Directions: In the sentences that follow, a section or phrase will be

presented in bold. Each question will have several options available as

alternatives. Choose the best alternative for the bolded section, or if a
question is presented about the bolded part, select the correct answer to
the question.
1. In the brilliant glare of the spotlight, focused on the center one of a
group of rings on the dirt floor, a man in a silver suit stood proudly,
top hat in hand.
A. NO CHANGE
B. center of the rings
C. center one ring
D. center ring
2. Behind the ringmaster, I could see a majestic lion, pacing back and
forth between the sides in the cage and snarling at the clowns that
stood off to one side.
A. NO CHANGE
B. REMOVE
C. between the sides
D. back and forth
3. ....An old gray elephant stood silently, picking up tufts of hay from an
open bale beside the flap, munching quietly as the ringmaster spoke
to the crowd.
What phrase would make the best transition from the previous
sentence if substituted for the ellipsis at the beginning of this
sentence?
A. Part of the clowns' halftime act,
B. Waiting for the aerialists to finish,
C. Behind the lion's cage,
D. A major draw of customers,
4. I sat between my parents in the front row of the circus bleachers,
eating salted peanuts and gaping up at the canvas tent thatarched
over my head like a cloth cathedral.
A. NO CHANGE
B. arched high overhead
C. arched overhead
D. arched high
5. Behind me, I heard kids oohing and aahing at the wonders of the
circus. I was eight, and I fell in love with the big top and everything
under it right then, even down to the musty sawdust and hay that
ground underfoot, so much so that I vowed that someday, I would
work under its canvas wings.
Which of the following sentences would best continue the personal
theme expressed here?
A. As I grew older, I found I had a talent for numbers, and studied
accountancy.
B. Twenty years later, I had gone into engineering, and soon went to
work for NASA.
C. Throughout high school, I studied acting and drama, and began
working with dinner theatre after graduation.
D. It took me several years, but by the time I was 20, I had
graduated from clown college and begun working with a small
family-run operation.
Note: The next set of questions is based on a passage
from How to Tell a Story and Other Essays by Mark Twain.
6. The humorous story depends for its effect upon the manner of the
telling; the comic story and the witty story upon the matter.
A. NO CHANGE
B. the telling the comic story
C. the telling-the comic story
D. the telling: the comic story
7. The humorous story may be spun out too grate length, and may
wander around as much as it pleases, and arrive nowhere in
particular; but the comic and witty stories must be brief and end with
a point.
A. NO CHANGE
B. to grate
C. too great
D. to great
8. The humorous story bubbles gently along, the others burst. The
humorous story is only a work of art--high and delicate art--and only
an artist can tell it; but no art is necessary in telling the comic and
the witty story; anybody can do it.
A. NO CHANGE
B. strictly
C. mainly
D. potentially
9. The art of telling a humorous story--understand, I mean by word of
mouth, not print-was created in America, and has remained at home.
The humorous story is told gravely; the teller does his best to
conceal the fact that he even dimly suspects that there is anything
funny about it; but the teller of the comic story tells you beforehand
that it is one of the funniest things he has ever heard, then tells it
with eager delight, and is the first person to laugh when he gets
through.
A. NO CHANGE
B. great hurry
C. eager laughter
D. some reluctance
10. And sometimes, if he has had good success, he is so glad and
happy that he will repeat the "nub" of it and glance around from
face to face, collecting applause, and then repeat it again. It is a
pathetic thing to see.
A. NO CHANGE
B. point
C. summary
D. punchline
Note: The next set of questions is based on a passage
from Common Sense by Thomas Paine.
11. Perhaps the sentiments contained in the following pages, are
not YET intensely fashionable to procure them general favour; a
long habit of not thinking a thing WRONG, gives it a superficial
appearance of being RIGHT, and raises at first a formidable outcry
in defense of custom.
A. NO CHANGE
B. prohibitively
C. sufficiently
D. OMIT
12. But the tumult soon subsides. Time makes
more converts than reason.
A. NO CHANGE
B. opponents
C. arguments
D. OMIT
13. As a long and violent abuse of power, is generally the Means
of calling the right of it in question (and in Matters too which might
never have been thought of, had not the Sufferers been aggravated
into the inquiry) and as the King of England hath undertaken in his
OWN RIGHT, to support the Parliament in what he calls THEIRS,
and as the good people of this country are grievously repressed
by the combination, they have an undoubted privilege to inquire
into the pretensions of both, and equally to reject the usurpation of
either.
A. grievously oppressed, and by the combination
B. grievously oppressed by the combination
C. grievously repressed in the combination
D. grievously repressed, and in the combination
14. In the following sheets, the author hath studiously avoided
every thing which is personal among ourselves. Compliments as well
as censure to individuals make no part thereof. The wise, and the
worthy, need not the triumph of a pamphlet; and those whose
sentiments are injudicious, or unfriendly, will cease of themselves
unless too much pains are bestowed upon their conversion.
Which modern term might be substituted for the bolded word?
A. conundrums
B. catharsis
C. complaints
D. conferences
15. The cause of America is in a great measure the cause of all
mankind. Many circumstances hath, and will arise, which are not
local, but universal, and through which the principles of all Lovers
of Mankind are affected, and in the Event of which, their Affections
are interested.
Suppose the author had chosen to shorten the bolded section to
simply read "which are universal." If the author had done so, this
change would have made the sentence more:
A. vague
B. emphatic
C. descriptive
D. formal
Note: The next set of questions is based on a passage from The
Prince by Niccolo Machiavelli.
16. All states, all powers, that have held and hold rule over men
have been and are either republics or principalities. Principalities are
either hereditary, in which the family has been long established; or
they are new. The new are either entirely new, as was Milan to
Francesco Sforza, or they are, as it were, members annexed to the
hereditary state of the prince who has acquired them, as was the
kingdom of Naples to that of the King of Spain.
The author wishes to delineate the types and properties of
governments that were commonly used in the Western world at the
time of this passage's writing, the late 15th and early 16th centuries.
Would this passage fit the author's desired purpose?
A. No, the author fails to recognize other types of government in his
list.
B. Yes, the author has encompassed all types in his introduction.
C. No, the author is defining a political system rather than a
government.
D. Yes, the author is defining his terms and establishing an
argument.
17. Such dominions thus acquired are either accustomed to live
under a prince, or to live in freedom; and are acquired either by the
arms of the prince himself, or, of others or else, by fortune or by
ability.
A. NO CHANGE
B. or of others, or else
C. or, of others, or else
D. or of others or else
18. I will leave out all discussion on republics, inasmuch as in
another place I have written of them at length, and will address
myself only to principalities. In doing so I will keep to the order
indicated above, and discuss how such principalities are to be ruled
and preserved.
Suppose the author were to change the bolded section to "inasmuch
as I have discussed them in other works." If the author had made
this change, it would have made the sentence more:
A. interesting
B. precise
C. emphatic
D. concise
19. I say at once there are fewer difficulties in holding hereditary
states, and those long accustomed to the family of their prince, than
new ones; for it is sufficient only not to transgress the customs of his
ancestors, and to deal prudently with circumstances as they arise,
for a prince of average powers to maintain himself in his state,
unless he be deprived of it by some extraordinary and
excessive force; and if he should be so deprived of it, whenever
anything sinister happens to the usurper, he will regain it.
The bolded words in the passage are an example of which parts of
speech?
A. adjectives
B. nouns
C. verbs
D. adverbs
20. For the hereditary prince has less cause and less necessity to
offend; hence it happens that he will be more loved; and unless
extraordinary vices cause him to be hated, it is reasonable to expect
that his subjects will be naturally well disposed towards him; and in
the total antiquity and duration of his rule the memories and
motives that make for change are lost, for one change always leaves
the toothing for another.
A. NO CHANGE
B. OMIT
C. total antiquity and total duration
D. antiquity and duration

