1) Increasing ICP is unlikely to produce A) hypertension B) bradycardia C) apnea D) hypotension 2) In all the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely

contraindicated, except: A) Pre-existing neurological deficits. B) Severe hypovolemia. C) Coagulopathy. D) Patient refusal. 3) The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is which of following A) CO2 B) oxygen C) NO D) HBO3 4) Post spinal headache is due to: A) Damage to cauda equina. B) Usage of small bore needle C) Seepage of CSF D) Injury to spinal cord by needle. 5) All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney ,except: A) The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum B) It is site of portosystemic anastomosis C) Stellate veins drain superficial zone D) Its segmental arteries are end-arteries 6) Peau d' orange appearance is : A) Due to cutaneous lymphatic obstruction B) Appears like peal of orange C) Both of the above D) None of the above

7) Pyramidalis muscle is supplied by : A) Subcostal nerve B) Ilioinguinal nerve C) Iliohypogastric nerve D) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve 8) All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except: A) Melanocyte B) Adrenal medulla C) Sympathetic ganglia D) Cauda equina 9) Os trigonum is which type of epiphysis A) Pressure B) Atavistic C) Aberrant D) Traction 10) The lateral boundary of inguinal triangle is formed by : A) Rectus abdominus muscle B) Obliterated umbilical artery C) Inguinal ligament D) Inferior epigastric artery 11) Length of duodenum is : A) 25 cm B) 10 cm C) 30 cm D) 15 cm 12) About median nerve which of the following is true: A) Passes deep to flexor retinaculum. B) Gives rise to posterior interosseus nerve. C) Formed by posterior division of brachial plexus. D) Supply all forearm muscles. 13) Dietary fibre is rich in A) starch B) collagen C) inulin

D) cellulose 14) Chemically heparin is a : A) Purine B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Lipid 15) Which processes occur after 3 days of starvation : A) Gluconegenesis and lipolysis B) Glycogenolysis and Gluconeogenesis C) Lipolysis D) Lipolysis and Gluconeogenesis 16) The sequence in respiratory chain in the mitochondria is : A) c1-c-b-b1-a3-a B) b-c-a-a3 C) a-a3-b-c-c1 D) c-c1-b-a-a3 17) Which of the following is the most important constituent of diet? A) Proteins B) Vitamins C) Water D) Minerals 18) Serum creatine kinase-3 (CK-3) is elevated in A) alcoholic cirrhosis B) muscular dystrophy C) brain tumour D) myocardial infarction 19) Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA? A) 5 capping B) Splicing C) polyadenylation D) Glycosylation 20) AIDS is a disease if the immune system is primarily affecting

A) immunoglobulins B) opsonins C) granulocytes D) T-lymphocytes 21) Which of the following statements is true? A) VLDL is a precursor of LDL B) HDL is formed from LDL C) HDL competes with LDL for extra-hepatic binding sites D) Chylomicrons transport lipids from extra hepatic sites to liver 22) Nitric oxide synthase: A) Is inhibited by Ca++ B) Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction C) Requires NADH, FAD, FMN and heme iron D) Accepts electrons from NADH 23) The Refsum's disease in which there is accumulation of phytanic acid is due to defect of : A) Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I deficiency B) Beta-oxidation C) Alpha-oxidation D) HMG-CoA lyase deficiency 24) Muscle is the major biochemical transducer because it A) Converts thermal energy to potential energy B) Converts potential energy into kinetic energy C) Converts kinetic energy to potential energy D) Converts thermal energy to kinetic energy 25) Intestinal absorption of Ca2+ is decreased by A) acidity B) proteins C) lactose D) phytic acid 26) Drug that is used for both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus is A) tolbutamide

B) glipizide C) acetazolamide D) chlorpropamide 27) In Lepromatous leprosy, all are true except: A) Does not heal at center B) Sensations are lost first C) Margins are ill defined D) Elevated margins 28) Percentage of polio cases developing paralytic polio : A) 5% B) 96% C) Less than 1% D) 1% 29) Wheat protein is deficient in : A) Melatonin B) Leucine C) Threonine D) Tryptophan 30) Vaccination given under UIP is : A) Hepatitis B B) Measles C) Rubella D) All of the above 31) Which one of the following is not source of managers power? A) Efferent. B) Coercive C) Legitimate. D) Reward 32) The disease which is nearly eradicated from India is : A) Poliomyelitis B) Mumps C) Guinea worm infection D) Diphtheria 33) Live attenuated vaccine is:

A) Hepatitis B vaccine B) Yellow fever vaccine C) Japanese encephalitis D) Salk's polio vaccine 34) Oral polio vaccine is prefered over salk vaccine because : A) Cheaper B) Herd immunity C) Stable D) Easy to administor 35) In case control study, the control is : A) Free from disease B) Same as case C) Should be known before the study D) All of the above 36) In malaria control programme operational efficiency is assessed by : A) Annual blood examination rate(ABER) B) Annual parasite incidence(API) C) Infant parasite rate D) Spleen rate 37) DPT is contraindicated in: A) Upper respiratory tract infection . B) Diarrhea C) Family history of convulsions. D) Suspected or progressive nuerological disease. 38) Perinatal mortality rate includes: A) Abortions and death within 7 days of birth B) Neonatal deaths within 30 days of birth C) Deaths between 7 and 28 days of birth D) Still borns and death within 7 days of birth 39) The term 'lead time' used in relation to: A) Immunization B) Screening C) Sterilization D) Health surveys

40) Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease? A) Standardized mortality ratio. B) Case fatality rate. C) Cause specific death rate. D) Five year survival. 41) The grass root worker in ICDS programme is : A) Primary health worker B) Anganwadi worker C) Dais D) Village health worker 42) Chronic exposure with which of the following particle size causes chronic lung disease: A) 0.01-0.5 microns B) 0.5-3 microns C) 3-5 microns D) 5-10 microns 43) Low birth rate and even declining death rate is an example of: A) High stationary B) Late expanding C) Low stationary D) Early expanding 44) Which of the following is sensitive indicator of health status of community? A) Birth rate B) CDR C) Life expectancy at age one D) MMR 45) Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true? A) Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day. B) Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.

C) Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD. D) Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD. 46) In India, DDT for malaria control is mainly sprayed at: A) Jungle near village B) Rice field C) Outside house D) Inside house 47) The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is: A) 2300. B) 2100. C) 1800. D) 2900. 48) In severe malnutrition , ratio of weight / height is : A) < 80 B) < 50 C) < 60 D) < 70 49) Vector for filariasis is: A) Culex B) Anapheles C) Aedes D) Mansonia 50) DPT is a : A) Killed vaccine B) Toxoid C) Both killed vaccine and toxoid D) None of the above 51) Most common site for lupus vulgaris: A) Face B) Neck C) Chest D) Extremities

52) Staphylococcus causes all except : A) Carbuncle B) Erysipelas C) Impetigo D) Boils 53) In atopic dermatitis, all are advised except : A) Bubble bath B) Antihistaminics C) Glucocorticoids D) Not to wash clothes and body with brush 54) Contact dermatitis is diagnosed by: A) Skin biopsy B) Prich test C) Tzank test D) Patch test 55) rhinophyma is a type of: A) Fungal infection B) Acne vulgaris C) Hamartoma D) Acne rosacea 56) A 13-year-old boy presented with a 6-year old lesion over his buttock. On examination, the lesion showed scarring at one side and also there was puckering of the overlying skin. The lesion is most likely to be : A) Tuberculosis chancre B) Lupus vulgaris C) Scofuloderma D) None of the above 57) Podophyllin is used for: A) Palmer wart B) Condyloma accuminata C) Psoriasis D) Condyloma lata 58) An adult female presented with thickening of base of nail plate of all the fingers. The most likely cause for her condition would be : A) Psoriasis

B) Pemphigus C) Lead poisoning D) Lichen planus 59) Tobey-Ayer test is positive in : A) Carotid artery thrombosis B) Carotid sinus thrombosis C) Lateral sinus thrombosis D) Carotid artery aneurysm 60) Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is: A) CA nasopharynx B) Subglottic CA C) CA glottis D) Supraglortic CA 61) Commonest cause of epistaxis in children is: A) Trauma B) Enlarged adenoids C) Foreign body D) Nasal diphtheria 62) Cauliflower ear is seen in : A) Haematoma of auricle B) Impacted wax C) Squamous cell carcinoma of ear lobe D) Osteophytes in ext. auditary canal 63) Artery of epistaxis is : A) Anterior ethmodial B) Superior labial branch of facial artery C) Posterior ethmodial D) Sphenopalatine 64) A case of Bells palsy on steroids shows no improvement after 2 weeks. The next step in management should be: A) Vasodilators and ACTH B) Physiotherapy and electrical stimulation C) Increase steroid dosage D) Electrophysiological nerve testing 65) Magnan's symptoms are seen due to :

A) Cannabis B) Cocaine C) Alcohol D) Opium 66) A typical hanging is : A) knot tied at the back and feet not touching ground. B) Knot tied in front and feet touching ground. C) Knot tied in front and feet not touching the ground. D) Knot tied at back and feet touching ground. 67) In starvation: A) All the organs of the body are shrunken except brain B) The small intestine is thin,papery transparent C) Gall bladder is distended D) All of the above 68) Most common type of finger impression is: A) Arch B) Whorl C) Loop D) Composite 69) Dichotomy is : A) Giving false evidence in court B) Helping a quack in his private practice C) Telling lie under oath D) Giving money to other practioners under the table 70) Countre coupe injury is seen in: A) Injury in the area of force. B) Injury in the area opposite to force. C) Injury lateral to force. D) Any of the above 71) Greenish discolouration of right iliac fossa after death occurs at : A) 1 week B) 12-24 hours C) 48-72 hours

D) 46 hours 72) A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after: A) Hydatidiform mole B) Full term pregnancy C) Ectopic pregnancy D) Spontaneous abortion 73) In perimenopausal women with menorrhagia we rule out carcinoma ofA) Endometrium B) Ovary C) Uterus D) Fallopian tube 74) The highest incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease is in: A) North America. B) Australia . C) Asia. D) Western Europe. 75) A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely diagnosis is: A) Rupture of ectopic pregnancy B) Torsion of subserous fibroid C) Torsion of ovarian cyst D) Rupture of ovarian cyst 76) Test for ovarian reserve A) LH B) FSH C) Estradiol D) LH/FSH ratio 77) In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of period. When is the first polar body extruded A) 48 hrs after the ovulation

B) Accompanied by ovulation C) At the time of fertilization D) 24 hrs prior to ovulation 78) A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is: A) Endocervical curettage B) Pap smear C) Colposcopy D) Punch biopsy 79) Size of graffin follicle is A) 2 mm B) 3 mm C) 6 mm D) 4 mm 80) Combination chemotherapy is given in tuberculosis because : A) Toxicity is less B) Cheaper C) To prevent resistance D) To increase potency 81) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) deposition is seen in: A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Haemochromatosis C) Pseudogout D) Gout 82) All of the following are acute reaction of blood transfusion except : A) Chills rigor B) Pain in chest C) Jaundice D) Lumbar pain 83) Norwegian scabies is seen in: A) Malnutrition B) Pregnancy

C) Elderly D) Immuno comprimised 84) Best diagnostic test of cardiac hypertrophy is : A) Chest X-ray B) Left ventricular thickness on cross section. C) Weighing of heart D) Histology of left ventricle (cardiacbiopsy). 85) Strongiloides stercoralis characteristically causes: A) Resides in striated muscle B) Intestinal obstruction C) Night itching in children D) Malabsorption 86) The ulcer of syphilis has all characteristic except : A) Lymph nodes are enlarged B) Has punched out edges C) Painless D) Seen in secondary and tertiary syphilis 87) Hemodialysis is useful in poisoning with: A) Salicylates B) Diazepam C) Organochlorines D) Lithium 88) Which of following drugs can be safely used in central diabetes insipidus as a nasopharyngeal spray in both adults and children : A) Hydrochlorothiazide B) Desmopressin C) 8-a lysine vasopressin D) 8-a arginine vasopressin 89) A 30-year-old female complained of diplopia. On examination it was found that she couldn't move her right eye downward and laterally. The nerve affected is : A) Optic nerve

