MC Questions

1. The Earths lithosphere represents: (a) the part of Earth above the asthenosphere, (b) the uppermost solid part of the mantle and crust, combined, (c) the tectonic plates of the outer Earth. (d) All of the above are correct. 2. The thickness of oceanic lithosphere is approximately: (a) 8 km; (b) 40 km; (c) 100 km; (d) 400 km.

3. Radiometric dating methods: (a) establish the absolute age of a mineral, from which the absolute age of the rock may be interpreted, (b) establish the relative age of a mineral, from which the relative age of the rock may be interpreted, (c) are most commonly employed to determine the relative ages of sedimentary rocks, (d) are not widely believed as they typically yield ages that are 2-3 times older than known ages. 4. Which of the following lists correctly match parent and daughter isotopes: (a) Uranium-Strontium; (b) Uranium-Potassium; (c) Potassium-Lead; (d) Uranium-Lead. 5. Darcys Law expresses the relationship between: (a) a radioactively produced daughter isotope and its parent; (b) the flow of water through an aquifer; (c) the isostatic uplift rate of mountain belts related to convergence; (d) ice thickness and post-glacial rebound of continents. 6. Heat within the Earth is generated today by: (a) the formation of magma at depth, (b) radioactive decay, (c) metamorphism, (d) deformation. 7. A depositional contact between undeformed sedimentary rocks above older sedimentary rocks that were already folded before deposition began would be: (a) a nonconformity, (b) a disconformity, (c) an angular unconformity. (d) a relative conformity. 8. Faults forming in a region that experienced extension would most likely be: (a) thrust faults, (b) normal faults, (c) strike-slip faults, (d) reverse faults. 9. The orientation of a planar feature in a rock is recorded as a: (a) strike and dip, (b) trend and plunge, (c) syncline and anticline, (d) lineation and axis. 10. Which of the following rock types most commonly exists at the surface of the continents? (a) Sedimentary rocks. (b) Igneous rocks.

(c) Metamorphic rocks, (d) All rock types exist in nearly equal proportions. 11. Which of the following lists of metamorphic rocks appear in the correct sequence of increasing metamorphic grade? (a) Slate, schist, gneiss. (b) Marble, gneiss, slate. (c) Gneiss, slate, schist. (d) Schist, gneiss, slate. 12. In the diagram of the rock cycle shown above, what is happening along the arrow marked B? (a) uplift and erosion, (b) diagenesis, (c) burial and heating, (d) crystallization. 13. Regional metamorphism is most likely to occur: (a) in small regions related to mid ocean ridge hydrothermal circulation systems; (b) around large intrusive bodies; (c) near mantle plumes; (d) over large areas related to the formation of mountain belts. 14. A metamorphosed limestone corresponds to which metamorphic rock type? (a) Gneiss. (b) Schist. (c) Marble. (d) Slate. 15. A syncline is a fold in sedimentary rocks that is: (a) concave upwards, with the youngest unit in the center, (b) concave upwards, with the oldest unit in the center (c) convex upwards, with the youngest unit in the center. (d) convex upwards, with the oldest unit in the center. 16. Folds occurring in sedimentary layers indicate that: (a) shortening has occurred approximately perpendicular to the fold axial plane; (b) shortening has occurred approximately parallel to the fold axis; (c) shortening has occurred approximately parallel to the strike of the fold limbs; (d) shortening has occurred approximately perpendicular to the dips of the fold limbs. 17. You find a dip slip fault where the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall. This fault is a: (a) normal fault, (b) reverse fault, (c) strike-slip fault. (d) transform fault. 18. Metamorphism under conditions of high pressures and medium to low temperatures is most likely to occur in which tectonic setting(s)? (a) Subduction zones. (b) Continent-continent collisional belts. (c) Divergent mid-oceanic ridges. (d) Transform faults. 19. The average geothermal gradient of stable continental crust is: (a) 5-7 degrees C per kilometer, (b) 20-30 degrees C per kilometer, (c) 50-75 degrees C per kilometer, (d) 80-100 degrees C per kilometer. 20. Pressure increases within stable continental crust as: (a) a linear function of depth,

