REVIEWER FOR FINALS in CHM 11-2

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Name the molecular compound, SO
3
.
a. sulfur oxide
b. sulfurous acid
c. sulfur trioxide
d. sulfuric acid
e. none of the above

____ 2. The molecular formula for a compound is CX
4
. If 2.819 g of this compound contains 0.102 g of carbon, what
is the atomic weight of X?
a. 320
b. 160
c. 35.5
d. 79.9
e. 39.9

____ 3. How many atoms are in 1.00 mole of water?
a. 6.02 10
23
b. 1.20 10
24
c. 1.81 10
24
d. 2.41 10
24
e. 3.01 10
23


____ 4. How many grams of CaCl
2
equal 4.26 moles of CaCl
2
?
a. 26.1 g
b. 170 g
c. 302 g
d. 473 g
e. 322 g

____ 5. Which of the following is not a correct description of 16.0 grams of methane, CH
4
?
a. It is one mole of methane.
b. It is the amount of methane that contains 12.0 g of carbon.
c. It is 16.0 6.02 10
23
molecules of methane.
d. It is the amount of methane that contains 4.0 grams of hydrogen.
e. It is the amount of methane that contains 4 6.02 10
23
hydrogen atoms.

____ 6. A compound is known to contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. If the complete combustion of a 0.150-
g sample of this compound produces 0.225 g of CO
2
and 0.0614 g of H
2
O, what is the empirical formula of
this compound?
a. C
3
H
4
b. CH
4
O
c. C
3
HO
3
d. C
3
H
4
O
3
e. C
5
H
7
O
5




____ 7. Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients. What is the coefficient for H
2
O
in the balanced equation?
Al(OH)
3
HCl AlCl
3
H
2
O
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 14
e. 5

____ 8. What is the coefficient for HBr when the following equation is balanced with the smallest whole number
coefficients?
Br
2
H
2
O HBr HBrO
3
a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. 3
e. 6

____ 9. Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients. Choose the answer that is the
sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation. Do not forget coefficients of "one".
RbOH H
3
PO
4
Rb
3
PO
4
H
2
O
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 4
e. 6

____ 10. Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients. Choose the answer that is the
sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation. Do not forget coefficients of "one".
CuSO
4
NH
3
H
2
O (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
Cu(NH
3
)
4
(OH)
2
a. 8
b. 9
c. 11
d. 12
e. 14

____ 11. Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is sometimes used as an explosive. How many moles of water can be formed
from the decomposition of 13.2 moles of ammonium nitrate?
2NH
4
NO
3
2N
2
O
2
4H
2
O
a. 6.60
b. 14.0
c. 26.4
d. 13.2
e. 18.0

____ 12. How many grams of magnesium are required to produce 5.000 kg of Si?
SiCl
4
2Mg Si 2MgCl
2
a. 7595 g
b. 7581 g
c. 4327 g
d. 9999 g
e. 2164 g


____ 13. The following statements apply to the interpretation of chemical equations. Not all of the statements are true.
Which statement is false?
a. The number of grams of the reactants must equal the number of grams of products in a
balanced equation.
b. There will always be some of the excess reagent left at the completion of the reaction.
c. The following equation for the reaction involving hypothetical substances, A, B, C, and D,
implies that the products C and D are always produced in a three to one mole ratio.
A 2B 3C D
d. The equation A 2B 3C D implies that in any reaction involving A and B as
reactants, A must be the limiting reactant.
e. The total number of atoms in the reactants that react must always equal the total number of
atoms in the products produced by the reaction.

____ 14. If 20.0 g of each reactant were used in performing the following reaction, which would be the limiting
reactant?
2MnO
2
4KOH O
2
Cl
2
2KMnO
4
2KCl 2H
2
O
a. MnO
2
b. KOH
c. O
2
d. Cl
2
e. KMnO
4

____ 15. What mass of water is contained in 200. grams of 15.0% KCl solution?
a. 11.3 g
b. 170. g
c. 174. g
d. 30.0 g
e. 25.5 g

____ 16. Silver nitrate, AgNO
3
, reacts with sodium chloride as indicated by the following equation. What mass of NaCl
would be required to react with 200. mL of 0.200 M AgNO
3
solution?
AgNO
3
NaCl AgCl NaNO
3
a. 0.117 g
b. 1.17 g
c. 2.34 g
d. 4.68 g
e. 3.06 g

____ 17. Which element and group are not correctly matched?

Element Periodic Group or Classification

a. Sb metalloid
b. Kr noble gas
c. Al alkali metal
d. F halogen
e. Ca alkaline earth metal

