[1000(s+5)]/[s2(s+2)(s+25)]

Basic Electronics Objectives Part-2 [1] Wien bridge oscillator can typically generate frequencies in the range of a. 1kHz - 1 Mhz b. 1 Mhz - 10MHz c. 10MHz - 100MHz d. 100MHz - 150MHz
Ans: A [2] A differential amplifier, amplifies a. and mathematically differentiates the average of the voltages on the two input lines b. and differentiates the input waveform on one line when the other line is grounded c. the difference of voltages between the two input lines d. and differentiates the sum of the two input waveform Ans: C [3] The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is a. Class A b. Class B c. Class AB d. Class C Ans: B [4] The lowest output impedance is obtained in case of BJT amplifiers for a. CB configuration b. CE configuration c. CC configuration d. CE with RE configuration Ans: C [5] The upper cutoff frequency of an RC coupled amplifier mainly depends upon a. Coupling Capacitor b. Emitter bypass capacitor c. Output capacitance of signal source

d. Inter-electrode capacitance and stray shunt capacitance Ans: D [6] Just as a voltage amplifier amplifies signal voltage, a power amplifier a. amplifies power b. amplifies signal current c. merely converts the signal ac power into the dc power d. merely converts the dc power into useful ac power Ans: D [7]An oscillator of the LC type that has a split capacitor in the circuit is a. Hartly oscillator b. Colpitts oscillator c. Weinbridge oscillator d. R-C phase shift oscillator Ans: B [8] The function of bleeder resistor in a power supply is a. the same as that of load resistor b. to ensure a minimum current drain in the circuit c. to increase the output dc voltage d. to increase the output current Ans: B [9] In a bistable multivibrator circuit, commutating capacitor is used a. to increase the base storage charge b. to provide ac coupling c. to increase the speed of response d. to provide the speed of oscillations Ans: C [10] Removing bypass capacitor across the emitter-leg resistor in a CE amplifier causes (A) increase in current gain. (B) decrease in current gain. (C) increase in voltage gain. (D)decrease in voltage gain. Ans: D

Electrical Machines - Alternators : Part 8 [1] Squirrel cage bars placed in the rotor pole faces of an alternator help reduce hunting a. above synchronous speed only b. below synchronous speed only c. above and blow synchronous speeds both

d. none of the above Ans: C [2] The stationary alternator should not be connected to live bus-bars because it a. is likely to run as synchronous motor b. will get short - circuited c. will decrease bus - bar voltage though momentarily d. will disturb generated emf's of other alternators connected in parallel. Ans: B [3] With a unity load p.f, the effect of armature reaction on the main field flux of an alternator is a. distortional b. magnetising c. demagnetising d. nominal Ans: A [4] At lagging loads, armature reaction in an alternator is a. cross-magnetising b. demagnetising c. non-effective d. magnetising Ans: D [5] The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4 poles and rotating at 1800 rpm is a. 60 Hz b. 7200 Hz c. 120 Hz d. 450 Hz Ans: A [6] The main disadvantages of using short pitch winding in alternators is that it a. reduces harmonics in the generated voltage b. reduces the total voltage around the armature coils c. produces asymmetry in the three phase windings d. increases Cu of end connections. Ans: B [7] Zero power factor method of an alternator is used to find its a. efficiency b. voltage regulation c. armature resistance d. synchronous impedance

Ans: B [8] Armature reaction in an alternator mainly affects a. rotor speed b. terminal voltage per phase c. frequency of armature current d. generated voltage per phase Ans: D [9]The effect of increasing air gap length in the induction motor will increase the a. power factor b. speed c. magnetising current d. air gap flux Ans: C [10] The principle of operation of a 3 phase induction motor is most similar to that of a a. synchronous motor b. repulsion start induction motor c. transformer with a shorted secondary d. capacitor start, induction run motor Ans: C

