What is the bandgap energy for diamonds?

a. 2.5eV
b.1.1eV
c.5.6eV
d. 0.1eV
_______________ allows simplifying a one-port
circuit to a current source in parallel with an
impedance.
a. Nortons Theorem
b. Thevenins Therorem
c. Kirchoffs Current Law
d. Faradays Law of Magnetic Induction

Charge carriers move in semiconductors via two
mechanisms: _____ and _______.
a. drift and diffusion
b. drift and avalanche
c. avalanche and diffusion
d. none of the above

The diffusion current density is proportional to the
_________ of the carrier concentration
a. gradient
b. curl
c. divergence
d. laplacian

The ___________ is the minimum energy required
to dislodge an electron from its covalent
bond.
a.barrier potential
b. bandgap energy
c. potential energy
d. diffusion energy

Under a high reverse bias voltage, pn pn junctions
break down, conducting a very high current.
Depending on the structure and doping levels of
the device, ____________ breakdown may occur.
a. Zener
b. Avalanche
c. Drift
d. answers a or b

The statement A voltage-dependent current
source can form an amplifier along with a load
resistor is
a. True
b. False
c. Cannot be determined
d. Sometimes True

For proper operation, the____________________
is forward-biased and the
_____________________ is
reverse-biased.
a. base-emitter junction, collector-emitter junction
b. base-emitter junction, base-collector junction
c. collector-base junction, base-emitter junction
d. collector-emitter junction, collector-base
junction

The ________________ of the bipolar transistor
consists of an exponential voltage-dependent
current source tied between the collector and
emitter, and a diode (accounting for the base
current) tied between the base and emitter.
a. r-paramter model
b. h-parameter model
c. small signal-model
d. large-signal model

The ______ stage provides a moderate voltage
gain, a moderate input impedance, and a moderate
output impedance.
a. common-drain
b. common-collector
c. common-base
d. common-emmiter

The ___________ provides a voltage gain less than
unity, a high input impedance, and a low output
impedance, serving as a good voltage buffer
a. emitter follower
b. common base
c. common emitter
d. common source

MOSFETs operate in the ________ region if the
drain voltage is more than one threshold below the
gate voltage
a. triode
b. diode
c. negative resistance
d. constant current


A measure of the small-signal performance of
voltage-dependent current sources is the
_____________ defined as the change in the
output current divided by the change in the input
voltage.
a. impedance
b. conductance
c. transconductance
d. reluctance

The impedance seen looking into the gate of a
MOSFET is equal to ________
a. infinity
b. r
0

c. 1 / gm
d. zero



The _______________ topology exhibits a nominal
gain equal to one plus the ratio of
two resistors. The circuit also suffers from a gain
error that is inversely proportional to the
gain of the op amp.
a. noninverting amplifier
b. inverting amplifier
c. summing amplifier
d. voltage follower

Placing a bipolar device around an op amp provides
a _____________function
a. linear
b. parabolic
c. exponential
d. logarithmic

Op amps suffer from various imperfections,
including dc offsets and input bias currents.
These effects impact the performance of various
circuits, most notably,____________.
a. zero-level detector
b. summing amplifier
c. differentiators
d. integrators

Stacking a transistor atop another forms a _______
structure, resulting in a high output
impedance.
a. darlington
b. stack
c. cascade
d. cascode

Bipolar differential pairs exhibit a
____________input/output characteristic. The tail
current can be mostly steered to one side with a
differential input of about 4Vt.
a. parabolic
b. logarithmic
c. hyperbolic tangent
d. exponential

As the frequency of operation increases,
capacitances exhibit a ______________, reducing
the gain. The gain thus rolls off at high signal
frequencies.
a. same impedance
b. slightly higher impedance
c. lower impedance
d. significantly higher

To obtain the frequency response, we must derive
the ___________ of the circuit.
a. logarithmic behavior
b. roll-off rate
c. gain
d. transfer function

A capacitance tied between the input and output
of an inverting amplifier appears at the input
with a factor equal to one minus the gain of the
amplifier. This is called _______________.
a. Capacitance-gain effect
b. Miller effect
c. Thevenin effect
d. Faraday effect

The ________of a feedback system can, in
principle, be obtained by breaking the loop,
injecting a test signal, and calculating the gain as
the signal goes around the loop. It determines
many properties of feedback systems, e.g., gain,
frequency response, and I/O impedances.

