Why Were The Elephants Carrying Loads of Gold and Other Valuables

1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?
(A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward
(B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious
(C) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his kingdom as a
sign of victory
(D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler
(E) None of these
2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?
(A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious
(B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
(C) To show other devotees that he was king
(D) The priest requested him to do so
(E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple
3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?

1. He was not a loyal subject of the king.
2. He was afraid of the king’s temper.
3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?

(A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes
(B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
(C) They were upset that their army had lost
(D) They were in the habit of lying
(E) None of these
5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?
1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.
2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.
3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king
(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the children
(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple
7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?
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(A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister
(B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children
(C) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign
(D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh
(E) None of these
8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?

1. He was jealous of the jester.
2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor.
3. He did not have a good sense of humour.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ?
1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.
2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.
3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
10. Why was the king angry with the children ?

(A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous
(B) They had lied to him
(C) They did not recognize him as king
(D) They had unknowingly insulted him
(E) They were rude to him
Directions(Q. 11 -13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. froze
(A) cold
(B) numb
(C) shivered
(D) stood still
(E) chill
12. leave
(A) holiday
(B) transfer
(C) exit
(D) permission
(E) farewell
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13. spied
(A) noticed
(B) keep watch
(C) followed
(D) spot
(E) caught
Directions(Q. 14 - 15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
14. immersed in
(A) safe from
(B) distracted from
(C) boring
(D) drowning in
(E) entertained by
15. pardon
(A) punishment
(B) excuse
(C) convict
(D) intolerance
(E) imprison
Directions(Q. 16 - 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful
and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the
answer.
16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.

(A) is dependable
(B) depends on
(C) being dependent
(D) going to depend
(E) No correction required
17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(A) was fearful of
(B) was feared to
(C) was afraid to
(D) had been afraid to
18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.
(A) any of the place convenient
(B) at places convenient
(C) from a place of convenience
(D) to a place convenient
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19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(A) sharper rise of
(B) as sharp a rise
(C) sharp rises in
(D) sharply rising
20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(A) were required to submit
(B) required for submission
(C) are required to submit
(D) requirement of submitting
Directions(Q. 21 - 25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below
themâ€”
1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to
the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?
2. “Yes”, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if
all you do is greet them.”
3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?
4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.
5. I have never forgotten this lesson.
6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count
for assessment.
21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5
23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
4
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions(Q. 26 - 30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are
lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the
context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word
is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. â€˜All
correctâ€™.
26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the organization.
All correct (E)
27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern (D) . All
correct (E)
28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents (D) in the
long run. All correct (E)
29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done strictly (C)
on merit (D). All correct (E)
30. There will be a decline (A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike (C) in oil
prices (D). All correct (E)
Directions(Q. 31 - 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there
is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. The revised governmentâ€™s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers (C) /
taking place among banks. (D) No error (E)
32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No error (E)
33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C) / many
cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)
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34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from RBI. (D) No
error (E)
35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products and(C)
/efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)
36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily (C) / than
we expected. (D) No error (E)
37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease his boss.
(D) No error (E)
38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre of petrol
that they sell. (D) No error (E)
39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary true. (D) No
error (E)
40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing
management. (D) No error (E)
Directions(Q. 41 - 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one.
As a leader, he ¦(41)¦ the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never ¦(42)¦ focus.
The cement industry in those days was doing badly. ¦(43)¦ to everyone’s expectations he
sanctioned an additional plant in ¦(44)¦ time. He was ¦(45)¦ that since the cement industry was
cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was ¦(46)¦ the market would have improved. It did happen
and the decision brought rich ¦(47)¦ when the plant was commissioned.
Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also â€¦(48)â€¦ all his senior people to be
â€˜practising entrepreneursâ€™. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of
Management, which allows its professors to â€¦(49)â€¦ their own business. This made their
lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the â€¦(50)â€¦ of the Institute’s success.
41. (A) achieved

(B) implemented
(C) visualised
(D) persevered
(E) aimed
42. (A) moved

(B) shifts
(C) missed
(D) changes
(E) lost
43. (A) Contrary
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(B) Opposite
(C) Yet
(D) Obedient
(E) Different
44. (A) any

(B) mean
(C) short
(D) no
(E) less
45. (A) known

(B) calculating
(C) certain
(D) dreamt
(E) surely
46. (A) operational

(B) install
(C) use
(D) produced
(E) new
47. (A) supply

(B) diversity
(C) rewards
(D) pay
(E) knowledge
48. (A) thought

(B) tried
(C) wished
(D) encourage
(E) wanted
49. (A) expand

(B) function
(C) chose
(D) run
(E) risk
50. (A) responsibility

(B) secret
(C) guarantee
(D) prize
(E) value
Answers with Hints:-

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A)
7
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
26. (A) Correct spelling is “goal”.
27. (C) Correct spelling is”cause”.
28. (D) Correct spelling is “dividends”.
29. (E) 30. (B)
31. (A) Write “the government’s revised”.
32. (B) Write “which of the”.
33. (C) Write “the government is organizing”.
34. (C) Write “without obtaining”.
35. (D) Write “efficient managerial staff”.
36. (C) Change “very easily”to “more easily”.
37. (C) Write “even though it would”.
38. (C) Write “each” in place of “all”.
39. (D) Write “necessarily true”.
40. (B) Delete “my”.
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)
1. India test-fired Agni III on

(A) May 15, 2008
(B) May 17, 2008
(C) May 20, 2008
(D) May 7, 2008
Ans: (D)
2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after
its successful test firing of Agni III
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K.
(D) France
Ans: (C)
3. M. Natrajan is
(A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
(B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
(C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?
(A) ISRO
(B) CBI
(C) DRDO
(D) NASSCOM
Ans: (C)
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5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at
(A) Andman island
(B) Nicobar island
(C) Lumut
(D) Kualalampur
Ans: (C)
6. SERB stands for

(A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
(B) Scientific And Engineering Research Board
(C) Scientists and Engineers Research Board
(D) Science and Engineering Research Board
Ans: (D)
7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with

(A) Prithvi II
(B) Chandryan I
(C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis alleged murderer
(D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal
Ans: (A)
8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) North Korea
Ans: (B)
9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans: (B)
10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by
(A) Hungera
(B) Line of Passage
(C) The Class
(D) Three Monkeys
Ans: (C)
11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is
9
(A) Ravi Kumar
(B) Sameer Mishra
(C) Kuljit Singh
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
12. Travelling Through Conflict is a book written by

(A) Hamid Ansari
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Balraj Krishna
(D) Salman Rushdie
Ans: (A)
13. According to the Global Peace Index released in May 2008, the most peaceful country on
the earth is
(A) New Zealand
(B) Norway
(C) Denmark
(D) Iceland
Ans: (D)
14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?

(A) PGCIL
(B) REC
(C) NALCO
(D) All the above
Ans: (D)
15. In terms of billionnaire population. Mumbai ranks at world level ?

(A) Sixth
(B) Fifth
(C) Fourth
(D) Seventh
Ans: (D)
16. According to a report, the number of Indians who have a problem of loud snoring during
sleep is
(A) 35 million
(B) 36 million
(C) 40 million
(D) 45 million
Ans: (B)
17. The government has planned to establish universities of global standards across the
10
country ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 16
Ans: (D)
18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of

(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Cane
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
19. India recently refused to accept the offer of funds/loans from World Bank for
(A) Disaster management
(B) North-East projects
(C) Tiger protection
Ans: (C)
20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was

(A) U.S.A. film director
(B) First man to go to Mars mission
(C) Renowned fashion designer
(D) An internationally renowned financial expert
Ans: (C)
1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark
(?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark
(?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
11
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)

FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)

BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)
8. In a certain code language, '3a, 2b, 7c' means 'Truth is Eternal'; '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'Enmity is not
Eternal' and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b' means 'Truth does not perish'. Which of the following means 'enmity' in that
language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is playing cards'; 'Kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha is
playing tennis'; ki top sop ho' means 'they are playing football'; and 'po sur kop' means 'cards and tennis'.
Which word in that language means 'Asha'?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall on
12
Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many times
does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts
prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey
pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also
out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the
class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. 'A' is east of 'B' and west of 'C'. 'H' is South-West of 'C', 'B' is South-East of 'X'. which is farthest West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire year's
earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6

Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it
show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on
Wednesday
Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still continue to import
sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
13
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Ans (c)
18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.

Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their
places of work on time.
Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike of
its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.

Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
ADH
FIM
?NR
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
AMBN
RCSD
EUF?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
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25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
149?
1234
246?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
668
575
43?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)
15
30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
1. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open three more IITs during the year 2008-09. These
IITs will be in which of the following groups of States ?
(A) Bihar, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Karnataka
(C) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. Which of the following is/are not the highlights of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A Risk Capital Fund is to be set up and maintained by one of the financial institutes.
2. Allocation for Defence is reduced by 10% to make it Rs. 10,000 crore.
3. Several new schemes to be introduced for providing social security to the people in
unorganized sectors.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
3. To help farming community the Govt. of India has decided to raise the Minimum support price
of paddy for current Kharif marketing season. What is that price ?
(A) Rs. 800 per quintal
(B) Rs. 900 per quintal
(C) Rs. 950 per quintal
(D) Rs. 1200 per quintal
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial papers ?
1. It is nothing but the popular name of the Judicial stamp papers used to register financial
transactions.
2. It is one of the instruments through which Corporates raise debt from the market.
3. It is the name of the ‘Certificate of Deposits’ provided by the Banks to its retail customers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
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(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
5. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India two financial inclusion funds are set up with an
overall corpus of Rs. 500 crore each. These funds-Financial Inclusion Fund and Financial
Inclusion Technology Fund are to be set up by the initial contribution made by the……
(A) SIDBI, NABARD and UTI
(B) NABARD, UTI and RBI
(C) Govt. of India, NABARD and RBI
(D) SIDBI, Govt. of India and IDBI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the Operating ratio of Railways is pitched at which of the
following levels ? Approximately……
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 98%
(D) 90%
(E) 81%
Ans : (E)
7. As per the Govt. policy the provision of the subsidy for interest subvention to co-operative
Sugar Mills is done by which of the following agencies / organizations ?
(A) Commission for Agricultural costs and prices
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) National Commission on Farmers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Banks these days have launched a new scheme product known as ‘Reverse Mortgage’. The
scheme is designed keeping which of the following groups of society in consideration ?
(A) Youngsters who have just started earning
(B) Defence personnel whose life is always at high risk
(C) Senior Citizen
(D) Women who do not have independent source of income
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. As per the new figures released in recent past what has been the ratio of taxes to Gross
Domestic Product (Tax-GDP) in 2007-08 ? Approximately……
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 11•5%
(E) 12•5%
Ans : (E)
17
10. Many a times we read in the newspapers a term ‘Hot Money’. Which of the following is the
correct definition of Hot Money ?
1. This is the fund which is dumped into a country to get the advantage of a favourable interest
rate and hence brings higher returns.
2. This is the fund which is provided by a bank in US $ at very short notice and at a very high rate
of interest and for a longer period of repayment.
3. This is the fund which is pushed into market through Hawala or some other such illegal
methods and sometimes referred also as Black Money.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Both 1 and 3 are true
(E) Only 2 is correct
Ans : (A)
11. As per the report released in the press the Govt. of India has done a study on Special
Economic Zones. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the reports ?
1. Report says that SEZs should not be given much preference by the policy makers.
2. Study says that the end benefit in the next few years may be of the tune of Rs. 1,50,000 crores
which will be much higher than the estimated revenue losses.
3. Since new SEZs are developed by the Private Sector the investment for infrastructural
development is like a net saving for the Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. As per the new figures released by the Govt. agencies the Foreign Direct Investment inflow to
India is at higher level and has increased substantially in recent past. Which of the following is/are
the contributory factors which has/have helped in this record growth ?
1. Progressive delicensing of various sectors.
2. Simplification of business procedures in India.
3. Sub Prime crisis in USA.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)
13. Which of the following Companies has got “Navratna Status’ recently ?
(A) National Mineral Development
Corporation (NMDC)
(B) National Textile Corporation (NTC)
(C) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(D) IDBI Bank Ltd.
(E) None of these
18
Ans : (A)
14. The real return to the investor sometimes gets reduced due to sudden rise in the prices of the
commodities. This phenomenon in financial market is known as…
(A) Market risk
(B) Inflation risk
(C) Credit risk
(D) Diversification of funds
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. In the recent times the RBI and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) have taken
various steps to control the flow of capital in Indian economy. Which of the following is/are not
included in these step(s) ?
1. Guidelines are issued to restrict unregulated overseas investors through ‘p-notes’.
2. Rs. 60,000 crores out of this fund is being provided to waive the loans on farmers.
3. Borrowers raising external commercial borrowings of over $ 20 million would have to park the
proceeds overseas for use as foreign currency expenditure.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
16. Which of the following countries has recently made an agreement with the World Trade
Organization which will allow it to join the same as a permanent member ?
(A) Russia
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Zambia
(D) Uganda
(E) Ukraine
Ans : (E)
17. Prime Minister of India on his visit to China a few months back signed a detailed agreement
with the same. What is/are the major highlights of the agreement ?
1. Both the countries agreed to continue high level exchange of views. Indian President is invited
to China.
2. India to host joint military exercise in 2008.
3. India has decided to raise the issue of Tibet in UNO. China has agreed for the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)
18. As per the reports in the leading newspapers Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
has asked the Mutual Fund industry to stop ‘Misselling’ their schemes to investors. What is
‘Misselling’ of products ?
19
1. Misselling takes place when mutual funds are sold without telling the likely returns.
2. When agents sell the products without telling investors what are the risks involved in investing
in mutual funds.
3. When agents invest somebody’s money in mutual funds without their knowledge, it is called
misselling.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. As per the news report SEBI has allowed short selling by FIs/MFs from February 1, 2008.
What is ‘short selling’ ?
1. Selling of shares that the seller does not own at the time of trading.
2. Selling of shares on the same day or on the day they were allotted to the trader.
3. Selling of shares on a much lower price due to turbulent market situations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following countries is governed by the Norweigianmediated ceasefire Agreement
to end its dispute with a group of rebellions ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. The USA, as reported in the leading newspapers is proceeding towards ‘recession’. What
happens when an economy goes in the grip of ‘recession’ ?
1. GDP growth slows down.
2. People lose their jobs.
3. Foreign exchange reserve goes up substantially as lot of loans/grants start pouring in.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
22. The Sensitive Index of the Bombay Stock Exchange keeps on changing positively and
negatively both. Which of the following is/are the main reasons which contribute for this sudden
change in the same ?
1. Higher GDP Growth.
2. Continuous Foreign Funds Flow.
20
3. High Volume of Forex Reserves.
4. Recession in USA.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)
23. The Jerusalem and Palestine made an agreement on their peace negotiations. Which of the
following is/are the points included in the agreement ?
1. There should be an end to the occupation that began in 1967.
2. The agreement must establish Palestine as a homeland for the Palestinian people just as
Israel is the homeland for Jewish people.
3. All the disputes should be solved with the mutual talks only and in presence of US Observers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Who amongst the following agreed to supply aircraft carrier ‘Gorshkov’ to India for its defence
services ?
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. The Govt. of India has decided to set up a Committee to redraft Right to Education Bill 2005.
What was/were the objection(s) owing to which Govt. has to redraft the bill ?
1. State Governments are required to spend more money on education. Since education is the
responsibility of centre and state both, expenditure should be shared equally by both of them.
2. States were advised to ensure that a school is available at the distance of one km for each
child.
3. Children in Central schools are not allowed to get free education whereas schools run by
States were asked to ensure that.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
26. As per newspaper reports outsourcing has become a profitable business in India and
countries like China are trying to learn about it from India. What are the main factors which
has/have helped India in attaining this position ?
1. Availability of skilled manpower in abundance.
21
2. Knowledge of English language.
3. A switch over from farming to other sectors which are creating more job opportunities.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)
27. Who amongst the following established the ‘Anandvan’ a rehabilitation centre for Leprosy
patients in Maharashtra ?
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Pandurang Shashtri Athawle
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Asaram Babu
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Thaksin Shinawatra’s name is associated with which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) North Korea
(D) South Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Bhupen Hazarika is the recipient of the Life Time Achievement Award and is provided the
status of a Cabinet Minister. Which of the following State Govt. has honoured him in this
manner ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010. These games will be
organized in……
(A) Moscow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Beijing
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
31. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia ?
(A) Raul Castro
(B) Steven Spielberg
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Joes Manuel Ramos Horta
22
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
32. International Desert Festival 2008 was organized in February 2008 in……
(A) Bhuj
(B) Ganganagar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaiselmer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
33. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Kishore Kumar Award’ given by the Madhya
Pradesh Govt. ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Manoj Kumar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. The Under 19 Cricket World Cup 2008 was won by which of the following teams ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Australia
(E) England
Ans : (B)
35. Why was the name of Anatolyevich Medvedev in news recently ?

