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BSNL TTA GRAND TEST-3

Date: 07-07-2013
Max. Marks: 200

Part I (BASIC ABILITY TEST) Each Question carries 1 Marks Find the word nearest in meaning to the following: 1. HARSH 1) pretty 2) strange 3) cruel 2. PROPER 1) complicated 2) appropriate 3) obvious 3. VIGILANT 1) passionate 2) powerful 3) faithful 4. GENUINE 1) personal 2) generous 3) authentic 20 1 = 20

4) pleasant 4) common 4) aware 4) lame

Find the word opposite in meaning to the following: 5.CURIOUS 1) complex 2) flagrant 3) passionate 4) uninterested 6. IDLE 1) lazy 2) loose 3) torrential 4) busy 7. SHINY 1) strong 2) rich 3) dull 4) dark Choose the correct option 8. After Bob's parents' death he feels _______. 1) alone 2) single 3) lonely 4) only 9. He is going to start____ around for a new job. 1) making 2)going 3) looking 4) talking 9. There was a sale going on and I ______ some clothes at throw away prices. 1) bought on 2) picked up 3) stitched 4) caught 10. They always _______ fault with me. 1) show 2) tell 3) say 4) find 11. TAC Stands for . ? 1) Technical Advisory Committee 2) Telecom Advisory Committee 3) Telugu Advisory Committee 4) None of these 12. MLLN Stand for 1) Multi Leased Line Network 2) Managed Leased Line Network 3) Member Leased Line Network 4) None of these 13. Indian Education commission of 1882 was known as? 1) Hartog Commission 2) Charles Wood Commission 3) Hunter Commission 4) Lyall Commission

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14. Which date is Common wealth day ? 1) May 24 2) May 11 3) May 7 4) May 2 15. TAPI is full form of .. 1) turkey Asia Pakistan - India 2) Turkmenistan Australia Pakistan India 3) Turkmenistan Afghanistan - Pakistan - India 4) Turkmenistan Afghanistan Pakistan India 16. Who had been appointed the chair of India Advisory Council of British Asian Trust (BAT)? 1) Ashok.M.Bhosle 2) Mukesh Ambani 3) Adi Godrej 4) Cyrus Plunge mistry th 17. Which of the following country is the 19 largest exporter in the world? 1) China 2) USA 3) Russia 4) India 18. Which of the following vitamins is produced in the Suns Rays? 1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin B 3) Vitamin C 4) Vitamin D 19. BARC stands for 1) Baba Atomic Research Council 2) Bombay Atomic Research Council 3) Baba Atomic Research Centre 4) Bombay Atomic Research Corporation 20. Who got the best Parliamentarian award for the year 2012? 1) Arun Jaitley 2) Karan Singh 3) Sharad Yadav 4) LK Advani

PART II (BASIC ENGINEERING)

Each Question carries 1 Marks 1. If =2 =3 = and ( ) = then = 90 1 = 90

1) 100 2) 50 3) 103 4) 85+18 2. Cosine of the angle between the vectors i-2j-k and 2i+3j-6k is 1) 2/7 2) 3/7 3) 8/7 4) none 3. The work done by force in moving particle from (2,2,2) to (3,3,3) along straight line is 10 units then a=? 1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12 4. If = 144 and =4 then =? 1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 and i+j+2k 5. The sine of the angle between the vectors3 1) 6. = 1) 2) 7. The argument of -2 -2i is 1) 2) 8. If = 4+3i & = 1+i 1) 625 2) 630 9. Locus of the pt (a b 1) + =1 2) 3) 3) 3) 4) 4) 4)

then + = 4) 633 4) Any of the above ) where is parameter 3) + =1 4) none

2) + =

10. Orthocenter of the triangle formed by the pts (2a,0) (0,22) (2a,22) is 1) (a,2) 2) (a/2,b/2) 3) (0,0), 4) (2a,22) 11. The of one of its diameter is 1)x+3y=0 2) x+y =0 3) x = y 4) 3x+y=0

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12. If A = 1) 3I 13. If [

then 2) 9I

= 3) 27I 4) 81I

] is a singular matrix then x = 2) 3 2) in ( 2) 1 cos x = 2) sin x 2) +c 3) 2 sin x 3) log x + c 4) x sin x 4) none then 3) 2 4) 3 3) 2 3) 4) 1 4)

1) -4 14. L[sin t cos t] = 1) 15. If f(x) = 1) 0 16. The P.I of 1) sin x 17. 1) +c 18.

