pedigree shown, the most likely pattern of inheritance for this rare disease (expressed in fewer than 1 in 100,000 people) is sex-linked recessive. The trait must be recessive since it does not appear in the parents generation (the parents are normal), but does appear in several of the children. The trait is most likely sex-linked because only sons are affected, and not just sons from ONE cross, but sons from two crosses. The mother had children with two men, and in both cases half of her sons had the disease. The mother carries the trait XAXa, and passes the trait to half of her sons who inherit a Y from their father, thus leaving them with the disease (Xay). Daughters cannot inherit the disease because the father always gives a normal chromosome (XA). Half the daughters will be entirely unaffected, and half are expected to be carriers like their mother.

212. The gall bladder stores bile produced by the liver and secretes it into the small intestine as needed. Bile acts as an emulsifier, facilitating fat digestion. When the gall bladder is removed, a patient will have reduced ability to digest fats. 213. Unlike other organisms, the liver can partially regenerate after illness or damage. This regeneration is accomplished by mitosis. Mitosis is the process whereby human body cells (not gametes) reproduce. 214. The N-H bond in Compound I would be capable of forming hydrogen bonds with water making it more soluble that the non-polar Compound II. 215. In humans, cholesterol is a precursor to testosterone. Cholesterol and testosterone are only two of several steroid-based natural molecules. The body makes uses of the steroid backbone of cholesterol to produce the hormone testosterone. 216. This item includes a description of an experiment in which activelydividing, synchronized cells were exposed to radioactively labeled 2deoxythymidine (the nitrogen base incorporated into DNA, but not RNA). After 30 minutes of exposure to the radioactively labeled substance, the cells were rinsed to remove unabsorbed label. At various times thereafter, a group of cells from the culture were examined to determine the quantity of radioactive material in the nuclei. The figure shows a peak in radioactivity between 3 and 13 hours

after treatment. This peak represents DNA synthesis, since 2-deoxythymidine is a component of DNA, but not RNA or protein

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