a. loop gain
b. transfer function
c. negative feedback
d. signal flow

To avoid oscillation, the gain crossover frequency
must __________the phase crossover frequency.
a. fall below
b. rise above
c. be equal
d. a factor of

The crossover distortion resulting from the dead
zone can be reduced by biasing the push-pull
transistors for a small quiescent current
a. True
b. False

In low-distortion applications, the output stage
may be embedded in a _________
to suppress the nonlinearity.
a. open loop
b. positive feedback loop
c.negative feedback loop
d. none of the above

A push-pull stage operating at high temperatures
may suffer from _____________, whereby
the elevated temperatures allow the output
transistors to draw higher currents, which in turn
makes them dissipate even more.
a. avalanche effect
b. diffusion effect
c. thermal runaway
d. thermal breakover


The ___________ response provides a sharper
transition than Butterworth at the cost of some
ripple in the passband and stopbands. It contains n
complex poles on an ellipse
a. Thomas
b. Buttord
c. Elliptic
d. Chebyshev

A phenomenon that occurs for large reverse
voltages across a pn junction where the free
electrons are accelerated to such high speeds that
they can dislodge valence electrons.
a. Piezoelectric effect
b. Zener Effect
c. Recombination
d. Avalanche effect


A graph showing the gain or phase performance of
an electronic circuit at various frequencies.
a. Ogive graph
b. Bode plot
c. Gain-frequency curve
d. Performance graph

What do you call the ohmic resistance of the
semiconductor?
a. Dynamic resistance
b. Static resistance
c. Bulk resistance
d. Semiconductor resistance


The metaphor used to describe the action of an
SCR when it is used to protect a load against
supply.
a. Surge
b. Limiter
c. Breaker
d. Crowbar


A value that tells you how much to reduce the
power rating for each degree above the reference
temperature given on the data sheet.
a. Reduction factor
b. Derating factor
c. Temperature coefficient
d. Attenuation

It is the process of adding impurity element to an
intrinsic semiconductor to change its conductivity.
a. Impurification
b. Crystallization
c. Recombination
d. Doping

A condition where the transistor is operating at the
upper end of the load line with a base current that
is one-tenth of the collector current.
a. Full saturation
b. Hard saturation
c. Mid saturation
d. Avalanche

The pattern appearing on an oscilloscope when
harmonically related signals are applied to the
horizontal and vertical inputs.
a. Lissajous pattern
b. Shockleys pattern
c. Brauns pattern
d. Lee de Forests pattern

A connection of two transistors connected with
positive feedback to simulate the action of a
thyristor.
a. Complementary
b. Latch
c. Push pull
d. Switch

It refers to the average amount of time between
the creation and recombination of a free electron
and a hole.
a. Recombination time
b. Delay time
c. Conduction time
d. Life time

A filter that blocks a signal with at most one
frequency.
a. Brick wall filter
b. Cauer filter
c. Notch filter
d. Butterworth filter

A term use to describe the death of amplification.
a. Oscillation
b. Attenuation
c. Degradation
d. Hysteresis

The voltage that provides the border between the
ohmic region and the constant current region of a
depletion-mode device when the gate to source
voltage is zero.
a. Threshold voltage
b. Peak point voltage
c. Valley point voltage
d. Pinch off voltage

A basic circuit that a designer can modify to get
more advanced circuits.
a. Model circuit
b. Miniature circuit
c. Prototype
d. Hybrid

It is a comparator with hysteresis.
a. Schmitt trigger
b. Hysteresis circuit
c. Trigger-comparator
d. Latch circuit

Which of the following special purpose diode
doesnt have depletion layer?
a. Tunnel diode
b. Schottky diode
c. Varactor diode
d. Zener diode

It is define as a large initial current that flows
through the diode of a rectifier.
a. Bleeder current
b. Surge current
c. Transient current
d. Saturated current



It is defined as a four-layer semiconductor device
that acts as a latch.
a. Thyrector
b. Transistor
c. Transformer
d. Thyristor

It is the value of the input voltage that switches the
output of a comparator.
a. Trigger
b. Trip point
c. Latch
d. Knee