1) 0 2) 4/3 3) e log 4)none 19. Which of the following quantities is dimension less 1) stress 2) strain 3)angular velocity 4) angular momentum 20. Identify the pair of given physical quantities having the same dimensions 1) energy and youngs modulus 2) angular momentum and work 3) force and Power 4) work and energy 21. If 24 scale divisions are divided into 25 equal parts on the vernier scale, the least count is ----Of a scale division 1) 0.96 2) 0.04 3) 1.04 4) 1.03 22. The S.I unit of specific heat capacity is 1) J/kg/k 2) j-kg-k 3) J-kg/k 4) j/kg-k 23. The echo and the original sound differ in 1) frequency 2) wave length 3) Velocity 4) intensity of sound 24. Intensity of sound is proportional 1) directly square of the amplitude 2) directly to the density of the medium 3) inversely to the square of the distance 4) to all the above 25. The longitudinal character of sound waves is established by considering the phenomenon of 1) reflection 2) refraction 3) interference 4) polarization 26. A store is dropped in water the waves produced are 1) longitudinal 2) transverse 3) stationary 4) sometimes longitudinal ,sometimes transverse 27 .If absolute temperature of the gas is T, then velocity V of sound in the gas is given by 1) v 2) v 3) v 4) v 28. Huygenss wave theory is used 1) to determine the velocity of light 2) to fine the position of a wave front 3) to determine the wave length of light 4) to find the focal length of a lens 29. A cut diamond sparkles because of its 1) Hardness 2) high refractive index 3) emission of light by the diamond 4) Absorption of light by the diamond 30. The emission of visible light by some substances for a period of time after they have been irradiated with radiant energy is called 1) fluorescence 2) phosphorescence 3) photo electric effect 4)photosynthesis

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31. Blue colour of the sky is due to 1) scattering of light 2) dispersim of light 3) interference 4) sun emits more of blue light 32. Laser works on the principle of 1) random emission 2) spontaneous emission 3) thermionic emission 4) stimulated emission 33. Laser was invented by 1) Plank T.H.Maiman 3) John laser 4) shockly 34. LASER stands for 1) radiant emission 2) spontaneous emission 3) stimulated emission 4) instant emission 35. Principal quantum number gives . Of orbit 1) size and energy 2)orientation of electrons 3) shape and orientation 4) all the above 36.what is the wave length of an iron ball of mass 10mg moving with a speed of cm/ 1) 60625* 2) 6.625* 3) 1.105* 4) 1.125* 37.For a sinusoidal waveform, the form factor is 1) 0.1 2) 1.11 3) 0.55 4) 38. As the Q-factor of the circuit ---- , its selectivity becomes ---1) Increases, better 2) Increases, worse 3) Decreases, better 4) Decreases,narrower 39. The P.F of a series RLC ckt at its half power points is 1) Unity 2) Lagging 3) leading 4) Either lagging or leading 40. The dynamic impedance of an RLC rejecter circuit is given by 1) 2) 3) 4)