EngQ1-Answer: The best answer is D. This option precisely defines the
location wherein the subject of the sentence-the man in the silver suit-can
be found. The sentence as is contains the correct information, but the
phrasing interrupts the flow of the sentence, and unnecessarily includes
the specifier "one" in the phrase. Option B is inconclusive, as the center of
the rings may not necessarily include the inside of a ring, depending on
how the rings are arranged. Option C is incorrectly phrased, as the "one"
incorrectly modifies the phrase "center ring." Thus, the best answer is
option D, as it contains the necessary information in a phrasing that is both
factually and structurally correct.
EngQ2-Answer: The best answer is B. The use of "pacing" implies a
repetitive motion over a limited space, and as the rest of the phrase
identifies the lion as being inside a cage, no further information is needed.
Option A is not appropriate in this case, as it is stylistically incorrect and
contains redundant information. Option C is also redundant, and contains a
stylistic error; "between the sides" in this context is not a common usage,
and is confusingly phrased for most readers. Back and forth is a common
adjectival phrase, but back and forth motion is implied in the word "pacing,"
so option D would also be redundant. Thus, the best option is B, as it
shortens the sentence to a succinct phrasing and eliminates unnecessary
information.
EngQ3-Answer: The best answer is C. Since the previous sentence was
specifically about the lion in his cage, a peripheral mention of the lion's
cage that illustrates the subject of this sentence and its relationship to the
cage is a solid transition. While the previous sentence mentioned clowns
as well, they were not the subject of the sentence, and so the relationship
between sentences would not be firmly and logically established by a
transition using them. Aerialists were not mentioned at all in the previous
sentence, and neither were customers; as a result, there is not a factual
basis on which a transition can be anchored. Thus, the best option is C,
which connects the subjects of the sentences and allows for a smooth and
logical transition between them.
EngQ4-Answer: The best answer is A. This sentence is written from a
first-person perspective, as illustrated by the use of "I" and "my" for
pronouns, so descriptive information that reinforces the "I" point of view
would be the best choice for adjectives. Option B has redundant phrasing,
as arched implies a certain degree of height; overhead can also be
interpreted as redundant in this context, but it is common usage to include
it. Option C is grammatically correct, but is more suited to an impersonal
sentence in this context. Option D also contains redundant phrasing and is
idiomatically incorrect when combined with the final clause of the
sentence. Option A fits smoothly into the first-person perspective, is
idiomatically correct and completes the metaphor logically; thus, option A
is the best choice.
EngQ5-Answer: The best answer is D. The mini-passage expresses the
love the narrator has for circuses, and is written using the past tense,
which implies a looking back from the present time and also implies a
strong connection with circuses. Option A expresses a change in time, but
does not link the subject of the sentence thematically with the passage and
does not follow logically. Option B contains a correct time transition, but
also has no thematic connection to the passage. Option C has both a time
transition and a weak thematic connection, but does not develop it in a
consistent fashion with the passage. Only option D has both the thematic
connection and a time transition, which makes option D the correct
answer.
EngQ6-Answer: The best answer is A. The bolded section highlights a
break between clauses in the sentence, and the second clause is a
dependant clause, meaning it cannot stand alone as a sentence. Since the
dependant clause requires punctuation to conjoin it to the previous clause,
option B would not be an appropriate choice. Hyphens are used to form
compound words, so option C would not be acceptable either. Option D
would not be the best choice because colons are used primarily to form
lists or join clauses (usually parallel or independent clauses). Since the
clause beginning with "the comic story" is a dependant clause, the semi-
colon would be the most accurate selection from the available options. As
a result, option A is the best choice.
EngQ7-Answer: The best answer is D. In the context of the sentence, the
bolded phrase is being used to describe the quality of length, so the
phrase as is would not be appropriate to the sentence, which would
eliminate option A. The word "grate," which is most commonly used as a
verb for rubbing something against a serrated surface or a noun for a
metal hatch cover, would have no bearing on the prepositional phrase, so
option B would not be an acceptable choice. From the context of the
sentence, the word "too" as a quantity descriptor is not the proper use, so
option C would not be acceptable. The prepositional phrase "to great" is in
context the only proper choice, so option D would be the correct answer.
EngQ8-Answer: The best answer is B. The author is making the point that
a humorous story is already a work of art, so adjectives like "potentially"
are not correct, eliminating option D. Along these lines, adjectives like
"mainly" imply there is some sense in which the term being modified does
not fully meet the qualification. Since the passage clearly states that the
humorous story is a work of art, such adjectives are not appropriate, and
thus option C is not correct. Although the definition of "only" might seem to
make a good fit, the connotation of the word implies a limitation that does
not match the author's intent, so option A is not correct. The use of the
word "strictly" does not have the same connotation, and rules out any
judgment that the humorous story is not art, which aligns closest with the
author's intent. Thus, option B is correct.
EngQ9-Answer: The best answer is A. The author is drawing a
comparison between storytelling styles, and in regard to the comic story,
the author demonstrates that the comic story teller makes clear his or her
delight or high opinion of the story. Thus, option D would not be suitable,
as the story teller is interested in sharing the tale. A story is generally not
rushed in its telling in order to impart maximum information and impact, so
option B would not work in this example. The clause immediately following
the bolded section says the story teller laughs at the story; in context, that
is the proper placement of the mention of laughter, and other mentions
would be redundant, so option C is not relevant. The term "eager delight"
most clearly identifies the story teller's frame of mind in relating a comic
story, so option A would be the correct choice.
EngQ10-Answer: The best answer is D. The author refers to the narrative
climax of the comic story as being the aspect of the story that generates
laughter. Modern common parlance has different meanings for the word
"nub," so in this context, option A would not be suitable. Although the point
of the story may indeed be the central theme meant to be communicated,
the expression of the humor is usually more important than the content, so
option B would also not be suitable in this context. A summary of a story
that had just been told would be unnecessarily redundant in virtually all
settings, so option C would not be correct. However, the punchline, or
humorous conclusion, would be the part of the story most likely to elicit
laughs even if repeated, and thus, option D is the correct answer.
EngQ11-Answer: The best answer is C. From the context of the sentence,