B) Trochlear nerve C) Oculomotor nerve D) Abducent nerve 90) Hyponatremia is seen in all endocrine pathologies except : A) Acromegaly B) Hypothyroidism C) Cushings disease D) Hypoaldosteronism 91) Pre-renal azotemia is characterized by all of the following except: A) Fractional excretion of Na < 1% B) Reversible with replacement fluids C) Urinary osmolality > 500 mosm/kg D) Urinary sodium concentration > 40 meq/l 92) A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with three episodes of massive hematemesis and melena. There is no history of jaundice. On examination, she had a large spleen, nonpalpable liver and mild ascites. Portal vein was not visualised on ultrasonography. Liver function tests were normal and endoscopy revealed esophageal varices. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Kala azar with portal hypertension B) Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic obstruction. C) Chronic liver disease with portal hypertension D) Portal hypertension of unknown etiology 93) Digitalis toxicity aggrevated by: A) Hyperkalemia B) Hypermagnesemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hypokalemia 94) About antosomal dominant true in : A) Half of them are carrier B) Half of them are affected C) Unaffected person cannot transmit it

D) All of the above 95) Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia? A) Alzheimers disease. B) Subacute combined degeneration. C) Creutzfeld-Jakob disease. D) Picks disease. 96) Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in: A) Alpha heavy Chain disease B) Gamma heavy chain disease C) Mu heavy chain disease D) Epsilon heavy chain disease 97) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is inheritance of: A) X-linked recessive B) Autosomal recessive C) Autosomal dominant D) X-linked dominant 98) In a case of hepatitis B, maximum infectivity is seen when the patient is positive for : A) HBsAg and HBeAg B) HBsAg C) HBsAg and anti HBc D) HBsAg and Anti HBc 99) Exercise testing is absolutely contraindicated in which one of the following: A) Unstable angina. B) Aortic stenosis. C) One week following myocardial infarction. D) Peripheral vascular disease. 100) Flooding is the mode of treatment for which of the following : A) Depression B) Phobias C) Obsessive compulsive disorder D) Anxiety disorder 101) Kussmauls sign is not seen in:

A) RV infarct B) Cardiac tamponade C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy D) Constrictive pericarditis 102) All of the following is true regarding autosomal dominant inheritance except: A) There is 100% chances that the offspring of an affected heterozygote will inhibit the mutant allele B) Manifests in heterozygous state. C) Manifest in homozygous state. D) Offspring of apparently normal child will no posses the mutant gene. 103) "Chovestek's sign" is seen in: A) Hypercalcemia B) Hyperkalemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hypokalemia 104) All of the following are true about Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS), except: A) Albumino-Cytological dissociation B) Ascending paralysis C) Flaccid paralysis D) Sensory level 105) The most effective drug against M. leprae is: A) Prothionamide. B) Rifampicin. C) Clofazimine. D) Dapsone. 106) Kartagener's syndrome includes all EXCEPT: A) Bronchiectasis B) Bronchitis C) Situs inversus D) Sinusitis 107) Most common causative organism of TB in AIDS patients is:

A) M.tuberculosis B) M.Kansasii C) M.aveuium intracellulare D) M.Scrofulaceum 108) Which of the following statements about Wilsons disease is true: A) Low serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper B) Low serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper C) High serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper D) High Serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper 109) Central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except: A) Hypocalcemia B) Hyponatremia C) Acidosis D) Hyperosmolarity 110) Radiological features of left ventricular heart failure are all, except: A) oligenic lung fields B) cardiomegaly C) increased flow in upper lobe veins D) kerly B lines 111) Which of the following is not true about Bergers disease? A) The pathologic changes are proliferation and usually confined to mesangial cells; usually focal and segmental. B) Absence of associated proteinuria is pathognomonic. C) On immunoflurorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG. D) Hematuria may be gross or microscopic. 112) About cardiopulmonary resuscitation true is :

A) The radial pulse in ventricular fibrillation is irregularly irregular B) The best route for the administration of adrenaline is intra cardiac C) Establishment of airway, breathing and circulation should precede the administration of drugs D) All of the above 113) Splenomegaly is seen in late stages of all except : A) Infectious mononucleosis B) Kala-azar C) Malaria D) Sickle cell anaemia 114) A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is: A) Superior vena caval obstruction. B) Lung cancer. C) Hodgkins lymphoma. D) Thymoma. 115) AIDS pneumonia occurs in all except : A) CMV B) Kaposi's sarcoma C) Pmeumocystis carinii D) Non-specific interstitial pneumonia 116) Which of the following is pan-T lymphocyte marker? A) CD2. B) CD3. C) CD25 D) CD19. 117) Ascaris lumbricoidis true is it causes: A) Iron deficiency anamia B) Intestinal obstruction , bile duct obstruction, apendicitis C) Intestinal haemorrhage D) Perianal pruritus

118) Which one of the following statements is wrong regarding adult polycystic kidney disease? A) Typically manifests in the 3rd decade B) Kidney are enlarged in size C) Intracranial aneurysms may be associated D) The presentation is unilateral 119) An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconscious state. His blood sugar measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive for sugar and ketones. Drug most useful in management is: A) Troglitazone B) Insulin C) Chlorpropamide D) Glibenclamide 120) A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation? A) Hematocrit B) Reticulocyte count C) Red cell mass D) Total leukocyte count 121) In Steven-Johnson syndrome all are seen except : A) Macules B) Nodules C) Erythema multiforme D) Blisters 122) Hypertrichosis is seen with following drugs EXCEPT: A) Minoxidil B) Barbiturates C) Cyclosporine D) Phenytoin