41. Power factor improvement 1) does not affect the performance characteristics of the hold 2) Employs series resonance 3) Increases the active power drawn by the load 4) Increases the reactive power taken by the load 42. Like a resonant series R-L-C circuit, a parallel resonant circuit also 1) Has a power factor of unity 2) Offers minimum impedance 3) Draws maximum current 3) Magnifies current 43. An ac current is given by I = 100 sin 100 t.It will achieve a value of 50 A after ---- second 1)1/600 2)1/300 3)1/1800 4)1/900 44. An RLC circuit resonates at 50 Hz. The p.f of the circuit at 75 Hz is ---1) Leading 2) lagging 3) unity 4) Zero 45. The r.m.s or average value of an unsymmetrical wave is determined over --- of wave 1) Half-cycle 2) complete cycle 3) Quarter cycle 4) none 46. Which will draw least current 1) 40 W lamp 2) 40 W tube light 3) 40 W Induction motor 4) 40 W computer 47. When a 15 V square wave is connected across 50V a.c voltmeter. It will read 1) 15V 2) 15 * V 3) V 4) none 48. Alternating voltage and currents are expressed in R.M.S values because 1) easy to calculate 2) they give comparison with d.c 3) metets indicate r.m.s values only 4) all of the above 49. All the laws of d.c circuits can also equally applied to A.C circuits if the circuit contains 1)Resistance only 2) inductance only 3) capacitance only 4) all the above 50. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of 1) A purely capacitive circuits ability to pass current 2) a purely capacitive circuits ability to resist current

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3) Reactive power in the circuit 4) The extent of neutralization of reactive power in the circuit 51.Which of the following will not change when input frequency is changed 1) Band width 2) resonance frequency 3) Q 4) all of the above 52. The power in the A.C. circuit is given by 1) cos 2) sin 3) cos 4) sin 53.Voltage dependent resistors are used 1) as current stabilizers 2) as heating elements 3) For inductive circuits 4) to suppress surges 54.A circuit with a resistor, inductor and capacitor in series is resonant at Hz. If all the component values are now doubled, the new resonant frequency is 1) 2 2) still 3) 4) 55. One of the following is not a semiconductor 1)Gallium arsenide 2)Indium 3)Germanium 4)Silicon 56. The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier is 1)1.21 2)0.482 3)0.406 4)0.121 57. A bleeded resistor is used in a d.c power supply because it 1)keeps the supply OFF 2)keeps the supply ON 3)improves filtering action 4)improve voltage regulation 58. Power transistors are invariably provided with 1)soldered connections 2)heat sink 3)metallic casing 4)none of the above 59. Which of the following conditions ensures that the transistor does not undergo thermal run-away? 1)VCE = VCC/2 2) VCE = VCC/2 3)VCE < VCC 4)VCE > VCC/2 60. The condition to prevent thermal runaway is given by 1) 2) 3) 4)None of the above 61. After VDS reaches pinch off value VP in a JFET, the drain current ID becomes 1)Zero 2)Low 3)Saturated 4)Reversed 62. If properly biased, JFET with act as a 1)current controlled current source 2)voltage controlled voltage source 3)voltage controlled current source 4)current controlled voltage source 63. A cascade amplifier comprises 1)CB and CC amplifier 2)CB and CE amplifier 3)CE and CB amplifier 4)CC and CE amplifier 64. Which of the following amplifiers is used in impedance matching ? 1)CB amplifier 2)CC amplifier 3)CE amplifier 4)Cascode amplifier 65. Which of the following power amplifiers operates with least distortion? 1)Class A 2)Class B 3)Class C 4)Class D 66. The Schottky diode is used 1)in high power circuits 2)in circuits requiring negative resistance 3)in very fast-switching circuits 4)in power supply rectifiers 67. A UJT has = 10K and = 4k. Its intrinsic stand-off ratio is 1)0.6 2)0.4 3)2.5 4)5/3 68. If three stages of a multistage amplifier have individual gain of 5dB, 10dB and 15dB, then total gain is 1)50dB 2)150dB 3)750dB 4)30Db

