PMRoadTrip V4Questions

Project Management Road Trip for the Project Management Professional:
Your Key to PMP Certification and Understanding the PMBOK Fourth Edition
Copyright 2009 by J. Alex Sherrer
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
Version 2010.01.29
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PMI, PMP, Project Management Professional and PMBOK are registered certification marks of
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Although the author has made every effort to ensure accuracy and completeness of information contained
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contained herein.
PMP PRACTICE EXAMINATION
Project Management Road Trip 1 PMP Practice Examination
Copyright 2009, J. Alex Sherrer www.PMRoadTrip.com
1. Projects end when one of three general situations occurs. Which one of the following is not one of
those situations?
a. The project charter has been fulfilled.
b. The scope has been achieved.
c. The project objective cannot be achieved.
d. The project objective is no longer needed.
2. Which statement identifies the give interpersonal skills needed by project managers?
a. Leading, communicating, negotiating, problem-solving, and influencing.
b. Financial management, organizational theories, procurement management, contracts &
commercial law, and personnel administration.
c. Project selection methods, project management methodology, build methodology, quality
management, and project management maturity models.
d. Regulations, standards, project management, contracts & commercial law, and personnel
management.
3. Pierre has been asked to give his opinion on which of four projects should be his organization's top
priority. Project A has a future value of $110,000; project B has a future value of $150,000; project C has
a future value of $75,000; and project D has a future value of $50,000. Based only on this information,
which should he suggest?
a. Project A
b. Project C
c. Project B
d. Project D
4. Due to an opportunity presented by the business economy, a project's scope was expanded to take
advantage of the situation. Marketplace conditions are best categorized as which of the following?
a. Organizational process assets
b. Work performance information
c. Organizational theory
d. Enterprise environmental factors
Self-test
5. One of Andelko's project team members continues to fall behind in her work and has jeopardized the
project schedule. Andelko has told her that she has five days to get the work back on schedule or she'll be
dismissed from the project. What base of power is Andelko relying on in this situation?
a. Coercive
b. Formal
c. Normative
d. Referent
6. A project manager has the least amount of authority and control in which type of organizational
structure?
a. Matrix
b. Projectized
c. Functional
d. PMO
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?
a. temporary endeavor
b. unconstrained resources
c. performed by people
d. results in a unique product, service, or result
8. Madihah is presenting a training program on linear/non-linear programming, integer programming,
dynamic programming, and multi-objective programming. What topic is Madihah discussing?
a. Quality control methods
b. Constrained optimization methods
c. Risk quantitative analysis methods
d. Schedule scenario methods
9. Salvador's organization takes a management by projects approach. Which one of the following
statements could he use to describe what this approach is?
a. All day-to-day operations are begun by creating a project charter.
b. Employees are organized into a projectized hierarchical structure.
c. A PMP authorizes and subsequently oversees project management activities.
d. Operational efforts are planned, executed, and managed as if they were projects.
10. A project must fulfill a safety requirement that is necessary for governmental compliance and to avoid
fines if not properly followed. This requirement is an example of which one of the following?
a. Standard
b. Discretionary requirement
c. Regulation
d. Compromised requirement
11. If Danji is using multi-objective programming, what activity is she most likely performing?
a. Performing quality control
b. Checking earned value measurements
c. Performing project selection methods
d. Creating a project schedule network diagram
12. The values, beliefs, assumptions, and behavior of the performing company are best described as:
a. Project management methodology
b. Quality management methodology
c. Risk management methodology
d. Organizational culture
13. A project manager is assisting his organization's project selection committee choose one of four
projects to be undertaken. Project DEF has an ROI of 1.5 and a payback period of 18 months; project GHI
has an ROI of 1.2 and a payback period of 3 months; project NOP has an ROI of 1.8 and a payback period
of 24 months; project CDE has an ROI of 1.1 and a payback period of 17 months. Based only on this
data, what project should the project manager recommend be undertaken?
a. DEF
b. NOP
c. CDE
d. GHI
14. A project manager is facilitating discussions between stakeholders to resolve a disagreement over
project objectives. Who is responsible for successfully negotiating a solution in this situation?
a. Project sponsor
b. Project manager
c. Stakeholders
d. Functional manager
15. The project team is using documents from past projects as starting templates for the current project.
Project files, templates, and historical information are also known as which one of the following?
a. Enterprise environmental factors
c. Organizational process assets
d. Organizational theory
16. The triple constraint must be properly balanced to achieve project quality. Which one of the following
is not an element of the triple constraint?
a. Risk
b. Time
c. Scope
d. Cost
17. Francisco is the project manager of a project that is being executed in a foreign country. While
negotiating project contracts with suppliers, many of the vendors are bringing token gifts to the project
team. Francisco is concerned that this may influence the selection process, but the project team tells him
that gifts are customary. What should Francisco do first?
a. Tell the suppliers to cease giving gifts to the team.
b. Find out if the supplier's behavior is indeed part of the country's culture.
c. Have the project team return all gifts back to the vendors.
d. Inform the suppliers that further gifts will disqualify them from a contract.
18. Which one statement below is true?
a. Risk is lowest in early phases, peaking in later project phases.
b. Stakeholder influence is lowest in a project's early phases.
c. A project is most likely to fail early in its life cycle.
d. Cost is always highest during the initiating, early phases of a project.
19. Of the following projects and based only on this information, which project is the best choice if the
organization can undertake only one of them? Project M will cost 75,000 and will return a benefit of
125,000; Project N will cost 25,000 and will return a benefit of 100,000; Project O will cost 80,000 and
will return a benefit of 130,000; Project P will cost 95,000 and return a benefit of 145,000.
a. Project N
b. Project M
c. Project P
d. Project O
20. Only one knowledge area has processes from each of the five process groups. Which knowledge area
is this?
a. Time Management
b. Cost Management
c. Procurement Management
d. Integration Management
21. A project manager often helps her company develop RFP responses when customers request her
company's services. In a particular proposal, she's fully scoped out the work that will be needed, and she's
provided accurate and reasonable cost estimates. However, her manager is afraid the customer will reject
the proposal because of its cost, and he's asked her to arbitrarily reduce all estimates by 25%. What
should she do?
a. Reduce the estimates but return them to their original values during contract negotiations with the
customer.
b. Refuse to reduce her estimates.
c. Reduce the estimates but encourage the customer to create a reserve fund for contract change
orders.
d. Compromise and reduce her estimates by 12.5%.
22. Ling is helping to champion a massive project in her organization that will have many different
objectives. These objectives are very different but are necessary to support the overall objective. Ling is
worried that it will be hard to manage the different objectives and the work they'll entail. What might she
split these objectives into to make them easier to manage?
a. A portfolio of projects
b. A program of related projects
c. Product life cycle phases
d. Sub-scopes of related products
23. A project manager is assisting her organization's project selection committee choose one of four
projects. Project OPQ has a value of $30,000; project LMN has a value of $15,000; project EFG has a
value of $55,000; and project VWX has a value of $40,000. If project A is chosen, what is the lost
opportunity cost of the projects not selected?
a. $30,000
b. $110,000
c. $55,000
d. $140,000
24. Neleh is a project team member who reports to a supervisor and a project manager. What type of
organizational structure does she most likely work in?
a. Functional
b. TQM
c. Matrix
d. Six Sigma
25. Bianca is explaining to her project team that phases connect the beginning of the project to the end of
the project. Phases constitute which one of the following choices?
a. Project life cycle
b. Product life cycle
c. Deliverable life cycle
d. Scope life cycle
26. The project sponsor has initiated a large, high-profile project that's important to strategic objectives of
the company, and the sponsor has asked Ymir to get started right away. What should be his first step?
a. Develop project charter
b. Perform project selection methods
c. Establish integrated change control
d. Define scope
27. Regardless of the type of project or its phases, the end of a phase results in which one of the
following?
a. Process group change
b. Deliverable
c. Phase charter
d. Iterative planning
28. Which statement about the Project Management Book of Knowledge is false?
a. The PMBOK establishes a methodology that is to be followed as described by the PMBOK for all
projects.
b. The PMBOK processes are best practices that are generally accepted.
c. The PMBOK establishes a project management framework that is applicable to all projects.
d. The PMBOK is a systems-based approach to project management.
29. Project phases always result in which one of the following?
a. Project closure
b. Deliverable(s)
c. Corrective actions
d. Preventative actions
30. A for-hire organization could only undertake one of two projects. Project RST was valued at $90,000
and project UVW was valued at $200,000. If project RST was selected, what was the lost opportunity cost
to the organization?
a. $200,000
b. ($110,000)
c. $110,000
d. 55%
31. The scope baseline is comprised of several elements. What makes up the scope baseline?
a. Preliminary project scope statement, project scope statement, work breakdown structure
b. Project scope statement, work breakdown structure, WBS dictionary
c. Project scope statement, work breakdown structure, activity list
d. Project scope statement, work breakdown structure, activity list
32. A project team leader is discussing good communication skills. She emphasizes that it's the
responsibility of the receiver to make sure the message is received in its entirety and that it's understood.
Which one of the following describes the sender's responsibilities?
a. Ensure the message is clear, complete, and understood.
b. Ensure the receiver is actively listening.
c. Ensure the message is decoded before sending.
d. Ensure the message is acknowledged.
33. The process improvement plan is a component of which one of the following?
a. Project management plan
b. Cost management plan
c. Scope management plan
d. Quality management plan
34. A project team member is helping facilitate scope discussions with the stakeholders. The team
member thinks the scope is ready to submit for final approval. Where can the team member find the steps
necessary for the stakeholders to sign off on the scope statement?
a. Stakeholder analysis
b. Scope change control system
c. Scope management plan
d. Communications management plan
35. The project team needs to procure a project component from a vendor, but the vendor refuses to
provide a bid because the project team can't sufficiently describe what is needed. Of the following, what
has the project team most likely failed to provide the vendor?
a. Procurement statement of work
b. Procurement management plan
c. Contract
d. Evaluation criteria
36. Orynko is going to give a presentation on quality management to the project team. What subject
would she not include in her discussion?
a. EVM
b. TQM
c. Six Sigma
d. ISO 9000
37. Project VWX includes two activities. Activity B can't start until Activity A is completed. What type
of relationship exists between Activity A and Activity B?
a. Finish-finish
b. Start-to-start
c. Start-to-finish
d. Finish-to-start
38. The activity resource requirements document shows that an activity will take eight hours of work. The
project team member is worried because he can't devote his entire day to project work. The project
manager explains to the team member that the eight hours represents the activity's ______.
a. Duration
b. Effort
c. Buffer
d. Reserve
39. Which one of the following is the most accurate description of the project schedule?
a. Shows the critical chain of the project.
b. Shows a Gantt chart view of the project's work.
c. Shows the critical path of the project.
d. Shows the start and end dates for every project activity.
