IIT Section

Subject Topic Grand Test Paper II Date

C + M + P Grand Test 06
IIT GT 06
08
th
May 2014
I20140508

Max. Marks : 237 Duration : 3 Hrs


1. This paper consists of 57 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics

Each Part consist of 4 Sections
- Section I : 6 Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer (with negative marks). A
correct answer carries 5 Marks. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 2 mark
- Section II : 5 Integer type questions. A correct answer carries 3 Marks. No negative marks.
- Section III : 6 Comprehension Type questions. A correct answer carries 3 Marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 1 mark
- Section IV : 2 Matrix Match type questions. A correct answer carries 8 Marks. No
negative mark.

2. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once
entered, the answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will
automatically draw a penalty of 1 mark.

3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited.

4. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be
reported to the coordinator after the exam.

5. All the best !!


Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical constants:
34
6.626 10 J.sec h

= ,
23 -1
a
N 6.022 10 mol = ,
8 -1
C 2.998 10 ms = ,
31
e
m 9.1 10 kg

=
IIT Section
Subject Topic Grand Test Paper II Date
C + M + P Grand Test 06
IIT GT 06
08
th
May 2014
I20140508

Ace Insignia Rough Work Page 2
Chemistry
Section I
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 5 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 2 marks 6 x 5 = 30

1. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding solubility of alkali & alkaline earth
metals in liquid
3
NH ?
(a) blue coloured solution is due to presence of ammoniated complex cation
(b) Ca &Sr also form metal-ammonia solutions but with less tendency compared to
alkali metals.
(c) beyond 3M concentration, blue colour is converted in to bronze colour
(d) blue coloured solution is paramagnetic but bronze coloured solution is diamagnetic
2. Which of the following is planar around nitrogen?
(a) ( )
3
3
P NH (b)
3
NH (c) ( )
3
3
N CH (d) Borazole ( )
3 3 6
B N H
and HCN at 25 are
5
1.5 10 and 3. The dissociation constant for

3
4.5 10 respectively; the equilibrium constant for
would be

(a)
2
3 10 (b)
2
3 10 (c)
3
3.33 10 (d)
7
6.75 10
4. For the reaction

2
( ) 2( ) 4 4( ) 2 ( )
2 4 2 2
s s s l
Pb PbO SO H PbSO H O
+
+ + + +
The n -factor for
2 4
H SO will be
(a) one (b) two (c) four (d) zero

Ph CH
Cl
COOH
HCN + Ph CH
Cl
COO CN + Ph CH
Cl
COOH
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IIT GT 06
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5. For a reversible reaction ; A B C D + + at equilibrium state
(a) 0 G A =
(b)
total
0 S A =
(c) ln G RT K A =
(d) rate of forward reaction = rate of backward reaction
6. The incorrect statement regarding basicity and nucleophilicity will be?
(a) Nucleophilicity is governed by size of nucleophilic atom
(b) Basicity is a thermodynamic property
(c) Nucleophilicity is measured by
a
K (equilibrium constant) value
(d)
2 5
C H O

is a weaker base than

3
Me CO

Section II
Integer answers type questions. Each carries 3 marks. No negative marks. 5 x 3 = 15

7. Calculate the pH at which the following conversion (reaction) will be at equilibrium in basic
medium.

2 3
( ) ( .) ( .) I s I aq IO aq

+
When the equilibrium concentrations at 300K are

0.10 I M ( =

and

3
[ ] 0.10 IO M =

given that
0
( )( ) 50 /
f
G I aq kJ mole A =
3
( )( .)
f
G IO aq

A
123.5 / kJ mole = ,
2
( )( ) 233 /
f
G H O l kJ mole

A = ,

25
( ) 150 / log 2.3
3
f
G OH aq kJ mole R e

A = = =

8. The number of isomers of ether in open chain form of compound having molecular formula
4 8
C H O
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9. 1.1 gmof ( )
3 3
.6 . 267 COCl NH M wt = was dissolved in 100 gm of
2
H O . The freezing point of the
solution was 0.29 C . How many moles of solute particles exist in solution for each mole of
solute introduced?
f
K for
2
H O is
1
1.86 C m .
10.
2
/ (cold & dilute)
6 5 3 6 5 3
|| ||

I NaOH
O O
C H C CH C H C O Na CHI
+
+
How many mole of NaOH are used in the formation of
3
CHI ?
11. Consider the following reaction
3

3
( ) ( )
||
i OH ii H
O
CH CH CH C CH CH CH
+
= =

3
( )
( )
iii CH MgBr
iv H
+
How many times Michael addition reaction can take
place.