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69. The input impedance of an amplifier can be increased from 2k to 50k by introducing 1) shunt-current negative feedback 2)shunt-voltage negative feedback 3) series-current negative feedback 4)none of these 70. Both positive and negative feedback is employed in 1)Hartely oscillator 2)Colpitts oscillator 3)Wein bridge oscillator 4)R-C phase shift oscillator 71. An amplifier of pass-band 450KHz to 460 KHz will be named as 1)video amplifier 2)audio amplifier 3)tuned voltage amplifier 4)power amplifier 72. Usually, double tuned amplifier circuit is employed in 1)audio stage of radio receiver 2)mixing stage of radio 3)output stage of radio receiver 4)IF stage of radio receiver 73. How many different binary numbers can be stored in a register consisting of six switches? 1) 32 2) 63 3) 64 4) 16 74. The binary equivalent of an hexadecimal number 9AF is -1) 1001 1010 1110 2) 1010 1100 1101 3) 1001 1010 1111 4) 1101 1011 1111 75. The logic gate similar to the function of two series switches is 1) NAND 2) OR 3) Ex- OR 4) AND 76. The output of a 2 input gate HIGH if and only if its inputs are unequal. It is true for 1) Ex- OR 2) NAND 3) Ex-NOR 4) OR 77. The total number of Boolean function which can be realized with n variables is 1) 2 2) 2n 3) 4) none 78. Parallel address are 1) sequential circuits 2) Combinational circuits 3) Combination of sequential and combinational circuits 4) none 79. A multiplexer can be realized by 1) shift registers 2)display system 3) Combinational circuit 4) counter 80.The combinational logic circuit that converts decimal numbers to a binary form is 1) counter 2) register 3) encoder 4) decoder 81. A flip flop is used to store 1) 2 bits of information 2) one nibble of information 3) one byte of information 4) one bit of information 82. n flip flops will divides the clock frequency by a factor of 1) 2n 2) n/2 3) 4) n 83. ECL is 1) A uni polar logic 2) non saturated logic 3) saturated logic 4) none 84. when a logic gate is driving another logic gate, the condition which must be satisfied for the proper operation is 1) and 2) and 3) and 4) and 85. NMOS devices are preferred over PMOS devices for digital circuits because of 1) Lower power dissipation 2) Higher power dissipatrion 3) Higher mobility of electrons than holes 4) none 86. The logic family with highest speed is 1) ECL 2) NMOS 3) TTL 4) CMOS 87. In a sequential circuits the outputs at any instant of time depend 1) only on the inputs present at that instant of time 2) on past outputs as well as present inputs 3) only on the past inputs 4) only on the past outputs

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88. High speed counter 1) Ring counter 2) ripple counter 3) synchronous counter 4) Asynchronous counter 89. A shift register is a 1) read only memory 2) random access memory 3) Sequenually accessed memory 4) content addressable memory 90. A mask programmed ROM is 1) programmed at the time of fabrication 2) programmed by the user 3) erasable and programmable 4) erasable electrically PART III (SPECIALIZATION) Each Question Carries 1 Mark 90 x 1 = 90 1. For rural electrification in country like India with complex nature it is preferable to use 1) Air break C.B 2) Vacuum C.B 3) Oil C.B 4) M.O.C.B 2. To protect the power transformer with star delta connection against fault, the current transformer will have ( In differential protection) 1)Delta-delta connection 2) delta- star connection 3)Star star connection 4) star- delta connection 3. Buchholz relays is used for protection of oil immersed incipient fault is of 1)Switching yard 2) Transformers 3) Alternators 4) transmission lines 4. Ampere hour is a unit of 1)Quantity of electricity 2) strength of the current 3)Energy 4) power 5. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is 1)Maximum 2) Zero 3)Minimum 4) Depends on size and voltage 6. The insulation resistance of a cable is given by 1) ( ) 2) ( ) 3) ( ) 4) None 7. In lap winding the number of brushes is alwayss 1) Double the number of poles 2) Same as the number of poles 3) Half the number of poles 4) two 8. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is 1) in enhance flux density 2) to amplify voltage 3) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor 4) to reduce eddy currents 9. The motor equation is given by 1) V = Eb IaRa 2) V = Eb + IaRa 3)Eb = IaRa V 4) none 10. In RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 120KHz and a Q-factor of 100. Its bandwidth is 1) 1.2KHz 2) 0.625KHz 3) 16MHz 4) none of these 11. A 440V, 50Hz, 4pole, 3- induction motor runs at 1440rpm when connected to supply mains, the slip of the motor is 1) 2% 2) 4% 3) 6% 4) 8% 12. Crawling of an induction motor normally occurs at about-------of full load speed. 1) 1/3rd 2)4/5th 3)3/4th 4)1/7th 13. If be the electrical angle, be the mechanical angle and P b the number of poles, then 1) 2) /2 3) 4) 14. The V-curve of a synchronous motor is a plot of 1) stator current versus stator power factor 2) stator current versus rotor currents at all loads 3) stator current versus rotor currents at power delivered is constant 4) stator current versus power delivered

