1. Approximately how many platelets does an average megakaryocyte
generate? a) 1 b) 50 c) 175 d) 2000
2. Which therapeutic agent affects platelet function? a) Aspirin b) Coumadin c) Heparin d) Streptokinase
3. The temperature range for maintaining red blood cells during transport is: a) 0-4 o C b) 1-6 o C c) 1-10 o C d) 5-15 o C
4. In storage pool disease, platelets are defective: a) in release reaction b) glycoproteinIb c) glycoproteinIIb-IIIa d) adhesion
5. Which of the following tests must be repeated by the transfusion facility when the donor unit was collected at a different processing facility? a) Confirmation of ABO group and Rh type of blood labeled Rh negative b) Confirmation of ABO group and Rh type c) Weak D on D negative d) Antibody screen
6. The ratio of anticoagulant to blood for coagulation testing should be 1 to a) 4.5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 10
7. Most blood group antibodies are of what immunoglobulin classes? a) IgA and IgD b) Ig A and IgM c) IgE and IgD d) IgG and IgM
8. If a DCe/dce man marries a dce/dce woman, what percentage of their offspring can be expected to be D negative? a) 0% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%
9. If the antibody screen is negative, which of the following may cause a false positive result in a major compatibility test? a) Incorrect ABO typing of the donor or patient b) An alloantibody against the donor cells c) Prior sensitization of donor cells by IgG d) All of the above
10. All of the following are true of the INR except: a) INR is dependent on reagents and instrumentation. b) INR is calculated using the PT ratio taken to the power of the ISI value. c) WHO recommends reporting INR on patients on long-term oral anticoagulant. d) INR is used to standardize the thrombin time.
11. Which of the following would be incompatible in the major crossmatch Donor Recipient a) A Rh negative A Rh negative b) O Rh positive A Rh positive c) AB Rh positive A Rh positive d) A Rh positive A Rh negative
12. A patient with coronary artery disease is admitted to the hospital with venous thrombosis. What medication can be administered that will lyse the clot? a) Asprin b) Coumadin c) Heparin d) Tissue plasminogen activator
13. To confirm the antibody identification on a patient is correct you should a) Do a DAT b) Do a compatibility test c) Do a weak D test d) Test the patients cells for the corresponding antigen
14. Which of the following degrades a fibrin clot? a) Plasminogen b) Plasmin c) Prothrombin d) Thrombin
15. A false negative result in the indirect antiglobulin phase of a antibody screening test are most likely due to: a) Excessive washing of red cells. b) Inadequate washing of red cells. c) Presence of an auto antibody. d) Failure to allow the blood to clot..
16. Heparin works as an inhibitor to clotting by: a) Chelating calcium ions b) Preventing thrombin activation c) Antagonizing vitamin Ks role in factor synthesis d) Enhancing the inhibitory effects of antithrombin III
17. If the antibody screen is negative, which of the following may cause a false positive result in a major compatibility test? a) Incorrect ABO typing of the donor or patient b) An alloantibody against the donor cells c) Prior sensitization of donor cells by IgG d) All of the above
18. All of the following are true of the INR except: a) INR is dependent on reagents and instrumentation. b) INR is calculated using the PT ratio taken to the power of the ISI value. c) WHO recommends reporting INR on patients on long-term oral anticoagulant. d) INR is used to standardize the thrombin time.
19. Which of the following would be incompatible in the major crossmatch Donor Recipient a) A Rh negative A Rh negative b) O Rh positive A Rh positive c) AB Rh positive A Rh positive d) A Rh positive A Rh negative
20. A patient with coronary artery disease is admitted to the hospital with venous thrombosis. What medication can be administered that will lyse the clot? a) Asprin b) Coumadin c) Heparin d) Tissue plasminogen activator
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