(A) He has taken over as the President of Russia
(B) He has taken over as the Prime Minister of Russia
(C) He is the new President of South Korea
(D) He is the new Prime Minister of South Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Who amongst the following was the Chief Guest in India’s Republic Day function ?
(A) Samak Sundaravej
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Nicolas Sarkozy
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
37. The General Elections in Iran are due in 2008. Iran elects its Parliament for a period of……
(A) 2 years only
(B) 3 years only
(C) 4 years only
(D) 5 years only
(E) 6 years only
23
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following states tops in primary, upper primary education in India ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan given away recently ?
(A) Anu Malik
(B) Shan
(C) Asha Bhosle
(D) Sonu Nigam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Luciana Aymar who was adjudged the World Hockey Player 2007 is from which of the
following countries ?
(A) Germany
(B) Argentina
(C) Italy
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. Which of the following State Governments has decided to provide ownership Rights to Tribals
over forest land being cultivated by them since last 10 years.
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
42. Who amongst the following players has completed 16000 runs in One day International
Cricket matches recently ?
(A) Anil Kumble
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Sourav Ganguly
(D) Irfan Pathan
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans : (E)
43. The 11th Five Year Plan wishes to raise the existing 2% growth in agriculture and allied
activities to which of the followings levels by the year 2012 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
24
(D) 4%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. As a policy the Reserve Bank of India wishes to contain inflation at which of the following
levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
45. The current trend in Agricultural sector in India is a matter of concern for the policy makers
these days as it is not showing the expected results. What is/are the major areas of problem(s)
being faced by the farmers ?
1. Irrigation facilities are not enough.
2. Use of chemical fertilizers has badly affected the fertility of the land.
3. Govt. has reduced the subsidy in the farming sector. Hence it is no more a profitable activity.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit institutions
in states ?
(A) Vaidyanathan Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Sachchar Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
47. ‘World Day for Water’ is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) March 22
(B) February 22
(C) January 22
(D) May 22
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. As we all know Chinese economy is a booming economy and its exports have played a
significant role in it. What was the share of China’s export as compared to its GDP in 2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) None of these
25
Ans : (C)
49. Delhi won the Ranji Trophy for the seventh time in January 2008 by defeating…
(A) Railways
(B) Haryana
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (E)
50. Gagan Narang, who got a silver medal in an international championship held in Munich, is
a/an……
(A) 100 metre runner
(B) Badminton player
(C) Chess player
(D) Swimmer
(E) Air Rifle shooter
Computer General Knowledge Question paper
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the
word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or
actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.

(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
26
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion
point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
27
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the
same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of
immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task
requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are
known as:
28
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:

(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:

(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
29
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:

(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its
permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

(A) RAM.
30
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________
process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of
directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
31
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best
viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
1. The Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation Meeting was organi-zed in September 2007 in which of
the following places ?
(A) Sydney
(B) New York
(C) Tokyo
(D) Beijing
(E) None of these
2. One of the main issues discussed in the 40th Ministerial Meeting of the ASEAN held in August,
2007 wasâ€”
(A) Americaâ€™s over stay in Iraq
(B) Presidential Election in Pakistan
(C) Draft blue print of the ASEAN Charter
(D) The 123 Agreement between India and USA
(E) None of these
3. Mrs. Pratibha Patil has taken over as theâ€”

(A) 10th President of India
(B) 11th President of India
(C) 12th President of India
(D) 13th President of India
(E) 15th President of India
4. The President of India in one of her speeches in recent past emphasized that a new Farm
Policy is needed to make agri-culture more productive. What, in her opinion are the areas which
32
need our immediate attention ?
(1) Credit at low interest rate
(2) Enhancement of technical skills
(3) Free import of wheat and other food grains
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2(E) All 1, 2 & 3
5. Who amongst the following jour-nalists is the recipient of the â€œPrestigious Ramon
Magsaysay Awardâ€ for 2007 ?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) P. Sainath
(C) Barkha Dutt
(D) Prabhu Chawla
(E) None of these
6. How many intertwined rings are shown in the Olympic Flag used these days in the games ?
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven
(D) Three
(E) None of these
7. Indiaâ€™s grandmaster Vishwana-than Anand won the Rapid World Chess Championship by
defeatingâ€”
(A) Anatoly Karpov
(B) Robert Fischer
(C) Boris Spassky
(D) Varily Smysloy
(E) Levon Aronian
8. The finals of the Asia Cup Hockeyâ€“2007 was played bet-weenâ€”

(A) Indiaâ€“Malaysia
(B) Malaysiaâ€“Pakistan
(C) Pakistanâ€“India
(D) South Koreaâ€“India
(E) Hong Kongâ€“South Korea
9. India recently launched some Satellites in space. Normally the space rockets in India are
launched from which of the following places ?
(A) Ranchi
(B) Sriharikota
(C) Varanasi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Gulmarg
33
10. Which of the following countries has agreed to a time schedule with the International Atomic
Energy Agency (IAEA) so that IAEA can ensure that its ura-nium facilities are for peaceful use of
the nuclear power ?
(A) Iran
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Brazil
(E) Britain
11. Which of the following organi-zations has taken the responsi-bility to raise about US $ 2 billion
to build a Rail link from China to Singapore connecting eight nations ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) EU
(D) NATO
(E) None of these
12. The Govt. of India these days is paying much emphasis on Agri-cultural Sector. What is the
contribution of Agri Sector in Indiaâ€™s GDP ? Aroundâ€”
(A) 10%
(B) 4%
(C) 12%
(D) 25%
(E) 48%
13. Which of the following countries has signed a 22 Point Agreement with Madhesi Peopleâ€™s
Right Forum (MPRF) ?
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C) India
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Myanmar
14. Mr. Abdullah Gul has taken over as which of the following ?
(A) Prime Minister of Afghanistan
(B) Prime Minister of Iraq
(C) President of Iraq
(D) President of Turkey
(E) None of these
15. At present Indian Rupee isâ€”

(A) partially convertible on cur-rent account
(B) fully convertible on current account
34
(C) partially convertible on capital account
(D) fully convertible on capital account
(E) fully convertible on current and capital account both
16. The Government of India has decided to import which of the following commodities at about
Rs. 16 a kg. whereas it pays only Rs. 8.50 a kg. for the purchase of the same within the country
for its Public Distri-bution System ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Sugar
(D) Sugarcane
(E) None of these
17. The Finance Minister of India recently made a mention that Infrastructure Development in
India should be done on â€˜PPPâ€™ model only. What is the full form of â€˜PPPâ€™ ?
(A) Purchasing Power Parity
(B) Public Private Partnership
(C) Purchase Produce Provide
(D) Peopleâ€™s Programme and Priority
(E) None of these
18. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing correcting various indicators/rates/ratios
applic-able to the banking industry. What at present is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) ?
(A) 7%
(B) 12%
(C) 25%
(D) 33%
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following agencies/ organizations is setting up Indiaâ€™s first Natural Resource
Data Centre in Kolkata ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) SAARC
(E) BARC
20. The Govt. of India has announ-ced a Rs. 14,000 crore help pac-kage to exporters. Why
exporters need a help of such nature ?
(A) Rupee is appreciating sharply
(B) Few consignments of expor-ts were destroyed by terrorists
(C) China has reduced its VAT rates hence its products have become cheaper for importers
(D) It was done to promote exports to SAARC member nations
(E) None of these
35
21. Indiaâ€™s â€˜Look Eastâ€™ trade policy is designed to help particularly members of which
of the follow-ing group of nations ?
(A) SAARC
(B) ASEAN
(C) WTO
(D) NATO
(E) EU
22. In response to Indiaâ€™s â€˜Look Eastâ€™ policy which of the following countries has
launched â€˜Look Westâ€™ policy ? (Both are comple-mentary to each other)
(A) Singapore
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) Thailand
23. â€˜Brahmosâ€™ is designed to be used by which of the following ?