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15. The percentage saving in power of 100% modulated suppressed carrier AM signal is 1) 100 2) 75 3) 66.6 4) 50 16. In amplitude modulation, the magnitude of side bands is 1) ma / 2 times the carrier amplitude, Ee 2) ma times the carrier amplitude, Ee 3) 2ma times the carrier amplitude, Ee 4) 4ma times the carrier amplitude, Ee 17. SSB can be generated by 1) filter method 2) phase shift method 3) weavers method 4) any of the above 18. In AM, pilot carrier transmission has 1) two sidebands 2) two sidebands and a trace of carrier 3) carrier and part of one sideband 4) carrier, one sideband and part of other sideband 19. Armstrong modulator generates 1) AM signals 2) FM signals 3) PM signals 4) both 2 and 3 above 20. An FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency Tripler. The wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of 1) mf 2) 3mf 3) mf / 3 4) mf / 9 21. In which modulation system, when modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index also becomes double? 1) AM 2) FM 3) PM 4) none of the above 22. In AM the amplitude of carrier components ______ while in FM it 1) remains constant, does not remain constant 2) does not remain constant ___ remains constant 3) remains constant ____ also remains constant 4) does not remain constant, also does not remain constant 23. A system most noise immune is 1) AM 2) FM 3) PCM 4) SSB 24. Which of the following is the disadvantage of PDM over PPM 1) it requires pulses of larger widths 2) more samples are needed per second 3)more powerful transmitter is required 4) none of the above 25. The multicavity klystron 1) is not a good low level amplifier because of noise 2) is not suitable for pulsed operation 3) has a high repelled voltage to ensure a rapid transit-time 4) needs a long transit time through the bencher cavity to ensure current modulation 26. In a cavity magnetron strapping is used to 1) ensure bunching 2) prevent mode jumping 3) prevent cathode back-heating 4) improve the phase-focusing effect 27. The major source of thermal noise in a microwave system is 1) waveguide feeder 2) receiver mixer 3) TWT amplifier in transmitter 4) FM modulator 28. In the magnetron, in order to avoid difficulties with strapping at high frequencies, type of cavity structure preferred is 1) vane 2) slot 3) Hole and slot 4) rising sun 29. A transmission line having Z0 = 100 is delivering power to a 400 load. Its SWR is 1)1 : 4 2)4 : 1 3)1 : 2 44)2 : 1 30. A line with VSWR = 4 dissipates 64 watts in the load. The reflected power will be 1)64 W 2)16 W 3)36 W 4)256 W 31. If an SWR of 4 : 1 exists on a line, then its reflection co-efficient is 1)0.8 2)2.0 3)0.25 4)0.6