Section III
Comprehension type questions. A correct answer carries 3 marks. A wrong answer carries a
penalty of 1 mark 6 x 3 = 18
Comprehension I
The glycine as well as other amino acids, is amphoteric, means it contains an acidic functional group
and a basic functional group. The is an acidic functional group and basic functional group is
COO

. In a strongly acidic medium the species present is as pH is raised, a proton is

removed from this species. Amino acids are crystalline solids it does not melts but on being heated it
decomposes. These are practically soluble in water but insoluble in non-polar organic solvents. These
properties are attributed to fact that the stable form of amino acids is a zwitter ion or inner salt.

NH CH COOH
3 2
+
R
O
CH
3
CH
3
NH
3
+
IIT Section
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IIT GT 06
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12. When glycine is subjected to dissolve in a solution of 2 pH = ; at 25 C ; the structure of glycine
will be
(a)
2 2
NH CH COOH (b)
3 2
N H CH COO

(c)
3 2
N H CH COOH

(d)

2 2
NH CH COO
13. In following reaction chain

The isoelectric point of aspartic acid is
(a) 2.8 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.75 (d) 1.9
14. When o amino acid is dissolved in a solution having 9 pH = ; at 25 C ; it will move towards
in electrolytic cell combination
(a) anode (b) cathode
(c) will not move towards any electrode (d) none of these
HO C
O
CH
2
CH
NH
3

COOH
(Asparti c acid)
pKa
1
=1.9
HO C
O
CH
2
CH
NH
3

COO
-
(Zwitter i on)
pKa
2
=3.7
O C
O
CH
2
CH
NH
3

COO
O C
O
CH
2
CH
NH
3

COO
pKa
3
=9.60
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Comprehension II
Iron reacts with hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen gas

( )
2
( ) 2
2
g
s aq aq
Fe H Fe H
+ +
+ +
Concentrated
2 4
H SO oxidizes metals to
2
Fe
+
but conc. nitric acid renders the metal passive. One of the
best known reaction of Fe is the rust formation. The common two oxidation states of Fe are 2 + & 3 +
. In presence of oxygen
2
Fe
+
ions in solution are readily oxidized to
3
Fe
+
. Both
3
Fe
+
&
2
Fe
+
form so
many complex ions like ( ) ( ) ( )
4 3 3
2
6 6 6
, , Fe CN Fe CN Fe H O
+
( ( (

etc; having different ligands
2
Fe
+
forms a complex with haemoglobin. It carries the oxygen in to the blood from lungs to tissues where
it delivers
2
O molecules to myoglobin upon coordination to a metal. The H
+
ions that are bonded to
two of the 4N atom in porphins are displaced
15. The conc.
3
HNO does not oxidises Fe into
2
Fe
+
because
(a)
3
HNO is strongest reducing agent
(b) iron becomes passive by forming a thin layer of
3 4
Fe O on the surface
(c) formation of ( )
4
6
Fe CN (

in presence of
2
CO
(d) rust formation occurs in Fe which is dissolved in conc.
3
HNO

16. The oxidation number of Fe in haemoglobin is
(a) 2 + (b) 3 + (c) 2 + and 3 + both (d) zero

17. Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) ( )
4
6
Fe CN (

& ( )
3
6
Fe CN (

both are
2 3
d sp hybridized with paramagnetic character
(b)
2
Fe
+
binds with
2
O molecules to form myoglobin
(c) FeS is yellow coloured
(d) Oxidation numbers of Fe are ( ) 2 + and ( ) 3 + in
3 4
Fe O
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Section IV
Matrix Match type questions (4 rows per matrix type, 2 marks per row) 2 x 8 = 16
18. Matrix Match I
Column I Column II
(A)

( ) ( )
2 2 graphite,( )
g g
s
C O CO +
(p)
combustion
H A
(B)
( )
graphite ( )
s
g
C C (q)
f
H

A
(C)
( )
2 ( ) 2( )
1
2
g
g g
CO O CO +
(r)
atomization
H

A
(D)
( )
( ) ( ) 4
4
g
g g
CH C H +
(s)
sublimation
H

A
(t)
system
0 S A >

19. Matrix Match II

Column I Column II
(A)
2
: CCl (singlet) (p) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(B)
| |
3
3
SiH N
(q) Planar around central atom
(C)

(r)
2
sp hybridized C
(D)
2 2
H NCH COOH (s) Dipolemoment 0 =
(t) Zwitter ion


OH
OH
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Mathematics
Section I
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 5 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 2 marks 6 x 5 = 30