D) Starvation. 123) All of the following are associated with hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism in males, except: A) Kallmans syndrome B) Klinefelters syndrome C) Viral orchitis D) Noonan syndrome 124) True about dementia of Alzheimer's disease is : A) Increase in nicotonic receptors in brain B) Inhibition of muscarinic receptors C) Acetylcholine transferase is inhibited D) None 125) A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexure invading renal papillae. Histopathology reports it as lymphoma. True statement is: A) Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examination is performed B) II E stage C) III E stage D) IV E stage 126) Wickham's striae is characteristically is seen in: A) Lichen planus B) Pemphigus C) Psoriasis D) Pemphigoid 127) Heat stroke true is all except : A) Fatal if not treated B) Profuse sweating C) Core temperature is > 41.5C D) Ice cold water causes effective cooling 128) Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by: A) Cholera. B) Ethylene glycol poisoning. C) Lactic acidosis. 129) A woman has bilateral headache that worsens with emotional stress. She has two children, both doing badly in school. Diagnosis is: A) Tension headache B) Trigeminal neuralgia C) Cluster headache D) Migraine 130) A 32-year-old female, asymptomatic, not requiring blood transfusion, presents with Hb 13.0 gm/dl. Her HbF levels are 95%, Hb A2 1.5%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Beta heterozygous thalassemia B) Thalassemia intermedia C) Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin D) Beta homozygous thalassemia 131) IN a patient with head injury damage in the brain is aggravated by A) Hypocapnia B) Hyperglycemia C) Serum osmolality D) Hypothermia 132) X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in : A) Polycystic kidney disease B) Cystic fibrosis C) Vitamin D resistant rickets D) Von Willebrand's disease 133) Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is A) Aneurysm B) Arterio-venous malformation C) Hypertension D) Bleeding disorders 134) Antidote of Rodenticide is: A)

Concentrated platelets B) Vitamin K1 C) Plasma expander D) Packed cells 135) All are autosomal dominant diseases except : A) Myotonic dystrophy B) Sickle cell anemia C) Huntington's disease D) Neurofibromatosis 136) Candial hyphae can be stained using A) toluidine blue stain B) Van Gieson's stain C) periodic acid Schiff stain D) Masson trichrome stain 137) Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi's sarcoma? A) human herpes virus 1 B) human herpes virus 3 C) human herpes virus 2 D) human herpes virus 4 138) Immunoglobin class which crosses the placenta is A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE 139) The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except: A) Specific IgM antibodies Immunity against rubella B) Specific IgM antibodies Detection of acute infection C) Zeil-Neelson staining Detection of mycobacteria

D) Immunoflorescence Detection of influenza virus 140) The organism most resistant to thermal inactivation is A) streptococcus mutans B) virus C) spirochets D) bacterial spores 141) Kaposi's sarcoma is of A) viral origin B) fungal origin C) bacterial origin D) radiation origin 142) Epidemic typhus is caused by : A) R. akari B) R. rickettsiae C) R. prowazaki D) R. typhii 143) Typhoid carriers are detected by following EXCEPT: A) Widal test B) Isolation of the bacteria from urine C) Isolation of the bacteria from bile D) 'Vi' antigen 144) Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except: A) Bacillus cereus B) Clostridium perfringens C) Staphylococcus D) Yersinia enterocolitica 145) Southern blot is done for: A) AIDS B) DNA analysis C) RNA analysis D) All of the above 146) Which of the following temperature pressure does autoclave use?

A) 133oF for 1 hour B) 121oC for 15 lbs C) 232oF for 30 minutes D) 160oC for 30 minutes 147) The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except: A) The most common form of melioidosis is pulmonary infection. B) The agent is a grain negative aerobic bacteria. C) It is caused by Burkholderia mallei. D) Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain. 148) Calabar/Fugitive swelling caused by: A) Brugia malay B) Onchocera-volvulus C) Loa-Loa D) Ankylostoma duodenale 149) HLA-B27 histocompatibility antigen is seen in A) Felty's syndrome B) Sjogren's disease C) scleroderma D) Ankylosing spondilitis 150) Squamous papilloma is induced by A) HSV B) HPV C) CMV D) EBV 151) S4 Dane particle refers to A) hepatitis E virus B) hepatitis C virus C) hepatitis B virus D) hepatitis A virus

152) Peptidoglycans are present in: A) Gram '-ve'bacteria B) Fungi C) Gram '+ve' bacteria D) Protozoa 153) Staphylococci can persist in skin due to the production of which of the following : A) Coagulase B) Lipase C) Phosphatase D) Catalase 154) What is chemiclave? A) Chemical vapour sterilization B) Submerging the instruments for 4 hours C) Boiling for 2 hours then submerging for 2 hours D) None of the above 155) Measured along the conjugata vera obstetrica, the narrowing of the diameter of the pelvic inlet in the first degree is: A) 9-11 centimeters B) 11-12 centimeters C) 7-9 centimeters D) less than 7 centimeters 156) In severe anemia during pregnancy, the serum hemoglobin is in the range of: A) 8.0-9.27 mmo/1 B) 0.6 mmo/1 C) 6.8-8.0 mmo/1 D) 5.6-6.8 mmo/I 157) The most prevalent cause of precocious puberty in girls is: A) hypothyroidism B) Albright's syndrome C) gonadal neoplasms D) idiopathic causes 158) Is active immunization against mumps and varicella permitted during pregnancy?

A) yes B) no C) it is permitted under certain conditions D) none of these 159) A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third one is: A) 0% B) 25% C) 10% D) 50% 160) What is the influence of pregnancy on epilepsy? A) seizure threshold is lower B) seizure threshold is higher C) there is no relation between pregnancy and seizure threshold D) none of the above 161) The term "hypotonic contraction failure" means: A) that contractions occur infrequently, their amplitude is low just as the basal tone of the uterine musculature B) that the intensity of contractions gradually decreases during the progress of labor C) that contractions are ineffective from the start of labor D) that contractions occur infrequently, their amplitude is low but the basal tone of the uterine musculature is normal 162) Which of the following is true regarding renal clearance? A) Para amino hippuric acid is used for measuring renal plasma flow. B) Normal value of insulin clearance is 1.25 litres/minute. C) Renal blood flow is 400 ml/ minute . D) Insulin is very useful for determination of renal blood flow. 163) Exposure to vinyl chloride predisposes to :