(b) an exponential function of depth, (c) a function of depth and temperature, (d) a function of temperature. 21. Sand dunes migrate: (a) with the prevailing wind direction; (b) against the prevailing wind direction; (c) perpendicular to the prevailing wind direction. (d) There is no set direction, it depends on the velocity of the wind. 22. Sand will accumulate on the: (a) leeward (downwind) side of an obstacle. (b) windward (upwind) side of an obstacle (c) equally on both the leeward and windward side of an obstacle (d) will not be influenced by the obstacle. 23. The largest reservoir of fresh water in the hydrosphere is present in: (a) ground water; (b) the atmosphere; (c) glaciers and polar ice; (d) lakes and rivers. 24. The potential of a stream to transport sediment is a function of: (a) the streams gradient; (b) the size and density of the sediment particles; (c) whether stream flow is turbulent or laminar. (d) All of the above are correct. 25. The best aquifers are those layers beneath the Earths surface with: (a) high clay contents; (b) low permeability; (c) high porosity; (d) low fracture density. 26. At a bend in a meandering river, ________ occurs on the outside of a meander and ________ occurs on the inside of the meander: (a) erosion deposition; (b) deposition erosion; (c) erosion erosion; (d) deposition deposition. 27. Permeability is: (a) the ability of a solid to hold water (b) the ability of water to pass through a solid (c) the percentage of pore space (d) the formation of vapor from a solid. 28. Pumping water large volumes of water over short duration from a well that penetrates a limestone aquifer of low permeability will likely; (a) draw down the water table, a consequence of sluggish recharge rates; (b) cause fracturing by removing the water; (c) raise the water table by pulling water towards the well site; (d) increase the permeability of the aquifer. (d) there are karst formations at depth. 29. In what type of rock do most caves form: (a) granite (b) shale (c) limestone (d) sandstone

30. Loess describes sedimentary layers related to: (a) ice scouring and deposition; (b) boulder beds at the mouth of high energy rivers; (c) wind blown dust; (d) formation and movement of sand dunes. 31. Water generated ripples can be used to determine the dominant current direction during the time of deposition because they are generally oriented _______ to the current direction: (a) parallel; (b) 30 degrees; (c) 45 degrees; (d) perpendicular. 32. Catastrophic mass wasting is most commonly related to: (a) high rain fall; (b) earthquakes; (c) nature of the unconsolidated material. (d) All of the above are possible. 33. The angle of repose of unconsolidated sediment refers to: (a) the maximum inclination for a stable slope; (b) the angle of the peak top; (c) the likelihood of a landslide; (d) the angularity of the constituent particles. 34. The slowest movement of unconsolidated material downhill is called: (a) debris flow; (b) landslide; (c) creep; (d) ablation. 35. Compared to granite, basalt is typically both: a. less dense and lighter in color. b. less dense and darker in color. c. denser and lighter in color. d. denser and darker in color. 36. The phrase the present is the key to the past is a statement of: a. the Principle of Original Continuity. b. the Principle of Original Horizontality. c. the Principle of Superposition. d. the Principle of Uniformitarianism. e. none of the above 37. The most abundant sedimentary rock on the Earth is: a. basalt. b. breccia. c. limestone. d. sandstone. e. shale. 38. The principal agent(s) of metamorphism is(are): a. chemically active fluids. b. heat. c. pressure. d. all of the above 39. ____ is not a mineral because it is not a crystalline substance; whereas because, although crystalline, it is an organic substance. ____ is not a mineral

a. b. c. d. e.

amber; glass glass; sugar olivine; amber sugar; olivine none of the above are correct.

40. Mechanical (physical) weathering produces products that are: a. higher in organic matter. b. more stable at the Earth's surface. c. smaller pieces of the parent materials. d. water soluble at high pressures. e. all of the above f. none of the above 41. Transform faults generated at mid-ocean ridges are also _____ faults. a. normal b. overthrust c. reverse d. strike slip e. thrust 42. All but one of the following phenomena is evidence for continental drift. exception (i.e., does not support plate tectonics)? a. apparent fits of the separate continents b. expansion of the Earths crust c. paleomagnetics d. zoogeography of the fossil record 43. Which of the following igneous rocks has the same composition as basalt? a. gabbro b. granite c. pumice d. rhyolite e. xenolith 44. Which of the following environments would fossiliferous limestone most likely be deposited? a. shallow frigid water b. shallow tropical water c. very deep frigid water d. very deep tropical water 45. Foliation is a defining characteristic for: a. continental drift. b. granitization. c. Hooke's Law. d. metamorphic rocks. e. ribaldry. 46. Most of the minerals that make up the Earth's crust are: a. carbonates. b. elemental. c. oxides. d. silicates. e. none of the above 47. Diamond-and-graphite and pyrite-and - marcasite are both examples of: a. amorphous substances b. igneous rocks Which one is the