the reader can see that the adverb must modify "fashionable" such that the
next action becomes more likely, and as written, the bolded adverb fails to
do that. Thus, option A is not correct. Using "prohibitively" as the adverb
would modify the term such that the end result is exactly opposite of what
the context implies, so option B is not correct. Given the sentence's
construction, an adverb must be used at that location, as "yet" and
"fashionable" would not be used correctly without one, so option D is not
correct. Only option C, with its adverb modifying the term in a positive
fashion to agree with the rest of the clause, correctly completes the
sentence; thus, option C is correct.
EngQ12-Answer: The best answer is A. The author intends to reinforce
the first sentence with the reason expressed in the second sentence, so
the sentences must logically agree. If option B is used, then the sentences
logically contradict each other and the point is negated. Therefore, option
B is not correct. By the same token, option C is not correct, as using it in
the second sentence also creates a logical negation of the first sentence.
The sentence structure would be incorrect if option D is selected, as there
would be no term for "more" to modify, so option D is not correct. Only
option A offers a logical completion of the second sentence and allows it to
complement the first sentence; therefore, option A is the correct answer.
EngQ13-Answer: The best answer is B. The author is describing an
action taken against a population by a political entity-in this case, King
George III is taking action against the population of the American colonies-
so the word "oppress" is the more correct term to use in this situation.
Thus, options C and D are automatically excluded, since they use
"repress" in their construction. Furthermore, the agent of the tyrannical
action being taken is a compound of the English king's actions and
Parliament's, so the term "combination" has a direct relationship to the
action. Given the relationship and the context of the sentence, using a
comma to separate the terms would be incorrect, so option A is not
suitable. Only option B uses the correct terminology and punctuation, so
option B is the correct answer.
EngQ14-Answer: The best answer is C. In the context of the sentence,
the author is using compare and contrast to list what is not included in his
work. Since the first term is "compliments," the second or contrasting term
must be a word opposite in meaning. Option A is not suitable, as a
conundrum is a puzzle or riddle and thus does not fit the author's intention.
Option B is also not suitable, as catharsis is an emotional purging and thus
has no relation to the sentence. Likewise, option D would not be correct,
as a conference also has no relation to the sentence. Only option C, which
holds an opposite definition to compliment, suits the author's contextual
intention, and so option C is the correct answer.
EngQ15-Answer: The best answer is B. Reducing the number of
adjectives to one in the sentence would have little effect on the meaning of
the sentence, as it would have only changed the structure without altering
the primary adjective. Thus, option A would not be correct. Generally,
reducing adjectives makes a sentence more direct but detracts from its
descriptive nature, so option C would not be correct either. Since formal
diction depends more on tone and syntax than specific numbers of words,
option D would not be suitable here either. Only option B, which directly
refers to the emotional impact of the sentence (and is achieved by getting
directly to the point), would be a suitable choice for the suggested change;
thus, option B is correct.
EngQ16-Answer: The best answer is D. At the time of writing, all
governments in the Western world (defined in this case as Europe west of
Russia) were as the author identified, so option A would not be suitable.
However, there are more than two types of government-for example,
democracy as practiced by the Greeks is not mentioned-so option B is not
correct, as it identifies a condition that the passage has not met. Although
the author is known as a political philosopher, the opening of the passage
explicitly defines the state as one of the types of government he goes on to
discuss, so option C is not relevant, as the author is discussing
governments. Only option D strictly defines the purpose of the passage
and how it relates to the stated goal of the question; thus, option D is
correct.
EngQ17-Answer: The best answer is B. While commas have multiple
uses, their primary usage, and the one the author intends here, is to
separate items in a list. If the comma is placed after the first coordinating
conjunction, as in option A, the emphasis changes from a list to a specific
sub-clause; as the rest of the sentence is clearly numerating a list, option A
is therefore not correct. Option C illustrates a comma where neither
grammar nor rhythm would indicate a comma belongs; thus, option C is
not correct. Option D shows a run-on phrase, which in the context of the
sentence is incorrect, as it does not correctly demonstrate the list structure
the author intends, and so option D is incorrect. Only option B, which
correctly places the comma to illustrate items in a list, fits the context and
structure of the sentence; thus, option B is correct.
EngQ18-Answer: The best answer is D. Value judgments such as
"interesting," while commonly used in teaching situations, are subjective
measurements, and do not reflect the inherent structure or meaning as
much as the reader's bias. As a result, this option is not valid for this
example, so option A is not correct. In order for "precise" to apply, the
replacement clause would have to strictly and carefully define a condition
rather than restating it in fewer words. Since this is not the case, option B
is not correct. The change in terms does not carry an emotional weight or a
sense of urgency, so option C is not suitable. Only option D, which
accurately describes the condition of expressing more ideas in fewer
words, properly describes the effect of the substituted phrase, so option D
is correct.
EngQ19-Answer: The best answer is A. In order for the bolded words to
function as nouns, they would have to describe a person, place or thing; in
other words, something concrete, which neither word does. Therefore,
option B is incorrect. Since neither word describes an action that the
subject of a sentence could take or perform, neither word can function as a
verb. As a result, option C is also incorrect. While the bolded words do
modify a word in the sentence in degree, the term being modified-force-is
not a verb, adjective or adverb in itself; in this case, force is a noun.
Therefore, the bolded words fail to meet the condition of adverbs, so option
D is incorrect. Since the bolded words modify a noun, they act as
adjectives, and so option A is the correct choice.
EngQ20-Answer: The best answer is D. The sentence's construction and
context indicate the author is drawing a conclusion about the nature of
governing over a long period of time, so a phrase giving a sense of time
spanned is essential. However, the phrasing of the bolded clause is
redundant, as the context of the sentence already implies the author is
considering the totality of the time period. As a result, option A is not
correct. Since the context of the sentence requires a sense of time passed
for comparison purposes, option B cannot be used, as the sentence would
become illogical without the time span mentioned. Option C is not suitable
for the same reason that option A was unsuitable; since totality is implied
in the passage, using "total" provides redundant information. Only option D
provides the time information needed without redundancy; thus, option D is
correct.






























Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be
assumed.
Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
Geometric figures lie in a plane.
The word line indicates a straight line.
The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
1. If x
2
- mx - 27 = 0 when x = 6, what is the value of m?
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 3.5
D. 5
2. For all x, what is the simplest equivalent of (2x)(x)(2x)(x)(x)?
A. 2x
6

B. 4x
6

C. 4x
5

D. 6x
3


3. Given that the above triangle is isosceles, if angle WXY is 44, what
measurement must angle XWY have?
A. 64
B. 68
C. 72
D. 76
4. If segment WY is 16 units long and segment XZ is 15 units long,
how long is segment WX?
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 20
5. Given the equations 2x + 2y = 16 and 4x - 3y = -3, what are the
values of x and y?
A. x = 4, y = 6
B. x = 2, y = 4
C. x = 3, y = 5
D. x = 5, y = 3

6. Two friends take a drive around the city. When they get home, they
look at the odometer and their watches, and determine they traveled
54 miles in 72 minutes. What was their average speed in miles per
hour?
A. 40 miles/hr
B. 45 miles/hr
C. 50 miles/hr
D. 55 miles/hr
7. Provide the simplest equivalent expression to !72.
A. 8!3
B. 4!18
C. 8!12
D. 6!2

8. Given the curve as sketched out on this graph, what is the domain of
the function seen here?
A. -5 < x < 6
B. -6 " x " 2
C. -5 " x " 6
D. -6 < x < 2
9. Given the curve as sketched on this graph, what is the range of the
function seen here?
A. -5 < y < 6
B. -6 " y " 2
C. -5 " y " 6
D. -6 < y < 2
10. A student cuts out a cardboard circle that has a radius of 8
inches. What is the total circumference of the circle?
A. 8# inches
B. 12# inches
C. 16# inches
D. 20# inches
11. As part of a wood shop project, two students build a cabinet
that is 6 feet tall, 2 feet wide and 3 feet deep. Half of the cabinet's
interior volume will be used for storing tools, leaving the other half
free for personal items. How much volume will be available for
students to use?
A. 18 cubic feet
B. 24 cubic feet
C. 36 cubic feet
D. 48 cubic feet
12. Given two variables x and y that are directly proportional such
that x = 3 when y = 8, what value will y have when x = 6?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24
13. A student enrolls in a course where the final grade is an
average of four exams. Before the final exam, the student reviews
the previous three exam scores, which were 89, 97 and 88. What
score would the student have to receive on the last exam to achieve
at least a 90 average for the course?
A. 78
B. 82
C. 86
D. 90
14. A teacher goes to the local big box store to purchase supplies
for a class activity. The teacher buys two bags of apples for a class
snack, and four bottles of glue. The total comes to $5.00 for the
apples and $6.50 for the glue. Sales tax for food items is 6%, and for
non-food items is 4%. How much total tax does the teacher pay for
the purchases?
A. $0.36
B. $0.42
C. $0.49
D. $0.56

15. Given the points on the line with the labeled coordinates, what
is the slope?
A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/6
16. Having determined the slope of the line, what is the slope-
intercept equation of the line shown passing through (6,5)?
A. y = 2/3 x + 2
B. y = 1/3 x + 1
C. y = 2/3 x + 4
D. y = 1/3 x + 3
17. A rectangle is three times as long as it is wide. If the total area
of the rectangle is 48 square inches, what is the length of the
rectangle?
A. 3 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 12 inches
D. 18 inches
18. As a prize for winning a game at school, a student gets to pick
a colored egg from a box. Each egg has a slip of paper inside it
describing the prize. Red eggs are for candy, blue eggs are for toys,
and green eggs are for books. There were 12 red eggs in the box, 8
blue eggs and 15 green eggs. Students must draw blind, and the
previous student to draw pulled out an egg for a book. What are the
chances that the next student to draw will get an egg for a toy?
A. 15/34
B. 8/34
C. 12/35
D. 20/35
19. A physicist is studying a radioactive element in a lab that has
a half-life of 21 days, meaning after 21 days, half of the sample
would be inert. If the initial sample of the element was 500 grams,
and the study was scheduled to continue for a total of 12 weeks,
how much of the element would still be radioactive at the end of the
study?
A. 125 grams
B. 93.75 grams
C. 62.5 grams
D. 31.25 grams
20. A student has to finish up work on a project for metal shop.
The last piece that needs to be finished is the painting of a metal
sphere for the top of a large diorama. The sphere has a radius of 8
inches, and must be painted with two coats of paint in order to be
presentable. A quart of the paint the student has in shop class will
cover 450 square inches of metal. How many quarts will be sufficient
to paint the sphere with two coats?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6