Power Electronics Objective Questions with Answers: Part3 [1] The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called a. avalanche breakdown b. zener breakdown c. breakdown by tunnelling d. high voltage breakdown
Ans: A [2] For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behave as a. Voltage controlled resistor b. Current controlled current source c. Voltage controlled current source d. Current controlled resistor Ans: C [3] In a full wave rectifier without filter, the ripple factor is a. 0.482 b. 1.21 c. 1.79

d. 2.05 Ans: A [4] Space charge region around a P-N junction a. does not contain mobile carries b. contains both free electrons and holes c. contains one type of mobile carriers depending on the level of doping of the P or N regions d. contains electrons only as free carriers Ans: A [5] In a JFET, at pinch-off voltage applied on the gate a. The drain current becomes almost zero b. The drain current begins to decrease c. The drain current is almost at saturation value d. The drain to source voltage is close to zero volts Ans: C [6] The value of ripple factor of a half wave rectifier without filter is approximately a. 1.2 b. o.2 c. 2.2 d. 2.0 Ans:A [7] In an intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi-level is a. closer to the valence band b. midway between conduction and valence band c. closer to the conduction band d. within the valence band Ans: C [8] The transformer utilization factor of a half wave rectifier is approximately a. 0.6 b. 0.3 c. 0.9 d. 1.1 Ans: B [9] Transistor is a a. Current controlled current device b. Current controlled voltage device c. Voltage controlled current device d. Voltage controlled voltage device

Ans: A For ex, the output current Ic depends on the input current Ib [10] If the output voltage of a bridge rectifier is 100V, the PIV of diode will be a. 100 * Square root(2) V b. 200/(pi) V c. 100 * (pi) V d. 100/2 V Ans: D Peak inverse voltage = max secondary voltage = Vdc= 2Vm/pi = 100 Vm = 100 * pi/2

Electrical Machine - DC Motor Objectives: Part 7 [1] The basic requirement of a dc armature winding is that it must be a. a closed one b. a lap winding c. a wave winding d. either b or c
Ans: A [2] The sole purpose of a commutator in a dc generator is to a. increase output voltage b. reduce sparking at brushes c. provide smoother output d. convert the induced ac into dc Ans: D [3] In small DC machines, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but are skewed, results in a. quieter operation b. slight decrease in losses c. saving of copper d. both a and b Ans: D [4] The critical resistance of the dc generator is the resistance of a. armature b. field c. load d. brushes Ans: B [5] In a dc generator, the generator, the generated emf is directly proportional to the a. field current b. pole flux c. number of armature parallel paths

d. number of dummy coils Ans: B [6] The commutation process in a dc generator basically involves a. passage of current from moving armature to a stationary load b. reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA c. conversion of ac to dc d. suppression of reactance voltage Ans:B [7] The essential condition for stable parallel operation of two dc generators having similar characteristics is that they should have a. same kilowatt output ratings b. dropping voltage characteristics c. same percentage regulation d. same no load and full load speed Ans:B [8] An ideal dc generator has .......... voltage regulation. a. low b. zero c. positive d. negative Ans: B [9] Which generator has poorest voltage regulation a. series b. shunt c. compound d. high Ans: A [10] The voltage regulation of an over compound dc generator is always a. Positive b. negative c. zero d. high Ans: B

Electrical Machines: Part 6 [1] In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at (A) unity p.f. (B) leading p.f. (C) lagging p.f. (D) zero p.f. leading.

Ans: B [2] In a stepper motor the angular displacement (A) can be precisely controlled. (B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller. (C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled. (D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines. Ans: A Exp: Stepper Motor - Introduction [3] The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is (A) low at light load only. (B) low at heavy load only. (C) low at light and heavy load both. (D) low at rated load only. Ans: A [4] The generation voltage in India is usually (A) between 11 KV and 33 KV. (B) between 132 KV and 400 KV. (C) between 400 KV and 700 KV. (D) None of the above. Ans: A [5] When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces (A) damping torque. (B) eddy current torque. (C) torque aiding the developed torque. (D) no torque. Ans: D [6]If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be (A) A square wave. (B) A sine wave. (C) A triangular wave. (D) A pulse wave. Ans: A