c. isotopes d. mlange e. polymorphs 48. By volume, most of the Earth's crust is composed of: a. clay b. iron c. magnesium d. oxygen e. silicon 49. Hawaii provides excellent examples of _________, which have a ________ composition. a. cinder cones; felsic b. shield volcanoes; felsic c. shield volcanoes; mafic d. stratovolcanoes; felsic e. stratovolcanoes; quartzose 50. In going from size of the clasts ( from large to small ), the progression is: a. clay, sand, silt, gravel b. gravel, sand, silt, clay c. sand, gravel, silt, clay d. silt, clay, sand, gravel 51. The hardest minerals generally have _______ bonds, whereas the softest minerals generally have ______ bonds. a. covalent; ionic b. covalent; metallic c. covalent; van der Waals d. ionic, metallic e. ionic, covalent f. van der Waals; metallic 52. Mt St. Helens, Mt. Pinatubo, and Mt. Vesuvius are all excellent examples of: a. active volcanoes b. dormant volcanoes c. extinct volcanoes 53. The Atlantic Mid-Ocean Ridge is an example of: a. continent-continent plate convergence b. continent-continent plate divergence c. ocean-continent plate convergence d. ocean-continent plate divergence e. ocean-ocean plate convergence f. ocean-ocean plate divergence 54. The Himalayas are example of: a. continent-continent plate convergence b. continent-continent plate divergence c. ocean-continent plate convergence d. ocean-continent plate divergence e. ocean-ocean plate convergence f. ocean-ocean plate divergence 55. The rates of "continental drift" or plate motion are on the order of: a. 10-2 -1 mm/yr b. 1-20 cm/yr c. 1-10 m/yr

56. Turbidity currents in bodies of water: a. are gravity-driven currents of a mixture of water and sediments. b. are caused by erosional unloading of the crust, followed by exfoliation jointing and slope failure. c. can create tuffaceous sediments and flow basalts, such as at Yucca Mountain. d. create extensive zones of contact metamorphism. e. were responsible for the breakup of Gondwanaland. 57. Which mineral would be expected to be most stable (most resistant to chemical weathering) at earth surface conditions? a. amphibole b. feldspar c. gabbro d. olivine e. quartz 58. Which mineral would be expected to crystallize from magma at the highest temperature? a. basalt b. feldspar c. muscovite d. olivine e. quartz 59. Which of the following is a form of chemical weathering? a. abrasion b. dissolution c. frost wedging d. impact phenomena e. metamorphism 60. Which of the following is a form of physical weathering? a. bioturbation b. dissolution c. fermentation d. granitization e. hydrolysis 61. The major result of physical weathering is: a. break down of silicates to oxides b. breakdown of silicates to clays c. a decrease in specific surface d. an increase in specific surface e. formation of sinkholes 62. Mica has ____ cleavage planes. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 63. Which of the following is correct for isotopes of the same element? a. The atoms have different numbers of electrons and the same number of neutrons. b. The atoms have different numbers of electrons and the same number of protons. c. The atoms have different numbers of neutrons and the same number of protons. d. The atoms have different numbers of protons and the same number of neutrons. e. None of the above is correct.

64. A _____ is an open cavity in a volcanic rock that was filled by a gas bubble when the lava was still mainly liquid. a. dike b. phenocryst c. porphyrocryst d. vesicle e. xenolith 65. Which natural phenomenon occurs for many years after major volcanic eruptions, such as Krakatoa, Tambora, and Pinatubo? a. brilliantly colored sunrises and sunsets b. heavy rains of volcanic ash within 100km of the volcano c. intense soil development in the polar regions. d. unusually warm weather in the tropics and subtropics. e. worldwide rises in sea level of 1 to 3 centimeters 66. Which of the following best describes bedded gypsum and halite? a. detrital sedimentary rocks b. evaporites; chemical sedimentary rocks c. varieties of dolostone d. varieties of coal and peat e. None of the above, gypsum and halite are too soluble to occur as bedded rocks. 67. Which of the following statements about slate is not true? a. Rock cleavage is common. b. Sedimentary features may be visible. c. Slate contains abundant, coarse-grained mica. d. Slate forms from shales and mudstones. 68. A deeply eroded structural basin would exhibit _____ . a. jagged central peaks b. older strata at the edges of the basin dip away from a central, horizontal fold axis c. outcrops of the oldest strata in the center of the basin d. strata dipping outwards from the center of the basin e. strata oriented in rough circular, concentric outcrop patterns 69. A soil a. b. c. d. e. that develops under tropical weathering conditions might be expected to be a: entisol. histosol. oxisol. vertisol. none of the above.