40. The pitch and tone in a spoken message can be referred to as:
a. Nonverbal communication
b. Paralingual communication
c. Noise
d. Informal verbal communication
41. A project team member is reviewing the risk register, but is unsure how the risks's score of 73 relates
to its severity. Where can the team member find the risk scoring methodology and how to determine a
score's severity?
a. Risk breakdown structure
b. Risk management plan
c. Risk categorization
d. Issue log
42. Which one of the following isn't a quality planning tool?
a. Affinity diagrams
b. Nominal group technique
c. Monte Carlo analysis
d. Marginal analysis
43. The vendor has submitted an invoice for payment to the project manager. Where can the project
manager find out what procedures should be followed so that his company's accounting department can
pay the bill?
a. Procurement management plan
b. Procurement statement of work
c. Procurement documents
d. Qualified sellers list
44. Ramon believes that his project team members are ambitious and feel a sense of accomplishment for
the work they do. This is an example of which one of the following?
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Contingency Theory
d. Expectancy Theory
45. A project team member is unsure why one of the risks on the risk register is ranked so high. He wants
to see the details involves in the risk's score. Where can the team member find the details that on what
went into a specific risk's score or ranking?
a. Risk management plan
b. Watchlist
c. Risk log
d. Probability-impact matrix
46. The project team is evaluating what quality level is appropriate based on the costs of achieving the
quality level and the level of benefit provided. What is the project team performing?
a. Earned value analysis
b. Reserve analysis
c. Alternatives analysis
d. Cost-benefit analysis
47. Kasa is performing a first-pass at estimating activity resources and is running into activities that are
difficult to estimate because all of the work and resources needed for them is not yet known. What
estimating method is she most likely to rely on for these activities?
a. Bottom-up
b. Top-down
c. Definitive
d. Variance
48. An activity in a project for a retail store cannot be started until after a specific holiday has passed.
What kind of constraint should be placed on this activity?
a. SNLT
b. FNET
c. SNET
d. FNLT
49. Yura is not sure how far she needs to decompose the work packages into activities. Of the following,
which one is a general guideline she could follow for activity decomposition?
a. An activity should belong to multiple work packages
b. A work package can't have more than one activity
c. There is no guideline because work packages and activities aren't at all related to each other.
d. An activity is assignable to one person
50. A cost estimate with a range of -40% to +40% has been provided to the project sponsor. What type of
estimate is this?
a. Budget
b. Rough order of magnitude
c. Definitive
d. Restrictive
51. The risk register is a component of which one of the following choices:
c. Contingency response plan
d. Fallback plan
52. There are four concurrent activities that each call for a specialized and limited type of personnel
resources. In week seven, the combined need is for 15 of these resources, but the organization has only
12. What technique will most likely be used to match the project's resource need to what can be provided
by the organization?
a. Resource intensifying
b. Crashing
c. Resource calendaring
d. Resource leveling
53. A project has a deliverable that can't be fully decomposed into a work package because all its details
are not yet known. How can this be represented in the WBS?
a. Subproject package
b. Planning package
c. Program package
d. It isn't shown on the WBS until it can be decomposed
54. The activity list is created by decomposing the work packages from the WBS. In what process is the
activity list established?
a. Develop Schedule
b. Define Activities
c. Create WBS
d. Estimate Activity Durations
55. Rebekah is explaining to the team that the project's deliverable will be judged by the customer on how
well it fulfills the customer's requirements and expectations. What subject is she describing to the team?
a. Grade
b. Product analysis
c. Stakeholder analysis
d. Quality
56. Which one of the following leadership theories propose that there is not a single, best leadership style
for all situations, and that the leader has to either adjust his or her style to the situation or adjust the
situation to his or her style.
a. Theory Z
b. Expectancy Theory
d. Hygiene Theory
57. Nadya is putting buffers of reserve time within the schedule at points where there's a risk that scarce
human resources will not be able to complete their deliverables within the activity durations. What
scheduling analysis technique is being practiced?
a. Critical path
b. Resource smoothing
c. Resource leveling
d. Critical chain
58. The majority of a message in a face-to-face discussion is carried through which one of the following?
a. Nonverbal elements
b. Paralingual communication
c. Pitch and tone
d. Word choice
59. The project team has identified a negative risk which has no reasonable activities that can reduce its
probability or impact. This type of risk is best categorized as:
a. Secondary risk
b. Transferred risk
c. Residual risk
d. Mitigated risk
60. Charlotte's project team has fulfilled the project scope statement and the customer has accepted the
deliverables. But the customer later requests a minor change to the deliverable. What should Charlotte
do?
a. Log the change request into the project change control system.
b. Initiate a project contract change request.
c. Work with the customer to initiate a new project to handle its request.
d. Incorporate the change into the schedule.
61. Ferke knows that the more people involved, the more difficult communication will be. The project
already has 9 members, and 2 more will be added. How many more communication challens do the two
additional team members add?
a. 4
b. 36
c. 19
d. 11
62. A project team member has been put in charge of executing risk response activities should a certain
risk event occur. What risk management role is the team member fulfilling?
a. Risk owner
b. Risk action owner
c. Risk manager
d. Risk leader
63. A project involves activities where dangerous chemicals must be handled, so strict safety regulations
must be followed and measures to ensure compliance must be put into place. What project management
component would describe the safety training the project team will be required to attend?
a. Quality management plan
c. Cost management plan
d. Human resource management plan
64. The project team is beginning the quality planning process. While working on the project's quality
management plan, the team found that its organization has a quality policy, the customer has its own
quality policy, and one of the stakeholder groups has another quality policy. Which action should the
team take?
a. Develop a project quality policy that's agreeable to everyone.
b. Use the performing organization's quality policy.
c. Use the customer's quality policy.
d. Use the stakeholder group's quality policy.
65. A purchasing need requires a cost-reimbursable contract because the need cannot be fully described
by the buyer, but the buying organization wants to include some protection from ballooning costs. Which
of the following cost-reimbursable contracts holds the most risk for the buyer as far as costs are
concerned?
a. Cost plus incentive fee
b. Cost plus with a cost-savings budget shared with the seller
c. Cost plus flat fee
d. Cost plus percentage of costs
66. Any uncertain event that impacts project objectives, such as scope, cost, or time, is referred to as:
a. Issue
b. Risk
c. Scope creep
d. Trigger
67. A new project manager is discussing risk management with his team. He's stressed that all known
risks must be accounted for and that all risks have to be avoided because they'll lead to project failure.
What is wrong with his statement?
a. Not all known risks have to be logged
b. Not all risks are to be avoided
c. Only unknown risks lead to project failure
d. Only unknown risks are to be avoided
68. The project team is using data from similar activities on past projects to help in establishing activity
duration estimates. What estimating technique is being used?
a. Parametric
b. Three-point
c. Rough order of magnitude
d. Analogous
69. The project budget, including contingency and management reserves, is referred to as which one of
the following?
a. Reserve budget
b. Project base cost
c. Funding limit reconciliation
d. Project funding requirements
70. Stakeholder analysis is a tool of which one of the following project management processes?
a. Perform Quality Control
b. Define Scope
c. Manage project Team
d. Identify Stakeholders
71. Which statement about the project management plan is not accurate?
a. The project management plan undergoes a form of approval.
b. The project management plan is a formal document.
c. The project management plan is a collection of different and separate documents.
d. The project management plan contains subsidiary plans.
72. The project manager is giving an ad-hoc, oral presentation on project performance during a regular
weekly meeting. This is most likely what level of formality?
a. Formal verbal
b. Informal verbal
c. Informal written
d. Formal written
73. Marco thought he had all the risks identified and planned for in his project, but a typhoon has caused a
shipping delay from a supplier for materials needed for production of a deliverable. What type of event
has occurred?
a. Breach of contract
b. Contract claim
c. Force majeure
d. Critical chain buffer burn
74. Project KLM has an activity that the project team would prefer not be started until another activity has
completed. This sequencing isn't required, but it will help make more efficient use of the project team's
time. What type of sequencing dependency is this?
a. Discretionary
b. Mandatory
c. External
d. Required
75. The project manager is concerned that the price of a commodity needed by the project will fluctuate
during project execution. Since the commodity is needed in several phases, she wants to identify which
phases would be most impacted by price changes. What quantitative risk analysis diagram would best
show this graphically?
a. Influence diagram
b. Decision tree
c. Scatter diagram
d. Tornado diagram
76. Serin needs to find how a seller has performed on prior contracts with his organization. Of the
following, where could he find this information?
a. Risk management plan
b. Qualified sellers list
c. Procurement management plan
d. Seller rating system
77. Work packages are decomposed into activities in what project management process?
a. Create WBS
b. Define Activities
c. Define Scope
d. Identify Risks
78. The project team is reviewing the product to determine how to convert its characteristics into project
requirements. What is the project team doing?
a. Stakeholder analysis
b. Scope verification
c. Product analysis
d. Make-or-buy analysis
79. What is the lowest level of the WBS hierarchy called?
a. Work package
b. Component
c. Planning component
d. Sub-component
80. Project MNO includes three activities. Activity C can't be completed until Activity B starts, and
Activity B can't be completed until Activity A also completes. What type of relationship exists between
Activity B and Activity C?
a. FF
b. SS
c. FS
d. SF
81. Laura is writing up a handbook for new project managers within her organization. She's including a
section that identifies templates that can be used. Which of the following categories includes templates?
a. Organizational process assets
b. Enterprise environmental factors
c. Components of the PMIS
d. Project management methodology
82. The project team has decided to alter the project schedule to avoid a risk. But the changed schedule
now presents new risks because it has less room for vendor delays. Altering the schedule has resulted in:
a. Buffer burn
b. Contingency response
c. Fallback plan
d. Secondary risk
83. The scope baseline is established at the conclusion of which project management process?
a. Define Scope
b. Verify Scope
c. Collect Requirements
d. Create WBS
84. Where could a project team member find the hours during the day that he or she could access a testing
facility rented for project activities?