[7] A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will (A) come to stop. (B) continue to run at synchronous speed. (C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed. (D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed. Ans: B [8] The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about (A) 50 Hz. (B) 20 Hz. (C) 2 Hz. (D) Zero. Ans: C [9] The speed of a dc motor can be controlled by varying a. its flux per pole b. resistance of armature circuit c. applied voltage d. all of the above Ans: D [10] Regarding Ward-Leonard system of speed control which statement is false? a. It is usually used where wide and very sensitive speed control is required b. It is used for motors having ratings from 750kW to 4000kW c. Capital outlay involved in the system is right since it uses two extra machines d. It gives a speed range of 10:1 but in one direction only e. It has low overall efficiency especially at light loads Ans: D

1. a. b. c. d. A

The gain of a cascaded amplifier is equal to the Product of individual gains. Sum of individual gains. Ratio of stage gains. None of these.

2. Two stages of a multistage amplifier have gains of 50 and 20. The dB voltage gain is a. 3 b. 30 c. 300 d. 1000 D 3. The RC coupling is popular in audio amplifiers because a. It provides an output signal in phase with the input signal. b. It needs low voltage collector supply. c. It has better audio frequency response. d. None of these. C 4. The major advantage of a direct coupled amplifier is that a. It uses less number of components. b. It has very good temperature stability. c. It does no use frequency sensitive components. d. It can amplify direct current and low frequencysignals. D 5. In a darlington pair, a. Two transistors are connected in parallel. b. The emitter if first transistor feeds the base of the second. c. Collector of the first feeds the base of the second. B 6. Two identical stages of amplifers are cascaded by RC coupling. If 10 is the mid band voltage gain of each stage, the overall gain of the cascaded amplifier will be ..dB. a. 40 b. 100 c. 20 d. 20log1020 A 7. In a multistage amplifier there are two or more stages True. 8. The overall voltage gain of a multistage amplifier is obtained by adding the voltage gains of each stages when expressed as a voltage ratio False [ In dB, the voltage gains are added. In ratio, they are multiplied] 9. When you connect an identical 2nd stage transistor amplifier to the first stage, the voltage gain of the first stage increases The voltage gain of the first stage decreases.

10. The lower cutoff frequency of a two stage RC coupled amplifier is higher than its value for the single stage amplifier True. 11. By cascading the 2nd stage of an identical transistor amplifier, the upper cutoff frequency increases. False Upper cutoff frequency decreases. 12. In a multistage amplifier, the transformer coupling is used whenever we want to amplify very low frequency or dc signals. False To amplify low frequency or dc signals, direct coupling is used. 13. RC coupling is the best coupling scheme when frequency of the signal is in the range of 60Hz to 20KHz. True. 14. In a multistage voltage amplifier transformer coupling is used to amplify audio signals False RC coupling is used. 15. We always use RC coupling for amplifying a small band of radio frequency (1400KHz to 1410KHz) signal False Transformer coupling is used. 16. a. b. c. d. D 17. a. b. c. d. A 18. . a. b. c. d. B 19. a. b. c. d. D 20. A radio receiver has of amplification. One stage. Two stages. Three stages. More than 3 stages. RC coupling is used for ..amplification. Voltage. Current. Power. None. In an RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over mid frequency range Changes abruptly with frequency. Is constant. Changes uniformly with frequency. None. In obtaining the frequency response curve of an amplifier, the Amplifier level output is kept constant. Amplifier frequency is held constant. Generator frequency is held constant. Generator output level is held constant. An advantage of RC coupling scheme is the

a. Good impedance matching. b. Economy. c. High efficiency. d. None. B 21. The best frequency response is of coupling. a. RC b. Transformer. c. Direct. d. None. C 22. Transformer coupling is used for .amplification. a. Power. b. Voltage. c. Current. d. None. A 23. In an RC coupling scheme, the coupling capacitor CC must be large enough a. To pass dc between the stages. b. Not to attenuate the low frequencies. c. To dissipate high power. d. None. B 24. In RC coupling, the value of coupling capacitor is about a. 100pF. b. 0.1F c. 0.01F d. 10 F. D 25. The noise factor of an ideal amplifier expressed in dB is a. 0 b. 1 c. 0.1 d. 10 A 26. When a multistage amplifier is to amplify dc signal, then one must use ..coupling. a. RC b. Transformer.

c. d. C 27. a. b. c. d. B 28. a. b. c. d.