(A) Indian Navy
(B) Indian Army
(C) Indian Air Force
(D) Border Security Force
(E) All of these
24. Who amongst the following pla-yers was the Captain of Indiaâ€™s Twentyâ€”20 World Cup
played recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) M.S. Dhoni
25. Which of the following nations will host the final of Afro Asia Cup 2008 (Cricket) ?
(A) Kenya
(B) South Africa
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
(E) Sri Lanka
26. Late Chandra Shekhar who died in July 2007 was formerâ€”
(A) President of India
(B) Vice President of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister of India
(E) Secretary-General of UNO
36
27. Which of the following organi-zations has provided a credit of US $ 600 million to India to beef
up its rural credit structure system ?
(A) World Bank
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) EU
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following countries has agreed to release hundreds of millions of dollars of
frozen funds collected as tax to Palestine which is facing a severe cash/ funds problem ?
(A) Syria
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Egypt
(E) None of these
29. Leaders of the European Union have agreed to implement reform treaty which will help in
streamlining itsâ€”
(A) defunct constitution
(B) agreement with UNO
(C) pack with African Union
(D) Currency Swap with Yen/ Yuan and US $
(E) relations with Russia and other constituents of former USSR
30. Immediately prior to Gordon Brownâ€™s taking over as the Prime Minister of the UK who
was the Prime Minister there ?
(A) Mr. Valeric Amos
(B) Mr. Vladimir Putin
(C) Ms. Hilary Armstrong
(D) Mr. David Cameron
(E) Tony Blair
31. Mr. Robert Zoellick has taken over as theâ€”

(A) President of the World Bank
(B) Prime Minister of Turkey
(C) President of Iraq
(D) President of IMF
(E) None of these
32. India is known as one of the BRIC country. Which of the following is not one of the BRIC
countries ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Romania
37
(C) China
(D) Russia
(E) All are BRIC countries
33. The Govt. of India recently purchased RBIâ€™s 59% stake in one of the major banks of India
in about Rs. 35531 crore. Which of the following is the name of that bank ?
(A) UTI Bank (AXIS Bank)
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
34. The Global Non-Violence Day was observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 15th August
(B) 14th November
(C) 19th September
(D) 2nd October
(E) 30th January
35. The RBI recently released Macro economic and Monetary Deve-lopments : First Quarter
Review 2007-08. As per this review which of the following sectors showed a commendable
growth and stood at about 12% level ?
(A) Service
(B) Industrial Sector
(C) Social Sector
(D) Banking Sector
(E) None of these
36. The National Housing Bank recently launched the â€˜NHB RESIDEXâ€™ the index of
housing prices. How this index will help Govt./civic authorities ? (Pick up statement which is not
true)
1. It will track the fluctuation in property markets
2. Rationalization of stamp duty and other such taxes
3. It will help banks in deciding the price of the property and to decide how much loan should be
given for the same to the publicâ€”
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
37. Which of the following is the main regulatory authority for insurance companies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) LIC
38
(D) AMFI
(E) IRDA
38. The sensitive index of which of the following stock exchanges in India recently touched 15000
marks and still going higher and higher ?
(A) Kolkata Stock Exchange
(B) National Stock Exchange
(C) Delhi Stock Exchange
(D) Bombay Stock Exchange
(E) None of these
39. As per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) the fiscal deficit should
brought to which of the follow-ing levels of the GDP by the year 2009 ?
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
(E) 7%
40. The RBI/Govt. of India short-listed four organizations who will manage pension funds. Which
of the following is not one of these shortlisted companies ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) LIC of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) IDBI Capital
(E) UTIAMC
41. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in literary work ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Dronacharya Award
(D) Arjun Award
(E) Pulitzer Prize
42. The period for 11th Five Year Plan isâ€”

(A) 2005â€“2010
(B) 2006â€“2011
(C) 2007â€“2012
(D) 2008â€“2013
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following awards is not a â€˜Gallantry Awardâ€™ ?

(A) Mahavir Chakra
(B) Vir Chakra
39
(C) Vishista Sewa Medal
(D) Ashok Chakra
(E) Saraswati Samman
44. â€˜Ranji Trophyâ€™ is associated with the game ofâ€”

(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
(E) Tennis
45. Who amongst the following has played the main/lead role in the film â€˜Chak De Indiaâ€™ ?
(A) Abhishek Bachchan
(B) Salman Khan
(C) Aamir Khan
(D) Shah Rukh Khan
(E) None of these
46. Who amongst the following is the author of the book â€˜Long Walk to Freedomâ€™ ?
(A) Benajir Bhutto
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Laxmi Sehgal
(D) Pervez Musharraf
(E) None of these
47. â€˜Sunny Daysâ€™ is a book written byâ€”

(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Ravi Shastri
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) None of these
48. The Govt. of India has decided to increase the export of Cashew nut. Which of the following is
not a major cashew nut grow-ing State ?
(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Uttar Pradesh
49. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award given away
recently ?
(A) Geeta Rani
(B) Jayanta Talukdar
40
(C) Virendra Singh
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
50. Roger Federer who won US Open 2007 Tennis Championship is a citizen ofâ€”
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) USA
(E) Switzerland
Answers with Explanations :

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A)
7. (E) Vishwanathan Anand won his tenth Grenke leasing World Rapid Chess title after defeating
Armeniaâ€™s Levon Aronian in a cautiouslyâ€“played final in Maiz, Germany
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (D)
13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (B)
18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (E)
23. (B) 24. (E) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (A)
28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (E) 31. (A) 32. (B)
33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (E)
38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C) 41. (E) 42. (C)
43. (E) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (E)
48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)
COMMON Interview Questions
1.Tell me about yourself.

2.Why are you applying for this particular job?
3.What do you know about our company?
4.What makes you qualified for this particular job?
5.What can you do for us that someone else can't?
6.Why should we hire you?
7.What do you look for in a job?
8.Why are you looking to make a career change?
9.Why did you leave your last job?
10.Why do you want to work for us (as opposed to the competitor companies)?
11.How long will it take you to start making a meaningful contribution?
12.What are your strengths?
13.What are your weaknesses?
14.What are your career goals?
41
15. How would you describe yourself?
16. How would your colleagues describe you?
17. How would your boss describe you?
18. What did you most like/ dislike about your past job?
19. Describe a situation in your past where you showed initiative?
20. What were your main responsibilities in your last job?
21. What do you consider your greatest accomplishments?
22. Describe your management style (if relevant)
23. Do you work better in teams or independently?
24. How do you work under pressure?
25. What other jobs have you applied for?
26. How did you do in college?
27. What kind of hours would you like to work?
28. Do you have any questions for me?
Computer Science Questions for Bank PO Exam

1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Ans: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.

A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Ans: A
3. ____________terminals are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Ans: B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an itemâ€™s tag and
42
pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Ans: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal's computer is an example of a
law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Ans: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Ans: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of
the animal's movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Ans: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of
manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Ans: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:

43
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Ans: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Ans: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of
intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Ans: D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Ans: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Ans: B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
44
Ans: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of
the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Ans: B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Ans: C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:

A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Ans: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made
up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Ans: D
19. The term bit is short for:

A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Ans: C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
45
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Ans: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.

A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Ans: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.

A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Ans: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Ans: A
24. The components that process data are located in the:

A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Ans: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:

A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Ans: D
46
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Ans: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:

A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Ans: B
28. The ____________, also called the â€œbrainsâ€ of the computer, is responsible for processing
data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Ans: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:

A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Ans: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:

A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Ans: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
47
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Ans: B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computerâ€™s hardware devices and
____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Ans: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Ans: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different
operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Ans: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Ans: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
48
D. mainframes
Ans: D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Ans: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.

A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Ans: D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this
access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Ans: A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an
extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Ans: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process a Output a Input a Storage
B. Input a Output a Process a Storage
C. Process a Storage a Input a Output
D. Input a Process a Output a Storage
Ans: D
49
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Ans: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).

A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Ans: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.

A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Ans: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by
which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Ans: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Ans: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your
car or your electronic thermostat.
50
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Ans: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are
called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Ans: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:

A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Ans: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Ans: A
1. Who is considered the real founder of the Gupta Empire?

(A) Chandragupta II
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Srigupta
2. Shahjahan ascended the Mughal throne in—

(A) 1628 AD
(B) 1626 AD
(C) 1625 AD
51
(D) 1627 AD
3. Which is correct order?

(A) Babur, Humayun, Jahangir, Akbar, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
(B) Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
(C) Babur, Akbar, Humayun, Shahjahan, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
(D) Babur, Humayun, Shahjahan, Akbar, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
4. Ibn Batutah visited India during the rule of—

(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah Suri
(D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
5. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during ‘Battle of Plassey’?

(A) Siraj-ud-daola
(B) Mir Jafar
(C) Mir Qasim
(D) None of these
6. FIFA World Cup, 2006 was played in—

(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Spain
(D) UK
7. Munaf Patel plays which sport?

(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Table-Tennis
8. The first Asian lady swimmer to have crossed the English Channel was—
(A) Bula Choudhury
(B) Arati Saha
(C) Nilima Ghosh
(D) None of these
9. Which country has never won the Cricket World Cup?

52
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sri-Lanka
(D) England
10. Which cricket playing countries fight for the ‘ASHES’?

(A) Indian and Pakistan
(B) Australia and South Africa
(C) Australia and England
(D) England and West Indies
11. Who was the first Law Minister of independent India?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
12. Who was the first speaker of the Lok-Sabha?

(A) B.R.Ambedkar
(B) G.V.Mavlankar
(C) N.Sanjeeva Reddy
(D) Dr. S.P.Mukherjee
13. How many states (except Delhi) are there in India?

(A) 28
(B) 29
(C) 25
(D) 30
14. Which country won the first World Cup Cricket?

(A) Australia
(B) India
(C) England
(D) West Indies
15. Who was the woman President of the United Nations?

(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(C) Golda Mayer
53
(D) Margaret Thatcher
16. Who was the first man to land on moon?

(A) Neil Armstrong
(B) Edwin
(C) Gagarin
(D) John Collins
17. One inch is equal to how many centimeters?

(A) 2.54
(B) 2.84
(C) 2.94
(D) 3.0
18. Bronze is an alloy of copper and—

(A) Nickel
(B) Tin
(C) Zinc
(D) Aluminium
19. Minus 40 degree centigrade is equal to _____ degree Fahrenheit.

(A) 104
(B) 122
(C) -40
(D) None of these
20. What is the value of XC (Roman Number)?

(A) 100
(B) 40
(C) 110
(D) 90
21. The person of which of the following blood groups can accept the blood of any group?
(A) AB
(B) O
(C) A
(D) B
22. Mountain K2 is known as—

54
(A) Everest
(B) Nanga Parbat
(C) Godwin
(D) Austen
23. Lucknow is situated on the banks of river—

(A) Yamuna
(B) Tapti
(C) Shipra
(D) Gomti
24. Who won the Golden Ball Award during FIFA World Cup 2006?
(A) Ronaldo
(B) Klose
(C) Ronaldinho
(D) Zidane
25. Who is the Chief Minister of Orissa?

(A) K C Singhdeo
(B) Nandini Satyaji
(C) Navin Patnaik
(D) Rameshwar Thakur
26. Who is the Finance Minister of India?

(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) P Chidambaram
(C) Murasoli Maran
(D) Pranab Mukherjee
27. Where is the headquarters of South-East Central Railway located?

(A) Bilaspur
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Raipur
28. Which of the following places in India receives maximum precipitation?

(A) Itanagar
(B) Mawsynram
(C) Cherrapunjee
55
(D) Tezpur
29. Who was elected the President of the Cricket Association of Bengal (CAB) in July 2006?
(A) Prasen Mukherjee
(B) Ajit Panja
(C) Jagmohan Dalmiya
(D) Sourav Ganguly
ANSWERS
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C)
2. Mental Ability
3. 1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are
9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….

(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….

(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….

(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….

(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
56
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter
from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one
letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?

(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?

(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?

(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?

(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—

57
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.

AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written

in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is
‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same
code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for
BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called
pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that
language ?
58
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes
3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back
towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh
was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as
tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more
marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the
lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is
the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter.
What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day
evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and
disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by
the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
59
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took
off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How
many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position
Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately
preceded by 7 ?
8953253855687335775365335738
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January

(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible

(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star

(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but
not immediately followed by 5 ?
6857854368198546829681368536
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
60
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—

(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same
manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….

(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….