a. Resource calendar
b. Project network diagram
c. Resource breakdown structure
d. Work breakdown structure
85. Monte Carlo analysis is a tool that can be used with the project schedule for what?
a. Scenarios
b. Fast-tracking
c. Constraints
d. Critical paths
86. All work, including project management activities, must be described in the project scope. This is
sometimes referred as:
a. Triple constraint
b. Parkinson's Law
c. 100% rule
d. Pareto's 80/20 rule
87. The project team routinely analyzes the processes they undertake to produce the deliverables. They
look for continual improvements and where non-value added activities can be removed. What is the
project team performing?
a. Kaizen
b. Scope verification
c. Quality control
d. Decision-tree analysis
88. A project manager wants to find out how others within his company's industry are performing a
process required by his project. He's hoping to find ideas that he can use to make the project's process
more efficient. What is the project manager wanting to do?
a. DOE
b. Nominal group technique
c. Cost-budget analysis
d. Benchmarking
89. Based on the following table of activities, what's the duration of the critical path for this project?
Activity Predecessor Duration
START -
A Start 3
B Start 4
C Start 7
D A 3
E B 4
F C 6
G D,E 2
H F 9
I G 10
END G,H,I -
a. 24 periods
b. 23 periods
c. 25 periods
d. 22 periods
90. Everyone who will be involved in performing a project activity has given a different estimate of how
long it will take. The most optimistic estimate is 7 days; the most pessimistic is 15 days; and the most
likely is 13 days. What is the three-point estimate for the activity?
a. 14
b. 13
c. 11.67
d. 12.5
91. Activity A will take only three days to complete, but it's showing a duration of four days on the
schedule. What's the most likely cause?
a. Lag
b. Lead
c. Fast-tracking
d. Finish-to-finish relationship
92. The quality management plan is synonymous with:
a. Quality control
b. Quality baseline
c. Quality methodology
d. Quality management system
93. A team member has been asked about the project performance baseline. What three components make
up the project baseline?
a. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline
b. Scope baseline, cost baseline, quality baseline, procurement baseline
c. Cost baseline, communication baseline, schedule baseline, quality baseline
d. Schedule baseline, procurement baseline, quality baseline, risk baseline
94. Robin has a project team member who values extra time off to spend with his family. She would like
to use a few days off as a motivating reward for him, but when something similar was promised to him in
other projects, the organization failed to actually give him the time off. What motivational theory should
she consider in this situation?
a. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
b. Achievement Theory
c. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
95. The project has a need for printing services, but the organization has only one qualified seller that it
will allow to be used even though there are many available. What type of seller situation is this?
a. Sole source
b. Oligopoly
c. Single source
d. Monopoly
96. The cost for project risk management activities is budgeted where?
a. Buffers
b. Project funding requirements
c. Contingency reserve
d. Management reserve
97. As project manager, Cassia has been publishing project performance reports on a regular basis.
However, in a conference call, one of the customer's employees is angry that she hasn't been on the report
distribution list. What project management process should have prevented this situation?
a. Develop Human Resource Plan
b. Plan Procurements
c. Report Performance
d. Plan Communications
98. How many network paths are there in the following network diagram?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
99. Project HIJ has three negative risks and one positive risk. Based on the probability and impact for
each risk, what contingency reserve should be established?
Risk Probability Impact
A 15% ($5,000)
B 30% ($7,500)
C 50% ($2,000)
D 20% $3,000
a. $4,000
b. $3,400
c. $3,600
d. $3,200
100. The human resource management plan does not include which of the following?
a. Forms and processes for team performance appraisals
b. Training plan for the project team
c. Frequency of team meetings
d. Resource histogram
101. Chana is performing Monte Carlo analysis against the project schedule. For what reason is she doing
this?
a. Resource smoothing
b. Schedule scenarios
c. Activity resource analysis
102. The project team is analyzing project processes in an effort to make them more efficient. The team is
using a tool that simulates changes to many process factors all at once, and the simulation results can
show how the factors interrelate to each other. What is this simulation tool known as?
a. Design of experiments
b. Marginal analysis
c. Cost-benefit analysis
d. Benchmarking
103. What project management process establishes the quality management plan?
a. Develop Project Management Plan
b. Plan Quality
c. Perform Quality Assurance
d. Perform Quality Control
104. An approved change request impacts the project scope. Akura has found that the scope change
results in some new requirements, so where should she log them?
a. Issues log
b. Requirements traceability matrix
c. Work breakdown structure
d. Scope exclusion log
105. Negative float is associated with what?
a. Schedule
b. Activity resources
c. Work packages
d. Resource intensity
106. Which of the following is not a true statement about WBS work packages?
a. Work packages are decomposed from the project deliverables.
b. Work packages serve as the activity list for project team members.
c. Work packages are assignable.
d. Work packages can have cost, effort, and duration reasonably estimated.
107. Assumptions analysis is a risk tool that:
a. Judges the validity and soundness of assumptions looking for risks
b. Quantitatively assesses the impacts of false assumptions
c. Creates a watchlist of low-priority assumptions
d. Removes assumptions from the project plan
108. What's the duration of the critical path in the project network diagram below?
a. 22
b. 20
c. 18
d. 21
109. The project team has decided that technical approach and price are the two most important criteria
for how potential sellers will be evaluated. In what procurement process are evaluation criteria established
for a specific project need?
a. Plan Procurements
b. Administer Procurements
c. Close Procurements
d. Perform Procurement Audits
110. The project team has seven members. How many communication channels exist?
a. 7
b. 14
c. 3
d. 21
111. The project management team is made up of:
a. Managers from the performing organization
b. Managers from the customer's organization
c. Those project team members providing leadership on the project
d. Managers from the project management office
112. A project team member has created an online project status report, but the web page includes
graphics, banners, and a navigational toolbar that make it hard for the reader to find the status report.
What has the team member introduced into this communication?
a. Active listening
b. Medium
c. Active decoding
d. Noise
113. The cost management plan establishes how project costs will be planned for, estimated, reported, and
managed. In what project management process does the cost management plan get created?
a. Plan Costs
b. Plan Project Finances
c. Develop Project Management Plan
d. Estimate Costs
114. After reviewing the customer's requirements, the project team has chosen to use a plastic component
rather than an aluminum component, which will still meet all the performance and durability expectations
of the customer. The difference between the plastic and aluminum part is best described as:
a. Quality
b. Grade
c. Risk
d. Product scope
115. The performing organization and a contractor have established a written agreement for the purchase
and installation of office lighting fixtures. The contractor will pass along the actual price of the wiring and
fixtures to the buyer, and charge a set fee for each fixture installed. What primary type of contract has
been established?
a. Time and materials
b. Cost reimbursable
c. Unilateral contract
d. No contract exists
116. The Plan Risk Responses process follows which one of the following?
a. Plan Risk Management
b. Identify Risks
c. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
d. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
117. "Work expands to fill the time available" is also known as what?
a. Pareto Rule
b. Maslow's Hiearchy of Needs
c. Parkinson's Law
118. A research and development project is developing a prototype using a new and untried technology.
If the technology is unsuccessful then the team will have to replan the entire project using an older but
less efficient technology, which means the original project scope would have to be completely redefined.
From which budget would the project most likely be refunded from if this occurs?
a. Budget allowance
b. Critical chain buffer
c. Management reserve
d. Alternate budget reserve
119. Project RST is 90% completed, and the project manager is preparing an updated cost forecast. At this
stage in the project, which estimating accuracy is she most likely providing?
a. Definitive estimate
b. Budget estimate
c. Rough order of magnitude estimate
d. Top-down estimate
120. Waite is looking for the procedures that describe how the assets of the project will be managed.
Where can he find this?
a. Scope management plan
b. Quality management plan
c. Schedule management plan
d. Configuration management plan
121. After prioritizing risks, the team has recorded the lowest priority risks on a special document where
they can be regularly monitored to make sure the situation hasn't changed. Where has the team put these
low-priority risks?
a. Probability-Impact Matrix
b. Contingency Response List
c. Watchlist
d. Change Log
122. Activity B has an early start of 2, an early finish of 7, and a late finish of 10. What is it's late start?
a. 9
b. 5
c. 10
d. 7
123. The project team is establishing the quality checklists that will be used to validate the deliverables to
the quality requirements. What project management quality process is the team performing?
a. Plan Quality
b. Perform Quality Assurance
c. Perform Quality Control
d. Perform Quality Audits
124. What formula can be used to determine how diverse a population of data is?
a. Standard deviation
b. Three-point
c. EVM
d. BAC
125. An acceptable project planning technique is to plan short-term items in great detail but plan long-
term items only at a high level until the need for them gets closer. What type of planning is this?
a. Rolling wave planning
b. Strategic planning
c. Operational planning
d. Waterfall planning
126. The use of a new and untried technology posed a risk for the project. After discussing the risk with
the project team and the customer, all decided to forego the new technology and eliminate it from the
project. What risk response was taken?
a. Mitigation
b. Transference
c. Avoidance
d. Acceptance
127. Zachary's activity can be accomplished at the rate of 25 units per hour, which he's used to calculate
an activity duration of 5 days. What estimating technique has he used?
a. Parametric
b. Analogous
c. Three-point
d. Standard deviation
128. A project might have several procurement contracts. How many procurement management plans will
a project have?
a. One
b. One for each contract
c. One for each seller
d. One for each project need
129. Alyssa doesn't consult the project team on any decisions she makes affecting the project, and she is
slow to share information with the team. What predominant leadership style is she exhibiting?
a. Democratic
b. Laissez-faire
c. Contingency
d. Authoritarian
130. Joanne is facilitating an agreement between stakeholders on how important a specific requirement is.
Forty-five percent think it's absolutely necessary; thirty percent think it's important; and twenty-five
percent think it is not needed at all. If the requirement is approved as "absolutely necessary" on the
requirements traceability matrix, how was this agreement reached?
a. Plurality
b. Majority
c. Unanimity
d. Minority
131. The WBS Dictionary is to the WBS as the Activity Attributes is to the _______?
a. Activity List
b. Milestone List
c. Issue Log
d. Activity Dictionary
132. Activity F has an early start of 6, an early finish of 19, and a late start of 8. What is its float?
a. 13
b. 2
c. 11
d. 21
133. The cost of conformance to requirements and the cost of nonconformance to requirements are known
collectively as what?
a. Cost of quality
b. Marginal analysis
c. ROI
d. CPI
134. The project manager wants to facilitate risk identification through a brainstorming method that will
help uncover risks both external and internal to the project. Which risk identification tool is most likely to
fill this need?
a. Flowcharting
b. Assumptions analysis
c. SWOT analysis
d. Document review
135. The project's Integrated Change Control system is established in which project management
knowledge area?
a. Quality Management
b. Risk Management
c. Scope Management
d. Integration Management
136. A project team member was originally not to start on Activity D until Activity C was finished, but to
speed up the schedule, Activity D has been started even though its predecessor activity wasn't completed.