MaQ1-Answer: The answer is A. If the expression x
2
- mx - 27 = 0 when x
= 6, then substituting 6 for x yields (6)
2
-m(6) -27 = 0, which simplifies to 36
- 6m - 27 = 0. Adding 27 to both sides of the equation yields 36 - 6m = 27,
and adding 6m to both sides yields 36 = 27 + 6m. Subtracting 27 from both
sides shows 9 = 6m; dividing both sides of the equation thus yields m =
1.5. To check, substituting 1.5 for the value of m when x = 6 gives 36 -
(1.5)(6) - 27 = 0; since (1.5)(6) = 9, the equation simplifies to 36 - 9 - 27 =
0, which is correct. Thus, option A is correct.
MaQ2-Answer: The answer is C. For any expression of x, multiplying a
quantity of x by another quantity causes the exponent of the result to be
the sum of the previous exponents. Thus, (2x)(2x) = (2 * 2)(x * x) = 4 (x *
x); since x is understood to have an exponent of 1, this is equivalent to 4
(x
1
* x
1
), which yields 4x
2
. Now, the original expression can be simplified to
4x2(x)(x)(x). By the same token that the first part was reduced to 4x
2
,
(x)(x)(x) can be simplified to x
3
, which leaves the original expression
reduced to (4x
2
)( x
3
). Finally, the compound expression (4x
2
)( x
3
) can be
simplified to 4x
5
, which demonstrates that option C is the correct answer.
MaQ3-Answer: The answer is B. Due to the properties of a triangle,
angles that abut sides of an isosceles triangle must be the same size, so
automatically angles XWY and XYW must have the same measurement.
Since the sum of internal angles of a triangle must add up to 180 in plane
geometry, the first step to determining the measurement of XWY is to
subtract 44 from 180, which yields an answer of 136. This is the sum of the
two base angles of the triangle; thus, by dividing the sum by two, we get
the measure of each of the angles. Dividing 136 by 2 yields the answer of
68, which is the measurement of angle XWY; thus, option B is the correct
answer.
MaQ4-Answer: The answer is A. Since segment XZ makes a right angle
with WY, the properties of a triangle indicate that segment WY is bisected
by XZ, meaning segment WZ is 8 units long. Thus, since triangle WZX is a
right triangle with segments that are 8 units and 15 units long, the
Pythagorean theorem can be used to determine the length of triangle
WZX's hypotenuse, which in this case is segment WX. So, by plugging in
the known values into the equation form of the theorem a
2
+ b
2
= c
2
, the
result is (8)
2
+ (15)
2
= c
2
, c in this case being segment WX. Thus, the
equation gives the result 64 + 225 = c
2
, which simplifies to c
2
= 289. The
square root of 289 is 17, so c = 17, which demonstrates that option A is the
answer.
MaQ5-Answer: The answer is C. One method of solving these equations
would be to multiply both equations by numbers that create equivalent y
terms, then add the equations and cancel out the y term to solve for x. So,
if the first equation is multiplied by 3 and the second equation is multiplied
by 2, the new equations are 6x + 6y = 48 and 8x - 6y = -6. Adding these
equations together cancels the y terms, and leaves 14x = 42. Divide both
sides by 14 to get x by itself, and the result is x = 3. Solving for y in the first
equation yields 6 + 2y = 16; subtract 6 from both sides to get 2y = 10, and
thus y = 5. Placing the values for x and y in the second equation yields 12 -
15 = -3, which is correct. Thus, option C is correct.
MaQ6-Answer: The answer is B. In order to determine the average speed
in miles per hour, determine the average speed per minute by dividing the
distance traveled by the time it took to travel the distance, then multiply
that result by 60 (since there are 60 minutes in an hour) to get the average
speed in miles/hr. Thus, if they traveled 54 miles in 72 minutes, their
average speed in miles per minute was 54/72, which equals 0.75
miles/minute. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, multiply 0.75
miles/minute by 60 minutes/hour, which yields (0.75)(60) miles/hour, which
equals 45 miles/hour. Thus, their average speed was 45 miles/hr, which
demonstrates that option B is the correct answer.
MaQ7-Answer: The answer is D. In order to determine the simplest
expression of a square root, it is generally best to factor out the square
root to its smallest numbers and simplify those. For example, since 72 = 8
* 9, !72 can be written as the product of !8 and !9. Thus, !72 = !8 * !9.
Since !9 = 3, !72 = 3!8. However, by the same token as the previous
simplification, !8 can be written as !4 * !2. Since !4 = 2, the expression
can now be written as !72 = 3 * 2 * !2, which is equal to 6!2. Thus, it is
demonstrated that !72 is equal to 6!2, and therefore option D is correct.
MaQ8-Answer: The answer is C. In this example, the domain would be
the set of all values of x available on the curve plotted on the graph. The
outer limits of the function are defined by the endpoints; thus, all the
possible points in the domain must lie between the x-values of the
endpoints. Since the endpoints are filled-in circles, this indicates that the x-
values of the endpoints are included in the domain. Thus, since the left
side of the curve terminates in a closed circle at x = -5, that means that x
can be equal to or more than -5. Similarly, since the right side of the
function terminates in a closed circle at x = 6, x can be equal to or less
than 6. Therefore, the relationship of x in this domain is -5 " x " 6, thus
demonstrating that C is the correct answer.
MaQ9-Answer: The answer is B. Similarly to the answer to the previous
question, the range of the function is, in this case, the set of y-values
available on the curve plotted on the graph. Unlike the domain, however,
the range is not defined by the endpoints, but the extremes of the curve
that are reached along the y-axis. For example, the smallest value for y is
reached at x = -3, instead of x = -5 as would be expected if the endpoints
were the defining part of the curve for the y-values. As seen on the graph,
the smallest value of y on the curve is -6, so -6 is the lower bound for the
range. By the same token, the highest y-value the function reaches is 2.
Therefore, the range is best written as -6 " y " 2, demonstrating that option
B is correct.
MaQ10-Answer: The answer is C. In order to determine the
circumference, or the distance around the outer edge of a geometric figure
(which can also be thought of as the perimeter) of a circle, it is necessary
to use the formula C (circumference) = 2#r, where r is the radius, or
distance from the center of the circle to its edge. In this case, the problem
gives the radius as being 8 inches, so in order to compute the
circumference, plug in the value of 8 inches for the radius, which yields C =
2#(8 inches). Multiplying through yields an answer of C = 16# inches,