It is a device that acts like two back-to-back-zener
diodes.
a. Varistor
b. Varactor
c. Complementary zener
d. Zener latch
What do you call a thin slice of crystal used as a
chassis for integrated components.
a. Substrate
b. Base
c. Wafer
d. Impurity

What is the other term for zener effect?
a. Avalanche effect
b. Piezoelectric effect
c. High field emission
d. Breakdown effect

Calculate the efficiency of a transformer-coupled
class A amplifier for a supply of 12 V and outputs of
6V.
a.50% b. 25% c. 12.5% d. 10%

()

()
Resulting in
(


)

For a class B amplifier providing a 20-V peak to a
16- load (speaker) and a power supply of Vcc = 30
V, determine the circuit efficiency.
a.45.2% b. 66.67% c. 78.5% d. 52.3%

()

()

()

( )

()

( )( )

()

( )

()

For resulting efficiency of

()

(






For a class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 30 V
and driving a load of 16, determine the maximum
output power.
a.28.13W b. 35.81W c. 41.23W d. 54.91W

Maximum

()

( )

()


For a class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 30 V
and driving a load of 16, determine the transistor
dissipation
a.3.7W b. 4.7W c. 5.7W d. 6.7W

Maximum

)
*
( )

+

Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a
supply of Vcc = 24 V with peak output voltages of
V
L
(p) = 22 V.
a.62% b. 68% c. 72% d. 78%

()

(


)
Calculate the total harmonic distortion for the
following amplitude components: fundamental
amplitude of 2.5 V, second harmonic amplitude of
0.25 V, third harmonic amplitude of 0.1 V, and
fourth harmonic amplitude of 0.05 V.
a.11% b. 12% c. 13% d. 14%

|
|

|
|

|
|

()

()

()

Determine what maximum dissipation will be
allowed for an 80-W silicon transistor (rated
at) if the reading is required above by a
derating factor of 0.5W/ at case temperature of
.
a.25W b. 30W c. 35W d. 40W

()

()
()()
(
)
A silicon power transistor is operated with a heat
sink (

)the transistor, rated at150

W ()

, and the mounting

insulation has

. What maximum
power can be dissipated if the ambient
temperature is

a.61.5W b. 71.5W c. 81.5W d. 91.5W

A dc voltage supply provides 50 V when the output
is unloaded. When connected to a load, the output
drops to 56 V. Calculate the value of voltage
regulation.
a.4.1% b. 7.1% c. 5.7% d. 10.7%

Calculate the ripple voltage of a full-wave rectifier
with a 100-F filter capacitor connected to a load
drawing to a load drawing 50 mA
a.1.2V b. 2.5V c. 2.7V d. 3.1V

()
()

Calculate the filter dc Voltage of a full-wave
rectifier with a 100-F filter capacitor connected to
a load drawing to a load drawing 50 mA if the peak
rectifier voltage is 30 V.
a.25.4V b. 26.1V c. 27.9V d. 28.6V

()

Calculate the ripple of a capacitor filter for a peak
rectified voltage of 30 V, capacitor C= 100F, and a
load current of 50 mA.
a.3.7% b. 4.3% c. 5.1% d. 6.9%

()
()


Calculate the input bias currents at the non-
inverting and inverting terminal respectively of an
op=amp having specified values of I
IO
= 5nA and I
IB
=
30 nA.
a.Both 32.5nA b. Both 27.5nA c. 27.5nA; 32.5nA
d. 32.5nA; 27.5nA

Determine the cutoff frequency of an op-amp
having specified values B
1
= 1 MHz and A
VD
= 200
V/mV.
a.4Hz b. 5Hz c. 1kHz d. 1MHz





For an op-amp having a slew rate of SR = 2V/s,
what is the maximum closed loop voltage gain that
can be used when the input signal varies by 0.5 V in
10 s?
a.10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40


Determine the output voltage of an op-amp for
input voltages of V
i1
= 150 V and V
i2
= 140 V. The
amplifier has a differential gain of A
d
=4000 and the
value of CMRR is 100.
a.32.6mV b. 45.8mV c. 51.9mV d. 66.7mV




If an amplifier with gain of -1000 and feedback of
=-0.1 has a gain change of 20% due to
temperature; calculate the change in gain of the
feedback amplifier
a.10% b. 0.2% c. 20% d. 1%
|

| |

| |

| |

()
|(20%) = 0.2%

A transistor has a collector current of 10mA and a
base current of 40uA. What is the current gain of
the transistor
a.20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
=10mA/40uA=50