A) Hepatoblastoma B) Angio sarcoma liver C) Cholangio carcinoma D) Hepatocellular carcinoma 164) The transformation of simple columnar epithelium of cervix into squamous epithelium is called as : A) CIN B) Dysplasia C) Anaplasia D) Metaplasia 165) Most common presentation of genitourinary TB is: A) Menorrhagia B) Secondary amenorrhoea 10% C) Primary amenorrhoae D) Oligomenorrhoea 166) Lymphocytic infiltration is diagnostic in A) Dysgerminoma B) Dermoid cyst C) Brenner's tumour D) Struma ovarii 167) Tumour marker of chorio carcinoma is : A) Alpha feto protein B) Chorio embryonic antigen C) CA-125 D) Human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) 168) A lady comes with history of repeated brownish bleeding per vaginum which is foul smelling and complains of hemoptysis. After suction and evacuation, her urine shows high levels of hCG and X-ray chest shows opacities in the lung, the most likely diagnosis is : A) Carcinoma endometrium B) Choriocarcinoma with lung secondaries C) Ca Cx D) Ovarian carcinoma

169) Which of the following is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the occipitosterior position: A) Weak uterine contractions B) God levator ani muscle contractions C) Moderate size fetus D) Gynecoid pelvis 170) Placenta previa is characterized by all EXCEPT A) Presents after first trimester B) Painless bleeding C) causeless bleeding D) Recurrent bleeding 171) Anxious mother with liability of mood seen in first week after delivery : A) Puerperal psychosis B) Postnatal depression symptoms C) Postnatal blues D) Postpartum psychosis 172) Fothergill's repair is also known as A) Le Fort's repair B) Shirodkar's abdominal sling operation C) Manchester operation D) Khann's sling operation 173) Lanugo hair appears at: A) 6 months B) 7 months C) 4 months D) 5 months 174) DIC is seen in all of the following except: A) Extra amniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate . B) Blood loss C) Amniotic fluid embolism D) Intrauterine death 175) Asherman's syndrome is caused by all except: A) Normal delivery

B) D and C C) Abortion D) Endometriosis 176) Chromosome pattern in Klinefelter's syndrome is : A) XO B) XXX C) XY D) XX 177) All are seen in Argyll Robertson pupil except ? A) Near reflex normal B) Vision normal C) Consensual reflex normal D) Direct reflex absent 178) EDTA is used in treatment of A) Corneal ulcers B) Band shape keratopathy C) Open angle glaucoma D) Anterior synechae 179) Bilateral ptosis is not seen in: A) Marfans syndrome B) Kearns-Sayre syndrome C) Myaesthenia gravis D) Myotonic dystrophy 180) Relative afferent papillary defect (RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to: A) Lateral geniculate body B) Optic tract C) Occulomotor nerve D) Optic nerve 181) The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is A) Conjuctivitis B) Refractive error C) Trachoma D) Cataract

182) Painful eye movement is a feature of A) Papillitis B) Iridocyclitis C) Corneal ulcer D) Papilloedema 183) In pupillary reflex nerve tested is A) 2nd B) 3rd C) Both 2nd and 3rd D) 4th 184) The Epikeratophakia type of keratoplasty is done mainly for : A) Adult type of aphakia B) Mild myopia C) For neuroparalytic or exposure keratitis D) Aphakia in children 185) Wavelength of Nd : Yag laser A) 1040 nm B) 1040 mm C) 1040 cm D) All of the above 186) Patient has a tumour in the temporal lobe. The hemianopia characteristic of this is : A) Contralateral lower quadrantanopia B) Ipsilateral upper quadrantanopia C) Contralateral upper quadrantanopia D) Ipsilateral lower quadrantanopia 187) SAFE strategy is recommended for the control of A) Diabetic retinopathy B) Glaucoma C) Cataract D) Trachoma

188) Which of the following PFCL has highest molecular weight? A) Perfluora decalin B) Perfluoro propane C) Perfluoro phenanthrene D) Perfluoro-n-octane 189) All of the following are associated with supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus, except: A) It is uncommon after 15 years of age B) Extension type FRACTURE is more common than the flexion type C) Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved D) Cubitus varus deformity commonly results following malunion 190) Regarding Smith's fracture which of the following is true : A) Below elbow pop cast B) Ventral dislocation of wrist C) Dorsiflexion of wrist D) Carpal tunnel syndrome 191) The diagnostic investigation in multiple myeloma is: A) Bence-Jones protein in urine B) Auto antibodies in urinary proteins C) Elevated ESR D) Serum electrophoresis 192) The immediate treatment of unstable tibial plateau fracture is: A) Internal fixation with plate and screw B) External fixator C) Internal fixation with nail D) Complete bed rest 193) The abnormal deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dyhydrate crystals (CPPD) would causes : A) Pseudoankylosng spondylitis B) Pseudogout C) Pseudo-osteoarthritis D) Pseudorheumatoid arthritis

194) In a patient with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrants evaluation of: A) Lower cervical spine B) Thoracic spine C) Upper cervical spine D) Lumbar spine 195) The characteristic triad of Klippel Feil syndrome includes all of the following, except: A) Elevated scapula B) Short neck C) Limited neck movements D) Low hair line 196) Kohler's disease involves: A) Navicular bone B) Femoral head C) Tibial tubercle D) Lunate bone 197) A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory level up to the upper border of sternum and a respiratory rate of 35/minutes. The likely level of lesion is: A) T1-T2 B) C1-C2 C) T3-T4 D) C4-C5 198) Calcium oxalate stones are seen in : A) Thiazide treatment B) Inflammatory bowel disease C) ARF D) CRF 199) A 2-month baby presents with history of jaundice, turmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth. Examination reveals liver span of 10 cms, firm in consistency and spleen of 3 cms. The most specific investigation for establishing the diagnosis would be: A) Peroperative cholangiogram.