20. Let a

and b be vectors with 2, 3 a b = = and 0 a b = . Define
( ) ( ) ( )
c a a a a b = . Then c
is equal to
(a) 32 (b) 48 (c) 96 (d) 24
21. Let ( )
0
sin , , 1
n
x
n
I e x dx n n

= e >
}
N . Then
2008
2006
I
I
equals
(a)
2
2007 2006
2008 1

+
(b)
2
2008 2007
2008 1

+
(c)
2
2006 2004
2008 1

(d)
2
2008 2007
2008 1

22. If ( )
4
1
,
2
x
dt
f x
t
=
+
}
then
(a) ( )
1
2
3
f <

(b) ( )
1
2
3
f >

(c) ( )
1
2
3
f = (d) ( ) 2 1 f >
23. If , 0 a b >

and
x a a
b x a
b b x
A = , then A has a local minimum at x equal to
(a) ab (b) ab (c)
a
b
(d)
b
a

24. If
2 1
1
( ) , ( ) ( ( )), , ( ) ( ( )),
1
k k
x
f x f x f f x f x f f x
x
+

= = =
+

1, 2, 3, k = and
2014
( ) ( ) g x f x = , then
1
1/
( )
e
g x dx
}
is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) e

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25. Let
1
1
0
1
x
e
I dx
x
=
+
}
and
3
1 2
2
3
0
(2 )
x
x
I dx
e x
=

}
. Then
1
2
I
I
is equal to
(a)
3
e
(b)
3
e
(c) 3e (d)
1
3e


Section II
Integer answers type questions. Each carries 3 marks. No negative marks. 5 x 3 = 15

26. Let ( )
2 2
0 0
sin cos 2 cos
x x
f x x t dt t dt x x = + +
} }
. If the area bounded by ( ) x f x and the ordinates
0 x = and 5 x = with x axis is
5
2
A
, then A =

27. If
1 2
25 12 3 z z = , and
/ 6 1 3
2 3
3
4
i
z z
e
z z
t

, then the area of the triangle (in square units) whose

vertices are represented by
1 2 3
, z , z z is

28. Let , P Q be two points on the ellipse
2 2
1
25 16
x y
+ = whose eccentric angles differ by a right angle.
Tangents are drawn at P and Q to meet at R . If the chord PQ divides the join of C and R in the
ratio : m n ( C being centre of ellipse), then the value of m n + is ( : m n is in simplified form).
29. If ( ) ( )
1
cos ,
2
f x a x b f t t
| |
' = + =
|
\ .
and ( )
3/2
1/2
2
1 f x dx
t
= +
}
, then the value of
( )
1 1 12
sin cos a b
t

+ is

30. If the tangents drawn from the origin to the circle
2 2 2
2 2 0 x y rx hy h + + = are perpendicular,
then the sum of all possible values of
h
r
is
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Section III
Comprehension type questions. A correct answer carries 3 marks. A wrong answer carries a
penalty of 1 mark 6 x 3 = 18

Comprehension I
An equation
2 99 100
1 2 99
0
o
a a x a x a x x + + + + + = has roots
99 99 99 99
0 1 2 99
, , , , C C C C

31. The value of
99
a is
(a)
98
2 (b)
99
2 (c)
99
2 (d) none of these
32. The value of
98
a is
(a)
198 198
99
2
2
C
(b)
198 198
99
2
2
C +
(c)
99 99
49
2 C (d) none of these
33. The value of
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 2
99 99 99 99
0 1 2 99
C C C C + + + + is equal to
(a)
2
98 99
2a a (b)
2
99 98
a a (c)
2
99 98
2 a a (d) none of these



Comprehension II
If two functions ( ) f x and ( ) F x are differentiable in [ , ] a b and ( ) 0 F x ' = for any ( , ) x a b e , then there
exists at least one ( , ) c a b e such that
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
f b f a f c
F b F a F c
'
=
'


34. If ( )
x
f x e = and ( )
x
F x e

= , then ( , ) c a b e is such that , , a c b are in

(a) A.P. (b) G.P. (c) H.P. (d) none of these

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35. If ( ) sin , ( ) cos f x x F x x = = and ( , ) c a b e , where
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
f b f a f c
F b F a F c
'
=
'
, then c is
(a) A.M. of , a b (b) G.M. of , a b
(c) H.M. of , a b (d) none of these

36. If ( ) f x is differentiable in [ , ] a b and for ( , ), c a b e
2 2
( ) ( ) [ ( ) ( )] a b f c k f a f b ' = , then k is equal
to
(a) 2 (b) 2c (c) c (d)
2
c