A 2N3904 has VCE=10V and IC=20mA. What is the
power dissipation?
a.0W b. 100mW c. 200mW d. 2N3904 is
limited to 10mW
PD=10V(20mA)=200mW

A zener regulator has an input voltage that may
vary from 22 to 30V. If the regulated output
voltage is 12V and the load resistance varies from
140 to 10k, what is the maximum allowable
series resistance?
a.140 b. 76.4 c. 280 d. 117
(

)

It is sometimes called hot-carrier diode.
a. Shockley diode
b. Schottky diode
c. Gunn Diode
d. Tunnel diode

A zener regulator has an input voltage ranging from
15 to 20V and a load current ranging from 5 to
20mA. If the zener voltage is 6.8V, what is the
maximum allowable series resistance?
a.750 b. 410 c. 1000 d. 2000
(

)
A 2N5668 has VGS(off)=-4V and IDSS=5mA. What
are the gate voltage and drain current at the half
cutoff point?
a.-1V; 1mA b. -2V; 1.25mA c. -4V; 5mA d. 0; 0

A network that employ diodes to remove away a
portion of an input signal without distorting the
remaining part of the applied waveform
a. Clamper
b. Rectifier
c. Regulator
d. Clipper

Atom with four valence electrons is called ____.
a. Trivalent
b. Tetravalent
c. Quadvalent
d. Pentavalent

The term applied to any semiconductor material
that has been carefully refined to reduce the
number of impurities to a very low-essentially as
pure as can be made available through modern
technology.
a. Intrinsic
b. Crystal
c. Lattice
d. Solid

Who discovered electrons in 1897?
a. J. Thompson
b. E. Rutherford
c. J. Chadwick
d. J. Maxwell


What is the typical energy gap of silicon
semiconductor?
a.0.03eV b. 0.67eV c. 1.1eV d. 1.43eV

Which of the following semiconductor material is
sensitive to temperature change?
a. Carbon
b. Germanium
c. Silicon
d. GaAs

It occurs when a conduction-band electron loses
energy and falls back into a hole in the valence
band.
a. Ionization
b. Doping
c. Electron-hole
d. Recombination

Which of the following is not a pentavalent atom?
a. Phosphorus
b. Antimony
c. Arsenic
d. Boron

How does minority carriers produced?
a. Doping
b. Ionization
c. Thermally produced
d. Light energy

It is an extremely small amount of current that
exists in a reverse biased diode.
a. Forward saturated current
b. Reversed saturated current
c. Forward leakage current
d. Zener current

What is the typical reverse saturated current of a
silicon diode?
a.1uA b. 10uA c. 10pA d. 1pA

What is the typical range of reverse breakdown
voltage of silicon diode?
a. 2-200V
b. 50-1kV
c. 50-400V
d. 100-10kV

The time required for the minority carriers to
return to the majority carrier state in the opposite
material.
a. Transition time
b. Time constant
c. Rise time
d. Storage time

Determine the thermal voltage of a diode at 27C
(common temperatures for components in an
enclosed operating system)
a.20mV b. 26mV c. 30mV d. 1V
Vt =kT/q=(1.38x10
-23
J/K)(273+17)/1.6x10
-19
C
= 26mV
What is the knee voltage of a silicon diode at 75C?
a.0.7V b. 2.1V c. 0.58V d. 0V
(75-25)C*2.5mV/C = 0.125V

New Vknee = 0.7-0.125 = 0.575V
At 20C, the reverse saturation current of a silicon
diode is 10nA, what is its value when the
temperature increases to 100C?
a.0.32uA b. 50nA c. 10nA d. 0A

100 C / 20C = 5

New Ireverse = 2
5
(10nA)= 0.32uA

A silicon diode is in series with 1k resistor and a
forward biasing voltage supply of 10V. If r
d
is 10,
what is the anode to cathode current and voltage?
a. 9.3mA, 0.7V
b. 9.3mA,0.79V
c. 9.21mA,0.7V
d. 9.21mA,0.79V

I
F
=(10-0.7)/(10+1k)=9.21mA
V
F
=0.7+10(9.21mA=0.79V

What is the wavelength of the light produced by an
LED with an energy gap level of 1.43 eV?
a. 569nm
b. 669nm
c. 768nm
d. 869nm

