Question 1: What is the definition of a bit? A. the section of a network that is bounded bybridges, routers, or switches B.

a binary digit used in the binary number system,either 0 or 1 C. the interface on an internetworking device, suchas a router D. the network areas within which data packets that have collided are propagated Question 2: What is the term to describe the maximum number of bits that can be transferred in a given amount of time? A. impedance B. propagation C. attenuation D. bandwidth Question 3: Which factor reduces throughput? A. increased number of users B. decreased number of users C. increased size of hard drive D. decreased size of hard drive Question 4: Which of the following best describes networking protocols? A. a formal description of a set of rules and conventions that govern how devices on a network exchange information B. the use of the same network topology for all networks C. a set of guidelines that can be customized to meet individual needs D. all of the above Question 5: Which correctly describes a source address? A. the address of a host that receives data and information from other computers in a network B. the address of a host that sends data and information to other computers in a network C. data information that moves between computers in a network D. it provides a connection between computers in a network Question 6: What is the function of the session layer? A. concerned with data structures and the negotiation of data transfer syntax B. provides reliable transit of data across the physical layer C. provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems D. manages data exchange between presentation layer entities Question 7: Which best describes the function of the presentation layer? A. responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes B. concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax C. provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems D. manages data exchange between layer entities Question 8: Which process does the OSI model describe? A. how to protect networks from unwanted intrusions such as hackers and viruses B. how a network uses transmission devices provided by common carriers to create a steady and reproducible signal C. how information or data moves from one computer through a network to another computer D. how to maintain physical and software links between networks Question 9: Which statement best describes bridges and the way they make forwarding decisions? A. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions

B. they operate at OSI Layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions C. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions D. they operate at OSI Layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions Question 10: When creating a network from just two PCs, what kind of cable would be used to directly connect them? A. fiber optic cable B. standard UTP cable C. UTP rollover cable D. UTP crossover cable Question 11: If 4 hosts are connected to a hub how many IP addresses are required for these 5 devices? A. one B. two C. four D. five Question 12: What is another name for a multi-port repeater? A. bridge B. host C. hub D. sequencer Question 13: At which layer of the OSI model is the NIC located? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 5 Question 14: What is the opposition to the movement of electrons as they move through materials? A. current B. resistance C. ohms D. voltage Question 15: What is the primary cause of crosstalk? A. cable wires that are too large in diameter B. too much noise in a cable's data signal C. electrical motors and lighting D. electrical noise from other wires in a cable Question 16: Which term describes the conversion of binary data into a form that can travel on a physical communications link? A. encoding B. decoding C. encrypting D. decrypting Question 17: What is the unit of measure for resistance? A. volt B. ohm C. amp D. joule Question 18:

What does the twisting of the wires do in a CAT-5 cable? A. makes it thinner B. makes it less expensive C. limits signal degradation D. allow 6 pairs to fit in the space of 4 pairs Question 19: Which is a characteristic of a collision domain? A. all computers on a single shared access media B. all computers sharing a single IP address C. all computers sharing a single MAC address D. all computers within a WAN Question 20: What is the term used for separating collision domains with bridges, switches, and routers? A. switching domains B. extending domains C. segmentation D. fragmentation Question 21: Which best describes an extended star topology? A. LAN topology in which each of the end nodes of the core topology are acting as the center of its own star topology B. LAN topology in which transmissions from network stations propagate the length of a single coaxial cable and are received by all other stations C. LAN topology in which end points on a network are connected to a common central switch by point-to-point links D. LAN topology where central points on a network are connected to a common central switch by linear links Question 22: What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling in networks? A. cheap B. easy to install C. not susceptible to electromagnetic interference D. it is available either with or without an outer shield Question 23: Convert the decimal number 127 to Hex. A. 2B B. 7F C. EF D. 1A Question 24: What is the decimal value of the hex number ABE? A. 2750 B. 5027 C. 2570 D. 7250 Question 25: What is the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI)? A. all hex digits of a MAC address B. the 1st 6 hex digits of a MAC address C. the last 6 hex digits of a MAC address D. the prefix to all network device model numbers Question 26: Which fiber mode characteristic is recommended for inter-building connectivity? A. single-mode B. multi-mode

C. intra-mode D. inter-mode Question 27: What can be done if the area of the LAN is more than 200 meters in diameter? A. a repeater could be installed to extend the network B. another server could be used to extend the network C. special NICs can be purchased to extend the network D. all of the above Question 28: Which of the following statements are true of routers? A. They are passive. B. They operate only at the data link layer. C. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 2 addresses. D. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 3 protocol addresses. Question 29: What is the purpose of the safety ground in a computer? A. connects the hot wire to the chassis B. prevents metal parts from discharging hazardous voltage through the chassis C. connects the neutral wire to the chassis D. prevents metal parts from becoming energized with a hazardous voltage Question 30: How can the problem of electrical spikes be addressed? A. grounding cables B. surge suppressors C. line voltage meter D. uninterruptible power supplies Question 31: What best describes the difference between alternating and direct current? A. DC helps computers to work more efficiently,whereas AC can cause noise. B. AC flows at a constant value, whereas DC rises and falls. C. DC shifts ions from pole to pole, whereas AC ions run in one direction. D. DC flows at a constant value, whereas AC rises and falls. Question 32: If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and each floor is 1500 square meters, how many wiring closets should be installed according to EIA/TIA 569? A. one B. three C. six D. nine Question 33: When running cable from the wiring closet to wall jacks, where is the cable itself labeled? A. at each tie B. at each end C. at the jack end D. at the panel end Question 34: Which of the following is a source that can produce interference on UTP cable? A. fluorescent lights B. fiber-optic cabling C. bridges D. coaxial cabling Question 35: How many pins are on each of the ports of a patch panel? A. 4 pins