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32. For the transmission line of inductance 2 H/m and capacitance 8pF/m. What is the velocity of the electromagnetic wave travelling down the line ? 1)250 x 106 m/s 2)250 x 105 m/s 3) 25 x 106 m/s 4) 25 x 105 m/s 33. 1neper = ---------decibels 1)10 2)8.686 3)0.115 4) 34. The distance between voltage maximum and current minima of a standing wave. 1)0 2)/4 3) /2 4) 35. Standing waves of voltage and current are step up along a transmission when 1)ZL Z0 2) ZL = Z0 3) = Z0 4) Z0 36. In a transmission line, the ratio of reflected power to incident power is given by 1)K 2)1/K 3)1/K2 4)K2 37. It is required to match a 100 load to 900 transmission line to reduce the SWR along the line to one. The input impedance of the quarter wave transformer used to this performance is 1)8100 2)900 3)500 4)300 38. A loaded T.L will act as 1)LPF 2)HPF 3)BPF 4)BSF 39. A line operating with 500 rad/sec has a phase constant of 0.01 rad/km. Find its velocity of propagation 1)50 km/sec 2)500 km/sec 3)5000 km/sec 4)50000 km/sec 40. A T/F is used for matching a load of 225 and Z0 = 256 in order to reduce the SWR along the line to 1. The Z0 of the transformer is 1)225 2)256 3)240 4)273 41. For a Tr. line with ZOC and ZSC are 20 and 5. Then the Z0 1)100 2)50 3)25 4)10 42. An ideal Tr. Line with matched load, VSWR and k are 1)1, 1 2) , 1 3) , 0 4)1 and 0 43. The impendence at audio and radio frequencies is commonly measured by means of 1) An a.c. Wheatstone bridge 2) Wein bridge 3) Sohering bridge 4) Maxwell bridge 44. Schering bridge is used to measure 1) Resistance 2) Input Voltage 3) Frequency 4) Capacitance and its power factor 45. A moving coil instrument can be used to measure 1) High frequency a.c. 2) Both a.c. and d.c. 3) Only for d.c. 4) All the above 46. A three and half digit digital voltmeter could measure a maximum voltage of 1) 100 Volts 2) 1000 Volts 3) 2000 Volts 4) 10,000 Volts 47. The sensitivity of a voltmeter using a 50 A ammeter is 1) 50 ohm/v 2) 10000 ohm/v 3) 20000 ohm/v 4) 5000 ohm/v 48. To double the current range of a 50 A, 2000 meter, the shunt resistance required is 1) 40 2) 50 3) 2 K 4) 25 K 49. The principle of operation of Q-meter is based on 1) Self inductance 2) mutual inductance 3) Series resonance 4) parallel resonance 50. The most common method of measuring the low resistance is to use 1) Wheat-stone bridge 2) Potentiometer method 3) Voltmeter-Ammeter method 4) Kelvin's double bridge 51. If an ammeter of 0-10A range reads by full scale reading then the % error is 2, the same meter reads by 5A then the percentage error is 1) 0.2% 2) 0.4% 3) 2% 4) 4%

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52.

53.

54.

55. 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62. 63. 64.

65.

66. 67. 68.

Material used for green color fluorescence is 1) Magnesium fluoride 2) Zinc orthosilicate 3) Zinc sulphide 4) Calcium Phosphate One of the following ca act as an inverse trasduce 1) electrical resistance potentiometer 2) LVDT 3) capacitive transducer 4) Piezo electric crystal If a transducer has an output impedance of 1K and load resistance of 1, it behave as 1) Constant current source 2) Constant voltage source 3) constant impedance source 4) none A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as 1) closed loop system 2) semi closed loop system 3) open system 4) none In open loop system 1) the control action depends on the size of the system 2) the control action depends on system variables 3) the control action depends on the input signal 4) the control action is independent of the output A control system working under unknown random actions is called 1) computer control system 2) digital data system 3) stochastic control system 4) adaptive control system --------- is a closed loop system 1)auto-pilot for an aircraft 2) Direct current generator 3) car starter 4) Electric switch A.C. servomotor resembles 1) two phase induction motor 2) Three phase induction motor 3) direct current series motor 4) universal motor Zero initial condition for a system means 1) input reference signal is zero 2) zero stored energy 3) ne initial movement of moving parts 4) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components The second derivative input signals modify which of the following? 1) the time constant of the system 2)damping of the system 3) the time constant and suppress the oscillations 4) none The on-off controller is a ----------- system 1) digital 2) linear 3) non-linear 4) discontinuous with feedback ----- increases 1) system stability 2) sensitivity 3) gain 4) effects of disturbing signals Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit Function 1) parabolic 2) ramp 3) impulse 4) step In order to increase the damping of a badly under damped system which of following compensators may be used? 1) phase-lead 2) phase-lag 3) both 1) and 2) 4)none Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinater? 1) microsyn 2) selsyn 3) synchro-resolver 4) synchro-transformer A program that translates high level language program into machine language program 1)compiler 2)inter prefer 3)assembler 4)P Which of the following is high level language 1)FORTRAN 2)BASIC 3)PASCAL 4)All

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69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

86. 87.