which demonstrates that option C is the correct choice.
MaQ11-Answer: The answer is A. In order to figure out the volume of a
rectangular solid, the formula used is V = hwd, where h is height, w is
width and d is depth. In this case, the variable h is 6 feet, the variable w is
2 feet and the variable d is 3 feet. Plug the values into the formula, and the
result is V = 6 * 2 * 3, or 36 cubic feet. However, the preconditions listed in
the problem state that only half of the total interior volume will be available
for use, so that figure will have to be divided by 2. Thus, we get 36/2, or
18, which yields the answer of 18 cubic feet. Thus, option A is the correct
choice.
MaQ12-Answer: The answer is B. Since the information given states that
x and y are in direct proportion such that their ratio is the same as 3 to 8,
the best way to visualize the problem is to set up two ratios side by side,
presented as x/y = 3/8. Since the problem asks the reader to solve for y
when x = 6, the ratio can be further modified to read 6/y = 3/8. In order to
set up the relationship for y, perform cross-multiplication of terms to get the
equation 3y = 6 * 8, or 3y = 48. Dividing both sides of the equation by 3
yields y = 16, thus demonstrating that option B is the correct answer.
MaQ13-Answer: The answer is C. In order to achieve a 90 average over
the course of four exams, the scores of the exams must add up to 360,
which when divided by the number of exams comes out to 90. According to
the information given in the problem, the student received 89, 97 and 88
for the first three tests. When summed, 89 + 97 + 88 = 274. So, in order to
get a 90 average, the student must make up the difference between the
present score total and 360 in order to average out to 90. Thus, 360 - 274
= 86, which is the minimum score the student must get to achieve a 90
average, demonstrating that option C is the answer.
MaQ14-Answer: The answer is D. Since the sales tax differs for different
kinds of items, the separate tax bills must be calculated and then added
together to determine the total. If the teacher paid $5 for food and the sales
tax is 6%, then the sales tax is calculated by multiplying $5 by 0.06, which
equals $0.30 or 30 cents. Next, the sales tax for non-food items is
calculated by multiplying $6.50 by 0.04, which equals $0.26 or 26 cents.
Thus, the total tax bill is determined by adding the two separate tax totals
together; $0.30 + $0.26 = $0.56, or 56 cents, which demonstrates that
option D is the correct answer.
MaQ15-Answer: The answer is A. The slope of a line is defined by the
total of the rise on the y-axis divided by the total of the run on the x-axis,
using the formula m (slope) = y2-y1/x2-x1 . In this case, if (6, 5) is used as
the second pair and (-3, 2) is used as the first pair, the value for m with the
given values becomes (5-2)/6-(-3). Since subtracting a negative number is
the same operation as adding a positive number, the formula yields m =
3/9, which simplifies to m = 1/3. Thus, the slope of the line is 1/3,
demonstrating that option A is the correct answer.
MaQ16-Answer: The answer is D. The slope-intercept equation of a line is
given as y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the constant where the
line crosses the y-axis. There are different approaches to figuring out the
equation, but given the slope and the set of coordinates the line passes
through, solving for b to obtain the intercept equation is the simplest.
Substituting the slope and the coordinates into the formula yields
5=1/3(6)+b, which simplifies quickly to 5=2+b, and by subtracting 2 from
both sides, 3=b. Thus, with the value for b in hand (which is corroborated
by the graph in the previous question), the slope-intercept equation can be
written as y=1/3 x+3, demonstrating that option D is correct.
MaQ17-Answer: The answer is C. The area of a rectangle is determined
by multiplying length by width. In this case, if width is assigned the value x,
then the length must be 3x as given in the problem. Thus, the area is
(3x)(x), or 3x2. Since the value of the area is given as 48 square inches, it
is clear that 3x2=48, Dividing both sides by 3 yields x2=48/3, or x2=16. By
taking the square root of both sides of the equation, it demonstrates that x,
or the width of the rectangle, is 4 inches. Since the length was given as
three times the width, the next step is to multiple the width of the rectangle
by 3, which yields 3*4=12. Thus, the length of the rectangle is 12 inches,
demonstrating that option C is correct.
MaQ18-Answer: The answer is B. The odds are figured by comparing the
total number of a chosen option versus the total number of options that can
be selected. To begin with, there were a total of 35 eggs in the box
(12+8+15=35), 8 of which were blue, which means there were 8 that would
yield a toy if chosen. The previous student to draw pulled a green egg,
which does not yield a toy; thus, the total number of options decreased by
one to 34, but the total number of blue eggs remained at 8. Thus, for the
next draw, the chances of pulling a blue egg and getting a toy were 8 out
of a total of 34 eggs in total. Therefore, the chances of getting a toy were
8/34, demonstrating that option B is correct.
MaQ19-Answer: The answer is D. If half of the sample decays into an
inert state every 21 days, or three weeks, then determining the amount of
sample left is a matter of plotting the decay against the time frame. Since
the initial sample was 500 grams, the remaining radioactive part of the
sample would be half that at 21 days, or 250 grams. After another three
weeks, at the 6-week point, the sample would have halved again, to 125
grams still radioactive. At the 9-week point, the sample would have halved
again, this time to 62.5 grams. Finally, at the 12-week point and the end of
the study, the sample would have halved again, this time to 31.25 grams.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
MaQ20-Answer: The answer is B. The surface area of a sphere is defined
by the formula S = 4pr2, where r is the radius of the sphere. Since the
radius is given as 8 inches, S can be determined by plugging in the values,
which yields S = 4p(8)2, which yields S = 256p square inches, which is
roughly equal to 804 square inches. However, since the sphere must be
given two coats, the amount of paint must be sufficient to cover roughly
1608 square inches, or two coats of 804 square inches. Since the paint
must cover 1608 square inches, and each quart covers 450 square inches,
the number of quarts needed is determined by dividing 1608 by 450, which
yields 1608/450, roughly equal to 3.57 quarts. Through rounding, the
number of quarts needed is determined to be 4, thus demonstrating that
option B is correct.