What's been done to Activity D?
a. Lag time was applied to Activity D.
b. Lag time was applied to Activity C.
c. Activity D was crashed.
d. Activity C was fast-tracked.
137. Thamm is describing what enterprise environmental factors are to her project team. Which one of the
following is not an example of an enterprise environmental factor?
a. Market place conditions
b. Lessons learned
c. Government regulations
d. Political climate
138. A project manager would like to show the customer what resource types will be needed to produce
one of the project's deliverables. Which project management document could provide this?
a. Work breakdown structure
b. Resource calendar
c. Resource breakdown structure
d. Schedule model data
139. Grigorii took it upon himself to incorporate some features into the project deliverable that will be
extremely useful for the customer even though they weren't asked for. What best describes what has been
done?
a. Customer-focused deliverable
b. Scope creep
c. Product analysis
d. Customer satisfaction
140. For a stakeholder meeting, a team member wants to use a graphical presentation that shows the
deliverables and a hierarchical view of the work involved to achieve them. What project management
document provides this view?
a. Gantt chart
b. Resource breakdown structure
c. Analytical hierarchy process
d. Work breakdown structure
141. Gwynn needs to detail what measures will be followed by the project staff to ensure compliance with
safety regulations. Where should she document these measures?
a. Ground rules
b. Activity resource requirements
c. Human resource management plan
d. Roles and responsibilities
142. The customer has the financial capacity to provide only $100,000 for the fourth quarter, but the
project schedule has $150,000 of work during that period. $50,000 of work is going to have its start date
moved into the next year when the customer can provide the funding. What cost budgeting tool is being
used?
a. Resource leveling
b. Cost baseline reconciliation
c. Resource reallocation
d. Funding limit reconciliation
143. The project team is setting up the procedures for how all project processes will be diagrammed,
measured, and improved upon. Which one of the following is the team creating?
a. Quality management plan
b. Quality control plan
c. Quality audit plan
d. Process improvement plan
144. "To increase the probability and impact of positive events, and decrease the probability and impact
of events adverse to the project" describes which project management function?
a. Project risk management
b. Project quality management
c. Project scope management
d. Project communications management
145. Based on the project network diagram shown below, what is the free float of Activity D?
a. 8
b. 7
c. 2
d. 0
146. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle is associated most with what knowledge area:
a. Schedule
b. Procurement
c. Quality
d. Communication
147. As part of risk planning, contingency plans have been identified for high priority risks. The project
manager wants to add the cost for executing the contingency plans into the project baseline but a team
member objects. Where should the cost for performing contingency plans be accounted for?
a. Budget reserve
b. Contingency reserve
c. Project baseline
d. Project budget
148. Nan is defining activities for a project that will create a training manual. One of the activities will be
the printing of 50 copies of the manual. This activity is best characterized as which one of the following?
a. Apportioned effort activity
b. Level of effort activity
c. Planning activity
d. Discrete activity
149. One of the project's risks was that the organization wouldn't have enough skilled resources available
to perform a critical activity on the project, so a decision was made to outsource this activity to a vendor.
What risk response was taken?
a. Mitigation
b. Transference
c. Sharing
d. Contingent
150. Analogous estimating is a form of ______?
a. Reserve analysis
b. Expert judgment
c. Parkinson's Law
d. Parametric technique
151. What are the three elements that establish a contract between a buyer and a seller?
a. Offer, acceptance, and consideration
b. Offer, negotiation, and acceptance
c. Statement of work, negotiation, and acceptance
d. Statement of work, offer, and consideration
152. Which of the following is not an input to the Define Scope process?
a. Project charter
b. WBS
c. Requirements documentation
d. Organizational process assets
153. The project charter gives the project manager what type of interpersonal base of power?
a. Legitimate
b. Expert
c. Referent
d. Coercive
154. The work required, and only the work required, to meet project objectives describes what?
a. Schedule baseline
b. Project scope statement
c. Cost baseline
d. Activity attributes
155. The stakeholder register is an input to the Manage Stakeholders Expectations process. In which
knowledge area is the stakeholder register developed?
a. Scope
b. Communication
c. Integration
d. Human Resources
156. What statement about Theory Z is correct?
a. Employees are motivated to perform only through punitive measures.
b. Employees are motivated by decision-making involvement and long-term employment
c. Employees are motivated only when preceding layers of needs are met.
d. Employees are driven by a combination of achievement, power, and affiliation needs.
157. A member of the project management team is presenting an S-curve graph that shows project
expenditures and actual costs plotted on a time-phased graph. What project management document is
being shown?
a. Project cost baseline
b. Earned value analysis
c. Project budget
d. Activity resource requirements
158. Karia has just finished diagramming a salience model. The information she's collected on the model
will be used for what purpose?
a. Project schedule network diagram
b. Work breakdown structure
c. Risk breakdown structure
d. Stakeholder management strategy
159. A project team member needs to provide a written status report on a deliverable. Where can the team
member find out who should receive the status report?
a. Lessons learned
b. Communications management plan
c. Roles and responsibilities
d. Stakeholder analysis
160. The schedule baseline is established when:
a. The change control board approves the schedule.
b. The schedule is approved.
c. The schedule is frozen from further changes.
d. The schedule is presented to the stakeholders.
161. The project team is discussing different ways of achieving the project's objectives in the hope of
finding more efficient and better methods than they've tried before. What scope definition tool is the team
using?
a. Variance analysis
b. Critical chain analysis
c. Reserve analysis
d. Alternatives identification
162. After collecting risk information, the team is reviewing the reliability of the data collected before any
further risk analysis is performed. What qualitative risk tool is the team using?
a. Risk urgency assessment
b. Risk data quality assessment
c. Monte Carlo analysis
d. Expected monetary value (EMV)
163. A project team member wants to find out what responsibilities and decision-making authority she
has. What document could best provide this to her?
a. RACI
b. Activity resource requirements
c. Resource availability
d. Ground rules
164. One risk that Eden faces on a construction project is the price of concrete. Its price can fluctuate up
or down by 10% depending on demand. She has produced a tornado diagram showing how this
fluctuation might affect different phases of the project. What qualitative analysis technique is she using?
a. Sensitivity analysis
b. EMV
c. Decision tree analysis
d. Probability distribution
165. In what process group are people assigned to the project?
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Initiating
d. Monitoring and Control
166. The effectiveness of the human resource management plan and of team development activities are
measured by which one of the following?
a. Project performance reports
b. Team performance assessment
c. Project forecasts
d. 360 evaluations
167. Which one of the following is viewed as a negative team role?
a. Devil's advocate
b. Elaborator
c. Gatekeeper
d. Information seeker
168. As one of the first acts as a project team, the project manager is facilitating a discussion between the
group members on what is acceptable behavior by team members toward each other. What activity is
occurring?
a. Team role formation
b. Storming
c. Team actualization
d. Ground rules
169. Tamika wants to ensure that a core group of team members can focus without distractions during a
critical phase of the project, so she's setting up a shared space where these team members can work side-
by-side. What is this an example of?
a. Co-location
b. Virtual team
c. Preassignment
d. Ground rules
170. Dustin wants to allow flexible hours as a motivator for the project team, but a member of the project
management team says that without recognition and a sense of achievement, this won't really motivate the
team. What theory proposes that the factors that lead to job satisfaction are different from the factors that
motivate employees?
a. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
b. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
d. Achievement Theory
171. Process analysis and quality audits are performed in what project management process?
a. Plan Quality
b. Perform Quality Control
c. Perform Quality Assurance
d. Close Project or Phase
172. Lessons learned are gathered throughout the project, but which project management process
specifically ensures that they are properly collected, documented, and organized?
a. Close Project
b. Perform Quality Assurance
c. Monitor and Control Risks
d. Distribute Information
173. Training, ground rules, co-location, and recognition are tools which aid what project management
process?
a. Report Performance
b. Develop Project Team
c. Manage Project Team
d. Acquire Project Team
174. A contractor has agreed to build a storage depot for a target price of $90,000, but there is some
uncertainty involved in the project, so the buyer and seller have agreed that the ceiling price will be
$100,000. The buyer will pay 100% of costs up to $80,000, and 75% of costs between $80,000 and
$100,000, but any cost over $100,000 is absorbed by the contractor. What is the point of total assumption
for this contract for the buyer?
a. $100,000
b. $90,000
c. $87,750.25
d. $93,333.33
175. The theory that describes the levels of needs one must achieve before he or she is motivated to fulfill
subsequent levels of needs is known as:
a. Expectancy Theory
b. Achievement Theory
c. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
d. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
176. Project QRP has a budget at completion of $200,000. At month six, planned work was to be 50%
complete while actual work completed stands at 60%. Actual cost at month six is $130,000. What is this
project's schedule performance index?
a. 1.2
b. .83
c. .94
d. 1.15
177. Some of the project team members are reviewing measurements taken over time on a run chart to
look for trends. What project management process is the team likely to be performing?
a. Qualitative Risk Analysis
c. Manage Project Team
d. Control Costs
178. An approved change has resulted in a modification to the project's scope statement. Which of the
following is immediately impacted?
a. Scope baseline
b. Scope log
c. Project charter
d. Stakeholder register
179. The project team wants to establish a budget in case rainy weather causes extra work to be needed in
a construction project. What type of reserve should be used for this risk?
a. Contingency reserve
b. Budget reserve
c. Line item reserve
d. Management reserve
180. Who is responsible for resolving conflict within the project team?
a. Project manager
b. Project sponsor
c. Functional manager
d. Project team
181. A team member has been given the responsibility and a target date for resolving a minor problem
that has cropped up between two team members about one of the project's activities. Of the following,
where should this be documented?
a. Issue log
c. Stakeholder analysis
d. Team performance assessment
182. Project CDE has a cost variance of -$12,000 and a schedule variance of $2,500. Which statement
below is true?
a. The project is $12,000 under budget.
b. The SPI is below 1.0.
c. The CPI is above 1.0
d. The project is $12,000 over budget.