(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green

(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo

(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun

(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese

(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot

(B) Radish
(C) Potato
61
(D) Brinjal
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O,
8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8953253855687335775365335738
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6857854368198546829681368536
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
4. Alphabetical Test
5. 1. If the following series is written in the reverse order and the alternate letter are deleted from it
then which letter will divide the new series in two equal parts?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) N
(B) P
(C) L
(D) M
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. If alternate letters are deleted from the following series then which letter will divide the new
series in two equal parts?
(A) N
(B) M
(C) K
(D) O
(E) None of these
62
Ans : (D)
3. If the second half of the series is written in the reverse order then which will be the 9th letter to
the right of 7th letter from your left ?
(A) Y
(B) Z
(C) P
(D) X
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. If first half of the following series is written in the reverse order the which will be 7th letter to the
left of 10th letter from your right?
(A) E
(B) D
(C) A
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. In the following series which is the 5th letter to the left of 14th letter from your right?
(A) I
(B) L
(C) J
(D) K
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. In the following series which is the 8th letter to the right of 16th letter from your left ?
ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) K
(B) Y
(C) X
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. If first half of the following series is written in the reverse order, which will be the 5th letter to
the left of 13th letter from your right?
(A) S
(B) E
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. If the second half of the following series is written in the reverse order, which will be the 7th
letter to the left of 23rd letter from your left?
(A) L
(B) Y
(C) X
(D) P
(E) None of these
63
Ans : (C)
9. If the second half of the following series is written in the reverse order then which will be the
18th letter to the left of 10th letter from your left?
(A) R
(B) I
(C) V
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In the following series if 4–4 letters from left are written in the reverse order then which will be
the 8th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right?
(A) Y
(B) Z
(C) L
(D) K
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. In the following series which will be the 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your left?
(A) C
(B) E
(C) X
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word SERVANT having the same no. of letters left
between them in the word as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MONKEY having same no. of letters left
between them as they have in the series?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
14. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word SMUGGLER having same no. of letters left
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
64
15. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word BONAFIDE having same no. of letters left
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
16. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word FRONTIER having same no. of letters left
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MINISTER having same no. of letters left
between them at they have in the series?
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word PERFUMERY having same no. of letters left
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word DOCUMENTARY having same no. of letters
left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from first, fifth, seventh and eleventh letters of the
word ECCENTRICITY then which will be the third letter of that word? If it is possible to make
more than one word then answer will be M and if the word formation is not possible then the
answer will be X.
(A) E
(B) R
(C) N
(D) M
(E) X
Ans : (C)
21. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from first, second, fourth and fifth letters of the
word FALSEHOOD then which will be the third letter from right? Give your answer M if more than
65
one word can be formed and if no word can be formed then give your answer X.
(A) F
(B) A
(C) E
(D) X
(E) M
Ans : (B)
22. If first letter is interchanged by sixth letter, second by seventh and so in the word
INTERVOLVE then which will be the sixth letter from your right in the new word' ?
(A) L
(B) E
(C) V
(D) O
(E) I
Ans : (B)
23. If first letter is interchanged by second, third by fourth, fifth by sixth and so on in the word
HABILITATE then which will be the 8th letter from your left in the new word?
(A) L
(B) E
(C) T
(D) A
(E) B
Ans : (C)
24. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which word will
come in the middle?
(A) Gunny
(B) Gunnery
(C) Gunmetal
(D) Gunpowder
(E) Gunsmith
Ans : (A)
25. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which will be the
second word in that order?
(A) Expound
(B) Exposure
(C) Expulsion
(D) Expose
(E) Export
Ans : (D)
6. Coding—Decoding Test
7.
1. If KEDGY is coded as EKDYG then how will LIGHT be coded ?
(A) ILHTG
(B) ILGHT
(C) ILGTH
(D) THGIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
66
2. If RAVE is coded as SXWB then how will SCAW be coded ?
(A) TDBO
(B) TZBK
(C) PZXK
(D) TVXK
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK then how will THROW be coded?

(A) HTORW
(B) HTWOR
(C) HTWRO
(D) HTRWO
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. If UDOMETER is coded as DUMOTERE then how will SUBLEASE be coded?

(A) USLBESAE
(B) USLBAEES
(C) USBAELES
(D) USLBEAES
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. If PURSER is coded as UPSRRE then how will PERIODIC be coded?

(A) EPRIDOIC
(B) PEIRDOCI
(C) EPIRDOCI
(D) EPIRODCI
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. If STRAY is coded as TUSBZ then how will MOURN be coded?

(A) LPVSO
(B) NPVSO
(C) NVPSO
(D) NPSVO
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
67
7. If MAGIC is coded as PXJFF then how will LEASH be coded?
(A) PBDVD
(B) OBDVL
(C) OHEOK
(D) OBDPK
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. If DOWN is coded as FQYP then how will WITH be coded?

(A) KYN
(B) JYK
(C) YKVJ
(D) JKVY
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. If BINARY is coded as DHPZTK then how will KIDNAP be coded?

(A) MKFPCQ
(B) MHFPZQ
(C) IKFMYO
(D) MHFMCO
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. If RASCAL is coded as QZRBZK then how will SOLDER be coded?

(A) RNMEDQ
(B) RPKEDS
(C) TPMEFS
(D) RNKCDQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. If SAVOURY is coded as OVUARSY then how will RADIATE be coded?

(A) AIDARET
(B) IDARA TE
(C) ARIADTE
(D) IDAATRE
(E) None of these
68
Ans : (D)
12. If MAPLE is coded as VOKZN then how will CAMEL be coded?

(A) OVNZF
(B) OUNZX
(C) OVNZX
(D) XZNVO
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. If CRY is coded as MRYC then how will GET be coded?

(A) MTEG
(B) MGET
(C) MEGT
(D) METG
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. If BURNER is coded as CASOIS then how will ALIMENT be coded?

(A) BKJLFMU
(B) EKOLIMS
(C) EMONIOU
(D) BRJSFTU
(E) EROSITU
Ans : (C)
15. If Sand is coded as Brick, Brick as House, House as Temple, Temple as Palace then where
do you worship?
(A) Palace
(B) Temple
(C) Brick
(D) House
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. If Rajdoot is coded as Car, Car as Aeroplane, Aeroplane as Train, Train as Bus, then by which
vehicle can you reach your destination in least time? .
(A) Aeroplane
(B) Train
69
(C) Car
(D) Bus
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. If Pen is coded as Pencil, Pencil as Chalk, Chalk as Slate, Slate as Paper, then by which do
you mostly write?
(A) Pen
(B) Pencil
(C) Chalk
(D) Slate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. If Leader is coded as Actor, Actor as an Administrator, Administrator as a Traitor, Traitor as a

Social-reformer, then who takes part in the Parliamentary elections?
(A) Administrator
(B) Leader
(C) Traitor
(D) Social-Reformist
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. If '245' means—'Art and Talent' in a certain code language, '316' means— 'Callous to
Generous', '147' means— 'Callous and Polite' then what is the code used for 'to' ?
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 1
(C) 3 or 6
(D) Only 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. In a certain code language '579' means—'Kanchan is soft-spoken', '694' means—‘Soft-

spoken beautiful pure', '473' means—‘Ganga is pure', then what is the code used for 'Kanchan' ?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 9
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
70
Ans : (B)
21. In a certain code language '123' means—‘Mahendra is Able', '345' means—'Sunita is

unlucky', '526' means—'Mahendra was unlucky', then what is the code used for unlucky?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
22. In a certain code language '765' means—'Man Illness Hard-working', '478' means—'Illness
Hard Blood-Pressure', '826' means—'Blood-pressure Lazy Hard-working', then
(I) For which word code '8' has been used?
(A) Illness
(B) Man
(C) Hard
(D) Blood-Pressure
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
(II) Which code has been used for 'Hardworking' ?

(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 6 or 5
(E) 7 or 5
Ans : (B)
(III) Which code has been used for 'Lazy' ?

(A) 2
(B) 6 or 2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 6 or 5
Ans : (A)
23. If '678' means—'Society Family Husbandry', '574' means—'Husbandry Health Control', '342'
means—'Health Census shop', then—
71
(I) Which code has been used for 'Health' ?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
(II) Which code has been used for 'Census' ?

(A) 3 or 2
(B) 3 or 7
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
(III) For which word code '6' has been used?

(A) Society
(B) Family
(C) Husbandry
(D) Society or Family
(E) None of these'
Ans : (D)
24. If 'KRN' means—'Callous collission life', 'RTP' means—'Life very sad', 'NPD' means
—'Collission sad future' then what is the code used for 'Callous' ?
(A) R
(B) N
(C) K
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. If 'MLT' means—'Day is clear', 'LKS' means—'Life is sad', 'SMMO' means—'Clear or sad',
then what is the code used for 'Day' ?
(A) T
(B) K
(C) MO
(D) L
72
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Spotting out the Dissimilar
9.
Directions—In each of the following questions one word is different from the rest. Find out the
word which does not belong to the group—
1. (A) BFD
(B) NRP
(C) HLG
(D) QUS
(E) UYW
Ans : (C)
2. (A) GTSH
(B) BYXC
(C) ETUF
(D) LONM
(E) KPIR
Ans : (C)
3. (A) PQ
(B) CD
(C) MN
(D) DF
(E) RS
Ans : (D)
4. (A) HB
(B) ZU
(C) NI
(D) TO
(E) PK
Ans : (A)
5. (A) CEI
(B) QSX
(C) JLP
73
(D) QSW
(E) MOS
Ans : (B)
6. (A) ZXVT
(B) SQOM
(C) ECBA
(D) UHF
(E) DBTR
Ans : (C)
7. (A) KMNO
(B) ABDE
(C) PRST
(D) UWXY
(E) QSTU
Ans : (B)
8. (A) BC
(B) FG
(C) KL
(D) PQ
(E) TV
Ans : (E)
9. (A) KLM
(B) NPR
(C) BCD
(D) RQP
(E) HGF
Ans : (B)
10. (A) ML
(B) TS
(C) FG
(D) PO
(E) XW
Ans : (C)
74
11. (A) NMLK
(B) RQPO
(C) UTSR
(D) WXUV
(E) EDCB
Ans : (D)
12. (A) ACEG

(B) MOQS
(C) GHJL
(D) RTVX
(E) KMOQ
Ans : (C)
13. (A) CE
(B) HK
(C) SQ
(D) MN
(E) WZ
Ans : (D)
14. (A) BCB

(B) DED
(C) ABA
(OJ KLL
(E) MNM
Ans : (D)
15. (A) BCD

(B) NPR
(C) KLM
(D) RQP
(E) HGF
Ans : (B)
16. (A) MOQ

(B) GEC
(C) SUW
(D) PRT
75
(E) TVX
Ans : (B)
17. (A) AG
(B) IO
(C) PV
(D) QW
(E) SY
Ans : (C)
18. (A) EQL

(B) BHF
(C) KTI
(D) SXD
(E) JWM
Ans : (D)
19. (A) ACDB

(B) MOPN
(C) SVUT
(D) QSTR
(E) JLMK
Ans : (C)
20. (A) Printer

(B) Author
(C) Publisher
(D) Correspondent
(E) Reader
Ans : (E)
21. (A) FLOK

(B) CROWD
(C) HERD
(D) SWARM
(E) TEAM
Ans : (E)
22. (A) Jupiter

76
(B) Sky
(C) Star
(D) Moon
(E) Sun
Ans : (B)
23. (A) Sofa

(B) Bed
(C) Diwan
(D) Chair
(E) Table
Ans : (B)
24. (A) Cheese

(B) Butter
(C) Ghee
(D) Milk
(E) Curd
Ans : (D)
25. (A) Ginger

(B) Tomato
(C) Carrot
(D) Beet
(E) Potato
Ans : (B)
10. Analogy Test
11.
1. As 'Wheel' is related to 'Vehicle' similarly 'Clock' is related to what?
(A) Needle
(B) Nail
(C) Stick
(D) Pin
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. As 'Plateau' is related a 'Mountain', similarly 'Bush' is related to what?

(A) Plants
77
(B) Field
(C) Forest
(D) Trees
(E) Stem
Ans : (C)
3. As 'Astronomy' is related to 'Planets', similarly 'Astrology' is related to what?

(A) Satellites
(B) Disease
(C) Animals
(D) Coins
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. As 'Earthquake' is related to 'Earth', similarly 'Thundering' is related to what?

(A) Earth
(B) Sea
(C) Fair
(D) Sky
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. As' Author' is related to 'Writing', similarly 'Thief is related to what?

(A) To night
(B) To feel
(C) To steal
(D) To wander
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. As 'Magazine' is related to 'Editor' in the same way 'Drama' is related to what?

(A) Hero
(B) Heroine
(C) Co-actor
(D) Villain
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. As 'Steal' is related to 'Factory' in the same way 'Wheat' is related to what?

78
(A) Field
(B) Sky
(C) Godown
(D) Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. As 'Cricket' is related to 'Bat' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what?

(A) Game
(B) Stick
(C) Court
(D) Hand
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. As 'Football' is related to 'Field' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what?

(A) Court
(B) Net
(C) Field
(D) Racket
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. As 'Tennis' is related to 'Racket' in the same way 'Hockey' is related to what?
(A) Ball
(B) Stick
(C) Field
(D) Player
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. As 'Mosque' is related to 'Islam' in the same way 'Church' is related to what?
(A) Hinduism
(B) Sikhism
(C) Christianity
(D) Buddhism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
79
12. As 'Hindu worshiper' is related to 'Temple' in the same way 'Maulvi' is related to what?
(A) Monastery
(B) Church
(C) Mosque
(D) Sikh temple
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. As 'Hungry' is related to 'Food' in the same way 'Thirsty' is related to what?
(A) Drink
(B) Tea
(C) Coffee
(D) Juice
(E) Waler
Ans : (E)
14. As 'Fly' is related to 'Parrot' in the same way 'Creep' is related to what?
(A) Snake
(B) Rabbit
(C) Fish
(D) Crocodile
(E) Sparrow
Ans : (A)
15. As 'Needle' is related to 'Thread' in the same way 'Pen' is related to what?
(A) Word
(B) To write
(C) Cap
(D) Ink
(E) Paper
Ans : (D)
16. As 'Circle' is related to 'Circumference' in the same way 'Square' is related to what?
(A) Diagonal
(B) Perimeter
(C) Circumference
(D) Area
(E) Angle
Ans : (B)
80
17. As 'Bell' is related to 'Sound' in the same way 'Lamp' is related to what?
(A) Flame
(B) Light
(C) Wick
(D) Oil
(E) Gong
Ans : (B)
18. As 'Oil' is related to an 'Oilman', in the same way 'Milk' is related to what?
(A) Water
(B) Blacksmith
(C) Shoemaker
(D) Milkman
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what?
(A) Godown
(B) Room
(C) Pen
(D) Chair
(E) Office
Ans : (C)
20. CTPN: DSQM : : MUSK: ?