B) Liver biopsy. C) Ultrasound abdomen. D) Liver function tests. 200) Which of the following is the most likely cause of a bilious vomit of a newborn? A) achalasia B) pyloric stenosis C) esophageal atresia D) volvulus of the small intestine 201) The 3-year-old sister of a newborn baby develops a cough diagnosed as pertusis by nasopharyngeal culture. The mother gives a history of having been immunized as a child. A correct statement regarding this clinical situation is : A) Hyperimmune globulin is effective in protecting the infant. B) Erythromycin should be administered prophylactically to the infant. C) Mother has no risk of acquiring the disease because she was immunized. D) Risk to the infant depends on immune status of the mother. 202) A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless, irritability and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to be at risk for MI. Likely diagnosis is: A) VSD B) Anomalous coronary artery C) ASD D) TOF 203) A 2-year-old boy has vitamin D resistant rickets. His investigations revealed serum Calcium- 9 mg/dl, Phosphate-2.4 mg.dl, alkaline phosphatase-1041 IU, normal intact parathyroid hormone and bicarbonate 22 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? A) Hypophosphatemic rickets B) Hypoparathyroidism

C) Distal renal tubular acidosis D) Vitamin D dependent rickets 204) The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is: A) Trauma. B) Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis. C) Interstitial nephritis. D) Tuberculosis. 205) A male child of 15 years, with a mental age of 9 years has an IQ of: A) 70 B) 80 C) 60 D) 50 206) What is to be done if a leukemia or other malignancy is suspected in a patient? A) the patient is referred to an oncology department after performing the necessary tests, determination of the diagnosis and introduction of the indicated therapy B) regardless of the general clinical state, the patient is referred to an oncology department C) the patient is referred to an oncology department following performance of the necessary tests and a determination of the exact diagnosis D) a biopsy sample is taken for histologic examination; determination of the diagnosis; following this, the patient is referred to an oncology department E) management of the life-threatening conditions; following this, the patient is referred to an oncology department 207) All of the following may occur in Noonans syndrome except: A) Autosomal dominant transmission. B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. C) Infertility in females. D) Cryptorchidism.

208) All of the following abnormalities of body constitution and function can be detected in atrophy, EXCEPT: A) a tendency for hypothermia is obseived B) a more frequent occurrence of interstitial pneumonia is observed in older, atrophic infants C) a tendency for hypoglycemia is observed D) the subcutaneous adipose tissue of the face is lost first 209) A 7-year old boy is admitted to a hospital for evaluation of vomiting and dehydration. Physical examination is otherwise normal except for a minimal hyper pigmentation of the nipples. Serum sodium and potassium concentrations are 120 meg/L and 9meg/L, respectively. The most likely diagnosis is : A) Secondary hypothyroidism B) Hyperaldosteronism C) Pan hypopituitarism D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 210) All of the following statements concerning "rare" isoimmunization are correct, EXCEPT: A) hemolysis following transfusion of blood identical in Rh(D) and ABO blood groups is indicative of a "rare" isoimmunization B) the direct Coombs' test usually becomes positive in case of hemolysis caused by the transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood C) the mother, during transfusion of blood identical in main blood groups, is still at risk for the development of a severe hemolysic complication D) a newborn with "rare" isoimmunization associated with jaundice and anemia should only receive a transfusion of selected, compatible blood

211) Case Study: The family history of a 2-year-old child reveals, like both his parents, Allergic rhinitis caused by ragweed. The child also has had pseudocroup (thymic asthma) twice. Is an allergological examination indicated in this case? A) yes, because there is a positive family history for allergy B) yes, because pseudocroup is a forerunner of bronchial asthma C) yes, because desensitization with the demonstrated allergen can be used to prevent the development of a pseudocroup D) no, because there is no relationship between ragweed allergy and pseudocroup, plus sensitivity for other allergens cannot be usually demonstrated 212) The renal biopsy of a 6-year-old boy with recurrent gross hematuria shows IgA nephropathy. The urinary protein excretion is 130 mg/day. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management? A) Urinary bag sample B) Start Cyclosporine C) Give Azathioprine D) Administer corticosteroids 213) The immediate treatment of 10 kg weight infants presented with tetany: A) IV calcium gluconate with cardiac monitoring B) IV slow phenobarbitone C) Wait and watch D) IV Diazepam 214) A 15-year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erythema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of: A) Cell mediated hypersensitivity. B)

Release of complement C3b. C) Localised immune-complex deposition. D) Localized anaphylaxis. 215) A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcytic picture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has a positive family history. Next investigation of choice is: A) Osmotic fragility test B) Hb electrophoresis C) liver function tests D) Coombs test 216) kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of: A) Minimal change disease. B) Thrombotic microangiopathy. C) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. D) Proliferative glomerulonephritis. 217) The size of the red blood cells is measured by A) MCV B) MCHC tumour C) ESR tumour D) MCH 218) Tumor market for small cell carcinoma and non small cell carcinoma lung is : A) N-myc B) K-RAS C) P 16 1NK4a D) P 53 219) In Wegener's granulomatosus cytoplasmic antineutrophilic antibiotics are directed against : A) Proteinase 3 B) Proteinase 2

C) Proteinase 1 D) Proteinase 4 220) Migratory thrombophelibitis is seen in A) Dissaminated cancer B) Rheumatic heart disease C) Libman- sacks endocarditis D) All of the above 221) Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in: A) Whipples disease B) Vibrio cholerae infection C) Amyloidosis D) Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease 222) Rise in Hb after oral therapy occurs after : A) 6 wk B) 4 wk C) 1 wk D) 2 wk 223) Charcot-Leyden crystals and Curshmann's spirals are seen in: A) Emphysema B) Bronchiectasis C) Chronic bronchitis D) Bronchial asthma 224) All are aldosterone antagonists except : A) Lacilactone B) Spironolactone C) Amrinone D) Canrenone 225) Allopurinol is used in the treatment of A) Gout B) Ankylosing spondylitis C) Rheumatoid Arthritis D) Osteoarthritis 226) In digitalis toxicity used is all except : A) Fab fragments

B) KCl infusion C) Lignocaine D) Hemodialysis 227) By knowing the half-life of a drug it would help in knowing the : A) Median effective dose B) Potency of drug C) Frequency of dosing D) Median lethal dose 228) DOC for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is : A) Doxycyclin B) Penicillin C) Cotrimaxazole D) Erythromycin 229) Dapsone is useful in all of the following except : A) Leprosy B) Dermatitis herpetiformis C) Lymphoma D) Mycetoma 230) 60 year-old-man known hypertensive on antihypertension treatment, is also a case of diabetes on insulin. Which of the following should not be used? A) Propranolol B) Enalapril C) Nifedipine D) Methydopa 231) Acetylcholine is not used commersially because: A) Costly B) Long duration of action C) crosses blood brain barrier D) Rapidly destroyed in the body 232) Immunosuppresive agents are : A) Cyclosporine and Corticosteriods B) Cefexime and Cefodoxime