Direct. None. coupling provides the maximum voltage gain. RC Transformer. Direct. Impedance. In practice, voltage gain is expressed .. In dB. In volts. As a number. None. A Transformer coupling provides high efficiency because Collector voltage is stepped up. Dc resistance is low. Collector voltage is stepped down. None.

29. a. b. c. d. B 30. Transformer coupling is generally employed when load resistance is a. Large. b. Very large. c. Small. d. None. C 31. If a three stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 10, 5 and 12dBs, then total gain in dB is a. 600dB. b. 24dB. c. 14dB. d. 27 dB. D 32. The final stage of a multistage amplifier uses coupling. a. RC b. Transformer. c. Direct. d. Impedance. B

33. The ear is not sensitive to a. Frequency distortion. b. Amplitude distortion. c. Frequency as well as amplitude distortion. d. None. A 34. RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequency because a. There is considerable power loss. b. There is hum in the output. c. Electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very large. d. None of the above. C 35. In transistor amplifier we use transformer for impedance matching. a. Step up. b. Step down. c. Same turns ratio. d. None. B 36. The lower and upper cutoff frequencies are also called .. frequencies. a. Sideband. b. Resonant. c. Half resonant. d. Half power. D 37. A gain of 1000000 times in power is expressed by .dB. a. 30 b. 60 c. 120 d. 600 B 38. A gain of 100 times in voltage is expressed by ..dB. a. 60 b. 30 c. 120 d. 600 A 39. 1 dB corresponds to % change in power level. a. 50

b. 35 c. 26 d. 22 C 40. 1 dB corresponds to % change in voltage or current level. a. 40 b. 80 c. 20 d. 25 A 41. The frequency response of transformer coupling is a. Good. b. Very good. c. Excellent. d. Poor. D 42. In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, we use .coupling. a. RC b. Transformer. c. Direct. d. None. A 43. The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than the product of the gains of individual stages due to a. Power loss in the coupling device. b. Loading effect of next stage. c. The use of many transistors. d. The use of many capacitors. B 44. The gain of an amplifier is expressed in dB because a. It is a simple unit. b. Calculations become easy. c. Human ear response is logarithmic. d. None. C 45. If the power level of an amplifier reduces to half, the dB gain will fall by dB. a. 0.5 b. 2 c. 10

d. 3 D 46. A current amplification of 2000 is a gain of .dB. a. 3 b. 66 c. 20 d. 200 B 47. An amplifier receives 0.1W of input signal and delivers 15W of signal power. What is the power gain in dB? a. 21.8 b. 14.6 c. 9.5 d. 17.4 A 48. RC coupling is generally confined to low power applications because of a. Large value of coupling capacitor. b. Low efficiency. c. Large number of components. d. None. B 49. The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because a. Changes in temperature cause thermal stability. b. Circuit becomes heavy and costly. c. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit. d. None. A 50. The purpose of RC or transformer coupling is to a. Block ac. b. Separate bias from one stage from another. c. Increase thermal stability. d. None. B
1. An ideal amplifier has a) Noise figure of 0 db b) Noise figure of more than 0 db c) Noise factor of unity d) Noise figure of less than 1 db Ans : (c) 2. Fidelity represents S1: Reproduction of signal