183. The project team would like to make changes to the approved schedule to take advantage of a
beneficial situation that would reduce the project schedule by several days. Of the following choices,
which should be the first step?
a. Log the change request
b. Obtain the sponsor's approval
c. Update the schedule baseline
d. Update the resource calendar
184. The project team is midway through a project, and the project manager wants to know how much
more money it will take for the project to be completed. What earned value measurement can provide
this?
a. BAC
b. EAC
c. ETC
d. CPI
185. Swain has found a work package in the WBS that doesn't tie to a deliverable or requirement in the
project scope statement. He finds out that a team member added the work because it'll ultimately save
time and can be reused on later projects. What is the team member's action an example of?
a. Scope creep
b. Alternatives identification
c. Continuous improvement
d. Alternatives implementation
186. A project manager is preparing a set of reports for the project sponsor that includes the cumulative
cost performance index and the estimate to complete. In what communication process do reports such as
these get distributed?
b. Plan Communications
c. Distribute Information
d. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
187. The buyer is seeing warning signs that the seller may be unable to complete the work established in
the contract. What action could the buyer take to analyze whether the seller will be definitively be unable
to fulfill its contractual obligations?
a. Procurement audit
b. Early termination procedures
c. Procurement performance review
d. Quality control audit
188. The project team wants to focus on the 20% of the factors causing 80% of the defects. What quality
control tool can most easily help the team do this?
a. Scatter diagram
b. Control chart
c. Pareto chart
d. Cause and effect diagram
189. Giovanni is giving a training program on the seven basic tools of quality control. Which one of the
following isn't one of those tools?
a. Expected Monetary Value
b. Control chart
c. Scatter diagram
d. Pareto chart
190. Moving average, growth curve, regression analysis, linear prediction, and prediction market are
approaches toward:
a. Activity duration estimating
b. S-curve formulas
c. Forecasting
d. Top-down estimating
191. A project manager is using CPI and SPI to develop project forecasts. Dissemination of these project
forecasts will occur through which communication process?
b. Distribute Information
c. Distribute Lessons Learned
d. Audit Performance
192. After reviewing possible root causes, the quality control team determined that there was no
connection between the model of credit card terminal used and how quickly the electronic funds transfer
took place in a retail project. These two processes are:
a. Mutually exclusive
b. Special causes
c. Statistically independent
d. Upper control limits
193. Project DEF has a budget at completion of $200,000. At month nine, 75% of work was planned to be
completed but stands at 60%. Actual cost is $175,000. What is this project's CPI?
a. .75
b. .88
c. .69
d. .80
194. Mark is comparing the deliverable to the requirements detailed in the project scope statement. Which
process is being performed?
a. Perform Quality Assurance
b. Verify Scope
c. Perform Quality Control
d. Verify Product
195. Project VWX has an actual cost at month three of $150,000, a SPI of 1.05, and a CPI of 1.1. What
can be said of this project?
a. It is ahead of schedule and is performing over budget.
b. It is ahead of schedule and is performing under budget.
c. It is behind schedule and is performing under budget.
d. It is behind schedule and is performing over budget.
196. Project G has a BAC of $225,000. At month six, it was scheduled to be 75% complete, but actual
work completed is at 80%. $175,000 has been spent on the project up to this point. What is the project's
CPI?
a. 1.07
b. 0.97
c. 0.96
d. 1.03
197. Project DEF has a budget at completion of $200,000. At month nine, 75% of work was planned to be
completed but stands at 60%. Actual cost is $175,000. What is this project's ETC?
a. $25,000
b. $114,855
c. $289,855
d. $89,855
198. A project involves the installation of 100 telephones. The QC team is going to randomly test 25 of
the phones before installation. Which one of the following best describes the approach the quality control
team is taking?
a. Quality sampling
b. Statistical sampling
c. Pareto's Law
d. Rule of Seven
199. The seller encountered extra costs while producing a deliverable because the buyer didn't provide
timely and accurate information as specified in the contract. The buyer and seller have a good
relationship, but since the contract is fixed price, the seller wants to recover these unexpected costs.
What's the best option for the seller to first pursue?
a. Add the costs to its final invoice
b. Withhold deliverable from the buyer until costs are reimbursed
c. Begin breach of contract proceedings
d. Submit a claim to the buyer
200. The project team has found a flaw in one of the project's deliverables. What project quality process is
the team performing?
a. Perform Quality Assurance
c. Perform Process Improvement
d. Perform Quality Verification
201. The customer has made a change request which is outside of the project's scope. The project
manager is sure that other stakeholders will agree that this change is beyond the project's original
objectives. What is the first step the project manager should do?
a. Review the change with the sponsor.
b. Log the request into the change control system.
c. Perform a benefit/cost analysis.
d. Consult the project management team.
202. As part of the lessons learned process, the risk manager wants to analyze how effective the risk
response and contingency plan were for a risk that occurred and has been successfully addressed. What
activity is the risk manager performing?
a. Quantitative Risk Analysis
b. Qualitative Risk Analysis
c. Risk Audit
d. Risk Reassessment
203. Project LMN has a budget at completion at $200,000. At month three, planned work was to be 25%
complete while actual work completed stands at 30%. Actual cost at month three is $40,000. What is this
project's cost variance?
a. $-20,000
b. $10,000
c. $20,000
d. -$10,000
204. A project team member has been approached by a stakeholder who is upset about an approved
project change request. The stakeholder doesn't agree with the change. Who needs to resolve the
stakeholder's issue?
a. Project sponsor
b. Change control board
c. Project manager
d. Project team member
205. The customer is reviewing the completed product to make sure that all requirements have been met
by checking the deliverable's characteristics, functionality, and usability. What project management
process is being performed?
b. Close Project
c. Control Scope
d. Verify Scope
206. Of the following project management systems, which one would communicate to the project team
that a defect has been successfully repaired?
a. Quality management system
b. Work authorization system
c. Change control system
d. Resource calendaring system
207. Most conflict within a project comes from three general sources: manpower or labor needs,
priorities, and what third source?
a. Personalities
b. Procedural
c. Schedules
d. Work styles
208. The project team is disagreeing over a technical approach to one of the project's deliverables. One of
the team members is facilitating the meeting and wants to help the team reach a solution. What's the best
choice for the facilitator to try first?
a. Have each side compromise by incorporating options from each choice into a solution.
b. Let the sides work it out themselves because it's not the facilitator's responsibility to get involved.
c. Have the customer decide the issue.
d. Lead the team through the pros and cons of each option and try to objectively choose the best
solution.
209. Which statement about the change control system is not true?
a. The change control system establishes procedures for discouraging project changes.
b. The change control system is used to log all project change requests.
c. The change control system is part of the PMIS.
d. The change control system may incorporate other change systems, such as scope change control
system, schedule change control system, and contract control system.
210. The Change Control Board is a component of which of the following?
b. Change control system
c. Quality control board
d. Project management team
211. The project has had some risks occur which required it to draw from its contingency reserve. The
project manager is analyzing how much reserve is left to make sure that it's adequate for the risks that
remain. What risk management process is being performed?
a. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
b. Plan Risk Management
c. Monitor Risk
d. Identify Risks
212. A procurement performance review has shown that the seller will not be able to fulfill the terms of
the contract. So the buyer is going to begin early termination procedures. What's the first step the buyer
should take?
a. File a claim with the seller
b. Initiate a contract change request
c. Begin contract closure procedures
d. Select an alternate seller
213. A control chart has its mean established at 5, its UCL at 8, and its LCL at 3. A measurement of 7
would indicate what?
a. The process is out of control
b. A common cause has occurred
c. A special cause has occurred
d. The process is in control
214. The project team has notified Haku that a deliverable is completed. Before she begins scope
verification, which process should be performed?
b. Close Project or Phase
c. Control Scope
d. Create WBS
215. A customer's quality requirements demand that defects be fewer than 27 out of 10,000 units. This
equates to:
a. 6 sigma
b. 2 sigma
c. 1 sigma
d. 3 sigma
216. A stakeholder has called the project manager to express dissatisfaction with one of the project's
deliverables. The project manager thinks the deliverable fully meets the requirements. What should the
project manager do first?
a. Log the issue
b. Log a change request
c. Refer the stakeholder to the sponsor
d. Review the quality control results
217. A project has fallen behind schedule, but it must still stay within its original funding limitations.
What option can the project manager use to get the schedule back on track?
a. Crashing
b. Fast-tracking
c. Resource smoothing
218. The Perform Quality Control process is ready to begin, and the team has assembled the quality
management plan, quality checklists, and the quality metrics that must be adhered to. What key input is
the team missing?
a. Quality control measurements
b. Quality audit measurements
c. Deliverables
d. Process improvement plan
219. What does this control chart show?
a. Rule of Seven
b. Out of control process
c. 6-Sigma
d. 80/20 Rule
220. A project has just been canceled because of an abrupt change in the company's needs. What should
the project manager do in order to provide final project performance reports?
a. Use the actual project performance information up to the point of cancellation compared to the
project baseline at the same point in time.
b. Projects that are terminated early do not require final project performance reports.
c. Use forecasted performance information based on actual performance compared to the project
baseline.
d. Use the earned value measurements from the last time completed time period.
Note: The question number is a hyperlink to a further explanation of the answer.
1. A: A project ends when the scope has been completed, it is clear that the objective cannot be met, or
the objective of the project is no longer needed.
2. A: Project managers need to be skilled in leading, communicating, negotiation, problem-solving, and
influencing.
3. C: Project B has the greatest future value. Future value is a formula that accounts for interest in the ROI
of a project, so a higher future value is preferred.
4. D: Enterprise environmental factors are those elements outside of the project boundaries but which
impact it. They include marketplace conditions, organizational culture, organizational structure, and
regulations and standards.
5. A: She is using a form of coercive power. Coercive power comes from one's ability to bestow negative
consequences. Coercive power is not an effective way to build a cohesive team.
6. C: A project manager has the least amount of formal authority and control in a functional organization,
and the most amount of authority in a projectized structure.
7. B: A project is a temporary endeavor executed by people with some constraints on resources that
results in a unique product, service, or result.
8. B: Linear/non-linear programming, integer programming, dynamic programming, and multi-objective
programming are constrained optimization methods, which are complex mathematical formulas used as
part of some project selection processes.
9. D: Management by projects is when operational efforts are planned, executed, and managed as if they
were projects. This allows the benefits of project management processes for non-project objectives.
10. C: Regulations are requirements established by a government entity that has legal and/or financial
ramifications. A standard is a generally-accepted requirement, usually from a trade or industry group, but
it's technically voluntary.
11. C: Linear/non-linear programming, integer programming, dynamic programming, and multi-objective
programming are constrained optimization methods, which can be used as part of an organization's
project selection process.