1
Given the diagram showing identical levels of gas molecules in different
containers, a reasonable inference could be made that there is a
relationship between:
A. temperature and pressure
B. volume and pressure
C. temperature and density
D. volume and temperature
2 The relationship between the variables in this diagram is best described
as what type of relationship?
A. direct
B. proportional
C. inverse
D. exponential
3 The expression of the relationship between the demonstrated variables
is most commonly known as:
A. Coulomb's law
B. Newton's second law
C. Ohm's law
D. Boyle's law
4 Given the information displayed in the diagram, which equation using
the terms p (pressure), V (volume) and k (constant value) best describes
the relationship between the variables?
A. V=p/k
B. pV=k
C. pk=V$
D. k=p/V



5. What basic force in fluid dynamics is on display in this diagram?
A. cavitation
B. vortex formation
C. compression
D. buoyancy
6. In order to compute the buoyant force being exerted on an object in
fluid, what measurements would be needed?
I. volume of object
II. density of fluid
III. force of gravity
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I, II and II
7. Given an object with volume V placed in a fluid with density p, what
equation would yield the buoyant force F if measured in a lab with
standard acceleration of gravity g?
A. F = (p/V)g
B. F = -p(V/g)
C. F = -pVg
D. F = pVg
8. Two folding metal boxes of the same mass and weight are placed in
identical containers of fluid. The first box has a volume of 12 cubic
inches and floats in the fluid. The second box has been folded into
an identical shape as the first one but with a volume of 6 cubic
inches. Of the listed outcomes, which is most likely?
A. The second box will float because the buoyant force is
unchanged
B. The second box will sink because the buoyant force has been
reduced
C. The second box will float because the surface area has changed
D. The second box will sink because the surface area has changed

9. Given the information in the chart, if a student were to apply heat to
equal volumes of all four liquids along with a volume of water, which
liquids would boil before the water?
A. Q and S
B. R and T
C. Q and R
D. S and T
10. If a student were to pour samples of the fluids (all insoluble in
water) listed in the table into flasks filled with water, which has a
density of 0.998 g/mL, which liquid would form a layer at the top of
the flask?
I. Q
II. S
III. T
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
11. In working with these fluids in a lab environment, which liquid
would require the greatest caution when working with Bunsen
burners?
A. Q
B. R
C. S
D. T
12. If a student is performing an experiment that requires a liquid
that has a density less than water, has a higher boiling point than
water, and has a distinctive odor, which of the liquids on the chart
would be best to use?
A. Q
B. R
C. S
D. T

13. Based on this chart, which population had the least variation
throughout the time period measured?
A. turtles
B. dinosaurs
C. snakes
D. crocodilians
14. Which period listed on the chart likely had the largest numbers
of each species mentioned co-existing?
A. Triassic
B. Cretaceous
C. Quaternary
D. Permian
15. Of the five species on the chart, which reached the greatest
numbers during the time spans measured?
A. dinosaurs
B. snakes
C. turtles
D. lizards
16. Based on the chart, which period was the last one in which all
species co-existed?
A. Jurassic
B. Triassic
C. Permian
D. Pennsylvanian

17. Given that all other variables (sunlight, water) were constant
for this experiment, it could be reasonably inferred that growing trees
in a CO2 enriched atmosphere led to what percentage increase in
time to drop all leaves?
A. 44%
B. 46%
C. 48%
D. 50%
18. What atmospheric additive appears to be most effective in
speeding up the leaf-shedding period according to the chart?
A. None
B. CO2
C. O3
D. CO2 + O3
19. What is the total time variance experienced for leaf-shedding
periods as demonstrated in the experiments listed on this chart?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 16
D. 23
20. Based on the information listed on the chart, what natural
process would the atmospheric additives tested in this experiment
be most affected and likely cause the variance in leaf-shedding
times?
A. mitosis
B. respiration
C. photosynthesis
D. replication




