S2: Reproduction of phase relation a) S1 and S2 are true b) S1 and S2 are false c) S1 false and S2 true d) S1 true and S2 false Ans : (d) 3. The decibel is a measure of a) Current b) Voltage c) Power d) Power level Ans : (d) 4. Power gain in decibels is equal to voltage gain in decibels only when a) Input impedance is equal to output impedance b) Output impedance is zero c) Never d) Input impedance is zero Ans : (a) 5. If the current gain of the amplifier is X, its voltage gain is Y, then its power gain will be a) X/Y b) X*Y c) X+Y d) X-Y Ans : (b) 6. In an amplifier, the coupling capacitors are employed for a) Limiting the bandwidth b) Matching the impedance c) Preventing of Dc mixing with input or output d) Controlling the output Ans : (c) 7. The amplifier which has no drift is called as a) Differential amplifier b) DC amplifier c) Single ended amplifier d) Chopper amplifier Ans : (d) 8. The amplifier gain varies with frequency. This happens mainly due to a) Miller effect b) Presence of external and internal capacitance c) Logarithmic increase in its output d) Inter stage transformer Ans : (b) 9. The outstanding characteristics of a D.C. amplifier is its a) Ability to amplify Dc and low frequency signals b) Temperature stability c) Utmost economy d) Avoidance of frequency sensitive components Ans : (a)

10. Isolation amplifier actually operates on the principle of a) Filtering b) Attenuation c) Clipping d) Amplification Ans : (b) 11. Isolation amplifiers are also called as a) DC amplifier b) Output amplifier c) Inverting amplifier d) Iso-amps Ans : (d) 12. The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders a) Affects the gain of the amplifier b) Delays the signals c) Changes the shape of the waveform of the signal d) Attenuates the signals Ans : (c) 13. To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can use__________ a) Buffer amplifier b) Differential amplifier c) Single ended amplifier d) Chopper amplifier Ans : (b) 14. Resistively generated inference arises through incorrect __________________ a) Grounding b) Current density at the electrodes c) Supply voltage d) Input impedance Ans : (a) 15. CMRR is more in_______________ a) Single ended amplifier b) Differential amplifier c) Inverting operational amplifier d) Chopper amplifier Ans : (b) 16. For biomedical applications the mostly used amplifier is a) Single ended amplifier b) Differential amplifier c) Inverting operational amplifier d) Chopper amplifier Ans : (b) 17. ___________ amplifier is used to drive the recorder. a) Power amplifier b) Pre amplifier c) Operational amplifier d) Differential amplifier Ans : (a)

18. When a number of components are fabricated on same IC chip it is necessary to provide isolation between two different components for input interconnection is called __________ a) Input amplification b) Input differentiation c) Common mode rejection d) Input isolation Ans : (d) 19. A chopper amplifier a) Converts AC signal from low frequency to high frequency b) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency c) Converts AC signal from low frequency to DC high frequency d) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency Ans : (b) 20. Power amplifier is provided with S1: Cross over distortion compensation S2: Offset control a) S1 is true & S2 is false b) S2 is true & S1 is false c) Both S1 & S2 are true d) Both S1 & S2 are false Ans : (c) 21. Pre amplifier isolation in ECG circuit is to a) Increase input impedance b) Decrease input impedance c) Increase output impedance d) Decrease output impedance Ans : (a) 22. Raising input impedance of pre amplifier reduces a) Input current b) Output current c) Stray current d) Grid current Ans : (c) 23. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as ratio of a) Common mode gain to differential mode gain b) Differential mode gain to common mode gain c) Common mode gain at input to differential mode gain at input d) Common mode gain at output to differential mode gain at output Ans : (b) 24. An electrometer amplifier has high input impedance of a) 1010? b) 105? c) 1020? d) 1015? Ans : (d) 25. When the input of differential amplifier V1 = 0, then the differential amplifier is said to be operated in a) Common mode