Self-test answers
12. D: An organization's culture is made of its values, beliefs, assumptions, and behavior. Organizational
culture can impact many elements of project management, including project selection, quality, and risk.
13. D: Since we don't know the exact value of the projects, the ROI is only a gauge of whether the project
will return more than it costs to complete the project. All choices have a positive ROI, so the payback
period is the better determining factor. Project GHI has the shortest payback period of 3 months.
14. B: The project manager is responsible for managing stakeholders, which includes negotiating conflict
resolutions over project priorities or objectives.
15. C: Organizational process assets include the collective knowledge of the organization. Historical
information, project files, lessons learned, procedures, policies, and templates are examples of these
assets.
16. A: A project's quality is determined by the balance of time, scope, and cost. This is sometimes
referred to as the triple constraint.
17. B: Cross-cultural situations are always difficult, but the first approach is always to determine if the
behavior is part of the culture. If it is and the behavior is not illegal or unethical then it's better to respect
the tradition. All other choices given in this situation automatically assume the behavior is unacceptable --
and this could be a form of ethno-centrism, which is to be avoided.
18. C: Risk is greatest early in the project because of the high level of uncertainty. So the project is most
likely to fail in the beginning phases. The level of risk diminishes as the project is more fully defined.
Stakeholder influence is highest early in the project because the cost of incorporating changes is lower in
the beginning and increases as the project progresses. Cost is lowest early in the project, peaking during
executing phases.
19. A: You have to calculate basic ROI to determine this answer. At its simplest level, ROI is the project
cost subtracted from the return on investment, so a higher ROI is best. Project N has an ROI of 75,000
while all other projects have an ROI of 50,000.
20. D: The Integration Management knowledge area has project management processes in all five process
groups: Integration, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
21. B: It's unethical for a project manager to provide misleading information. The project manager has a
duty to provide accurate and reasonable estimates, and she's professionally bound to provide the customer
honest information. She should explain this to her manager, but even if he disagrees she should stick by
her estimates.
22. B: A program is a collection of projects related to a common purpose. Portfolios are usually projects
whose objectives are not related to one another.
23. B: Lost opportunity cost is the entire value of any projects not chosen.
24. C: Project members in a matrix organization report to their resource manager and to a project
manager.
25. A: Phases compose the project life cycle.
26. A: From the PMBOK's perspective, a formal, approved charter is necessary. Even though Ymir
received an informal verbal charter, his first step should be to work with the sponsor on creating a written
charter.
27. B: Phases always produce some type of project deliverable.
28. A: The PMBOK is not a methodology, and it's up to the project team to determine which of the
project management processes are applicable to a particular project and to what level of rigor the
processes are to be applied to the project.
29. B: Phases always result in one or more deliverables. The end of phases can also be referred to as
phase-gates where a go/no-go decision is made whether the project can continue.
30. A: Opportunity cost is the money that is foregone when one action is chosen over another, and it
refers to the entire value of the option not chosen. Since project RST was valued at $200,000 and it was
not chosen, the opportunity cost to the organization was the full $200,000.
31. B: The project scope baseline is made up of the project scope statement, work breakdown structure,
and the WBS dictionary.
32. A: In the communication model, it's the responsibility of the sender to make sure the message is clear,
complete, and understood.
33. A: The process improvement plan describes how the project processes will be made more efficient.
It's part of the project management plan --not the quality management plan.
34. C: Since the scope has not been approved, the scope change control system is not applicable. The
scope management plan includes the procedures for how the scope is approved.
35. A: The procurement statement of work is part of the procurement documents, and it explicitly
describes the deliverables, materials, specifications, constraints, milestones, requirements, and any
information that describes what the potential seller will need to provide.
36. A: Earned value management is a project performance tool, and wouldn't likely be part of any
discussion on quality.
37. D: Finish-to-start relationships mean that the successor activity can't start until the predecessor
activity is completed. Activity A must finish before Activity B can start. FS relationships are the most
common.
38. B: The work required for an activity is its effort. The duration represents how many work periods it
will take to complete the activity. Duration is based on effort, but duration incorporates other factors such
as non-working time.
39. D: The schedule has only one basic requirement, and that is to provide the start and end dates for
every project activity.
40. B: Paralingual communication is the pitch and tone of a verbal message.
41. B: The risk management plan details the project risk management methodology, and includes ranking
and scoring information and how these relate to severity.
42. C: Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that is used in scheduling and risk, and it isn't a
quality planning tool. Affinity diagrams, nominal group technique, and marginal analysis are directly
related to quality planning.
43. A: The procurement management plan will contain the procedures for vendor payment procedures
that are specific to the buying organization. Though not listed as a choice, the contract would specify
payment requirements between the buyer and seller, but it wouldn't include procedures internal to the
buyer's organization.
44. B: Theory X/Theory Y has two components. Theory X purports that employees are generally
motivated only when forced to perform. Theory Y says that employees genuinely want to do a good job
and are self-motivated.
45. D: The probability-impact matrix is the tool that qualitatively uses the risk's probability and impact on
project objectives to develop a risk ranking or score. The risk management plan details the scoring and
ranking methodology, but it wouldn't contain information about specific risks.
46. D: Cost-benefit analysis is a quality planning tool, and it helps determine what's the appropriate
balance of quality versus the cost of achieving a level of quality.
47. B: Top-down estimating is a form of expert judgment in which the item being estimated is looked at
only in broad terms --usually because the details about the item are not yet known. Top-down estimating
is not as reliable as bottom-up, which estimates all of an item's components and then aggregates them into
an overall estimate.
48. C: The start-no-earlier-than constraint on an activity keeps it from beginning until a predetermined
date.
49. D: Activities are decomposed from work packages. An adequate level of decomposition for activities
is generally reached when the activity can: be assignable to one person, be able to have a level of effort
estimated for them, be able to have their resource needs and costs estimated, and be able to have their
progress tracked and determined.
50. B: Rough order of magnitude estimates are common during the early phases of a project life cycle.
They generally range from -25% to +75% of what the actual figure will eventually be. Budget estimates
range from -10% to +25%. Definitive estimates are the surest, and they range from -5% to +10%.
51. A: The risk register is a component of the project management plan. It isn't part of the risk
management plan.
52. D: Resource leveling is a technique that re-distributes limited resources to the project based on the
organization's ability to provide the resources.
53. B: Planning packages are used to represent deliverables that can't yet be sufficiently planned for.
Planning components are also used to represent activities that can't be sufficiently planned for.
54. B: The WBS is decomposed into activities during the Define Activities process.
55. D: Quality is "the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements."
56. C: There are different variations of contingency theories, but all have a recurring theme. The leader
must adjust his or her style to meet the situation, or the leader must adjust the situation to his or her style.
There is not a single leadership style that is best in all situations.
57. D: The critical chain method puts buffers of reserve time at crucial junctures within the schedule (and
usually a buffer near the end of schedule) as a means to mitigate risks caused by scarcity of resources.
58. A: Fifty-five percent of a message in face-to-face communication is carried through nonverbal
elements, like facial expressions and body language. Paralingual elements carry 38%, and the words
themselves make up only 7% of the message.
59. C: Residual risks are those in which there's no effective or reasonable strategy or which are such low
priority or impact that it's not worthwhile to develop a strategy. By definition, residual risks are also
accepted risks.
60. C: Since the scope has been completed and the deliverable's have been accepted, the original project is
completed. The customer's request is therefore a new project.
61. C: The formula for determining the number of communication channels is n(n-1)/2 where n is the
number of people involved. With nine members, there are 36 channels of communication; with 11
members there are 55. So there are 19 more channels of communication when two team members were
added.
62. B: The risk action owner (or risk response owner) carries out one or more actions in response to a risk
event. The risk owner is responsible for managing a particular risk while the risk manager is in charge of
overall risk management for the project.
63. D: The human resource management plan would include what procedures will be put into place to
make sure the team complies with any governmental, regulatory, organizational, or safety requirements.
64. A: It's up to the project team to develop a quality policy that's agreeable to all. The quality
management plan is communicated to and approved by all key stakeholders (including the customer). The
project quality policy must conform to the performing organization's quality policy, but if the company
doesn't have one then the project team must develop its own.
65. D: All cost reimbursable contracts carry a large amount of risk for the buyer, but cost plus percentage
of costs is the most risky because it inherently rewards the seller for exaggerating costs.
66. B: Risks are uncertain events that can be either beneficial or detrimental to the project objectives
while issues are unanticipated events that have occurred.
67. B: A risk can be detrimental or beneficial to the project, so not all risks are to be avoided. Positive
risks are to be encouraged.
68. D: Analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment that uses data from similar activities on other
projects. Parametric estimating uses mathematical formulas.
69. D: The project's total funding requirements includes all costs related to the project, which is the
project's base cost plus any cost reserves.
70. D: Stakeholder analysis helps to determine the interest levels, influences, and expectations of the
stakeholders. It's a tool used during the Identify Stakeholders process.
71. C: Even though it consists of subsidiary plans, the PMBOK looks at the project management plan as a
single, formal document that undergoes some form of approval process.
72. B: Most project communications are considered informal. Meetings, telephone calls, and video
conferences are informal verbal. Generally, project reports, e-mails, and ad-hoc written exchanges are
informal written. Public documents, like contracts or project records, will be formal written. Formal
verbal would be public speaking events, executive meetings, and perhaps presentations to the external
customer.
73. C: Force majeure are events that cannot be reasonably foreseen or properly mitigated. They are risks
that can't be reasonably anticipated. Though usually natural events, they can also be strikes and political
unrest. Most contracts have force majeure clauses that protect the parties from demanding financial
redress for force majeure events.
74. A: Discretionary dependencies are only a preferred order. Mandatory dependencies are required,
usually because one activity is dependent upon the deliverable from a prior activity. External
dependencies are established by forces outside the project, such as a vendor.
75. D: A tornado diagram is often used as part of sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis shows how
uncertainty impacts various project components like objectives, phases, or deliverables.
76. D: A seller rating system provides key performance indicators on how the seller has performed on
past contracts with the organization.
77. B: Deliverables are decomposed into work packages during the Create WBS process; work packages
are decomposed into activities during Define Activities.
78. C: Product analysis decomposes the project's product into requirements for the project.
79. A: A work package is the lowest level of work in the WBS. There is no set rule for what constitutes a
work package, but it should be small enough that its activities and work can be reasonably estimated. One
heuristic is that a work package should be no less than 8 hours of work and no more than 80 hours of
work.
