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Parasitology 1) Below are the morphology of the male Ascaris Lumbricoides EXCEPT : A. B. C. D.

Are 15-30 cm in length Have a coiled posterior end No copulatory bursa Mouth possesses three lips

2) Which are the characteristics of a fertilized egg of the Ascaris Lumbricoides ? A. B. C. D. Contain a fertilized ovum Elongated, 80-90u in length Contain mass of refractile granules Have thin transparent middle layer

3) How many days does it take for the rhabditiform larva of the Ascaris Lumbricoides to moult to the second stage rhabditiform larva ? A. B. C. D. 15 days 19 days 17 days 20 days

4) In the stage of larval migration, the first passage of larvae through the liver and lungs provokes a remarkable pathological changes in the human being A. True B. False 5) Below are the example of diagnosis of the Ascaris Lumbricoides during the migratory stage EXCEPT A. B. C. D. X-rays to showing shifting mottled lung infections Finding ova in the stools Can be diagnosed clinically Can be detected in gastric washings

Answers : D, A, C, B & B

Pathology 1) All are characteristics of Hyperplastic polyps EXCEPT : A. B. C. D. Are small, less than 5mm in diameter Maybe single or multiple 50% are in the sigmoid Are potentially malignant

2) Juvenile polyps maybe the source of ? A. B. C. D. Intestinal obstruction Rectal bleeding Anemia Melanotic pigmentation

3) The risk of cancer is high in sessile villous polyps more than 4cm in diameter. A. True B. False 4) Superficial ulceration due to chronic irritation may occur in Tubular Adenomas A. True B. False 5) Below are the characterisitics of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis EXCEPT : A. B. C. D. Appear in adolescence or early adulthood Patients develop 500-2500 adenomas that carpet the mucosal surface of the colon Mostly of the villous type Risk of colonic cancer is 100% by midlife

Answers : D, B, A, B & C

Parasitology 1) Below are the morphology of the Female Strongyloides steroralis EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. Have a length of 2-2.5mm Have a filariform oesophagus Vulval opening is in the posterior third of the body Have curved tail and two spicules

2) If the soil conditions are favorable, the Strongyloides Steroralis rabditiform larvae moult three times into sexually mature free-living males and females. A. True B. False 3) At which stage is the Strongyloides Stercoralis infective ? A. B. C. D. Second stage filariform larvae Third stage filariform larvae Second stage rhabditiform larvae Third stage rhabditiform larvae

4) Autoinfection can occur in strongyloidiasis especially if the patient is A. B. C. D. Ingest its on food Infective filariform pass down the bowel Rhabditiform larvae in fresh stools transform to infective filariform larvae When the patient is constipated

5) Treatment of Strongyloides Steroralis is by A. B. C. D. Tetracycline Ivermectin Mebendazole Apekebendazole

Pharmacology 1) What group of drugs are used as induction and maintenance of remission in mild to moderate diseases ? A. B. C. D. Immunosuppresive drugs Corticosteroids Aminosalicylates Antimicrobials

2) The mechanism of actions of Sulfasalazine are all of below EXCEPT A. B. C. D. Inhibits bacterial peptide-induced neutrophil chemotaxis Inhibit activation of the nuclear regulatory factor It binds to the soluble TNF-alpha It scavenges reactive oxygen metabolites

3) Which drugs are used to decrease proliferation of immune cells and lower autoimmune activity ? A. B. C. D. Adalimumab Olsalazine Mesalamine Azathioprine

4) Methothrexate is effective for induction and maintenance of remission in CD ? A. False B. True 5) Which drugs changes the luminal flora and diminish activation of the mucosal immune system ? A. B. C. D. Metronidazole Infliximab Balsalazide Prednisone

Answers : A, C, D, B & A

Parasitology 1. What are the requirements for T.Trichiura to become a health problem? A. Poor standards of sanitation B. Warm climate C. Heavy rain D. A and B E. All of the above 2. These are the morphology of T.Trichiura. EXCEPT A. Whip-like B. Anterior long thick part and posterior thin part C. Male worms measure 3cm D. Females has a straight caudal end 3. The infected stage of whipworm is A. Unembryonated eggs B. Larvae C. 2-cell stage eggs D. Embryonated eggs E. Larvae 4. Larvae of Capillaria Philippinensis are released in A. Intestine B. Colon C. Stomach D. Lung 5. What are the methods can be used in diagnosis of Capillaria Philippinensis. A. Stool examination B. Urine sample C. Duodenal aspiration D. A and B E. A and C Biochemistry 1. The enzymes that are used for digestion of protein are produced by A. Stomach B. Pancreas C. Intestine D. All of the above 2. These are the pancreatic proteolytic enzymes EXCEPT A. Parachymosin B. Trypsin C. Chymotrypsin D. Elastase