C) Sulfa and Penicillins D) Levamisole and BCG 233) Darzolamide MOA is : A) Cytochrome P-450 inducer B) Cytochrome P-450 inhibitor C) Systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor D) Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor 234) All of them are mydriatics except : A) Cyclopentolate B) Timolol C) Homatropine D) Tropicamide 235) All of the following about meperidine are true except: A) Greater spasmogenic action than morphine B) Has shorter half-life then morphine. C) Has dependency D) Better oral availability 236) Which of the following drug does not cause increase in level of prolactin? A) Metoclopramide B) Reserpine C) Lasix D) Haloperidol 237) Treatment of choice for acute migraine is : A) Propanolol B) Amitryptyline C) Sumatriptan D) Flunarizine 238) The benzodiazepin used in epilepsy is : A) Clonazepam B) Oxazepam C) Nitrazepam D) Lorazepam 239) MOA of abciximab is : A) Inhibits thromboxane A2 formation

B) Inhibits platelet aggregation and binds to integrin receptors C) a II b beta3 receptor inhibition D) Cyclo-oxygenase II inhibitor 240) Drug of choice in Toxoplasmosis is: A) Penicillins B) Chloramphenicol C) Sodium stibgluconate D) Sulfadiazine 241) Acne is commonest side effect of : A) Corticosteriods B) Dapsone C) Clofazamine D) All of the above 242) The stimulation of Golgi tendon organ causes A) Decreases the permeability of the glomerular muscle B) Increases gamma efferent discharges to ipsiplateral flexor muscle spindles C) Sensory nerve fibers Ib leads to the production of IPSP'S on the motor neurons D) Water reabsorbtion increases in the renal tubules 243) Carotid sinus massage produces: A) Reflex tahycardia B) Hyperpnea C) Reflex bradycardia D) Reflex bradypnea 244) The venous concentration of oxygen is lower than that of mixed blood in which of following organs? A) Heart B) Kidney C) Lungs D) Skin 245) In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen:

A) Increased Na+ excretion B) Increased Na+ reabsorption C) Increased K+ excretion D) Decreased K+ excretion 246) Which of the following experiments demonstrates cephalic phase on gastric secretion? A) Parlov's pouch B) Heidenhan's pouch C) Condition reflex D) None of the above 247) Maximum absorption of water takes place in: A) Distal convoluted tubule B) Loop of Henle C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Collecting duct 248) Glucose cannot be added to blood from the glycogen stored in the muscle because of absence of _________ in muscle : A) Lactate dehydrogenase B) Phospho glucomutase C) Glucose 6-phosphatase D) Glycogen phosphorylase 249) Hyperkalemia stimulates secretion of A) Parathormone B) ADH C) Secretin D) Aldosterone 250) Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by: A) Increase in RBF. B) ECF volume contraction. C) Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity. D) Increase in CFR.

251) The following factors increase the cardiac output except A) afterload B) myocardial contractility C) preload D) heart rate 252) Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following conditions, except: A) Infants B) Pseudotumor cerebri C) Hypothyroidism D) Recurrent lumbar puncture 253) Cyanosis is ischaemic hypoxia is due to : A) Decreased oxygen aturation in haemoglobin B) Decreased blood flow to the tissue C) Decreased oxygen saturation in arterial blood D) Capillary leakage 254) All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin except those found in: A) Cutaneous circulation B) Hepatic circulation C) Renal circulation. D) Cerebral microcirculation. 255) Which of the following is true about CSF? A) Passes from IIIrd to IVth ventricle B) Pressure is 600-800 mm of CSF C) Produced only in choroid plexus D) CSF production rate is 150 ml/day 256) Bradykinin causes A) Inhibition of the vascular smooth muscle B) Stimulation of the visceral smooth muscle C) Stimulation of the vascular smooth muscle D) Inhibition of the visceral smooth muscle 257) All of the following are hallucinogens, except: A) LSD B) Methylphendate.

C) Mescaline. D) Phenylcyclidine. 258) A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thought and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case? A) Mild depressive episode B) Mixed anxiety depression C) GAD D) Adjustment disorder 259) Which of the sexual disorders listed below are characterized by the statement that psychologically immature young males are usually aggressive to their "victims" in order to obtain sexual gratification? A) homosexuality B) exhibitionism C) erection disorder D) transsexualism 260) To properly develop a good behavior in a child, it is advisable to: A) punish the child B) reward the child C) both of the above D) none of the above 261) Alcohol paranoia is associated with: A) Fixed delusions B) Hallucinations C) Drowsiness D) Impulse agitation 262) Which of the following statements concerning suicide are correct? A) women die from suicide more often than men

B) a suicide can reliably be predicted by certain clinical features C) the ratio of suicides with a fatal outcome decreases with age D) a conversation with the patient about his/her ideas of suicide may protect the patient from being a potential victim 263) Possible causes of organic anxiety disorders include: A) pheochromocytoma B) the withdrawal of sedatives or sleeping pills C) an excessive use of caffeine D) hypoparathyroidism 264) Pseudoparalysis rosary, Frenkel's line, pencil thin cortex on X-ray is seen in which of the following deficiency : A) Fatty acid deficiency B) Vitamin C deficiency C) Vitamin A deficiency D) Vitamin D deficiency 265) Earliest radiological sign of pulmonary venous hypertension in chest X-ray is A) cephalization of pulmonary vascularity B) pleural effusion C) kerley B lines D) alveolar pulmonary edema 266) In pulm. embolism, finding in perfusion scan is A) perfusion defect with normal lung scan and radiography B) tenting of diaphragm C) normal chest scan D) perfusion segmental defect 267) Mediastinal lymph node calcification is seen in which one of the following ? A) bronchiectasis B) lymphoma C) metastatic neoplasm D) sarcoidosis