B. 8 pins C. 11 pins D. 45 pins Question 36: What should be used to mount cable to a wall? A. tie wraps B. electrical tape C. staples D. paperclips Question 37: What kind of jack must be used for making a connection to a Category 5 unshielded twisted pair cable in a horizontal cabling scheme? A. RJ-45 B. BNC C. UTP 55 D. EIA 45 Question 38: Which of the following is the approximate number of hosts supported in a Class B unsubnetted network? A. 254 B. 2024 C. 65 thousand D. 16 million Question 39: Which part of a network layer address does the router use during path determination? A. the host address B. the router address C. the server address D. the network address Question 40: Which of the following would be the decimal value of the binary IP address 11001101.11111111.10101010.11001101? A. 205.255.170.205 B. 109.255.170.109 C. 205.127.200.205 D. 109.127.200.109 Question 41: What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed from the host portion of a Class C network to create subnets? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Question 42: In a connection-oriented system, what happens before any user data is transferred? A. a connection is established with the recipient's local router B. a connection is established between the sender and receiver C. a connection is established with the sender's local router D. the destination is not contacted before any actual data is sent Question 43: Which type of routing protocol is RIP? A. distance vector B. link state C. hybrid D. spanning tree

Question 44: IP relies upon which OSI layer protocol to determine whether packets have been lost and request retransmission? A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport Question 45: When sending data to a host on a different network, the source host encapsulates data so that it contains what destination address in the IP header? A. IP address of the router B. MAC address of the router C. MAC address of the destination device D. IP address of the destination host Question 46: Which simple protocol exchanges datagrams, without acknowledgements or guaranteed delivery? A. TCP B. ASP C. TCP/IP D. UDP Question 47: Which ports are reserved by TCP and UDP for public applications? A. numbers from 255 to 1023 B. numbers below 255 C. numbers above 1023 D. numbers from 0 to 1023 Question 48: Which term refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted before receiving an acknowledgement? A. window size B. closed connection C. two way handshake D. expectational acknowledgement Question 49: What is ASCII and EBCDIC used to format? A. graphics B. text C. digitized music D. video Question 50: Which protocol is designed to download or upload files on the Internet? A. SNMP B. Telnet C. FTP D. HTTP Question 51: What type of server is used to translate a domain name into the associated IP address? A. FTP B. DNS C. TFTP D. DHCP Question 52: What is an example of an application that requires both a client and server component in order to function?

A. web browser B. Microsoft Word C. ASCII D. PICT Question 53: What are most applications that work in a networked environment classified as? A. file storage applications B. network redirector applications C. client-server applications D. dialogue control applications Question 54: What is a WAN? A. A network that connects users across a large geographic area B. A network that connects devices in a workgroup setting C. A network that connects business departments in a building D. A network that connects physically adjacent devices Question 55: Which describes Layer 3 path determination in the OSI model? A. enables switches to find the best path to a host B. enables a switch to choose the next hop C. determines how a packet is forwarded on the same subnetwork D. enables a router to choose the next hop Question 56: Which protocol can find the MAC address of a computer given its IP address? A. RARP B. DHCP C. ARP D. Proxy RARP Question 57: Which is a network layer protocol that can be routed? A. IP B. ISP C. NetBEUI D. ARP Question 58: How many bits are in the network and subnet portion of a class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0? A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 D. 21 Question 59: Why is a static route the preferred method for reaching stub networks? A. static routing requires less overhead B. static routing requires more overhead on the network C. this allows routers to adjust to changes in the network D. the routes are learned automatically Question 60: Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4 Question 61:

From the following list, what is the correct order of data encapsulation? 1. Segments 2. Bits 3. Packets 4.Frames A. 1-3-4-2 B. 2-1-3-4 C. 2-3-4-1 D. 3-1-2-4 Question 62: The FDDI specification that defines data encoding/decoding procedures is: A. Media Access Control B. Physical Layer Medium C. Physical Layer Protocol D. Station Management Question 63: Which of the following statements is correct based on Coulomb's Electric Force Law? A. Two like charges repel each other while two unlike charges attract each other B. Two unlike charges repel each other while two like charges attract each other C. Both Like and unlike charges repel each other D. Both Like and unlike charges attract each other Question 64: Which of the following cable types combines the techniques of shielding, cancellation, and twisting of wires? A. Fiber Optics B. STP C. UTP D. Unshielded Twisted Pair Question 65: Which of the following is a Layer 1 device? A. Bridge B. Hub C. Router D. Switch Question 66: What type of connector is used with Cat 5 UTP cable? A. BNC B. RG-62 C. RJ-45 D. RS-232 Question 67: Which layer establishes, manages and terminates sessions between applications? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport Question 68: What are some components that are specific to a LAN? A. ISDN, computers, and network interface cards B. Network interface cards, computers, and networking media C. Networking media, frame relay, and computers D. Networking media, network interface cards, and T1 Question 69: Which of the following is the correct order for the layers of the OSI reference model? A. Data link, physical, transport, network,presentation, session, application B. Physical, data link, network, session, transport,presentation, application C. Physical, data link, network, transport,presentation, session, application D. Physical, data link, network, transport, session,presentation, application