b) Differential mode c) Non inverting mode d) Inverting mode Ans : (c) 26. When either one of the inputs to the differential amplifier is equal to zero then it is said to be operated in a) Single ended mode b) Differential mode c) Non inverting mode d) Inverting mode Ans : (a) 27. The negative feed back in an amplifier a) Reduces voltage gain b) Increases the voltage gain c) Increases the gain band width product d) Reduces the input impedances Ans : (a) 28. Feedback in an amplifier always helps in a) Increasing its input impedance b) Increasing its gain c) Controlling its output d) Stabilizes its gain Ans : (c) 29. Using mechanical chopper we cannot achieve high chopping rates due to their a) Input impedance b) Output impedance c) Response time d) Inertia Ans : (d) 30. The CMRR of a typical IC OPAMP is a) 70 dB b) 80 dB c) 85 dB d) 75 dB Ans : (b) 31. A is usually a display device used to produce a paper record of analog wave form. a) Graphic pen recorder b) Electron microscope c) X-Y recorder d) Oscilloscope Ans : (a) 32. The _________ of a recording system is the magnitude of input voltage required to produce a standard deflection in a recorded trace. a) Accuracy b) Linearity c) Sensitivity d) Resolution Ans : (c)

33. A recorder is said to have good frequency response when the sensitivity of the system is _________ for all frequencies present in the signal. a) Unity b) Zero c) Infinity d) Constant Ans : (d) 34. In phase response of a recorder noise level ___________ with the band width of a system a) Increases b) Decreases c) Reaches unity d) Reaches infinity Ans : (a) 35. Function of microscope is S1: To magnify object, under observation S2: To resolve the object a) S1 is true & S2 is false b) S2 is true & S1 is false c) Both S1 & S2 are true d) Both S1 & S2 are false Ans : (c) 36. In electron microscope the projection of the motion on a plane normal to magnetic induction (B) will be a circle of radius (r) = a) mVsin?+eB b) mVsin?/eB c) mVsin?-eB d) mVsin?*eB Ans : (b) 37. Match the following 1. Electron microscope (A) Electron gun 2. Oscilloscope (B) Condensing magnetic lens 3. Galvanometric recorder (C) Recording head 4. Magnetic recorder (D) Drive motor a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B Ans : (c) 38. In PMMC writing system, the magnitude of pen deflection is proportional to S1: Current flowing through the coil S2: Voltage in the coil a) S1 is true & S2 is false b) S2 is true & S1 is false c) Both S1 & S2 are true d) Both S1 & S2 are false Ans : (a)

39. Duration of rotation of pen in the PMMC system depends upon ___________ a) Phase angle b) Frequency c) Magnitude d) Direction Ans : (d) 40. The shorter wave length of the electron permits the detailed examination of tiny objects due to reduction of ___________ effects a) Reflection b) Diffraction c) Refraction d) Polarization Ans : (b) 41. Which of the following recorder gives slow response a) X-Y recorder b) Oscillographic c) Galvanometric d) Magnetic Ans : (c) 42. The use of storage oscilloscope S1: Viewing rapidly changing non repetitive wave forms S2: Recording average values a) S1 is true & S2 is false b) S2 is true & S1 is false c) Both S1 & S2 are true d) Both S1 & S2 are false Ans : (b) 43. In X-Y recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of a) Another emf b) Frequency c) Time d) Pressure Ans : (a) 44. In strip chart recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of a) Another emf b) Frequency c) Time d) Pressure Ans : (c) 45. The slewing speed of X-Y recorder is a) 1.6 m/s b) 1.3 m/s c) 1.4 m/s d) 1.5 m/s Ans : (d) 46. The resolution limit of electron microscope is a) 2 A.V b) 1 A.V

c) 1.5 A.V d) 1.2 A.V Ans : (b) 47. _____________ is also known as halftone storage or mersh storage. a) Variable persistence storage b) Bistable storage c) Flat storage d) CRT Ans : (a) 48. Storage oscilloscope operates on the principle of a) Primary emission b) Deflection c) Secondary emission d) Diffusion Ans : (c) 49. The writing speed of fast storage oscilloscope is a) 2000 cm/?s b) 1000 cm/?s c) 1500 cm/?s d) 2500 cm/?s Ans : (a) 50. Stress and strain curves are plotted using a) Magnetic tape recording b) X-Y recording c) Galvanometric d) PMMC writing systems Ans : (b)