80. D: Since Activity C can't finish until Activity B is started, this is a start-to-finish relationship (SF).
81. A: Templates and project files are organizational process assets.
82. D: A secondary risk is caused by a response to a primary risk. The cumulative effect of secondary
risks can sometimes be greater than the potential impact of the primary risk.
83. D: The scope baseline includes the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the
WBS dictionary. It comes into being when the WBS is initially created.
84. A: The resource calendar shows availability, quantity, and hours by calendar days for resources
(including people).
85. A: Monte Carlo analysis is a complex simulation technique that has uses for schedule scenarios and
risk identification.
86. C: All of the work must be accounted for in the WBS. This is sometimes referred to as the 100% rule.
87. A: Kaizen is continual improvement approach where incremental improvements are made to
processes.
88. D: Benchmarking compares processes between different organizations. It's useful for improving
processes or establishing base metrics.
89. D: There are four paths through the completed network diagram. The path from Start - C - F - H - End
has the longest duration at 22 periods.
90. A: The formula for a three-point estimate is:
(Pessimistic Estimate + (4 x Most Likely Estimate) + Optimistic Estimate)
6
91. A: A lag is wait time incorporated into a task. If work on the activity will take only three days but its
duration is four days, there must be a one day lag on the activity.
92. B: The quality baseline is the approved quality management plan, including any approved changes.
The baseline comes into existence when the quality management plan is approved. The quality baseline
can be considered part of the project performance baseline (scope baseline, schedule baseline, cost
baseline, and quality baseline).
93. A: The project baseline is made up of the scope, cost, and schedule baselines. The quality baseline, if
it exists, is also considered part of the performance baseline.
94. D: The expectancy theory states that three beliefs have to be present in order for a reward to be a
motivator. First, the person has to want the reward; second, he or she has to believe it's possible to meet
the goals for the reward; and third, the person has to believe that the reward will actually be given. This
project member may not believe that he'll actually be given the time off, so this may not be a motivator
for him.
95. C: A single source (or single seller) is when there's only one qualified seller allowed by the buying
organization. A sole source (or sole seller) is when only one seller exists in the marketplace.
96. B: The time and cost needed for risk management and risk response activities is part of the project's
funding requirements. Should a risk occur and additional activities (like a contingency plan need
implemented), that cost is drawn from the contingency reserves.
97. D: The Communications Planning knowledge area creates the communications management plan,
which fully describes the information, frequency, format, mediums, and distribution list of major project
communications. The customer should have been listed as a recipient in the communications management
plan.
98. A: There are five paths through the diagram:
Start - A - B - C - G - H - End
Start - D - B - C - G - H - End
Start - D - E - F - G - H - End
Start - I - J - F - G - H - End
Start - I - J - K - L - H - End
99. B:
RISK PROBABILITY IMPACT EMV
A 15% ($5,000) ($750)
B 30% ($7,500) ($2,250)
C 50% ($2,000) ($1,000)
D 20% $3,000 $600
($3,400)
100. C: Team meetings and their frequency would be part of the project communication plan. The human
resource management plan includes the methods and procedures for team and individual appraisals,
training plan, resource histogram, release criteria, and the plan for rewards and recognition.
101. B: Monte Carlo analysis is a complex simulation technique that can be used to find contention within
the project schedule or identify areas prone to risk. Monte Carlo analysis is also a tool of risk
identification.
102. A: DOE is a statistical method that mathematically simulates changes to all factors within a process.
The results can find identify relationships between factors, making it easier to hone in on what factors
need improvement.
103. B: The quality management plan is established in the Plan Quality process.
104. B: All requirements are logged onto the requirements traceability matrix. It provides a central
repository for requirements, where they were derived from, and how they relate to one another.
105. A: Negative float indicates a schedule problem. It can be the result of unrealistic or impossible
milestones or other constraints forced into the schedule.
106. B: Work packages do not describe activities in great detail, so they should not be confused with the
activity list. A work package is decomposed from the deliverable, and is defined small enough so that it
can be assignable to a person and can have cost, effort, and duration reasonably estimated.
107. A: Since all assumptions are risk factors if they prove untrue, assumptions analysis evaluates the
soundness of assumptions and gauges their impact if they don't hold up.
108. A: There are four paths through this diagram. The critical path is the one with the longest duration
(22 periods).
Start - D - F - End: 5 + 9 + 4 = 18
Start - B - E - End: 12 + 6 = 18
Start - B - E - F - End: 12 + 6 + 4 = 22
Start - C - G - H - End: 5 + 11 + 4 = 20
109. A: Evaluation criteria specific to a procurement need are established before seller responses are
solicited, so they are created during Plan Procurements.
110. D: The more channels of communication there are, the more chances for miscommunication. The
formula for determining the number of channels is n(n-1)/2 where n is the number of people involved.
111. C: The project management team is made up of anyone on the team providing leadership, direction,
and decision-making on the project.
112. D: Noise is anything that disrupts the flow and understanding of a message.
113. C: The cost management plan is created during the Develop Project Management Plan.
114. B: Grade is a categorization between products having the same functional use but different technical
characteristics. Grade and quality are not the same --a low-grade product can be high quality, and a high-
grade product can be low quality.
115. B: This is primarily a cost-reimbursable contract because the buyer is being billed back for the price
of the fixtures.
116. C: The Plan Risk Responses process is done only for risks where the probability and impact warrant
a response, so it follows Quantitative Risks Analysis (which follows Qualitative Risk Analysis).
117. C: Parkinson's Law states that work will expand to fill whatever amount of time is available. If an
activity is said to take 12 hours, it will take 12 hours even if it could have been completed in 8 hours.
118. C: The management reserve is intended for major scope shifts or other drastic changes to the project.
These reserves are authorized by the organization. A budget allowance is intended specifically for a line
item and not for the project as a whole.
119. A: Definitive estimates are the most accurate, in the range of -5% to 10% of the final expected value.
Once substantial planning has occurred, there should be enough experience to provide definitive
estimates.
120. D: The configuration management system manages the tangible and intangible assets of the project,
and the configuration management plan addresses how those assets will be managed.
121. C: The watchlist is used for low-priority risks that need regularly monitored but will not receive
detailed risk response planning.
122. B: The late start is 5. With the data provided, the duration of this activity is 5 periods (7 - 2 = 5). The
late start is then just the late finish minus the duration (10 - 5)=5.
123. A: The Plan Quality process establishes the quality management plan, which includes what and how
the quality requirements will be met. The checklists that will be used during Perform Quality Control are
also created in Plan Quality.
124. A: Standard deviation provides information on how diverse a population of data is. The basic
formula for standard deviation is (Pessimistic Estimate - Optimistic Estimate) / 6.
125. A: Rolling wave planning focuses on planning items needed in the short-term while planning at a
high-level for items in the future. Rolling wave planning results in re-planning for future items as the need
for them gets closer.
126. C: The risk was avoided because the risk factor was eliminated from the project.
127. A: Parametric estimating uses mathematical formulas.
128. A: A project has only one procurement management plan. The procurement management plan
provides the overall methods and procedures the project will follow for addressing procurement needs.
129. D: Authoritarian leaders make all or most decisions without consulting the project team. Democratic
leaders involve the team in decisions, and laissez-faire leaders turn all or most decision-making control
completely over to the team. Contingency theory is an organizational theory, not a leadership style.
130. A: Since there was no majority in favor of the approved choice, plurality was how the agreement was
reached. Plurality is when the option with the largest block of support is chosen.
131. A: The activity attributes is a companion document to the activity list. It provides additional
characteristics about activities.
132. B: Activity F has a float of 2 periods (late start - early start = float).
133. A: The cost of quality involves the cost of conforming to requirements (quality management
activities, QA activities, and QC activities) plus the cost of not conforming to requirements, which
includes errors, rework, and delays.
134. C: SWOT is a tool based on brainstorming that helps identify strengths and weaknesses (internal to
the project) and opportunities and threats (external to the project). The results from SWOT can be
analyzed to identify risks.
135. D: Integrated Change Control is part of the Project Integration Management knowledge area.
136. B: Activity D was fast-tracked so that it could start before Activity C was completed. By its very
nature, fast-tracking implies that lead time was applied to the activity.
137. B: Lessons learned are not enterprise environmental factors. Enterprise environmental factors
influence the project but are outside of its control; organizational process assets are the policies,
procedures, and historical information, such as lessons learned.
138. C: The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical, graphical representation of the resources
needed to produce project deliverables. It's similar in appearance to the work breakdown structure.
139. B: The question is describing a gold-plating situation. Gold-plating is when extra features are added
that were not asked for by the customer. Gold-plating is a form of scope creep, and it's to be avoided
because if the features are needed by the customer they should be discussed and added into the scope if
everyone agrees. The project team should not assume they know what's best for the customer.
140. D: The work breakdown structure is a graphical, hierarchical view of the project deliverables and the
work necessary to produce them.
141. C: Measures to ensure compliance should be documented in the human resource management plan.
142. D: Funding limit reconciliation matches the project's need for funding with the organization's ability
to provide the funding.
143. D: The process improvement plan describes how the project processes will be made more efficient.
It's part of the project management plan.
144. A: Project risk management is about reducing the impacts and probabilities of negative risks and
increasing the impact and likelihood of positive risks.
145. B: Free float is how much an activity can extend without delaying the start of a successor activity.
Activity D is a predecessor to Activity F, but Activity F has another set of predecessor activities (B and
E). Activities A and D will take 8 periods; activities B and E will take 15 periods. Activity D could
therefore extend up to 7 more periods (8 + 7) before delaying the start of Activity F.
146. C: PDCA is the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle, and it's central to quality management.
147. B: Should contingency or fallback plans be executed then the time and cost are drawn from the
contingency reserve.
148. D: This is a discrete activity, since it is directly related to the project's deliverable and can be
measured. Apportioned efforts are necessary but not directly related to the deliverable, such as project
management activities. A level of effort activity is usually a supportive role that may be directly related to
the deliverable but is hard to measure --for instance, a salesperson acting as a liaison between the project
team and the customer.
149. B: The risk was transferred to the third party. This puts the risk management burden onto the third
party.
150. B: Analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment since it relies on the experience of the
individual to judge the relevancy of the data and how to adjust the data to fit the current situation.
151. A: A contract is established when an offer is made, the offer is accepted, and something of value
(consideration) is exchanged.
152. B: The key to this question is knowing what inputs are necessary for each process. The project
charter, requirements documentation, and organizational process assets are needed to define the scope.
The WBS is not established until after the scope has been initially created.