E. Carboxypeptidase

3. All enzymes select carboxylic group of protein EXCEPT A. Elastase B. Chymotrypsin C. Pepsin D. Trypsin 4. The optimum pH for Aminopeptidase is between A. 1-2 B. 6-7 C. 7-8 D. None of the above 5. These are all the sources of dietary proteins EXCEPT A. Milk B. Fish C. Meat D. Cereals E. Bread Pathology 1. All these statements refer to both UC & Crohns disease EXCEPT A. Course of disease characterized by remissions & relapses B. Presence of skip lesions C. Affect women more than men D. Age group of 15-25 year are commonly affected 2. Regarding UC, there is increased risk of cancer in the following cases EXCEPT A. Long standing disease B. Extensive disease (pancolitis) C. Toxic megacolon D. UC with epithelial dysplasia 3. One of the following is NOT the complication of Crohns disease A. Anaemia B. Peritonitis C. Sclerosing cholangitis D. Toxic megacolon 4. Regarding UC, the phase of active disease includes A. Distortion of mucosal architecture B. Formation of pseudopolyps C. Diffuse mucosal atrophy D. Edematous focal aphthous ulcers on the mucosa

5. In crohns disease, fibrosing stricture occurs mostly in A. Terminal ileum B. Anorectum C. Transverse colon D. Caecum

Microbiology 1. These are the morphology of Salmonella EXCEPT A. Gram negative cocci B. Motile C. Peritrichate Flagella D. None of the above 2. Antibodies to O antigens of Salmonella are predominantly A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. A and B E. A and C 3. Which are true about pathogenesis of Salmonella A. May produce enteric fever B. Bacteraemia with focal lesions C. Food poisoning D. All of the above E. None of the above 4. The maximum titer of antibodies of Salmonella appears in the serum during? A. 2nd week B. 3rd week C. 4th week D. A and B E. B and C 5. These are the causative organisms for Salmonellosis EXCEPT A. S typhimurium B. S enteritidis C. S Montevideo D. S boydii E. S wien Pathology 1. These are all the non neoplastic polyps EXCEPT

A. Hyperplastic polyps B. Peutz-Jegher polyps C. Adenomatouse polyps D. Inflammatory polyps E. Juvenile polyps 2. Which is true regarding Juvenile polyps A. They are multiple B. Occur mostly in the rectum C. Occur in children older than 5 years old D. May never be found in adults 3. Regarding the Pseudopolyps which is NOT true A. Commoner in colon than small intestine B. Men are affected more than females C. Incidence increases after the age of 60 D. Precursors to colorectal cancer 4. Which is the most common adenomas? A. Tubular adenomas B. Villious adenomas C. Tubulovillous adenomas D. None of the above 5. Which is TRUE regarding FAP A. 500-2500 adenomas that carpet the musculosa surface of the colon B. Usually appear in adolescence C. Mostly the villious type D. The risk of colonic cancer is 100% by midlife although the prophylactic colectomy is done Parasitology 1. Which is TRUE regarding the morphology of Ancylostomidae A. Grayish white or pinkish in colour B. Mouth is rudimentary C. 2 pairs of teeth D. Oesophagus is tubular shaped 2. Which is NOT true regarding life cycle of Ancylostomidae A. The first stage larvae have a rabditiform oesophagus B. The infective stage is the third stage of larvae C. There is moulting of the larvae inside the lungs D. None of the above 3. These are the preventions of Ancylostomidae EXCEPT A. Sanitary disposal B. Mass treatment

C. Health education D. Snail control E. Skin protection 4. Which is TRUE regarding the clinical pictures of Hookworm A. Gastro-intestinal disorders B. Anaemia C. Hypoproteinaemia D. All of the above 5. Which is NOT true about diagnosis of Hookworm A. Stool analysis B. Stolls Egg counting technique C. Duodenal aspiration D. A and B E. B and C Parasitology 1. These are all the clinical manifestations of Enterobius Vermicularis EXCEPT A. Perianal itching B. Vulvovaginitis C. Pyogenic infection D. Chronic dermatitis E. Anaemia 2. Which is FALSE regarding enterobius eggs A. When laid are larvated B. Immediately infective C. Ovoid D. Asymmetrical flattened E. Brown in colour 3. These are all the morphology of Enterobius worm EXCEPT A. Large B. Semitransparent nematodes C. Striated cuticle D. None of the above 4. Which is TRUE regarding diagnosis of enterobius vermicularis A. Anal swab performed at night B. History of nocturnal perianal itching C. Eggs in stool are present in not more than 5% of infected individuals D. All of the above 5. Which are TRUE about prevention of enterobius vermicularis A. Personal hygiene B. Frequent changing and boiling of bed sheets

C. All of the above D. None of the above Pathology 1. Factors that are important in the genesis of colonic diverticulum A. Focal weakness in the colonic wall B. Increased intraluminal pressure C. All of the above D. None of the above 2. Which is TRUE regarding colonic diverticulum A. Infrequent in native populations of non-Western countries B. Common in developed countries because of Habital differences C. Below the age of 60 years D. None of the above

3. These are the pseudo obstruction EXCEPT A. Paralytic Ileus B. Postoperative C. Vascular bowel infarction D. Myopathies and Neuropathies E. None of the above 4. These are the complications of colonic diverticulum EXCEPT A. Infection B. Pericolic abscess C. Intestinal obstruction D. Fistula E. Peritonitis F. Anaemia 5. Obstruction of gastrointestinal tract is most often in A. Oesophagus B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Small intestine E. Large intestine

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