70. The fault shown to the right, like the San Andres, is a __ a. left-lateral strike slip b. normal c. reverse d. right lateral strike slip e. transform

71. The feature shown below is an excellent example of:

a. cross bedding. b. a dike. c. metamorphism. d. a sill. e. turbidites. 72. Figure A represents a ______ fault and Figure B represents a _______ fault. a. normal; reverse b. reverse; strike slip c. strike slip; thrust d. thrust; normal e. transform; overthrust

. 73. The mechanism that creates the most severe earthquakes, such as the one that lead to the recent tsunami in the Indian Ocean, are created by: a. chemical weathering in subduction zones. b. contact metamorphism of carbonate rocks. c. elastic rebound from plate tectonic stresses. d. underground nuclear explosions. e. volcanic eruptions. 74. Which of the following is not among the 8 most abundant elements on Earth? a) hydrogen, b) potassium, c) sodium, d) iron, e) aluminum. 75. The most abundant element on Earth is a) silicon, b) water, c) aluminum, d) iron, e) oxygen. 76. Any substance where the atoms are arranged in a regular geometric pattern is a) a naturally occurring solid, b) a mineral, c) a substance formed through inorganic processes, d) a crystalline substance, e) a compound.

77. All matter in the Universe is composed of a) molecules, b) atoms, c) crystals, d) minerals, e) substances. 78. Which of the following is not a basic component of an atom? a) electron, b) neutron, c) proton, d) positron. 79. Which of the following is a part of the definition of a mineral? a) a liquid that may become solid, b) man-made, c) definite chemical composition, d) unorganized structure, e) OOPS! All of these are parts of the definition of a mineral. 80. The silica tetrahedron is composed of a) 1 silicon and 4 aluminum atoms, b) 1 silicon and 4 oxygen atoms, c) silicon chips, d) silicon only, e) silicon, iron and aluminum atoms. 81. The physical characteristic of some minerals whereby they fracture along preferred planes related to the crystalline structure of the mineral is known as a) cleavage, b) fracture, c) breakage, d) planarity, e) all of these. 82. Which of the following is a physical property of minerals? a) breakage, b) tint and hue, c) luster, d) roughness, e) roundness. 83. An example of a sheet silicate mineral is a) olivine, b) quartz, c) augite, d) hornblende, e) none of these. 84. In the single-chain silicates, the silica tetrahedra are bound to each other at a) two corners, b) three corners, c) four corners, d) one corner, e) not bounded to each other. 85. The color of a powdered mineral is a) the same as the color of the mineral specimen, b) its streak, c) determined by the types of impurities in the mineral, d) is not a reliable physical property, e) none of these. 86. Which of the following minerals are arranged in order of increasing hardness? a) talc, apatite, corundum, diamond, b) topaz, quartz, fluorite, corundum, c) talc, quartz, calcite, diamond, d) quartz, topaz, diamond, fluorite, e) fluorite, calcite, gypsum, talc. 87. What type of silicate is Muscovite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 88. What type of silicate is Biotite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 89. What type of silicate is Augite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 90. What type of silicate is Olivine? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 91. What type of silicate is Quartz? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 92. What type of silicate is Hornblende? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 93. What type of silicate is Feldspar? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework.