153. A: Legitimate power comes from one's position, title, or hierarchy, such as when the project sponsor
names the project's manager. Legitimate power is also known as formal power.
154. B: The project scope statement details the requirements and the work required to meet the project's
objectives.
155. B: The stakeholder register is created in the communication knowledge area during the Identify
Stakeholders process.
156. B: Theory Z proposes that employees are driven by stability and involvement in the decision-making
process.
157. A: The project cost baseline is usually shown as an S-curve graph. The project cost baseline is the
project's total funding requirements shown in time periods.
158. D: The salience model is a tool to help identify the power, legitimacy, and urgency of stakeholders.
Information from that model is used to aid in the creation of the stakeholder management strategy.
159. B: The communications management plan describes all major project communication requirements,
including the type of information, format, frequency, mediums, and to whom it should be distributed to.
160. B: The schedule baseline comes into existence when the schedule undergoes some form of approval.
161. D: Alternatives identification is a tool of the Define Scope process, and it looks for different
approaches in performing the work required by the project. It's goal is to find more efficient, better
quality, and less costly methods.
162. B: Risk data quality assessment reviews the accuracy and reliability of collected risk data before
qualitative risk analysis is performed.
163. A: A RACI chart is a form of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that identifies by project role
the responsibilities that role has and what authority it has for assigned activities. RACI stands for
responsible, accountable, consult, and inform.
164. A: Sensitivity analysis helps determine what risks can have the most impact on project objectives or
how the same risk can affect different objectives. A tornado diagram is one of the common ways to
display the results from sensitivity analysis.
165. B: People are assigned to the project team during the Acquire Project Team process, which is in the
Executing process group.
166. B: The team performance assessment looks at the team as a whole and gauges its effectiveness. The
team performance assessment is really measuring how effective the human resource management plan
and team development activities are. The assessment is the only output of the Develop Project Team
process.
167. A: A devil's advocate consistently takes the opposing viewpoint without facts to be argumentative.
This disrupts the team's train of thought and drains energy. Questioning should not be avoided. An
evaluator/critic role also questions, but does so based on objective information, and is a positive team
role.
168. D: Ground rules are developed by the team, and they establish the expected and acceptable behavior
between the team members.
169. A: Co-location is putting all or part of the project team in one physical location to enhance
communication and efficiency.
170. B: Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory says that the factors that lead to job satisfaction are not
the same factors that motivate employees. The job satisfaction factors are called "hygiene" factors. These
factors, such as benefits, safety, and pay, lead to job satisfaction, but it's factors like challenging work and
responsibility that motivate employees.
171. C: Perform Quality Analysis is concerned with improving the project processes. It uses quality audits
and the process improvement plan (established in Quality Planning).
172. D: Information Distribution is a communication process that not only involves distributing project
information but it also contains the lessons learned process. The lessons learned process makes sure that
lessons are properly collected, documented, organized, and made available within the organization.
173. B: The Develop Project Team process helps the team perform efficiently by increasing its
cohesiveness and skills. Tools that help do this are team member training, ground rules, co-location, and
rewards and recognition.
174. D: In a fixed fee contract that establishes target and ceiling prices, the PTA is the maximum amount
the buyer will have to pay. The formula for PTA is:
Target Cost + (Ceiling Price - Target Price)/Buyer's Percentage Share of Cost
175. C: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is usually shown as a pyramid, and it describes the levels of needs
that must be fulfilled before a person is motivated to fill subsequent levels of needs. The levels of needs
are: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization.
176. A: The SPI is 1.2. The formulas for SPI, EV, and PV are:
SPI = EV/PV
EV = Actual % complete X BAC
PV = Planned % complete X BAC
177. B: Run charts are one of the seven basic tools of quality control. The other tools are cause and effect
diagram, control chart, flowchart, histogram, Pareto chart, and scatter diagram.
178. A: Any modification to the project scope, whether directly or indirectly through an approved change,
results in the scope baseline being changed. The scope baseline is the project scope statement, WBS, and
WBS dictionary. By definition, any scope baseline change also results in changes to the project
management plan since it includes the scope baseline.
179. A: Contingency reserves are used for known risk events. A line item or budget reserve is used to
allow for a variance on a particular budget item. For example, a machine might be budgeted at $1,000, but
might end up costing $1,100. Management reserves are used for projects that might have a significant
scope changes.
180. D: The project team is responsible for resolving conflict between its members. A well functioning
project team will hold itself accountable. The project manager or project management team may need to
facilitate conflict resolution, but the team should be self-directing.
181. A: The issue log is a running record of problems. Issues are problems that have occurred (versus
risks which are uncertain). The issue log helps ensure that issues are assigned, resolved, and the resolution
noted. It's a tool of the Manage Project Team and Manage Stakeholders processes.
182. D: The project is $12,000 over budget. A negative cost variance means that the value is above what
was planned.
183. A: The requested change should be logged into the schedule change control system for review and
disposition through integrated change control.
184. C: The estimate to complete provides how much more money the project will take. The estimate at
completion tells how much total money the project will have taken when it reaches completion.
185. A: The team member's action has resulted in scope creep. Scope creep does not always come from
the customer or stakeholders.
186. A: Performance reports and forecasts are delivered through the Report Performance process.
Information Distribution is for non-performance reports, such as general status and issue resolutions.
187. C: A procurement performance audit is a structured review of the seller's progress thus far compared
to the contract statement of work. It gauges whether the seller will be able to fulfill its contractual
obligations.
188. C: A Pareto chart is based on Pareto's 80/20 rule, which states that 80% of problems are caused by
only 20% of factors.
189. A: Expected monetary value is related to decision trees. It is not one of the seven basic tools of
quality control.
190. C: These are forecasting methods. To name only a few, forecasting methods include trend
estimation, exponential smoothing, linear prediction, growth curve, extrapolation, regression analysis,
econometrics, probabilistic forecasting, and prediction market.
191. A: Performance data is distributed through the Report Performance process. Distribute Information
is concerned with disseminating non-performance communications, like issues, meeting minutes, and
status reports.
192. C: Statistically independent means that the two processes have no relationship with each other.
193. C: The CPI is .69. The formulas for CPI and EV are:
CPI = EV/AC
EV = Actual % complete X BAC
EV=60% x $200,000
EV = $120,000
CPI = $120,000/$175,000
CPI = .69
194. B: If the deliverables are being verified or inspected either scope verification or quality control is
being performed. In this question, scope verification is being performed, not quality control, because
quality control doesn't use the project scope statement as an input.
195. B: Positive CPI means the project is performing under budget, and a positive SPI means that project
work is being completed faster than planned.
196. D: The formula for CPI is: CPI = EV/AC.
The earned value of this project is $180,000 (80% x $225,000)
Its CPI is 180,000/175,000 = 1.03.
A CPI above one means the project is accomplishing work at a cost below what was originally
planned for
197. B: Based on current performance this project will need $114,855 to reach completion. The basic
ETC formula uses the EAC, CPI, and EV formulas:
EV = Actual % completed X BAC 60% X $200,000 = $120,000
CPI = EV/AC $120,000/$175,000 = 0.69
EAC = BAC/CPI $200,000/0.69 = $289,855
ETC = EAC - AC $289,855 - $175,000 = $114,855
198. B: Statistical sampling tests a random, pre-determined number of deliverables for conformance to
requirements.
199. D: The seller should submit a documented claim to the buyer. If the seller doesn't fulfill its
obligations (such as by withholding the deliverable or arbitrarily adding costs to its invoices), it may be
liable for breach of contract.
200. B: Defects in the deliverables are found as part of Perform Quality Control.
201. B: All changes should be immediately logged into the change control system. This is always the first
step that should be done.
202. C: Risk audits look at the effectiveness of the project's risk management. They may also be used to
see how effective risk responses, contingency plans, and fallback plans were.
203. C: The cost variance is $20,000. The cost variance and earned value formulas are:
204. C: The project manager is responsible for managing the stakeholders, which includes resolving their
issues.
205. D: The Verify Scope process compares the project deliverable to the approved scope statements.
Scope verification directly involves the customer, which can help us differentiate it from Perform Quality
Control, which compares the product against quality requirements.
206. C: The change control system provides for notifications of completed defect repairs.
207. C: Manpower, priorities, and schedules are the three predominant sources of conflict within a
project. Together they make up at least 50% of the conflicts.
208. D: A logical, problem-solving approach is usually the best option because it's the one most likely to
result in a win-win solution. Compromise rarely results in a solution that's best for the project, and is a
win-lose solution. It's the responsibility of all team members to facilitate and assist in resolving conflict. It
would rarely be appropriate to involve the customer in a decision such as this unless the technical
approach taken was important from the customer's perspective.
209. A: The change control system is part of the PMIS, and it establishes the procedures for the project-
level management of changes. Organizational-level change management is accomplished through the
configuration management system.
210. B: The change control system (part of Integrated Change Control) may include a formal change
control board, whose members hold decision-making authority for approving or declining change
requests. Even in the absence of a formal change control board, the change control system assigns change
approval responsibilities to individuals.
211. C: The project manager is performing reserve analysis, which is a Risk Monitoring and Control
activity.
212. B: Contract early termination procedures first begin as a contract change request. The request will
then undergo disposition through the buyer's integrated change control.
213. D: Because the measurement falls within the control limits, the process is in control. Measurements
for a process that's in control can be used to predict future performance.
214. A: The Perform Quality Control process makes sure the deliverables meet the quality requirements,
and it is performed before the Verify Scope process.
215. D: 3 sigma would require that 9973 units are defect free out of 10,000. The sigma values that are
most important to know are
1 sigma = 68.25%
2 sigma = 95.46%
3 sigma = 99.73%
6 sigma = 99.99%
216. A: Stakeholder and project team issues should always first be recorded onto the issue log. This
ensures that the issue will not be overlooked.
217. B: Fast-tracking allows activities to be undertaken at the same time when they were originally
sequential. This raises risks, but it can be accomplished without increasing resources. Crashing is adding
more resources to activities to get them completed quicker, but it increases costs since additional
resources are needed.
218. C: The deliverables are needed during Perform Quality Control so that they can be validated against
quality requirements. Quality control measurements are an output of the Perform Quality Control process
--not an input to it.
219. A: The rule of seven states that if seven or more consecutive measurements fall on one side of the
mean that there's an assignable cause that needs investigated.
220. A: The final project performance reports for terminated projects use the deliverables and
performance information up to the point of cancellation compared to the project baseline at the same point
in time.

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