(A) NVTL
(B) NITJ
(C) NTTL
(D) LTRJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. Series Completion Test
13.
Directions—In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives
will replace the question-mark (?) ?
1. JD, KF, ?, PM, TR
81
(A) MI
(B) NJ
(C) NI
(D) OJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. BTO, DSQ, FRS, HQU, ?

(A) IPX
(B) JPW
(C) GPW
(D) JRW
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. B, D, G, K, P, ?
(A) U
(B) W
(C) T
(D) X
(E) None of the»e
Ans : (E)
4. Z, T, O, K, H, ?
(A) E
(B) J
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. HZF, IWH, KSJ, NNL, ?

(A) SHM
(B) RHN
(C) THN
(D) RGM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
82
6. MR, PO, SL, VI, ?
(A) YF
(B) ZE
(C) YD
(D) ZF
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. LOT, NNR, QMO, ULK, ?

(A) YKE
(B) YJF
(C) JKF
(D) JKE
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. CG, GH, LJ, RM, ?

(A) ZR
(B) YR
(C) ZQ
(D) YQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. FRP, HPQ. JNS, LLV, ?

(A) PKZ
(B) NJZ
(C) OJZ
(D) MKZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
10. Z15A, W13C, ?, Q9G, N7I.

(A) T12F
(B) R11F
(C) T11E
(D) R13D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
83
11. MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ?
(A) NPOM
(B) POMN
(C) MOPN
(D) PONM
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. CVD, CTE, DQE, DMF, EHF, ?

(A) ECG
(B) FCG
(C) EBG
(D) FBG
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. JKL, LKJ, JKLM, MLKJ, JKLMN, ?

(A) LMJKN
(B) NLMKJ
(C) NMUK
(D) NMLKJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, ?

(A) 17E4
(B) 18F5
(C) 17E3
(D) 18D4
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—In each of the following questions one number-series is given in which one term is
wrong. Find out the wrong term.
15. 5, 7, 11, 20, 35, 67.

(A) 11
(B) 20
84
(C) 35
(D) 67
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. 4, 11, 21, 34, 49, 69,91.

(A) 34
(B) 69
(C) 49
(D) 21
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. 5, 12, 19, 33, 47, 75, 104.

(A) 33
(B) 47
(C) 75
(D) 104
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—In each of the following questions a number-sereis is given. Which one of the
alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ?
18. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

(A) 169
(B) 159
(C) 119
(D) 139
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. 0, 7, 26, 65, 124, 215, ?

(A) 305
(B) 295
(C) 342
(D) 323
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
85
20. 4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ?
(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?

(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 48
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. 2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ?

(A) 2981
(B) 3068
(C) 3081
(D) 3058
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Directions—In each of the following questions a letter-series is given, in which some letters are
missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the
correct alternative.
23. mno—p—no—p—n—opm.
(A) opmno
(B) pmomn
(C) pmmpn
(D) nmopo
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. ba—abab—b—ba—aba.
(A) abab
86
(B) aabb
(C) baab
(D) bbaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. —acca—ccca—acccc—aaa.
(A) caac
(B) ccaa
(C) acca
(D) caaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. Arranging in Order
15.
1. If the position of Rajan is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is
the total number of students in his class? .
(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 27
(D) 29
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. The position of Shyamal is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is
his position from the beginning?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 7th
(D)) 10th
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. In the class of 40 students, if Sanju is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the
other end?
(A) 9th
(B) 12th
(C) 10th
87
(D) 11th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. In a row of girls, Nivedita is 15th from the left and Vimla is 23rd from the right. If they
interchange their positions, then Nivedita becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will
Vimla be from the right?
(A) 25th
(B) 24th
(C) 26th
(D) 20th
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. In a row of ladies Manorama is 20th from the right and Kanta is 10th from the left. When they
interchange their positions Manorama becomes 25th from the right. What is the total number of
ladies in the row ?
(A) 35
(B) 34
(C) 44
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. A number of people are standing in a row in which Kailash is 20th from the left and Hemant is
25th from the right. If they interchange their positions then Kailash becomes 25th from the right.
How many people are there in the row?
(A) 49
(B) 44
(C) 45
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. In a row of boys, Udai is 23rd from the left and Ashok is 8th from the right. When they
interchange their positions Udai becomes 18th from the right. What will be the position of Ashok
from the left ?
(A) 15th
(B) 10th
88
(C) 40th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Five members of a family, Rakesh, Mukesh, Roopesh, Vipul and Umesh take food in a definite
order—
(1) Umesh was next to first man.
(2) Roopesh took food after the man who was before Vipul.
(3) Rakesh was the last man to take food.
(a) Who were the first and last men to take food?
(A) Mukesh and Roopesh
(B) Roopesh and Rakesh
(C) Umesh and Mukesh
(D) Mukesh and Rakesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
(b) Who were those two men who took food in order between Mukesh and Vipul ?
(A) Umesh and Rakesh
(B) Rakesh and Roopesh
(C) Umesh and Roopesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circular path who are facing the centre. R is third
from P in the right. Q is third from T in the left. U is between P and T and S is third from U in the
left right.
(a) Who is opposite to T ?
(A) S
(B) Q
(C) P
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
(b) What is the order of the six people from the left ?
89
(A) SQRUTP
(B) TSRQUP
(C) SRTUPQ
(D) SQPUTR
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
(c) What is the order of the six people from the right?
(A) PQRSTU
(B) SQPUTR
(C) SPQRUT
(D) SRTUPQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
(d) Who are between S and U?

(A) Only T
(B) P and R
(C) Q and T
(D) Q and R
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. Nikhilesh is taller than Arvind who is taller than Mahendra. Naresh is smaller than Suresh but
taller than Nikhilesh. Who is the smallest?
(A) Nikhilesh
(B) Arvind
(C) Mahendra
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Ram is taller than Shyam. Rahim is taller than Ram. Karim is taller than Shokat but smaller
than Shyam. Who is the tallest?
(A) Rahim
(B) Ram
(C) Karim
(D) Shyam
(E) Shokat
90
Ans : (A)
12. Five boys Mahendra, Anjani, Anil, Anand and Alok are sitting in a row. Neither Anil is
neighbour of Anand nor of Anjani. Mahendra is not the neighbour of Anjani. Anil is the neighbour
of Alok. If Alok is just in the middle, who is the neighbour of Mahendra?
(A) Anand
(B) Alok
(C) Anil
(D) Anjani
(E) Can not be determined
Ans : (C)
13. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajal and Vimal.
Who is the tallest?
(A) Karishma
(B) Kajal
(C) Ankita
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. If in a class of 37 students the places of Anuradha and Saroj are 10th and 16th respectively,
what are their places from the last?
(A) 28th and 22nd
(B) 27th and 21st
(C) 28th and 20th
(D) 27th and 22nd
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. In a class of 65 boys the position of Mohan is 33th. If the last boy is given the first position
then on this basis what is the position of Mohan?
(A) 32nd
(B) 33rd
(C) 34th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. Direction Sense Test
91
17.
1. Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right
he goes 15 km. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is
he from his starting point?
(A) 5 metres
(B) 10 metres
(C) 20 metres
(D) 15 metres
(E) Can not be determined
Ans : (B)
2. Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South
from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her
starting point?
(A) 7 km East
(B) 5 km West
(C) 7 km West
(D) 5 km North-East
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15
km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what
direction is she from her starting point?
(A) 45 km, East
(B) 15 km, East
(C) 45 km, West
(D) 45 Km, North
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left.
Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her
right. How far is she from N ?
(A) 40 m
(B) At N
(C) 10 m
(D) 15 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after
turning to his left. After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what
direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) 40 m, North
(B) 50 m, West
(C) 10 m, East
(D) 10 m, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West.
After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far
is he from his house?
(A) 14 km
(B) 7 km
(C) 2 km
92
(D) 5 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Nivedita stops after going 10 km towards west from her office. Then she goes 8 km turning to
her left. After this she goes 4 km turning to her left. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 16 km
(D) 14 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
8. Ranju is at a fixed point, from where she goes 20 metres towards West. From there she goes
10 metres towards Notrh. Then she goes 35 metres towards East and after this she goes 5
metres towards South and in the end she goes 15 metres towards West. How far is she from the
fixed point?
(A) 5 km
(B) 0 km
(C) 10 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. A man walks 15m towards South from a fixed point. From there he goes 12 m towards North
and then 4 m towards West. How far and in what direction is he from the fixed point?
(A) 3 m, South
(B) 7 m, South-West
(C) 5 m, South-West
(D) 5 m, South-East
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After
this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what
direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Raman walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West.
Here is the house of Shyam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the South-West
direction from Shyam's house. If the market is in the West of Raman's house, then how far is the
market from Raman's house?
(A) 100 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 400 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
12. Ranjan goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his
right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left.
How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?
93
(A) 4 km, West
(B) 7 km, East
(C) 9 km, East
(D) 7 km, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. Number Test and Time Sequence Test
19.
1. How many 7's are there in the following number series; which are preceded by an even
number but not followed by any odd?
437523721367542742712276572
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (B)
2. How many 5's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 3 but not
followed by 2 ?
5243546785325735642354752358356
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)
3. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number
but not followed by an even number?
3425315213673182785391345235435
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (C)
4. If the numbers which are divisible by 4, from 4 to 84 are written in reverse order then which
number will be at the 7th place?
(A) 60
(B) 28
(C) 20
(D) 32
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth
digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) Less than 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not
94
followed by 7 ?
23423425473243192547547234529546
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (A)
7. If the numbers between 4 to 90, which are divisible by 5, and which contain 5 in the unit, tenth
or both place, are removed, then how many numbers divisible by 5 will be left?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 18
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Rajan remembers that his elder brother was born between 13th and 16th April while his mother
remembers that he was born after 14th April and before 17th April. If the statements of both are
considered correct then on which date of April he was born ?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 14 or 15
(D) 15
(E) 15 or 16
Ans : (D)
9. How many numbers are there from 1 to 60, which are divisible by 3 and either unit digit or tenth
digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C)15
(D) More than 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. If the following numbers are written in descending order then what will be the middle digit of
the middle term ?
723, 789, 595, 659, 713, 785, 689
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (A)
11. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a
passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m.
At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ?
(A) 10.05 a.m.
(B) 9.55 a.m.
(C) 10.35 a.m.
(D) 10.15 a.m.
(E) 10.25 a.m.
Ans : (D)
12. If the numbers between 1 to 65 and divisible by 4 are written in reverse order then which of
95
the following numbers will be at l0th place?
(A) 44
(B) 24
(C) 40
(D) 28
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
13. How many 6's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not
followed by 7 ?
56765649276743568649567
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded and followed by
only an even number?
6432483154232464813242645
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. How many 2's are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not
followed by an odd number? .
13523545245226245267823527524
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than four
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
16. How many 3's are there in the following series, which are not preceded by an odd number but
followed by 4 ?
15323465347834923456343534
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) One
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. How many B's are there in the following letter-series, which are followed by G but G is not be
followed by S ?
BGSQBRNOBGNSQLTBGQTDBGUWXBGF
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
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18. How many D's are there in the following letter-series, which are preceded by K and followed
by Q ?
KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as
one of the digits, are removed, then how many numbers will be left?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25
(E) None of these.
Ans : (D)
20. Deductive Logic
21.
In each question of the following two statements are given and four conclusions I, II, III and IV are
given under them. The given statements may be contrary to the universal opinion, even then you
have to assume them as true. Then decide which conclusion on the basis of given statements is
logically valid.
1. Statements: All kings are beggars.

All beggars are monks.
Conclusions :
I. All beggars are kings.
II. All kings are monks.
III. Some monks are beggars.
IV. No monk is beggar.
(A) Only I comes
(B) All come
(C) Only II and III come
(D) Only III and IV come
(E) None of these comes
Ans : (C)
2. Statements: All boxes are benches.

All boxes are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. All benches are chairs.
II. All benches are boxes.
III. Some benches are chairs.
IV. Some chairs are boxes.
(A) All
(B) Only I and III
(C) Only II and IV
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers.

All grocers are labourers.
Conclusions:
I. All grocers are wrestlers.
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II. Some wrestlers are grocers.
III. Some wrestlers are labourers.
IV. Some labourers are grocers.
(A) All
(B) Only I and IV
(C) Only IV
(D) Only II and III
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Statements: All sages are kind.

All artists are kind.
Conclusions:
I. All sages are artists.
II. All artists are sages.
III. Some kind (persons) are sages.
IV. Some kind (persons) are artists.
(A) Only III and IV
(B) All
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. Statements: All kings are clever.

Some foolish (persons) are kings.
Conclusions:
I. All foolish (persons) are clever.
II. Some foolish (persons) are clever.
III. Some clever (persons) are foolish.
IV. Some kings are foolish.
(A) Only I and III
(B) Only II, III and IV
(C) All
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Statements: All pen are books.