=hc/E
g
=(6.626x10
-34
Js*3x10
8
m/s)
/(1.43eV*1.6x10
-19
J/eV)
= 869nm

What does FPGA stands for?
a. Field p-type gate array
b. Field programmable gate arrangement
c. Field programmable gate array
d. FET programmable gate array

Find the 2s complement of 10110010.
a. 01001101
b. 01001100
c. 11001101
d. 10111101

Convert the binary number 11000110 to gray code
a. 1011101
b. 10100111
c. 10000101
d. 10100101

Which of the following can be used as universal
gate?
a. AND
b. OR
c. NAND
d. NOT

A logic gate that produces a HIGH output only
when its two inputs are at opposite levels.
a. OR
b. XOR
c. NOR
d. XNOR

The complement of a sum of variables is equal to
the product of the complements
of the variables.
a. Booleans Rule
b. De Morgans Theorems
c. Baudots Law
d. Karnaughs Rule

Which of the following expression is in standard
SOP form?
a. F=ABC+ABC+ABC
b. F=A+BC+ABC
c. F=AB+AC+BC
d. All of the above

In a 4 variable K-map, what is the binary value for
the cell in the lower right corner?
a. 0000
b. 1111
c. 0101
d. 1010

It is a digital circuit that adds two bits and an input
carry to produce a sum and an output carry.
a. Half adder
b. Full adder
c. Demultiplexer
d. Encoder

Which of the following is the invalid state for RS flip
flop?
a. S=0; R=0
b. S=0; R=1
c. S=1; R=0
d. S=1; R=1

In T flip flop, T stands for:
a. Time
b. Trip
c. Transient
d. Toggle

How many flip-flop/s is/are need to produce 2kHz
frequency from 8kHz input?
a.1 b. 2 c.3 d. 4

A flip-flop is in the toggle condition when:
a. J=0; K=0
b. J=0; K=1
c. J=1; K=0
d. J=1; K=1

How many flip-flops are needed to produce 4-bit
asynchronous counter?
a.2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

How many flip-flops are needed to produce
modulus-12 asynchronous counter?
a.4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 10

What do you call the number of unique states
through which a counter will
sequence?
a. State
b. Sequence
c. Modulus
d. Counts

Asynchronous counters are known as:
a. ripple counters
b. multiple clock counters
c. decade counters
d. modulus counters

The modulus of a counter is
(a) the number of flip-flops
(b) the actual number of states in its sequence
(c) the number of times it recycles in a second
(d) the maximum possible number of states

Three cascaded modulus-10 counters have an
overall modulus of
a.30 b. 100 c. 1000 d. 10000

The terminal count of a modulus-13 binary counter
is
a. 0000
b. 1111
c. 1101
d. 1100

The difference between the two op-amp input
currents is called ______.
a. Input Offset Current
b. Input Bias Current
c. Op-Amp Input Current
d. Differential Mode Current

A circuit whose output voltage is proportional to
the area under the curve of the input voltage.

a. Differentiator
b. Comparator
c. Integrator
d. Summing Amplifier

A circuit whose output voltage is proportional to
the slope of the input voltage.
a. Differentiator
b. Comparator
c. Integrator
d. Summing Amplifier
A filter response that exhibits an equiripple
amplitude response in the pass band.
a. Notch Filter response
b. Chebyshev Response
c. Bessel Response
d. Butterworth Response
A filter response that exhibits maximum flatness
possible in the pass band.
a. Notch Filter response
b. Chebyshev Response
c. Bessel Response
d. Butterworth Response

The ____ gate is called the all or nothing gate.
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NOR
d.) XOR

Express the Boolean function F= xy + xz in a
product of maxterm form.
a. F = (x+y)(x+y)(y+z)
b. F = (x+y)(x+z)(x+y)
c. F = (x+y)(x+z)(y+z)
d. F = (x+y)(x+z)(y+z)
In switching transistors, what do you call the time
between the changing state of the input and the
beginning of a response in the output?
a. Delay time
b. Rise time
c. Fall time
d. Storage time

The current gain of a common-base BJT
configuration is _____________.
a. just less than 1
b. negligibly small
c. very high
d. just greater than 1