Section IV
Matrix Match type questions (4 rows per matrix type, 2 marks per row) 2 x 8 = 16
37. Matrix Match I
Let n whole numbers be randomly chosen and multiplied. Then the probability that
Column I Column II
(A) the last digit is 1, 3, 7 or 9 is (p)
8 4
10
n n
n

(B) the last digit is 2, 4, 6, 8 is (q)
5 4
10
n n
n

(C) the last digit is 5 is (r)
4
10
n
n

(D) the last digit is zero is (s)
10 8 5 4
10
n n n n
n
+



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38. Matrix Match II

Column I Column II
(A)
If
2
2 cos 673 p p x = and tan 7
2
x
= , then the integral
value of p is
(p) 8
(B)
If sin cos m u u + = , then the maximum value of
2
m is
(q) 9
(C)
1 2 3
, , r r r are the radii of the circles drawn on the
altitudes , PD PE and PF of PBC A , PCA A and PAB A ,
respectively as diameter, where P is the circumcentre
of the acute-angled ABC A .
The minimum value of
2 2 2
2 2 2
1 2 3
1
18
a b c
r r r
| |
+ + |
|
\ .
is
( , , a b c are sides of ABC A )
(r) 2
(D)
In a ABC A , 6, 3 a b = = and ( )
4
cos
5
A B = . Then the
area of the ABC A is
(s) 25


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th
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Physics
Section I
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 5 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 2 marks 6 x 5 = 30

39. A Plank of mass
1
m

with a uniform sphere of mass
2
m placed on it rests on a smooth horizontal
plane, A constant horizontal force F is applied to the plank. The acceleration of the plank will be
(a)
1
F
m
(b)
1 2
F
m m +
(c)
1 2
7
7 2
F
m m +
(d)
1 2
7
7 5
F
m m +

40. A tube U shaped has a uniform cross section with arm length
1
l and
2 1 2
( ) l l l > . Tube has a
liquid of density
1
filled to a height h . Another liquid of density
1
2
2

= is poured in arm A .
Both liquids are immiscible. The length of the second liquid that should be poured in A so that
first overtone of A is in unison with fundamental tone of B is










(a)
1 2
3
( 3 2 )
2
l l h (b)
1 2
3
( 3 2 )
2
l l h + (c)
1 2
2
( 3 2 )
3
l l h + + (d)
1 2
2
( 3 2 )
3
l l h +

1
l
h
2
l
A
B
1

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41. A point source of radiation power P is placed on the axis of an ideal plane mirror. The distance
between the source and the mirror is n times the radius of the mirror. The force that light exerts
on the mirror is
( )
2
P
xc n y +
where c is speed of light. Find ? x y +
42. A motor is being self-started against a resistance torque of 60N m and at each start, the engine is
cranked at 75 rpm. for 8 seconds. For each start, energy is drawn from a lead acid battery. If the
battery has a capacity of 100 Wh, calculate the number of starts that can be made with such a
battery. Assume on overall efficiency of the motor and gears as 25%.
(a) 14 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 42
43. A particle having mass m and charge ( ) q moves along an ellipse around a fixed charge Q such
that its maximum and minimum distances from the fixed charge are
1
r and
2
r respectively. The
angular momentum L of this particle is




(a)
1 2
0 1 2
2 ( )
mr r Qq
r r tc +
(b)
1 2
2
0 1 2
2 ( )
mr r Qq
r r t c +
(c)
1 2
1 2
1
2 ( )
mr r Qq
c r r t +
(d)
1 2
0
( )
2
m r r Qq
tc
+


44. Laser light falls normally on three equally spaces slits. When one of the side slits is covered, the
first order maximum is at 0.60 from the normal. If the centre slit is closed with the other two
open, find the order of maximum that now occurs at the same angle as the fourth order maximum
did before.
(a) 7
th
maximum occurs at the same angle (b) 8
th
minimum occurs at the same angle
(c) 8
th
maximum occurs at the same angle (d) 6
th
maximum occurs at the same angle

+Q
2
r
1
r
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Section II
Integer answers type questions. Each carries 3 marks. No negative marks. 5 x 3 = 15

45. Block B

is placed on a smooth surface. Block

A is placed on rough surface of block B with
coefficient of friction 0.60 . The mass of

A and

B are 2 kg and 4 kg respectively. Find the
frictional force between A and B

(in N ).