Some pencils are not books.
Conclusions:
I. Some pencils are not books.
II. Some books are not pencils.
III. Some books are pen.
IV. All pencils are pen.
(A) Only I and III
(B) All
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only I, II and III
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Statements: All things are clad.

Some things are not odd.
Conclusions:
I. Some clad (objects) are things.
II. Some odds are not things.
III. Some odds are not clad.
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IV. Some clad (objects) are not odd.
(A) Only I
(B) All
(C) Only III and IV
(D) Only II and III
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
8. Statements: All horses are elephants.

Some elephants are not camels.
Conclusions:
I. Some elephants are horses.
II. Some camels are not elephants.
III. Some horses are not camels.
IV. Some elephants are not horses.
(A) Only I and IV
(B) Only II
(C) All
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. Statements: All brinjals are ladyfingers.

No brinjal is potato.
Conclusions:
I. Some ladyfingers are brinjals.
II. Some ladyfingers are not brinjals.
III. No potato is brinjal.
IV. No potato is ladyfinger.
(A) All
(B) Only I, II and III
(C) Only IV
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. Statements: All dancers are heroines.

No heroine is villain-actress.
Conclusions :
I. Some heroines are dancers.
II. No villain actress is heroine.
III. All dancers are villain actress.
IV. Some villain actresses are dancers.
(A) Only III and IV
(B) All
(C) Only I and III
(D) Only I and II
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
22.
Questions Related to Two Statements and Two Conclusions
23.
In the following each question there are two statements and two conclusions I and II there-after
are given. Accept the given statements as true even if they are inconsistent with known facts and
ignoring the universally known facts find out which conclusion follows logically from the given
statements.
Give answer (A) if only the conclusion I follows.
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Give answer (B) if only the conclusion II follows.
Give answer (C) if either the conclusion I or the II follows.
Give answer (D) if neither the conclusion I nor the II follows.
Give answer (E) if the conclusions I and II both follow.
1. Statements: Some saints are Faquirs.

No Faquir is King.
Conclusions:
I. Some saints are kings.
II. No saint is king.
Ans : (D)
2. Statements: All actors are leaders.

Some leaders are deceitful.
Conclusions:
I. Some deceitful (men) are actors.
II. Some actors are not deceitful.
Ans : (D)
3. Statements: No man is crippled.

All crippled (things) are beasts.
Conclusions:
I. Some beasts are crippled.
II. Some men are beasts.
Ans : (D)
4. Statements: Some elephants are horses.

All horses are crocodiles.
Conclusions:
I. No crocodile is elephant.
II. Some elephants are crocodiles.
Ans : (B)
5. Statements: All utensils are fruits.

All fruits are sweets.
Conclusions:
I. Some sweets are utensils.
II. All sweets are utensils.
Ans : (A)
6. Statements: Some actors are emperors.

Some emperors are cruel.
Conclusions:
I. All the cruel are actors.
II. All the cruel are emperors.
Ans : (D)
7. Statements: All benches are tables.

Some tables are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. No chair is table.
II. Some chairs are table.
Ans : (D)
8. Statements: All faxes are alligators.

Some alligators are jackals.
Conclusions:
I. Some faxes are jackals.
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II. All faxes are jackals.
Ans : (D)
9. Statements: Some pen are fire-works.

All fire-works are toys.
Conclusions:
I. Some toys are men.
II. Some toys are fire-works.
Ans : (E)
10. Statements: All herons are parrots.

No parrot is swan.
Conclusions:
I. No heron is swan.
II. Some swans are herons.
Ans : (A)
24. Assigning Artificial Values to Arithmetical Signs
25.
1. If x means –, – means x, + means ˜ and ˜ means + then—
13 – 12 ˜ 400 + 20 x 100 = ?
(A) 1/1760
(B) 76
(C) 176
(D) 186
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. If – means ˜, ˜ means –, + means x and x means +, then—

12 – 4 x 7 + 8 ˜ 5 = ?
(A) 51
(B) 45
(C) 34
(D) 64
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. If + means x, x means +, – means ˜ and ˜ means –, then—

16 x 2 ˜ 4 + 7 – 8 = ?
(A) 31
(B) 29/2
(C) 43/2
(D) 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
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4. If + means ˜, ˜ means –, – means x and x means +, then—
64 + 8 ˜ 6 – 4 x 2 = ?
(A) 34
(B) 16
(C) –14
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. If + means –, – means x, x means ˜ and ˜ means +, then—

48 x 4 ˜ 7 + 8 – 2 = ?
(A) 3
(B) –5
(C) 35
(D) 16
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16 ˜ 4 x 2 – 5 + 8 = ?
(A) 58
(B) 50
(C) 44
(D) 42
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

12 + 2 x 9 ˜ 4 = ?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 4
(D) 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12 x 4 ˜ 12 + 5 – 3 = ?
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(A) 4
(B) 15
(C) 30
(D) 17
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. If + means –, – means x, ˜ means +, and x means ˜, then—

25 x 5 ˜ 8 – 4 + 7 = ?
(A) 44
(B) 37
(C) 7
(D) 30
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20 + 5 ˜ 7 x 6 – 8 = ?
(A) 51
(B) 59
(C) 37
(D) 45
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. If 'p' means '–', 'q' means '+', 'r' means '˜' and 's' means 'x', then—
16 p 4 q 5 s 8 r 2 = ?
(A) –8
(B) 32
(C) 20
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. If + means x, – means ˜, x means – and ˜ means +, then—

2 + 15 ˜ 15 – 3 x 8 = ?
(A) 43
(B) 27
(C) 35
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(D) 28
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. If + means x, ˜ means –, x means ˜ and means +, then—

5 + 12 ˜ 7 – 44 x 2 = ?
(A) 75
(B) 89
(C) 65
(D) 82
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

9+3˜5–3x7=?
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) 10
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
15. If 'a' means '˜', 'b' means '+', 'c' means '–' and 'd' means 'x'. then—
11 b 15 c 8 a 4 d 5 = ?
(A) 36
(B) – 16
(C) 26
(D) 16
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Assumption Type Test
27.
Directions—In each of the following questions one statement or advertisement is followed by two
or three assumptions. On the basis of the statement choose which is/are implicit.
1. Statement—"Please issue a circular to all the officers to assemble in the Conference Hall for
attending a notice." Director tells his Secretary .
Assumptions:
I. All the officers will follow the instruction.
II. Some officers may not attend the meeting.
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
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(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
(E) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
2. Statement—Saroj made an application to the bank for a loan of Rs. 1,80,000 by mortgaging
his house to the bank and promised to repay it within five years.
Assumptions :
I. The bank has a practice of granting loans for Rs. 1,00,000/- and above.
II. The bank accepts house as collateral security against such loans.
III. The bank may grant loan to Saroj.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only II and III are implicit
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Statement—Training must be given to all the employees for increasing productivity and
profitability.
Assumptions:
I. Training is essential component of productivity.
II. Employees can't function effectively without proper training.
III. Profitability and Productivity are supple mentary to each other.
(A) None is implicit
(B) All are implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
(D) Either I or II is implicit
(E) Both I and III are implicit
Ans : (B)
4. Statement—"We are feeling pleasure in extending the working hours of our office to 7.30 p.m."
A general notice by a working office.
Assumptions :
I. It would have been done inspite of workers' opposition.
II. It was needed to extend the working hours.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(E) Both are implicit
Ans : (B)
5. Statement—"I will like to study the effect of the revision of the pay scale on the workers job
satisfaction." A said to B.
Assumptions :
I. A has the capacity to study such work.
II. It is possible to measure job satisfaction.
Ans : (E)
6. Statement—"If you want to give some advertisement then give it in X-newspaper." A says to B.
Assumptions :
I. B wants to advertise his product.
105
II. X-newspaper is very popular.
Ans : (E)
7. Statement—"We must introduce objective type tests to improve our examinations for
adniission to MBA." The chairman of the Admission—Committee tells the committee.
Assumptions :
I. The admission at present is directly through the interviews.
II. The Admission—Committee is desirous of improving the admission examinations.
III. The chairman himself is an MBA.
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only I and III are implicit
(E) None is implicit
Ans : (B)
8. Statement—"Slogans against smoking in office shoud be put on the notice board". —an
employee in an office suggests.
Assumptions :
I. The employee felt that his suggestion will be considered.
II. People smoke in the office.
III. Some people will stop smoking after reading the slogans.
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
(E) All are implicit
Ans : (E)
9. Statement—The residents of the locality wrote a letter to the Corporation requesting to restore
normalcy in the supply of drinking water immediately as the supply at present is just not
adequate.
Assumptions :
I. The Corporation may not take any action on the letter.
II. The municipality has enough water to meet the demand.
III. The water supply to the area was adequate in the past.
(A) Only II is implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) Only II and III are implicit
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
10. Statement—"Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession" —
Advertisement.
Assumptions :
I. Flats are available in court area.
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
III. It is a practice to give such advertisement.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) All are implicit
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(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Most Essential Component and Venn Diagram
Directions—In each of the questions from 1 to 14, five alternatives are given. One of these five
shows the most essential component. Hence find out the correct answer.
1. In a desert it is necessary—
(A) Camel
(B) Sand
(C) Watermelon
(D) Wind
(E) Heat
Ans : (B)
2. It is necessary in agriculture—
(A) Labourer
(B) Land
(C) Tractor
(D) Water
(E) Seed
Ans : (B)
3. In newspaper it is necessary—
(A) Advertisement
(B) Date
(C) News
(D) Editor
(E) Article
Ans : (C)
4. In a bedstead is/are always found—

(A) Wide tape
(B) Legs
(C) Rope
(D) Mattress
(E) Bed bugs
Ans : (B)
5. It is necessarily found in game—

(A) Players
(B) Spectators
(C) Defeat
(D) Refree
(E) Victory
Ans : (A)
6. The most essential for a train is—

(A) Passenger
(B) Driver
(C) Engine
(D) Fans
(E) Guard
Ans : (C)
7. Danger always involves—

(A) Help
107
(B) Attack
(C) Fear
(D) Enemy
(E) Hate
Ans : (C)
8. In debate it is necessary—
(A) Speaker
(B) Audience
(C) Typist
(D) Judge
(E) Room
Ans : (A)
9. In a lady it is necessary—
(A) Beauty
(B) Height
(C) Attraction
(D) Fair complexion
(E) Intelligence
Ans : (C)
10. In election it is necessary—

(A) Conversing
(B) Poster
(C) Speech
(D) Friendship
(E) Candidate
Ans : (E)
11. What is always in worry ?

(A) Peace
(B) Difficulty
(C) Unrest
(D) Non cooperation
(E) Passion
Ans : (C)
12. Disclosure always involves—

(A) Agents
(B) Display
(C) Exposition
(D) Demonstration
(E) Secrets
Ans : (E)
13. A phrase always has—

(A) Nomenclature
(B) Manifestation
(C) Pictorial effect
(D) Glossary
(E) Question mark
Ans : (D)
14. Life of fat people is always—

(A) Much
(B) Happy
(C) Little
108
(D) Healthy
(E) Comfortable
Ans : (C)
Statement and Arguments
Directions—In each of the questions from 1 to 5 a statement followed by two arguments is given.
You have to decide which of the given statements is a strong argument and which is weak
argument. Give answer (A) if only first argument is strong, give answer (B) if only second
argument is strong, give answer (C) if either first or second argument is strong, give answer (D) if
neither first nor second argument is strong and given answer (E) if both first and second
arguments are strong.
1. Statement—Should military training be made compulsory in our country like other countries?
Arguments :
I. Yes, every citizen has right to protect his country.
II. No, it is against the policy of non-violence.
Ans : (A)
2. Statement—Should octroi be abolished?

Arguments :
I. No, it will adversely affect government revenues.
II. Yes, it will eliminate an important source of corruption.
Ans : (E)
3. Statement—Should competitive examinations for selecting candidates for jobs, be of objective

test only?
Arguments :
I. Yes, the assessment of objective test is reliable.
II. No, the number of questions to be answered is always very large.
Ans : (A)
4. Statement—Should those who receive dowry be encouraged ?

Arguments :
I. Yes, due to this, the number of those who receive dowry will decrease.
II. No, due to this the number of those who receive dowry will increase.
Ans : (B)
5. Statement—Should jobs be delinked with academic degrees and diplomas?

Arguments :
I. Yes, a very large number of candidates will apply so that the competition will be tough and the
candidates will prepare more.
II. No, importance of higher education will be diminished.
Ans : (E)
1. The largest revenue in India is obtained from __________
(A) Railways
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Sales Tax
(D) Direct Taxes
Ans : (B)
2. The tax levied by Central Government and collected by State Government is ________
(A) Stamp Duty
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(B) Excise Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) Gift Tax
Ans : (A)
3. What is the major share in revenue of State Governments?