It is desired to design a phase-shift oscillator using
an FET having g
m
= 5000, r
d
= 40 and a
feedback circuit whose resistance value R= 10 .
Select the value of the capacitor appropriate for
oscillator operation of 1 kHz.
a. 6.5nF
b. 1.62nF
c. 8.12nF
d. 1.3nF

()()

The current gain of a Darlington pair is called
________.
a. superbeta
b. beta
c. alpha
d. superalpha

The total dB gain of a three stage system is 120dB.
Determine the dB gain of the third stage if the
second stage is twice the dB gain of the first stage
and the third is 2.7 times the dB gain of the first.
a. 57 dB
b. 30 dB
c. 21 dB
d. 62 dB

( )
A ______ is a dcdc converter with an unregulated
input dc voltage and a regulated output voltage.
The converter circuitry consists of arrangements of
inductor, capacitors, diodes, and transistors. The
transistors are switched between the ON state
(saturation) and the OFF state (cutoff) at rates that
typically range from 10 kHz to 40 kHz.
a. switched-mode power supply
b. regulated power supply
c. unregulated power supply
d. dc power supply

Logarithmic amplifiers, together with exponential
amplifiers are used to perform analog
multiplication. These can be constructed by using
an operational amplifier and a diode. Where and
how should the diode be placed so that the circuit
will work as a logarithmic amplifier?
a. Forward biased in the feedback path, replacing
R
f
of an inverting op-amp
b. Reversed biased in the feedback path, replacing
R
f
of an inverting op-amp
c. Forward biased in the input, replacing R
i
of an
inverting op-amp
d. Reversed biased in the input, replacing R
i
of an
inverting op-amp





The time sequence of inputs, outputs and flip-flop
states can be enumerated in a _______. This
consists of four sections labeled the present state,
input, output and next state.
a. state table
b. truth table
c. state diagram
d. truth diagram

In digital design of combinational logic circuits,
what do you call the term that refers to the
connection of the output of one device to the input
of a similar device allowing one device to drive the
other in order to expand the operational
capability?
a. Cascading
b. Cascading
c. Fanning
d. Cross-connecting

In computers, what do you call a relatively small,
high-speed memory that stores the most recently
used instructions or data from the larger but
slower main memory?
a. cache memory
b. register
c. random access memory
d. flash memory

What is the ratio of the input impedance with
series feedback to that without feedback?
a. 1 + BA
b. BA
c. B
d. 1

Which of the following is required to start
oscillation?
a. BA > 1
b. The phase shift around the feedback network
must be 180 degrees.

c. Both BA > 1 and the phase shift around the
feedback network must be 180 degrees.

d. None of the above

Only the condition BA = _____ must be satisfied for
self-sustained oscillations to result.
a. 0 ?
b. -1 ?

c. 1 ?
d. None of the above ?

In the IC phase-shift oscillator, what should the
ratio of feedback resistor R
f
to R
1
be?
a. Zero

b. Greater than -29

c. Less than 29

d. Any value
Av = 1 + (R
f
/R
i
) = 1 + (1k/100) = 11

In the Wien bridge oscillator, which of the
following is (are) frequency-determining
components?
a. Both resistors
b. Both capacitors
c. Both resistors and capacitors
d. None of the above

What is the typical value of quality factor for crystal
oscillators?
a. 20,000
b. 1,000
c. 100
d. 10

In which of the following applications is a pulsating
dc voltage suitable?
a. Battery charger
b. Radio
c. Stereo system
d. Computer

Across which of the following components of a
power supply does the average (dc) voltage exist?
a. Diodes
b. Secondary of transformer
c. Capacitor filter

d. None of the above

What is the purpose of an additional RC filter
section in a power supply circuit?
a. Increase the dc voltage component
b. Increase the ac voltage component
c. Decrease the ac voltage component
d. None of the above

In a simple series regulator circuit, which of the
following components is the controlling element?
a. Load resistor
b. Zener diode
c. Transistor
d. None of the above



What is the range of gm for JFETs?
a. 1 uS to 10 uS
b. 100 uS to 1000 uS
c. 1000 uS to 5000 uS
d. 10000 uS to 100000 uS

