Pathobio EOM PATHOLOGY 1. The most common cause of cerebral hemorrhage in adults is : A. traumatic B. hypertension C.

Ruptured bony aneurysm D. Arterio venous malformation 2. Sequalae of elevated intracranial pressure include all the following EXCEPT : A. Transtentorial herniation B. tonsillar herniation C. Erosion of skull bones D. Hydrocephalus 3. The most common primary brain tumor is A. Glioma B. menengiomas C. Schwannomas D. Neurofibromas 4. The typr of amyloid depositin cases of osteomyelitis is A. AL B. AA C. all above D. None above

5. Osteoid osteoma has the following features EXCEPT A. Is a benign tumor B. the vertebrae are the most common bone involved C. Presents with severe pain that specially relieved by aspirin D. Radiologically appear as translucent nidus surrounded by dense bone 6. Primary osteoporosis has the following features EXCEPT A. More common in males B. affected mainly vertebra bodies, femoral neck and metacarpal bone C. Shows thin bony trabeculae and a wide marrow cavity D. May present with back pain and fracture 7. In osteomyelitis, sequestrum is A. A reactive envelope of subperiosteal bone B. a fragment of necrotic bone C. A residual abscess D. Dense sclerotic bone 8. The following features of Hodgkin' lymphoma include the following EXCEPT A. Background of inflammatory cells B. Reed stenberg cells C. Background of malignant lymphoid cells D. Often localized to axial group of lymph nodes 9. All is true about Burkitt's lymphoma EXCEPT A. Is a diffuse non hodgkin lymphoma

B. Is related EBV C. Is a T cell lymphoma D. Commonly affects African children 10. A 12-year-old girl present with a fever of 38 and a swollen lymph nodes of 6 days duration. The blood count is normal. Biopsy of swollen lymph node shows paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia. This pathologic finding is best interprreted as A. Proliferation of B cells B. proliferation of dendritic cells C. Proliferation of T cell * D. Proliferation of plasma cell PARASITOLOGY 11. Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by migrating larvae of A. Toxocara canis B.onchocercus volvulus C. W. bancrofti D. Ancylostoma braziliense 12. Which of the following parasitic stages are intracellular in man A. Trypomastigote of T.cruzi B. Microfilaria of loa loa C. Schizonts of P.falciparum D. Promastigote of Leismania 13. In malaria, jaundice caused by

A. Obstruction of bile duct B. haemolysis of RBC * C. Liver congestion D. Anemia 14. The following stage can exist in the life cycle of Leishmania A. Promastigote * B. epimastigote C. Trypomastigote D. Metacyclic trypomastigote 15. Black water fever is a complication of infection with A. P. falciparum B. P. malariae C. P. vivax D. P. ovale 16. Infection with W.bancrofti occurs by A. Microfilaria in the proboscis Culex B. blood transfusion C. 3rd stage larva in proboscis Culex D. 3rd stage larva in the saliva of Culex 17. The intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondii A. Females Anopheles mosquito B. man C. Tsetse fly d. Phlebotamous papatasii 18. The diagnostic stage of Naegleria fowleri is

A. Amoeboid trophozoite form B. flagellated trophozoite form C. Cystic form D. Cyst and trophozoite 19. It is recommended to give primaquine to patients infected with P. falciparum to kill A. Sprozoite B. gametocyte C. Hypnozoite * d. Trophozoite 20. Blood transfusion can transmit the following parasites EXCEPT A. T. Cruzi B. P.ovale C. Indian type of leishmania donovani D. W.bancrofti 21. Cysticercosis is caused by infection with A. Taenia saginata eggs B. taenia solium eggs C. Cysticercouscellulosae D. Cysticercous bovis 22. All of the following statements concerning osseous hydatid cyst are true EXCEPT A. It has an irregular branching shape B. it is not surrounded by fibrous tissue C. The germinal layer is poorly developed D. Develops slowly 2-10 years