(A) Stamp Duty
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Sales Tax
(D) Income Tax
Ans : (C)
4. The tax levied by Local Governments i.e. Municipal Corporations and municipalities is ____________
(A) Income Tax
(B) Wealth Tax
(C) House Tax
(D) Gift Tax
Ans : (C)
5. The tax collected by the State Governments and given to local bodies is __________
(A) Income Tax
(B) Wealth Tax
(C) House Tax
(D) Professional Tax
Ans : (D)
6. The period for Call Money is ________

(A) 10 to 15days
(B) 1 to 14 Days
(C) 15 to 30 Days
(D) One Month
Ans : (B)
7. Who regulates the money circulation in India?

(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) NABARD
(D) Commercial Banks
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following is not an organized sector in India?

(A) Nationalised Banks
(B) Regional Rural Banks
110
(C) Cooperative Banks
(D) Chits and Money lenders
Ans : (D)
9. Who will settle the grievances of customers of banks?

(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Local Courts
(D) Ombuds Men
Ans : (D)
10. Who introduced the Banking Ombudsmen Scheme?

(A) ARBI
(B) SBI
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D NABARD
Ans : (A)
11. When was OMBUDS MEN SCHEME first introduced?

(A) November 2006
(B) October 1981
(C) June 1995
(D) January 1998
Ans : (C)
12. Which was the firth Bank corporated by the Indians? (1881)
(A) Imperial Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Avadh Commercial Bank
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (C)
13. When was the Avadh Commercial Bank established?

(A) 881
(B) 1894
(C) 1898
(D) 1899
Ans : (A)
14. When was Reserve Bank of India established?

(A) 1920
(B) 1925
(C) 1935
111
(D) 1948
Ans : (C)
15. When was Reserve Bank of India Nationalised?

(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1950
Ans : (C)
16. When was Indian Banking Act come into force?

(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
Ans : (B)
17. Imperial Banks were amalgamated and changed as _________

(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Tata Bank of India
(C) Subsidiary Banks
(D) Union Bank of India
Ans : (B)
18. When was Imperial Bank was Changed as State Bank of India?
(A) January 1st 1935
(B) Feb 26 1947
(C) July 1st 1955
(D) July 1st 1959
Ans : (C)
19. How many banks were first nationalised?

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
Ans : (C)
20. When was the second phase of nationalisation done?

(A) 9th July 1969
(B) 10th July 1968
(C) 16th August 1985
(D) 15th April, 1980
112
Ans : (D)
21. How many banks were in second phase of nationalisation?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Ans : (C)
22. Who will act as the banker to the Government of India?

(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) NABARD
(D) Nationalised Banks
Ans : (B)
23. Where is the Head Quarter of Reserve Bank of India?

(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkotta
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (A)
24. Who was first governor of Reserve Bank of India?

(A) K. A. Narasimham
(B) V. K. Malhotra
(C) A. K. Vadia
(D) A. B. A Smith
Ans : (D)
25. When was Lead Bank Scheme introduced?

(A) 1967
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1974
Ans : (C)
1. Heparin is secreted by—

(A) Fibroblasts
(B) Mast cells
(C) Plasmocytes
(D) Adipocytes
2. Interdependent genes with related functions, form—

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(A) A coadapted gene complex
(B) An inversion
(C) A fitness set
(D) A super mutation
3. Which of the following animal has rhabditiform larva in its life cycle ?
(A) Ascaris
(B) Liverfluke
(C) Hydra
(D) Taenia
4. Which of the following Mollusc is cultured in water for producing pearls in India ?
(A) Pinctada
(B) Heliotis
(C) Anodonta
(D) Mytilus
5. Enzymes promote chemical reaction by—

(A) Reducing the activation energies
(B) Causing the release of heat which acts as a primer
(C) Increasing molecular motion
(D) Changing the free energy difference between substrate and product
6. The modification of hind pair of wings into halteres is the characteristic of—
(A) Lepidoptera
(B) Orthoptera
(C) Hemiptera
(D) Diptera
7. A molecule of ATP is structurally similar to a molecule of—

(A) RNA molecule
(B) DNA molecule
(C) Amino acid
(D) Fatty acid
8. Class Trematoda belongs to the phylum—

(A) Platyhelminthes
(B) Arthropoda
(C) Mollusca
(D) Annelida
9. Albinism is caused due to lack of production of—

(A) Tyrosine 3-monooxygenase
114
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase
(C) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
10. Maximum power of division is found in the skin layer—

(A) Stratum granulosum
(B) Stratum malpighi
(C) Stratum spinosum
(D) Stratum corneum
11. Tube feet are characteristic of—

(A) Star fish
(B) Cuttle fish
(C) Cray fish
(D) Jelly fish
12. Which of the following is egg laying mammal ?

(A) Pangolin
(B) Porcupine
(C) Tachyglossus
(D) Bat
13. Acetylcholine is responsible for transmission of nerve impulses through—

(A) Dendrites
(B) Axons
(C) Cytons
(D) Synapses
14. Loss of ability to speak due to defect of vocal organs, is called—

(A) Alalia
(B) Alaorina
(C) Alate
(D) Albidus
15. Termination of amino acid chain requires codons—

(A) UAG, UAA, UGA
(B) UUU, GGU, UGG
(C) GUG, UGG, AUG
(D) UGG, GGG, AUG
16. ‘A tube within a tube’ body plan is met within—

(A) Hydra
(B) Plannaria
115
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
17. The parts of neurons that perform basic cellular functions, such as protein synthesis, are the—
(A) Somas
(B) Axons
(C) Dendrites
(D) Synaptic knobs
18. Lewy bodies are found in—

(A) Brain
(B) Plasma
(C) Lymph
(D) Kidneys
19. A hormone that stimulates the secretion of pancreatic secretions to neutralize the acid chyme from the
stomach, is—
(A) Insulin
(B) Secretin
(C) Oxytocin
(D) Glucagon
20. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?

(A) Excessive perspiration—Xeric adaptation
(B) Parasitism—Interspecific relationship
(C) Uricotelism—Aquatic habitat
(D) Streamline body—Aquatic adaptation
21. Cross bridges, which connect the molecules of a fibril during muscle contraction, are made of—
(A) Actin
(B) Collagen
(C) Myosin
(D) Creatine phosphate
22. Muscles of alimentary canal are chiefly—

(A) Striated and neurogenic
(B) Unstriated and neurogenic
(C) Striated and myogenic
(D) Unstriated and myogenic
23. The photosensitive parts of rod cells are made up of—

(A) Rhodopsin
(B) Myelin
116
(C) Keratin
(D) Actin
24. The protein which maintains the muscular storage of oxygen is—
(A) Myosin
(B) Myoglobin
(C) Actomyosin
(D) All the above
25. Tiedemann’s bodies are found in—

(A) Sponges
(B) Hydra
(C) Asterias
(D) Hirudinaria
26. In a normal person at rest the cardiac output or amount of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle
is approximately—
(A) 1/2 litre
(B) 1 litre
(C) 2 litres
(D) 5 litres
27. Biogeographical regions are also called—

(A) Zones
(B) Realms
(C) Epoch
(D) Era
28. Human nerve cells develop from the embryonic—

(A) Ectoderm and mesoderm
(B) Endoderm
(C) Ectoderm
(D) Mesoderm
29. Vertebrate kidney has a following basic unit—

(A) Nephron
(B) Ureter
(C) Malpighian tubule
(D) All of the above
30. In cladistics—
(A) A clad must contain the common ancestor
(B) Derived characters help construct cladograms
117
(C) Data for the cladogram is presented
(D) All the above
31. Which of the following organ develops first ?

(A) Liver
(B) Heart
(C) Notochord
(D) Kidneys
32. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—

(A) Metacryptozoite
(B) Cryptozoite
(C) Schizont
(D) Sporozoite
33. The ion mainly absorbed in the distal convoluted part of

nephron—
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Mg++
(D) Po4– –
34. Quadriceps and Gastronemius muscles are present in—

(A) Wrist
(B) Hands
(C) Legs
(D) Shoulder
35. FSH and LH hormones together are called—

(A) Emergency hormone
(B) Gonadotropic hormone
(C) Neuro hormones
(D) Outstress hormones
36. Shivering in severe cold is caused by—

(A) Voluntary action of striated muscles
(B) Voluntary action of unstriated muscles
(C) Involuntary action of striated muscles
(D) Involuntary action of unstriated muscles
37. Hypocalcemia is caused due to under secretion of—

(A) Thyroxine
(B) Paratharmone
118
(C) Testosterone
(D) Glucagon
38. The emergency hormone in humans is—

(A) Thyroxine
(B) Adrenaline
(C) Insulin
(D) Progesterone
39. Polio immunising vaccine was developed by—

(A) E. Jenner
(B) Dr. Salk
(C) St. Hale
(D) Landsteiner
40. In mammals which organ acts as blood bank ?

(A) Heart
(B) Lung
(C) Liver
(D) Spleen
41. Structure involved in Addison’s disease is—

(A) Adrenal cortex
(B) Adrenal medulla
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid
42. Biceps and Triceps surround—

(A) Radius
(B) Ulna
(C) Humerus
(D) Femur
43. Chemical nature of insulin is—

(A) Steroid
(B) Lipid
(C) Protein
(D) Carbohdyrate
44. Which of these is present in human buccal cavity ?

(A) Ptyalin
(B) Trypsin
(C) Lipase
119
(D) Pepsin
45. Outermost covering of brain is—

(A) Choroid
(B) Arachnoid
(C) Duramater
(D) All of these
46. The application of genetic principles for the improvement of mankind is—
(A) Genetic engineering
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Eugenics
(D) Anthropology
47. Cockroach and other insects possess an—

(A) Open type vascular system
(B) Closed type vascular system
(C) No vascular system
(D) Both (A) and (B)
48. Ganglioside is found in—

(A) Nerve
(B) Smooth muscles
(C) Carolia muscles
(D) Liver cells
49. ‘Metachrosis’ is found in—

(A) Mammals
(B) Amphibians
(C) Birds
(D) All of these
50. Healthy parents with normal height gave birth to a achondroplasia (dwarf) child. This is due to—
(A) Spontaneous mutation
(B) Point mutation
(C) Induced mutation
(D) None of these
Answers with Hints

1. (B) Mast cells secrete heparin, a proteoglycan, which is an anticoagulant.
2. (A)
3. (A) After gastrulation, a juvenile is formed in Ascaris. It is 0•2 mm long and having close with Rhabditis, a
nematode found in the soil and human faeces. The rhabditoid larva of the first stage is not infective.
120
4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A)
9. (A) The persons with recessive aa genes do not produce the tyrosine 3-monooxygenase which is needed
by melanocytes for converting DOPA (3, 4-dihydroxyphenylalanine) into melanin (a dark brown pigment).
10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D)14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A)
18. (A) Lewy bodies are neuronal cells with pigmented inclusion bodies. They are found in brain in the
substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.
19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (B) Muscles of alimentary canal are smooth unstriated and are innervated by fibres of ANS. These
muscles are neurogenic.
23. (A) The photosensitive part of rod and cone cells are their outer segments. In rods, this part contains a
shining pigment called rhodopsin or visual purple. Like haemoglobin, rhodopsin is a compound of a protein
(= opsin or scotopsin) and a pigment (retinene).
24. (B)
25. (C) Tiedemann’s bodies are small rounded, yellowish glandular sacs opening into the ring canal on its
inner side. There is one Tiedemann’s body between each radius and inner radius except in one such
position where the stone canals enters the ring canal.
26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (A)
30. (D) The cladistic school analyses primitive and derived characters and construct cladograms on the
basis of shared derived characters. A clad is a common ancestor and all the species derived from that
common ancestor. Cladograms are diagrams based on objective data.
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (B)
36. (C) Shivering is due to increased involuntary striated muscle activity in response to excessive cold.
37. (B) When there is undersecretion of paratharmone, the level of calcium in ECF falls (hypocalcemia), and
that of phosphate rises. Such a condition is responsible for neuromuscular hyperexcitability.
38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A)
48. (A) 49. (B)
50. (A) The child’s achondroplasia arose from de novo mutation in either his mother’s or father’s
1. T8 cells are related with—

(A) Helper T cells
(B) Cytotoxic T cells
(C) Suppressor T cell
2. In humans, which brain wave pattern disappears entirely during sleep ?

(A) Alpha waves
(B) Beta waves
(C) Theta waves
(D) Delta waves
3. Which of the following is lymphatic system related disease ?

(A) Hodgkin’s disease
121
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
(D) All the above
4. Hodgkin’s disease is associated with—

(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Leucocytes
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) All the above
5. In humans, which side of cerebral hemisphere recognises the faces of friends and family members ?
(A) Left cerebral hemisphere
(B) Right cerebral hemisphere
(C) Both (A) and (B)
6. Honey that has a high concentration of sugar, does not decay because—
(A) It contains natural antioxidant that prevent bacterial attack
(B) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength, as water is drawn out from honey
(C) In honey bacteria are totally deprived of oxygen
7. Prosoma in scorpion comprises—

(A) Head
(B) Head and thorax
(C) Head, thorax and abdomen
(D) Only abdomen
8. What causes Pituitary Nanism ?

(A) Hyposecretion of Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(B) Hypersecretion of Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(C) Hyposecretion of Somatotrophic hormone
(D) Hypersecretion of Somatotrophic hormome
9. Which of the following is ironstoring protein ?