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94. How do the crystal structures of micas and feldspars differ from each other? a) feldspars are framework silicates, micas are double chain silicates, b) feldspars are double chain silicates, micas are sheet silicates, c) micas and feldspars have the same crystalline structure, d) feldspars are single chain silicates, micas are double chain silicates, e) micas are sheet silicates, feldspars are framework silicates. 95. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet? a) Earth, b) Mars, c) Venus, d), the Moon, e) all of these is considered terrestrial planets. 96. Earths atmosphere is different from other planets because a) it contains abundant nitrogen, b) it contains abundant oxygen, c) it contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide, d) it contains abundant water vapor, e) all of these. 97. The atmospheres of Venus and Mars contain mostly a) oxygen, b) methane, c) hydrogen sulfide, d) carbon dioxide, e) argon. 98. The planet that is most dense is a) Mars, b) Earth, c) Venus, d) the Moon, e) Mercury. 99. Is life abundant in the Universe? a) yes, b) no, c) no one can say, d) it is highly likely, e) it is highly unlikely. 100. True or False: The terrestrial planet with the smallest diameter also has the smallest mass. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you define "mass", e) it depends on how you define "diameter". 101. Rocks of the continents are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon. 102. Rocks of the ocean basins are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon. 103. Geologic processes that resulted in the formation of continents and ocean basins a) were only active during Earths early history, b) are still active today, c) cannot be observed by scientists, d) have occurred on the other terrestrial planets, e) all of these. 104. The largest terrestrial planet is a) Mercury, b) Venus, c) Earth, d) Mars, e) Jupiter. 105. The planet with the highest surface temperature is a) Venus, b) Earth, c) Mars, d) the Moon, e) Mercury. 106. A clastic rock comprised of sand size grains derived from the physical weathering of granite and containing a sizable proportion of feldspar is termed _____. A. metasandstone B. lithosandstone C. graywacke D. arkose 107. What proportion of a radioactive isotope is expected to remain in an unaltered (unreacted) state after the passage of three-half lives? A. one-third B. three-halves C. one-eighth D. one-sixth 108. Metamorphic rocks form by _____. A. partial melting of igneous or sedimentary rocks B. recrystallization of preexisting rocks under conditions of high pressure and temperature C. deposition by glaciers

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D. weathering of lavas 109. Which of the following geologic principles is a direct result of gravity? A. baked contacts B. cross-cutting relationships C. original horizontality D. inclusions 110. Hot spots can occur _____. A. only within continental plates B. only within oceanic plates C. within either continental or oceanic plates D. only when the thickness of the crust is less than 10 km 111. Major new developments in the Earth and Environmental Sciences since the 1960s include _____. A. uniformitarianism and plate tectonics B. plate tectonics and earth system science C. earth system science and uniformitarianism D. all of the above 112. Diagenesis refers to _____. A. the development of layering within sedimentary rocks B. the act of deposition of sediment, which will ultimately form sedimentary rock C. physical and chemical alterations, including compaction and cementation, that occur as sediment is transformed into rock 113. The proportion of continents to oceans on Earth has _____ throughout geologic history. A. remained constant B. decreased C. increased 114. The systematic classification of living organisms and fossils is known as _____. A. taxonomy B. biology C. paleontology D. botany 115. At a A. B. C. 116. The _____. A. B. C. transform plate boundary, two opposed plates _____. move towards one another move away from one another slide past one another minerals that are most likely to obtain their ideal crystal form during cooling of a magma are those that crystallize at the highest temperatures those that crystallize at the lowest temperatures none of the above

117. Period names on the geologic time scale, such as "Devonian" and "Permian," provide examples of _____. A. relative age B. numerical age 118. The threshold for erosion of sediment grains by flowing water is primarily dependent on _____. A. flow velocity, air temperature, and mineralogy B. grain size and water temperature C. grain size, flow velocity, and degree of consolidation of mud D. grain size, grain roundness, and water temperature

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119. The timescale of an atom to make it through an entire rock cycle is typically _____. A. tens of millions of years B. hundreds of millions of years C. billions of years D. all of the above are possible 120. A continental volcanic arc occurs at _____. A. the Aleutian Islands of Alaska B. the Andes Mountains C. Hawaii D. Japan 121. Fossils are more likely to be preserved in _____. A. eolian environments B. glacial environments C. shallow-marine carbonate environments 122. As compared to a slowly spreading mid-ocean ridge, a rapidly spreading ridge is _____. A. wider B. narrower C. more silicic in lava composition 123. The difference between breccia and conglomerate is that _____. A. conglomerate is finer-grained than breccia B. conglomerate is coarser-grained than breccia C. conglomerate possesses more angular grains than breccia D. conglomerate possesses more rounded grains than breccia 124. Cross stratification provides information on _____. A. relative age B. flow direction C. mineralogy D. sorting 125. The silica tetrahedron that forms the backbone of all the silicate minerals is composed of silicon and what other element? A. magnesium B. oxygen C. iron D. carbon

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