268) Kamla, a 59 years old woman, has a left femoral vein thrombosis during a pregnancy 30 year ago. The left greater saphenous vein had been stripped at age 21. She now presents with a large non healing ulceration over the medial left calf, which has continuously progressed despite bedrest, elevation, and use of a support stocking. Descending phlebography of the left leg demonstrates a patent deep venous system, with free flow of dye from the groin to foot. The first profunda femoris valve is competent. Appropriate management might include which of the following: A) Division of the superficial femoral vein in the groin and transposition of its distal end onto the profunda femoris vein below the level of the competent profunda valve B) Saphenous venous crossover graft with anastomosis of the end of the right saphenous vein onto the side of competent femoral vein C) Ligated iliofemoral venous thrombectomy with creation of the temporary arteriovenous fistula D) Subfascial ligation of perforating veins in the left calf. 269) All of the following statements about acute adrenal insufficiency are true except: A) Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondary to exogenous glucocorticoid administration B) Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renal tubule sodium resorption C) Acute adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension D) Hyperglycemia is usually present 270) In chronic pancreatitis not seen is : A) Hypercalcemia B) Steatorrhea C) Diabetes mellitus D) Parenchymal calcification

271) All of the following are associated with thyroid storm, except: A) I131 therapy for thyrotoxicosis B) Stressful illness in thyrotoxicosis C) Surgery for thyrotoxicosis D) Surgery for thyroiditis 272) Reactionary haemorrhage occurs within: A) 1-2 days B) < 24 hour C) 1-7 days D) After 7 days 273) Cushing reflex is: A) ?Mean arterial pressure with Increase intra cranial pressure B) ?Mean arterial pressure with Decrease intra cranial pressure C) ?Mean arterial pressure with Decrease intracranial pressure D) ?Mean arterial pressure with Increase intra cranial pressure 274) Spider leg appearance is seen in : A) Renal TB B) Angiomyolipomas C) Polycystic kidneys D) Horse shoe kidney 275) All of following are features of barium swallow X-ray in achalasia cardia except : A) Cork screw oesophagus B) Presence of air fluid levels C) Dilated oesophagus with narrow lower end D) Absence of fundic gas shadow

276) Lumpy jaw is seen in: A) Nocardia B) Blastomycosis C) Actinomycosis D) Chromomycosis 277) The treatment of malignant salivary gland tumor is : A) Chemotherapy B) Surgery with lymph node dissection C) Radiotherapy D) Simple excision 278) Most common complication of abdominal aorta aneurysm surgery is : A) Fistula formation B) Infection C) Respiratory problem D) Haemorrhage 279) The procedure to stop bleeding from scalp is : A) Cautery B) Ligature C) Eversion of galea aponeurotica D) None of the above 280) Struma- lymphomatosa term is used for: A) Reidle's thyroiditis B) De-Quervain thyroiditis C) Suppurative thyroiditis D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis 281) Fecal fistula at the umbilicus is due to : A) Vesico intestinal diverticulum B) Patent rachus C) Infection D) Omphalocele 282) An adult presented with hemetemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. Ct scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into

surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At laparotomy neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of stomach and the pancreas extending 6 cm up to tail of pancreas. What will be the most appropriate surgical management? A) Partial gastrectomy + distal pancreatectomy B) Antrectomy and vagotomy C) Closure of the abdomen D) Partial gastrectomy + distal pancreatectomy + splenectomy 283) HIV patient with CD4 count less than 100; having fistula in ano, treatment is : A) Seton B) Fistulectomy C) Fistulotomy D) None of the above 284) About keloid true is : A) It is due to hypertrophy of epidermis B) It is seen only for manubrium sterni C) Formed from hypertrophy of scar tissue D) Excision and plastic surgery is the treatment 285) In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be: A) Pylorus B) Antrum C) Pyloric canal D) Duodenum 286) Which of the following grading methods is used to evaluate the prognosis / outcome after subarachnoid hemorrhage? A) Glasgow Blatchford bleeding score B) Glasgow coma scale C) Intracerebral hemorrhage score D) Hess and hunt scale 287) Which of the following about chronic gastric ulcer is true? A) Hour glass contracture can occur

B) Ulcer is seen in the acid secreting part of stomach C) gastric acid secretion is increased D) Malignancy is common 288) Most common site of urethral carcinoma in men is: A) Penile urethra B) Prostatic urethra C) Bulbomembranous urethra D) Fossa Navicularis 289) Most common congenital urethral abnormalities is: A) Meatal stenosis B) Epispadias C) Diverticula D) Hypospadias 290) A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest pain and was diagnosed to have coronary artery disease. During routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallbladder stones. There was no past history of biliary colic or jaundice. What is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones: A) No surgery for gallbladder stones B) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy C) ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones D) Open cholecystectomy 291) Most common diaphragmatic hernia in children is: A) Through the foramen of Morgagni B) Through the foramen of Bochdalek C) Eventration of the diaphragm D) Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm 292) In deep burns, all are seen except : A) Yellow moulded skin B) Reduced sensation C) Dehydration D) Pink skin

293) Which of following statements regarding achalasia cardia is most accurate : A) Longitudinal tears in oesophagus seen . B) There are tears at lower end of oesphagus. C) Lower oesophageal tone is reduced. D) On long term carcinoma oesophagus develops. 294) In which of the following conditions splenectomy is not useful? A) Porphyria. B) Sickle cell disease with large spleen . C) Hereditary spherocytosis. D) Thalassemia. 295) All are true about ameobiasis caused by E. histolytica except : A) It has an incubation period of two to four weeks. B) Sigmoidoscopic examination of the colon may reveal typical flask shaped ulers. C) Hepatic amoebiasis most commonly occurs on the left lobe of liver D) Diarrhoea is usually mucus in nature mixed with blood. 296) Urinary stones are found in which of the following conditions? A) Old age B) Athersclerosis C) Diabetes mellitus D) Paraplegia 297) Tamoxifen is used in treatment of which carcinoma : A) Breast B) Testis C) Prostate D) Ovary 298) Early stage of trauma is characterized by: A) Catabolism. B) Gluconeogenesis.

C) Anabolism. D) Glycogenesis. 299) All are true about Peyronie's disease EXCEPT: A) Self limiting B) Association with Dupvytren's contracture C) Medial treatment is effective D) Calcified plaques 300) Multifocality is seen in which carcinoma : A) Follicular B) Medullary C) Anaplastic D) Papillary