____ 18. To which classification does strontium belong?
a. alkali metal
b. halogen
c. alkaline earth metal
d. noble gas
e. metalloid

____ 19. Which one of the following salts is insoluble in water?
a. K
2
S
b. NaClO
c. Mg(NO
3
)
2
d. Rb
2
CO
3
e. Ba
3
(PO
4
)
2

____ 20. Determine the oxidation number of the underlined element in Li
2
SO
4
.
a. 6
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

____ 21. Determine the oxidation number of the underlined element in H
2
P
2
O
7
.
a. 6
b. 7
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

____ 22. Which of the following matched pairs of name and formula has an error?

Formula Name

a. Al(NO
2
)
3
aluminum nitrate
b. BaSO
3
barium sulfite
c. Cr(SCN)
3
chromium(III) thiocyanate
d. N
2
O
3
dinitrogen trioxide
e. Sb
4
O
6
tetraantimony hexoxide

____ 23. When two nonmetals combine, ____.
a. they form a binary ionic compound.
b. they form a binary covalent compound.
c. they release hydrogen gas.
d. they form two or more products.
e. they neutralize the acid formed in the reaction.

____ 24. Which of the following reactions is not a decomposition reaction?
a. 2HgO(s) 2Hg( ) O
2
(g)
b. H
2
(g) Cl
2
(g) 2HCl(g)
c. NH
4
NO
3
(s) N
2
O(g) 2H
2
O(g)
d. Mg(OH)
2
(s) MgO(s) H
2
O(g)
e. 2H
2
O
2
(aq) 2H
2
O( ) O
2
(g)

____ 25. What salt is formed when aqueous calcium hydroxide is mixed with phosphoric acid?
a. CaPO
4
b. Ca(OH)
2
c. Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
d. P(OH)
3
e. no salt formation occurs


____ 26. Which of the following is not a metathesis reaction?
a. CH
4
(g) 2O
2
(g) CO
2
(g) 2H
2
O( )
b. FeS(s) 2HCl(aq) FeCl
2
(aq) H
2
S(g)
c. CaCl
2
(aq) K
2
CO
3
(aq) CaCO
3
(s) 2KCl(aq)
d. 2HCl(aq) Ba(OH)
2
(aq) BaCl
2
(aq) 2H
2
O( )
e. AgNO
3
(aq) NaBr(aq) AgBr(s) NaNO
3
(aq)

____ 27. Classify the following reaction by giving the reaction type that applies.
2NiS(s) 3O
2
(g) 2NiO(s) 2SO
2
(g)
a. redox
b. combination
c. decomposition
d. displacement
e. metathesis

____ 28. What is a vertical column on the periodic table called?
a. a group
b. a period
c. a clan
d. the metals

____ 29. Which one of the following salts is the most soluble?
a. iron(II) chloride, FeCl
2
b. silver carbonate, Ag
2
CO
3
c. silver chloride, AgCl
d. iron(III) phosphate, FePO
4

____ 30. In the Rutherford gold foil experiment, the fact that most of the alpha particles were not deflected as they
passed through the gold foil indicates that
a. the nucleus is positively charged.
b. the atom is mostly empty space.
c. atoms are solid spheres touching each other in the solid state.
d. gold is very dense.
e. none of the above is correct.

____ 31. The atomic number of an atom is the number of ____ in the atom.
a. protons plus the number of electrons
b. neutrons
c. protons
d. protons plus the number of neutrons
e. electrons plus the number of neutrons

____ 32. What is the symbol for a species composed of 35 protons, 44 neutrons, and 36 electrons?
a.

b.

c.

d.

e.



____ 33. What is the symbol for a species composed of 20 protons, 20 neutrons, and 18 electrons?
a.
40
Ca
b.
40
Ar
c.
34
S
2
d.
39
K

e.
40
Ca
2


____ 34. An atom of the
40
Ar isotope contains ____ protons.
a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 40
e. 19

____ 35. These three species
80
Se,
81
Br and
82
Kr have
a. the same atomic mass.
b. the same number of protons.
c. the same number of neutrons.
d. the same mass number.
e. the same number of electrons.

____ 36. What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two isotopes, one with mass 64.23 amu
(26.00%), and one with mass 65.32 amu?
a. 65.16 amu
b. 64.37 amu
c. 64.96 amu
d. 65.04 amu
e. 64.80 amu

____ 37. A hypothetical element consists of the following naturally occurring isotopes. What is the atomic weight of
the element?