For what value of I
D
is gm equal to 0.5 g
m0
?
a. 0 mA
b. 0.25 I
DSS
c. 0.5 I
DSS

d. I
DSS

Which of the following transistor has depletion and
enhancement types?
a. BJT
b. JFET

c. MOSFET
d. Diode

What is the level of I
G
in an FET?
a. Zero

b. Equal to I
D
c. Depends on V
DS
d. Undefined

The region to the left of the pinch-off locus is
referred to as the _____ region.
a. saturation
b. cut-off
c. ohmic
d. None of the above

The drain current will always be one-fourth of IDSS
as long as the gate-to-source voltage is _____ the
pinch-off value.
a. one-fourth
b. one-half
c. three-fourths
d. None of the above

How many terminals can a MOSFET have?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 3 or 4

It is the insulating layer of _____ in the MOSFET
construction that accounts for the very desirable
high input impedance of the device.
a. SiO
b. GaAs
c. SiO
2
d. HCl

The transfer curve is not defined by Shockley's
equation for the _____.
a. JFET
b. DMOSFET
c. EMOSFET
d. None of the above

Which of the following FETs has the lowest input
impedance?
a. JFET
b. DMOSFET
c. EMOSFET
d. None of the above

How many orbiting electrons does the germanium
atom have?
a. 4
b. 14
c. 32
d. 11

One eV is equal to _____ J.
a. 6.02 E23
b. 1.6 E19
c. 6.25 E18
d. 1.66 E24

What unit is used to represent the level of a diode
forward current?
a. pA
b. nA
c. A
d. mA

Calculate the power dissipation of a diode having I
D

= 40 mA.
a. 28 mW
b. 28 W
c. 280 mW
d. undefined

P
D
= V
D
x I
D
= 0.7V x 40 mA = 28 mW








Which capacitance dominates in the reverse-bias
region?
a. Depletion
b. Conversion
c. Diffusion
d. None of the above

Which capacitance dominates in the forward-bias
region?
a. Depletion
b. Conversion
c. Diffusion
d. None of the above

What does a high resistance reading in both
forward- and reverse-bias directions indicate?
a. A good diode
b. An open diode
c. A shorted diode
d. A defective ohmmeter

Determine the nominal voltage for the Zener diode
at a temperature of 120 C if the nominal voltage is
5.1 volts at 25 C and the temperature coefficient is
0.05%/ C.
a. 4.6 V
b. 4.86 V
c. 5.1 V
d. 5.34 V

V
120C
= V
25C
+ V
25C
(120C 25C) ( .0005/C) = 5.34 V

What is the maximum power rating for LEDs?
a. 150 mW
b. 500 mW
c. 1 W
d. 10 W

The _____ diode model is employed most
frequently in the analysis of electronic systems.
a. ideal
b. practical
c. piecewise-linear
d. None of the above

At what region of operation is the base-emitter
junction forward biased and the base-collector
junction reverse biased?
a. Saturation
b. Linear or Active
c. Cut-off
d. None of the above

For the BJT to operate in the saturation region, the
base-emitter junction must be _____-biased and
the base-collector junction must be _____-biased.
a. forward, forward
b. forward, reverse
c. reverse, reverse
d. reverse, forward

Which of the following voltages must have a
negative level (value) in any NPN bias circuit?
a. V
BE

b. V
CE
c. V
BC

d. None of the above

Which of the following is referred to as the reverse
transfer voltage ratio?
a. hi
b. hr
c. hf
d. ho

Which of the following techniques can be used in
the sinusoidal ac analysis of transistor networks?
a. Small-signal
b. Large-signal
c. Small- or Large-signal
d. None of the above

The _____ model suffers from being limited to a
particular set of operating conditions if it is to be
considered accurate.

a. hybrid
b. re
c. Thevenin
d. None of the above

What is the unit of the parameter ho of a BJT?
a. Volt
b. Siemen
c. Ohm
d. Unitless
What is the typical value of the current gain of a
common-base configuration?
a. Less than 1
b. Between 1 and 50
c. Between `100 and 200
d. Undefined

What does the negative sign in the voltage gain of
the common-emitter fixed-bias configuration
indicate?
a. The output and input voltages are 180 out of
phase.
b. Gain is smaller than 1.
c. Gain is larger than 1.
d. None of the above

The _____ configuration is frequently used for
impedance matching.
a. fixed bias
b. voltage-divider bias
c. emitter-follower
d. collector feedback