PHYSIOLOGY 23. shivering with fever is due to A. Increased secretion of adrenaline B. voluntary skeletal muscle contraction C. Release pf PG that changes thermostat set point D. Incresed secretion of thyroxin 24. Manifestation of cold exposure is A. Excessive sweating B. shivering c. Vasodilatation of skin vessels D. Loss appetite and inertia PHARMACOLOGY 25. The following statement about Fluoxetine is corrct A. It is useful in obsessive compulsive disorder * B. it is a major stimulant pf P 450 system C. It has more anticholinergic effects than amitriptyline D. It does not cause sexual dysfunction 26. The following drug can oroduce serotonin syndrom if given concurrently with MAOIs A. Bupropion B. fluoxetine C. Tranylcypromine D. Chlorpromazine

27. An antiepileptic drug relatively safe to begin during pregnancy is A. Phenytion B. na valproate C. Lamotrigine D. None above 28. A 13-year-old male suffers to tonic clonic seizures within 1 week. He is diagnosed with epilepsy and phenytoin therapy is started. To achieve proper drug concentration in plasma, the patient is first given a loading dose, followed by maintenance doses. What us the rational behind such regimen. A. If drug is administered at a maintenance dose rate, steady state concentration will be reached after two half lives B. a loading dose is administered to achieve the desired plasma concentration rapidly C. Loading dose of the drug does not depend on the volume of distribution, whereas the maintenance dose does D. Maintenance dose rate not depend on clearance of the drug, while the loading dose does 29. Which of the following correctly describes the formula of an IV loading dose ( F= 1) A. Loading dose = (desired plasma concentration of drug) x (clearance) B. loading dose = (0.693) x (volume of distribution) x (clearance)

C. Loading dise = (amount of drug administered) / (initial plasma concentration) D. Loading dose = (desired plasma concentration of drug) x (volume of distribution) 30. A 50-year old female patient suffers from rheumatoid arthritis. She started to complain of pain and swelling of the small joints of hands and feet. You prescribe azathioprine to controlling the disease activity . The appropriate investigation to monitor adverse effects of the drug is A. Complete blood picture B. fasting blood glucose level C. serum cholestrol level D. Serum calcium level 31. An antiepiletic drug contraindicated to be given to cases of absence epilepsy is A. Ethosuximide B. carbamazepine* C. Na valproate D. Clonazepam 32. Pancreatitis is an idiosyncratic side effect of the folloeing antiepileptic drug A. Lamotrigine B. Clonazepam C. Na valproate D. Phenytoin MICROBIOLOGY

33. Human transmission of Brucellosis occurs via the following routes EXCEPT A. Contact with vaginal discharge of urine animals B. drinking of unpasteurized milk C. Direct contact with animal tissues D. Inhalation of infected droplets 34. Infection with dermatophytes is most often associated with A. IV drug abuse B. inhalation of organism from contaminated bird feces C. Adherence of teh organism to moist skin D. Fecal oral transmission 35. Which one of the following can be detected at the earliest stage is the serum of the person infected with HIV A. P24 B. P31 C. P1 D. P160 36. The incubation period of Rabies virus seems to be related to A. Infecting dose of the virus B. transmitting vector C. Type of wound D. Distance between wound and the spinal cord 37. Multinucleated giant cells is associated with infection by

A. EBV B. Herpes simpex virus C. Retrovirus D. Rabies virus 38. All of the following are routes of transmission of cytomegalovirus EXCEPT A. Intrauterine life B. droplet infection C. Blood transfusion D. Organ transplantation 39. All are true about Rabies virus EXCEPT A. Bullet shape neurotropic virus B. multiplies at the site of inoculation C. The genome is SS RNA D. The administered vaccine elicit cell mediated immune response 40. The commonest site if infection for anthrax bacilli is A. Intestine B. skin* C. Liver D. Blood vessels 41. The toxins that cause tetanus is A. Exotoxins B. endotoxins C. Exotoxins with minor endotoxic properties D. Enterotoxins

42. Which one of the following viruses can cross the placenta and cause disease to the fetus A. Rubella virus B. herpes simplex type I C. Arbo virus D. EBV BIOCHEMISTRY 43. All of the following are true about metal ion sequestration EXCEPT A. it is prevented by ferritin B. it is protective against oxidative stress C. It interferes with initiation of the chain reaction propagation in lipid molecules D. Needs metal binding proteins 44. The reaction catalysed by NADPH oxidase will generate A. HOCl B. H2O2 C. NO' D. Superoxide anion