Isotopes Mass Abundance
1 46.041 amu 26.00%
2 47.038 amu 58.00%
3 49.034 amu 16.00%

a. 46.78 amu
b. 46.89 amu
c. 47.02 amu
d. 47.10 amu
e. 47.24 amu

Chapter 5 Values

Some of the following values may be useful for solving some of the problems.

speed of light 3.00 10
8
m/s 1 joule 1 kgm2/s2
Planck's constant 6.63 10
34
Js 1 ngstrom 1 10
10
m


____ 38. What is the energy in joules of a photon of light of wavelength 3.75 10
3
?
a. 3.30 10
13
J
b. 5.30 10
19
J
c. 1.10 10
17
J
d. 1.38 10
14
J
e. 2.22 10
11
J

____ 39. The principal quantum number of an orbital is n 1. This must be a(an) ____ orbital.
a. s
b. p
c. d
d. f
e. g

____ 40. Which response includes all the following statements that are true, and no false statements?

I. Each set of d orbitals contains 7 orbitals.
II. Each set of d orbitals can hold a maximum of 14 electrons.
III. The first energy level contains only s and p orbitals.
IV. The s orbital in any shell is always spherically symmetrical.

a. I and II
b. I, III, and IV
c. IV
d. II and IV
e. III

____ 41. What is the value of the angular momentum quantum number, l , for the following orbital?

a.

b. 1
c. 0
d. 1
e. 2

____ 42. No two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers is a statement of ____.
a. the Aufbau Principle
b. the Pauli Exclusion Principle
c. Dalton's Theory
d. Hund's Rule
e. the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

____ 43. The total number of electrons in s orbitals in a germanium atom (Z 32) is ____.
a. 18
b. 15
c. 8
d. 20
e. 6


____ 44. An element has the following outer electron configuration in its ground state, where n represents the highest
occupied energy level: (n 1)d
10
ns
1
. Which of the elements listed below could it be?
a. K
b. Ag
c. Ge
d. Ga
e. Cd

____ 45. An element that has four electrons in its outer shell in its ground state is ____.
a. Nb
b. Cr
c. Sn
d. Ti
e. O

____ 46. Of the following, which element does not match its designation?
a. Sr representative metal
b. In representative nonmetal
c. Si metalloid
d. W d-transition metal
e. Th f-transition metal

____ 47. ____ is a noble gas.
a. Ti
b. Mo
c. Tl
d. Kr
e. U

____ 48. ____ is an actinide.
a. Ti
b. Mo
c. Tl
d. Kr
e. U

____ 49. Arrange the following elements in order of decreasing first ionization energy.
Be, Ca, Cs, Mg, K
a. Mg > Be > Ca > K > Cs
b. Be > Mg > Ca > K > Cs
c. Cs > K > Ca > Be > Mg
d. Ca > Mg > Be > Cs > K
e. Ca > Mg > Be > K > Cs

____ 50. Which of the following elements has the most negative electron affinity?
a. Si
b. P
c. S
d. Se
e. Te


____ 51. A property that measures the ability of an atom to attract electrons in a chemical bond is
a. binding energy.
b. mass defect.
c. electron affinity.
d. ionization energy.
e. electronegativity.

____ 52. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
a. B
b. Ge
c. Ca
d. O
e. At

____ 53. Which one of the following is a molecular hydride?
a. RbH
b. SrH
c. NaH
d. PH
e. CaH

____ 54. Write the balanced formula unit equation for the reaction of magnesium with hydrochloric acid. What is the
sum of the coefficients? Don't forget coefficients of one. Use the smallest whole number coefficients.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 4
e. none of these

____ 55. Magnesium hydride is ____.
a. basic
b. neutral
c. acidic
d. inert
e. non-reactive with water

____ 56. Which of the following statements about oxygen is false?
a. The most common form of oxygen is a diatomic molecule.
b. Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen.
c. Both ozone and oxygen are oxidizing agents.
d. Oxygen forms binary compounds with nonmetals called acid anhydrides.
e. Oxygen forms basic nonmetal oxides.