46. Sphere A is thrown up with velocity 20 sec m from the ground. Sphere
B

of same mass is just dropped from a height of 80msimultaneously at
time 0 t =

so that both collide in air and stick together. Find the time (in
second) after which combined mass will fall to the ground (calculated
from

0 t = )
2
( 10 / ) g m s = .


47. A closed and an open organ pipe of same length are set into vibrations simultaneously in their
fundamental mode to produce 2 beats. The length of open organ pipe is now halved and of
closed organ pipe is doubled. Now find the number of beats produced.

48.
4
10
d
D

= is Youngs Double Slit Experiment, where d is distance slits and D is the distance of
screen from the slits. The resulting intensity is equal to the intensity due to individual slit
0
I at a
point on the screen. Find the distance of point P from the central maximum (in mm) if
6000A

=


A
B
2N
20N


A
B
20 / m s
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49. There is a stream of neutrons with kinetic energy 0.0327 . eV If the half-life of neutron is 700 sec,
then fraction of neutrons that decay before they travel a distance of 10m is found to be
6
10 p


(nearly). Find the value of ' ' p .
Section III
Comprehension type questions. A correct answer carries 3 marks. A wrong answer carries a
penalty of 1 mark 6 x 3 = 18
Comprehension I
A convex lens, a concave mirror and a convex mirror, each
having the same magnitude of focal length, are available.
In the figure shown, there are denoted as optical element E;
the real object as O and image (real or virtual) is denoted as
I . Three points , A B and C are on a straight line as
shown. AC is less than three times the focal length of optical element. Two trials are conducted
giving results as shown. Position B is the same for both trials.
50. In trial 1, E can be:
(a) only a convex lens (b) only a concave mirror
(c) only a convex mirror (d) convex lens or a concave mirror
51. In trial 2, E is
(a) convex lens. (b) concave mirror
(c) convex mirror (d) none of (a), (b) & (c)
52. In the case of trial 1 ; consider the correct element then, BC (i.e.; image distance v ) can be
(a)
2
AC
< (b)
2
AC
=
(c)
2
AC
> (d) all the three are possible

A B C
O
O
I E
E
I
Trial 1
Trial 2
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Subject Topic Grand Test Paper II Date
C + M + P Grand Test 06
IIT GT 06
08
th
May 2014
I20140508

Ace Insignia Rough Work Page 17
Comprehension II

A wire carry a current of 5A. The wire is bent in such a way that as
PQRS , it pass through various sides of a cube of side 10 cm, as shown
in the figure. A magnetic field

(4 2 3 ) B i j k T = + is present in the
region.


53. Find the net force on the loop shown :
(a) 6 3N (b) 4 3N (c) 9 3N (d) none of these



54. Find magnetic moment vector of the loop :
(a)

0.025(2 ) i j k + + (b)

0.05(2 ) i j k + + (c)

0.01( ) i j k + + (d) none of these



55. Find the net torque on the loop:
(a)

0.05 0.1 0.1 i j k + (b)

0.125 0.05 0.20 i j k
(c)

0.075 0.2 0.1 i j k (d)

0.05 0.025 0.025 i j k +





x
y
Q
R
z
S
P
IIT Section
Subject Topic Grand Test Paper II Date
C + M + P Grand Test 06
IIT GT 06
08
th
May 2014
I20140508

Ace Insignia Rough Work Page 18
Section IV
Matrix Match type questions (4 rows per matrix type, 2 marks per row) 2 x 8 = 16

56. Matrix Match I


Column I

Column II

(A)

If a constant phase difference greater than
zero, is created between light waves from
the slits
(p)

central fringe shifts
(B)
If a thin film is introduced in front of one
slit
(q) central fringe does not shift
(C)
If two thin films are introduced, one in
front of each slit, the thicknesses of the
films in inverse proportion to their
refractive indices
(r) fringe width changes
(D)
If the whole experimental set is immersed
in water
(s) fringe width does not change



IIT Section
Subject Topic Grand Test Paper II Date
C + M + P Grand Test 06
IIT GT 06
08
th
May 2014
I20140508

Ace Insignia Rough Work Page 19
57. Matrix Match II

A disc, released at 0 t = from top of an inclined plane, rolls down.
At
1
t
o
= where o is the angular acceleration, its position is
shown in the figure. Column II refers to magnitudes only.
Match the columns
A is the point in contact with the plane, AC perpendicular to BD, where AC and BD are
diameters.

Column I

Column II

(A)

Points A and C have (p)

Same velocity
(B) Points B and D have (q) Different velocities
(C) Points A and B have (r) Same acceleration
(D) Points A and D have (s) Different accelerations