(A) Alpha glubulin
(B) Gamma glubulin
(C) Ferritin
(D) Albumins
10. Red tide is caused by—

(A) Protozoans
(B) Corals
122
(C) Dinoflagellates
(D) All the above
11. The major constituent of vertebrate bone is—

(A) Calcium phosphate
(B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Potassium hydroxide
12. Find the odd one out—

(A) Guineaworm
(B) Hookworm
(C) Ringworm
(D) Tapeworm
13. Taste buds located on tongue, are example of—

(A) Interoreceptors
(B) Exteroreceptors
(C) Teloreceptors
(D) Phonoreceptors
14. Body cells infected with virus produce a protein called—

(A) Interferon
(B) Properdin
(C) Gamma globulin
(D) Hybridoma
15. Capacitation of sperm in mammals involves—

(A) Sperm size change
(B) Acrosome reaction
(C) Nuclear chromatin change
(D) Mitochondrial alignment
16. Marfan syndrome is inherited as an autosomal dominant abnormality of—

(A) Eyes
(B) Cardiovascular system
(C) Skeletal system
(D) All the above
17. The cytoplasmic segment of striated muscle fibre is termed—

(A) Metamere
(B) Neuromere
(C) Sarcoplasm
123
(D) Sarcomere
18. Which one of the following is pandemic disease ?

(A) Amoebic dysentery
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Filariasis
(D) Influenza
19. Corpus striatum is found in—

(A) Paracoel
(B) Diocoel
(C) Metacoel
(D) Cerebral hemisphere
20. The polio virus enters the body through—

(A) Mosquito bites
(B) Tick bites
(C) Contaminated food and water
(D) Saliva and secretion from the nose
21. Products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by humans as—
(A) Ammonia
(B) Urea
(C) Uric acid
(D) Allantoin
22. The rate and force of the heartbeat, the secretion of digestive glands are controlled by the—
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Spinal nerves
(C) Cranial nerves
(D) Autonomic nervous system
23. The extra embryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from—
(A) Inner cell mass
(B) Trophoblast
(C) Formative cells
(D) Follicle cells
24. People who live at high altitudes have rosy cheeks because—
(A) Haemoglobin has an increased binding affinity for oxygen
(B) RBCs and haemoglobin concentration becomes considerably above the average in response to lowered oxygen
pressure
(C) Rate of capillary circulation increases in the skin
124
(D) All the above
25. Which of the following animal belongs to phylum Mollusca ?

(A) Globe fish
(B) Star fish
(C) Silver fish
(D) Cuttle fish
26. Milk teeth in a child of 3-4 years do not include—

(A) Incisors
(B) Canines
(C) Molars
(D) Premolars
27. Which of the following is the only poisonous lizard of the world ?
(A) Ophiosaurus
(B) Varanus
(C) Heloderma
(D) Draco
28. Wharton’s duct in man is related to—

(A) Male genital organs
(B) Brunner’s gland
(C) Submandibular salivary gland
(D) All the above
29. The secretions from which of the following glands form ootheca in cockroach ?
(A) Colleterial glands
(B) Mushroom glands
(C) Phallic glands
(D) Spermatheca
30. Sensory cells that occur in the pits or canals of lateral line system of fishes are—
(A) Neurochrome
(B) Neuroglia
(C) Neuromast
31. The thickening of wall of artery is called—

(A) Aneurysm
(B) Arteriosclerosis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Both (A) and (C)
125
32. Lining of human intestine is—
(A) Ciliated
(B) Keratinized
(C) Brush border
(D) All the above
33. Which blood group has both 'a' and 'b' antibodies ?
(A) O
(B) AB
(C) A
(D) B
34. Glycosidic bond is broken during digestion of—

(A) Protein
(B) Starch
(C) Lipid
(D) All of these
35. Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is known as—

(A) Invagination
(B) Import
(C) Circumfluence
(D) Circumvallation
36. In gout patients, high level of one of the following is found in blood—
(A) Urea
(B) Uric acid
(C) Cholesterol
(D) All the above
37. The anion present in pancreatic juice is—

(A) Chloride
(B) Bromide
(C) Phosphate
(D) Bicarbonate
38. Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are—

(A) Adrenergic
(B) Cholinergic
(D) None of these
126
39. The muscles associated with the heart of insects are—
(A) Radial
(B) Alary
(C) Striped
(D) Pericardial
40. The goblet cells present in the intestinal lining are—

(A) Holocrine
(B) Merocrine
(C) Apocrine
(D) Endocrine
41. Chaga’s disease is caused by—

(A) Trypanosoma gambiense
(B) Trypanosoma cruzi
(C) Trypanosoma bruci
42. A chemical process common in the digestion of all kinds of food is—
(A) Condensation
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Phosphorylation
(D) Emulsification
43. The muscles present on the posterior aspect of thigh that flex the leg and adduct and extend the thigh in human
are—
(A) Semitendinosus
(B) Semimembranosus
(C) Biceps femoris
(D) All the above
44. The P-wave of the electrocardiogram is associated with—

(A) Contraction of atria
(B) Depolarization of atrial muscular tissues
(C) Contraction of ventricles
(D) Repolarization of S–A node
45. Septicemia is—

(A) Food poisoning
(B) Blood poisoning
(C) Mental disorder
127
46. Which of the following stops the action of acetylcholine ?
(A) Acetylcholinesterase
(B) Acetylcoenzyme-A
(C) Acetylcysteine
(D) Acetyltransferase
47. In mammalian heart, the pulmonary is powered by—

(A) Right atrium and right ventricle
(B) Left atrium and right ventricle
(C) Only right ventricle
(D) Only left ventricle
48. Dartos tunic muscle fibres occur in—

(A) Uterine wall
(B) Urethral wall
(C) Abdominal wall
(D) Scrotal wall
49. Which of these muscles help urinary bladder to expel urine forcefully ?
(A) Detrusor muscle
(B) Latissimus dorsi
(C) Hamstring muscle
50. During embryonic development in humans, morula is enclosed by—

(A) Corona radiata
(B) Zona pellucida
Answers with Hints

1. (B) When a T cell with a CD8 protein on its surface encounters a MHC protein with a nonself antigen, the CD8 cell
is activated to produce a clone of cells called cytotoxic T cells, which are also called T8 or killer cells.
2. (A) There are four characteristic brain wave patterns. Alpha waves are recorded from calm, resting conditions. It
disappears entirely during sleep.
3. (D)
4. (A) Hodgkin’s disease is malignancy of lymphocyte tissue, characterized by masses of abnormal lymphocytes.
5. (B) Visual patterns, the shapes of objects and their locations in space are interpreted by right side of the brain.
With the right hemisphere humans appreciate the context of an event and recognise the faces of friends and family
members.
6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (C) Pituitary Nanism is another term for dwarfism or ateliosis and is due to hyposecretion of somatotrophic
hormone.
128
9. (C) Ferritin is iron storing protein, especially in spleen, liver and bone marrow. The iron is made available when
required for haemoglobin synthesis, being transferred by transferrin.
10. (C) Red tide is reddish discolouration of costal surface waters due to concentrations of certain toxin-producing
dinoflagellates.
11. (A) Bone is a hard connective tissue that makes up most of the skeleton of vertebrates. The matrix is 30% protein
(collagen) and 70% inorganic matter, mainly calcium phosphate.
12. (C) Guineaworm, Hookworm and Tapeworm are endoparasite, while ringworm is a skin disease caused by
fungus.
13. (B)
14. (A) Interferons are proteins produced by viral infected body cells and some lymphocytes, often in response to
presence of doublestranded RNA in the cell.
15. (B) Capacitation is final stage in maturation of mammalian spermatozoa, without which they cannot engage in
fertilization. Substances secreted by the ovary or by the uterine lining, must be encountered for the sperm to undergo
the acrosome reaction.
16. (D) Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant abnormalities of the eyes, cardiovascular system and the skeletal
system. Most persons suffering from the disease have myopia, elongated eyeballs, long and narrow extremities
(spider fingers) and irregular body proportions.
17. (C) The protoplasm of the fibres of striated muscle, excluding the myofibrils, is called sarcoplasm.
18. (D)
19. (D) Corpus striatum is a structure in the cerebral hemispheres consisting of two basal ganglia (the caudate and
lentiform nuclei) and the fibres of the internal capsule that separate them.
20. (C)
21. (C) As a result of nucleic acid digestion, nitrogenous organic acid bases–purines (adenine and guanine) and
pyrimidines (cytocine, thymine and uracil) are absorbed from intestine into the blood. In humans, purines are
changed into uric acid for excretion.
22. (D) Autonomic nervous system supplies motor nerves to the smooth muscles of the gut and internal organs and
to heart muscle. It comprises the sympathetic nervous system, which when stimulated increases heart rate, breathing
rate and blood pressure and slows down digestive processes, and the parasympathetic nervous system slows heart
rate and promotes digestion.
23. (B) Trophoblast is epithelium, surrounding the mammalian blastocyst, forming outer layer and becoming part of
extra embryonic membranes.
24. (B) At high altitudes, the composition of air remains the same as at sea level but the density of air gradually
decreases. Therefore, people living at high attitudes are acclimatized to high altitude conditions due to a significant
increase in RBC count and haemoglobin content in blood.
25. (D)
26. (C) In humans all teeth, except adult molars, grow twice in life. There are 20 milk teeth in child, that does not
include 12 molar teeth.
27. (C) Heloderma is the only poisonous lizard of the world and commonly called gila monster.
28. (C) Wharton’s duct is the duct of the submandibular salivary gland, opening into the mouth at the side of the
frenum linguae.
29. (A) The left collecterial gland secretes a soluble milky protein, while the right one secretes watery
dihydroxyphenol. Both secretions combine to form a scleroprotein which forms a common egg-case, celled ootheca.
30. (C) Neuromast is one of numerous groups of sensory cells that occur in pits or canals along the lateral line
129
system in fishes.
31. (B) Arteriosclerosis is the disease of arteries in which the wall of arteries become thickened and rigid, and blood
flow is hindered.
32. (C) Brush border is the outer surface of columnar epithelial cells living the human intestine.
33. (A) Humans having ‘O’ group blood, have no blood group antigens, but possess both ‘a’ and ‘b’ antibodies.
34. (B)
35. (B) Import is the method which involves taking of food on contact of food. The food passively sinks into the body
of Amoeba by rupturing the plasmalemma and ectoplasm at the point of contact.
36. (B) 37. (D)
38. (B) Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are cholinergic and release acetylcholine from its ending when stimulated.
39. (B)
40. (B) Goblets cells are merocrine (epicrine) in nature.
41. (B) 42. (B)
43. (D) Hamstrings are three muscles on the posterior aspect of the thigh, semitendinosus, semimembranous and
bicep femoris. They flex the leg, adduct and extend thigh.
44. (B) Electrocardiogram is a record of the electrical activity of the heart, shows certain waves called P, Q, R, S, and
T waves. The Pwave is caused by the depolarization of the atrial muscle tissues.
45. (B) Blood poisoning is a common name for an infection of the blood that is also called septicemia or toxemia.
46. (A) Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that stops the action of acetylcholine. It is present in various body tissues.
47. (A)
48. (D) Dartos tunic is the muscular contractile tissue beneath the skin of the scrotum.
49. (A) The bladder wall contains three layers of smooth muscle, which together are called the detrusor muscle.
Contraction of the detrusor muscle help expel urine forcefully from the bladder.
50. (B) The morula reaches uterus about 4 to 6 days after fertilization. It is still surrounded by the zona pellucida, that
prevents its sticking to the uterine wall.
130

Why Were The Elephants Carrying Loads of Gold and Other Valuables

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1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?

3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?

4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?

8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?

10. Why was the king angry with the children ?

16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.

5. I have never forgotten this lesson.

41. (A) achieved

42. (A) moved

43. (A) Contrary

44. (A) any

45. (A) known

46. (A) operational

47. (A) supply

48. (A) thought

49. (A) expand

50. (A) responsibility

Answers with Hints:-

1. India test-fired Agni III on

6. SERB stands for

7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with

11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is

12. Travelling Through Conflict is a book written by

14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?

15. In terms of billionnaire population. Mumbai ranks at world level ?

18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of

20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was

5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6

18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.

22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.

35. Why was the name of Anatolyevich Medvedev in news recently ?

Computer General Knowledge Question paper

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.

5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

20. A spooler is a(n):

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

23. The definition of thrashing is:

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

27. The following message generally means:

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

3. Mrs. Pratibha Patil has taken over as theâ€”

8. The finals of the Asia Cup Hockeyâ€“2007 was played bet-weenâ€”

15. At present Indian Rupee isâ€”

23. â€˜Brahmosâ€™ is designed to be used by which of the following ?

31. Mr. Robert Zoellick has taken over as theâ€”

42. The period for 11th Five Year Plan isâ€”

43. Which of the following awards is not a â€˜Gallantry Awardâ€™ ?

44. â€˜Ranji Trophyâ€™ is associated with the game ofâ€”