____ 57. Which one of the following will not react with oxygen to form a peroxide?
a. Be
b. Ca
c. Sr
d. Ba
e. all form peroxides


____ 58. Which response includes all of the following oxides that are acid anhydrides?

I. CO
II. CaO
III. ClO
IV.
Tl O

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I and IV
d. II, III, and IV
e. I

____ 59. The acid formed by dissolving Cl O in water is ____.
a. HClO
b. HClO
c. HClO
d. HClO
e. HCl

____ 60. Write the balanced formula unit equation for the reaction of nitrogen oxide with oxygen. What is the sum of
the coefficients?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 4
e. 5

____ 61. Which one of the elements listed below has the largest atomic radius?
a. magnesium, Mg
b. potassium, K
c. rubidium, Rb
d. calcium, Ca

____ 62. What is the charge formed by alkaline earth metals when they react with nonmetals?
a. +1
b. -1
c. +2
d. -2
e. +3

____ 63. Magnesium and nitrogen react to form Mg N an ionic compound. The magnesium ion, Mg , has ____
electrons in its highest occupied energy level.
a. 8
b. 2
c. 10
d. 4
e. 5


____ 64. The internuclear distance at which the attractive and repulsive forces balance in a covalent bond is called the
____.
a. bond length
b. bond energy
c. stabilization length
d. single bond
e. none of these

____ 65. What is the correct Lewis dot formula for H CO ?
a.

b.

c.

d.

e.


____ 66. Assign a formal charge to each atom of .
a. As = 5+, Cl = 1-
b. As = 5-, Cl = 7+
c. As = 0, Cl = 0
d. As = 4+, Cl = 1-
e. As = 6+, Cl = 2-

____ 67. Which of the following molecules has the least polar bonds?
a. BrI
b. HI
c. H
2
O
d. HF
e. NH
3

____ 68. Which of the following compounds does not contain both ionic and covalent bonding?
a. Na SO
b. NH NO
c. NH Cl
d. KCl
e. KClO


____ 69. What are the Lewis formulas for the chlorides of phosphorus, PCl
3
and PCl
5
?
a.

b.

c.

d.


____ 70. An ionic bond is most likely to be formed between
a. a metal of low ionization energy and a nonmetal of low (very positive) electron affinity.
b. a metal of high ionization energy and a nonmetal of high (very negative) electron affinity.
c. a metal of high ionization energy and a nonmetal of low (very positive) electron affinity.
d. a metal of low ionization energy and a nonmetal of high (very negative) electron affinity.

____ 71. Which of the following is not one of the basic ideas of the VSEPR theory?
a. Each electron group in the valence shell of a central atom is significant.
b. The groups of valence shell electrons on the central atom repel one another.
c. The groups of valence shell electrons are arranged about the central atom so that the
repulsions among them are as small as possible.
d. The electron groups have maximum separation about the central atom.
e. The number of electron groups is determined by counting the number of lone pairs and the
total number of bonds.

____ 72. CH
4
is a nonpolar molecule. Which of the following similar molecules is also nonpolar?
a. CH
3
Cl
b. CH
2
Cl
2
c. SiH
3
Cl
d. SiH
4
e. SiH
2
Cl
2

____ 73. Which response contains all the following statements that are true, and no others?

I. A set of sp
2
orbitals can be thought of as one s orbital one-third of the time and two p
orbitals two-thirds of the time.
II. A set of sp orbitals can accommodate a maximum of six electrons.
III. The orbitals resulting from sp
3
d
2
hybridization are directed toward the corners of an
octahedron.
IV. A set of sp
3
orbitals results from the mixing of one s orbital and three p orbitals.

a. II and IV
b. I, II, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. III and IV
e. all are true

____ 74. The bond angles associated with sp
3
d
2
hybridization are ____.
a. 90 and 180
b. 120
c. 109
d. 90 and 120
e. 109 and 120

____ 75. The central atom in a molecule is sharing a total of 12 electrons. What type of hybrid orbitals are formed by
the central atom?
a. sp
b. sp
2
c. sp
3
d. sp
3
d
e. sp
3
d
2


____ 76. Which of the following molecules has 120 bond angles?
a. BF
4
-
b. CF
4
c. H
2
O
d. BI
3
e. NH
4
+


____ 77. Which one of the following molecules is polar?
a. BCl
3
b. CdI
2
c. CCl
4
d. NCl
3
e. Br
2

____ 78. What is the hybridization of the sulfur atom in SO
3
2-
?
a. sp
b. sp
2
c. sp
3
d. sp
3
d
e. sp
3
d
2


____ 79. For AsF
3
, the electronic geometry is ____ and the molecular geometry is ____.
a. tetrahedral, trigonal planar
b. trigonal planar, tetrahedral
c. tetrahedral, tetrahedral
d. trigonal planar, trigonal planar
e. trigonal planar, linear

____ 80. The electronic geometry of the central atom in PCl
3
is ____.
a. pyramidal
b. trigonal planar
c. tetrahedral
d. octahedral
e. trigonal bipyramidal