88. 89. 90.

For I/O read operation the status of IO/M, S1 and S0 respectively 1)1, 0, 1 2)1, 1, 0 3)0, 1, 0 4)0, 1, 1 One sub division of the operation per formed in one clock period is called as 1)one clock cycle 2)one-T-state 3)one machine cycle 4)none Intel 8085 instruction set contains---------basic instruction. 1)71 2)72 3)74 4)76 Which of the following interrupt instruction of 8085 1)EI 2)DI 3)RST 4)All The instruction which has highest T-states 1)CALL 2)PUSH 3)XTHL 4)PCHC Which of the following is non-mask able interrupt 1)Trap 2)RST 7.5 3)RST 4.5 4)1 or 3 Data bus works as address bus when ALE is 1)low 2)high 3)both 4)none Which of the following is Inherent instruction 1)MOV B, C 2)LDA XB 3)STC 4)MVI B, 05 IN instruction is -------byte instruction 1)1 2)2 3)4 4)none DMA treated as peripheral is --------mode 1)slave 2)master 3)addressing mode 4)all The local storage register which contains the address of the next instruction to be executed is 1) accumulator 2) address register 3) buffer 4) program counter Which is the short name for beginners All-purpose symbolic instruction code 1) PASCAL 2) BASIC 3) FORTH 4) PL/I A data base that appears to the user to be just a collection of tables is 1) data bank 2) DBMS 3) data collection 4) relational database A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language 1) computer 2) interpreter 3) assembler 4) none What is the original directory on a disk 1) root 2) tree 3) C> 4) D> End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in 1) network layer 2) sessions layer 3) data linker layer 4) transport layer With telecommunications and a personal computer you can 1) download free public domain programs 2) send letters to be printed and delivered by the post office 3) order goods at a substantial discount 4) all of these The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A tuple is equivalent to a 1) record 2) field 3) file 4) data base Insert the elements 2,4,5,6 into a empty queue and delete 2 and 4 from the queue then the queue contains 1) 5,6 2) 4,5 3) 6 only 4) none Which of the following is a real valued variable in FORTRAN 1) INTEREST 2) PAY 3) MONTH 4) JACK The FORTRAN expression of the mathematical expression a+b/cd is 1) A+B/C*D 2) A+B/(C*4) 3) (A+2) /C*D 4) A+(B/C*4) The first column in a FORTRAN statement is used for 1) comments 2) continuation 3) statement number 4) none

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ROUGH PAPER Key: Key for : PART 3(SPECIALIZAITON) 13 22 32 41 52 112 124 132 143 153 213 221 233 242 251 314 321 332 342 351 414 424 431 444 453 514 522 534 541 551 614 621 631 642 651 713 724 731 744 752 814 823 831 844 854 TTA 62 161 262 364 462 564 663 763 861 07-07-13 92 101 194 202 292 303 394 403 493 504 591 604 692 702 794 802 892 901

72 174 273 371 473 573 671 772 871

83 182 284 381 483 581 684 781 882

Key for : Basic Engineering 13 23 32 111 124 134 212 221 232 311 324 332 411 421 431 514 523 534 613 622 633 713 724 733 814 823 832

43 141 244 343 442 544 642 743 844

54 151 254 351 452 552 651 754 853

TTA 61 162 262 361 462 562 663 761 861

73 171 272 372 471 574 672 773 872

83 183 282 381 482 582 684 782 883

07-07-13 91 104 192 204 292 302 394 402 491 501 592 603 693 703 793 803 893 902

KEY: FOR PART -1 TTA 1-C 11 -1 2-B 12 -B

07/7/13 3 -D 13 - C 4 -C 14 -A 5 -C 15 -D 6 -D 16 -B 7 -C 17 -D 8 -C 18 -D 9 -C 19 -C 10 4 20 C

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