____ 81. Which response contains all of the following molecules that can be described as bent or angular molecules
and none that have other shapes?
BeI
2
, SO
2
, H
2
S, PF
3
, CO
2
a. SO
2
, H
2
S
b. BeI
2
, SO
2
c. BeI
2
, PF
3
, CO
2
d. PF
3
, CO
2
e. another combination

____ 82. What is the hybridization at the sulfur atom in SF
6
?
a. sp
b. sp
2
c. sp
3
d. sp
3
d
e. sp
3
d
2


____ 83. What is the geometry of a carbon atom involved in one double bond?
a. linear
b. trigonal planar
c. tetrahedral
d. trigonal bipyramidal
e. octahedral

____ 84. Which of the following statements regarding a carbon atom involved in 2 double bonds is false?
a. The geometry is linear.
b. The hybridization is sp.
c. There are 2 sigma and two pi bonds.
d. The C atom has two unhybridized p atomic orbitals.
e. The C atom can make one more bond to complete its octet.

____ 85. What is the hybridization of a carbon atom involved in a triple bond?
a. sp
b. sp
2
c. sp
3
d. sp
3
d
e. sp
3
d
2


____ 86. Which molecule is incorrectly matched with the molecular geometry?

Molecule Molecular Geometry

a. CCl
4
tetrahedral
b. PH
3
pyramidal
c. BeCl
2
linear
d. BBr
3
trigonal planar
e. SO
2
linear

____ 87. Which, if any, of the compounds listed are not sp
3
d hybridized at the central atom?

I. BF
3
II. AsI
5
III. SF
4
IV. BrF
5
V. XeF
4

a. III and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. I, IV, and V
d. III and V
e. all are sp
3
d hybridized

____ 88. Each molecule of boron trifluoride, BF
3
, is trigonal planar. The boron atom is in the center, with the three
fluorine atoms around it. Each fluorine atom is bonded only to the boron atom. Draw a picture of this
molecule.

What is the angle between any two boron-fluorine bonds?
a. 60
b. 90
c. 120
d. 180

____ 89. Ultra-pure Si is required to produce semi-conductors. The first step in this process is combining silicon
dioxide with carbon and chlorine. Choose the answer that represents the sum of all the coefficients when this
equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients.
SiO
2
C Cl
2
CO SiCl
4
a. 5
b. 6
c. 16
d. 7
e. 8

____ 90. Propane (C
3
H
8
) burns in oxygen to form CO
2
and H
2
O according to the following equation. How many grams
of O
2
are required to burn 3.01 10
23
propane molecules?
C
3
H
8
5O
2
3CO
2
4H
2
O
a. 80.0 g
b. 40.0 g
c. 160 g
d. 16.0 g
e. 64.0 g

____ 91. How many moles of H
2
O will be produced from the complete combustion of 2.4 grams of CH
4
?
CH
4
2O
2
CO
2
2H
2
O
a. 0.15
b. 0.30
c. 1.5
d. 3.0
e. 6.0

____ 92. If 25.0 g of each reactant were used in performing the following reaction, which would be the limiting
reactant?
3PbO
2
Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
K
2
SO
4
H
2
O 3PbSO
4
K
2
Cr
2
O
7
H
2
SO
4
a. PbO
2
b. H
2
O
c. K
2
SO
4
d. PbSO
4
e. Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3

____ 93. How many moles of carbon dioxide could be produced if 10 moles of octane, C
8
H
18
, are combined with 20
moles of oxygen?
C
8
H
18
25O
2
16CO
2
18H
2
O
a. 40 mol
b. 8.0 mol
c. 12.8 mol
d. 62.5 mol
e. 20 mol

____ 94. What is the percent yield of CO
2
if the reaction of 10.0 grams of CO with excess O
2
produces 12.8 grams of
CO
2
?
2CO(g) O
2
(g) 2CO
2
(g)
a. 76.4%
b. 78.1%
c. 81.5%
d. 84.4%
e. 88.9%

____ 95. Salicylic acid reacts with acetic anhydride to form aspirin, acetylsalicylic acid. If the percent yield in this
reaction is 78.5%, what mass of salicylic acid is required to produce 150. g aspirin?
2 C
7
H
6
O
3
C
4
H
6
O
3 2 C
9
H
8
O
4
H
2
O
salicylic acid acetic anhydride aspirin

a. 292 g
b. 146 g
c. 90.0 g
d. 73.0 g
e. 191 g