ScQ1-Answer: The best answer is B. The information in the diagram
shows identical levels of gas molecules at identical temperatures; in this
case, 20C. Between the two containers, there is an obvious differential in
size, but the given information also shows a difference in atmospheric
pressure inside the containers. With other factors remaining equal, the
inference is that amounts of gas in a smaller volume (as shown on the left)
will experience a greater gas pressure than identical amounts placed in a
larger container. Since the temperature is the same in both containers,
options A, C, and D are automatically eliminated, leaving only option B.
Thus, B is the correct answer.
ScQ2-Answer: The best answer is C. As demonstrated by the containers
in the diagram, when temperature and mass are kept constant, the
pressure of a gas contained within a closed area will rise as the volume
decreases, and by the same token, the pressure will fall as the volume
increases. Since the relationship is not dependant on both qualities
exhibiting the same trend-i.e. as one rises, so does the other-the
relationship is not direct, which eliminates option A. Because there is no
precise measurement of the volume of the containers or their differences,
there is insufficient data to determine if the relationship follows a
mathematical progression, which eliminates options B and D. However, the
observation that as one rises the other falls fits the standard definition of
inverse, making option C the correct choice.
ScQ3-Answer: The best answer is D. Coulomb's law refers to the
relationship between the magnitudes of point electric charges and their
distance from each other; since the variables under discussion in this
example are volume and pressure, option A can be eliminated. Newton's
second law defines the relationship between rate of change in momentum
and the force applied to a body, which eliminates option B. Ohm's law
defines the relationship between current, potential and resistance in a
circuit, which eliminates option C. Only Boyle's law, which defines the
relationship between volume and pressure of a gas in an environment
where temperature and mass are held constant, address the diagram, and
thus D is the correct answer.
ScQ4-Answer: The best answer is B. In order to reach a constant value
derived from a relationship between the pressure and volume variables,
the expression must be made in terms of the constant value; in other
words, the relationship that creates the constant value must be expressed
in those terms, expressing k as the result of the variables and an operator.
Therefore, options A and C can be dismissed, as they do not express the
equation in terms of k. Given that the relationship between p and V is an
inverse relationship (i.e. as one shrinks, the other expands), option D
would be less likely to adequately express that, as the ratio between the
constant and the variables would vary too greatly for different values of p
and V. Only option B, which keeps the ratio between the variables
constant, adequately expresses the relationship, making B the correct
choice.
ScQ5-Answer: The best answer is D. The diagram shows an object in
fluid, which is not creating low-pressure areas around it, which eliminates
option A. Similarly, a whirlpool effect is not being displayed either, which
eliminates option B. While compression is a part of what is being displayed
in the diagram (it can be considered to be what is happening at the leading
edge of the object in the fluid), it is secondary to the primary forces here,
and is not of enough merit to be listed separately; thus, option C is
eliminated. The upward force on the object is countermanding gravity, and
that force in fluid is buoyancy, making option D the correct answer.
ScQ6-Answer: The best answer is D. In order to calculate the force
exerted on the object by the fluid, the amount of fluid displaced by the
object needs to be determined. This is done by determining the volume of
the object, and then multiplying it by the density of the fluid, which yields
the total displacement. However, the buoyant force must overcome the
acceleration of gravity in order to keep the object afloat, so in addition to
the force of the fluid acting upon the object, the acceleration of gravity
must also be considered. Therefore, the fluid displacement must be
combined with the acceleration of gravity in order to completely calculate
the buoyant force; since only option D lists all three factors, D is the correct
answer.
ScQ7-Answer: The best answer is C. In order to calculate the force
exerted on the object by the fluid, the amount of fluid displaced by the
object needs to be determined. This is done by determining the volume of
the object, and then multiplying it by the density of the fluid, which yields
the total displacement. As in the previous question, the force of gravity
must be considered; however, since gravity acts in a downward direction,
the buoyant force acts in an upward direction, and therefore must be
assigned a negative number to reflect its opposite orientation. Thus, while
the absolute value would be derived by using option D (options A and B
are patently incorrect, as explained in the first part), the correct value
reflecting the buoyant force's opposite orientation to gravity is given using
option C.
ScQ8-Answer: The best answer is B. Remember that the formula for
buoyant force if F = -pVg, where p is the fluid density, V is the volume of
the object and g is the force of gravity (given a negative number because
buoyant force acts upwards). The boxes are identical in mass, and the fluid
has the same density, so neither of those measurements will change.
However, the first box has twice the volume of the second, which means it
displaces twice the fluid and therefore has twice the buoyant force acting
upon the same mass as the second box does. Thus, the second box only
has half the buoyant force acting on it as the first box, yet has the same
mass. As a result, the second box will most likely sink due to the reduction
in buoyant force, making option B the correct choice.
ScQ9-Answer: The best answer is C. The boiling point of water is 100C
(212F), so if equal volumes of the liquids have heat applied to them at the
same rate at the same time, the liquids with lower boiling points would
logically start boiling first. Liquid S has a boiling point of 160.4C (320.7F),
so options A and D are automatically eliminated. Liquid T has an even
higher boiling point of 300C (572F), so option B can be eliminated as
well, leaving option C to consider. Since liquids Q and R both have boiling
points less than 100C, they would both boil before the water does, and so
option C is the correct choice.
ScQ10-Answer: The best answer is D. Of the three options listed, Q has a
density greater than that of water, and since all the listed options are
insoluble in water (meaning they will not break down in the water), Q would
sink to the bottom of the flask due to its greater density. Thus, options A
and C are eliminated automatically. Both liquids S and T, however,
possess lesser density than water, so they would essentially float on top of
the water. Since option B lists only one of the lighter density materials, it
can be eliminated from consideration. Only option D correctly lists both
lighter-than-water fluids, making D the correct answer.
ScQ11-Answer: The best answer is B. While the exact properties of each
liquid are not given full description in the chart, a general idea is given for
each. Option A can be eliminated immediately, as it is explicitly identified
as a nonflammable compound, meaning it will not catch fire if heat or an
open flame is applied. While options C and D are not explicitly identified
one way or the other as flammable or not, it is reasonable to assume that
their flammability is not as high as with other compounds, as care was
made to identify that property for other liquids. However, option B is
explicitly identified as being a flammable compound, and furthermore, is a
colorless compound like option A, possibly increasing chances for
confusing the two. Based on the information given in the chart, option B is
the correct answer.
ScQ12-Answer: The best answer would be C. Given the requirements of
the liquid relative to the liquids on the chart, option A can be eliminated
immediately, as it has a density greater than water. Of the remaining
choices, option B can also be eliminated, as its boiling point is below that
of water. Finally, since a liquid with a strong odor is needed, option D can
be eliminated, as it not only does not have an identified strong odor, but it
is also an oil at normal lab conditions, which is likely to have a higher
viscosity than is needed for most experiments. Therefore, option C is the
only choice that meets all three requirements; thus, C is the correct
answer.
ScQ13-Answer: The best answer is A. As displayed on the graph, most of
the species populations had periods of greater numbers, usually followed
by die-offs until a stable level was reached or, in some cases, extinction.
Option B is unsuitable for this exact reason; the dinosaurs population
reached its greatest numbers in the Jurassic period, then gradually fell until
extinction, showing too much variance to be the answer. Snakes
experienced a greater level of variation, which makes option C incorrect,
and crocodilians, despite having a stable population for most of their
measured length, experienced a population jump in the Tertiary and
Cretaceous periods that disqualifies option D. Only turtles, whose
population levels remain almost perfectly flat into the Permian period, show
the least amount of variation, making option A the correct answer.
ScQ14-Answer: The best answer is B. While all species listed had some
presence in the Triassic period, three of the five species on the chart
ended there, and the population spread for all but dinosaurs was minimal,
so option A is not suitable. Dinosaurs were not present in the Quaternary
period, so option C is not correct. Since only turtles and dinosaurs had
presence in the Permian period, option D is not correct either. Only in the
Cretaceous period, where all five listed species had presence and three of
them were at or near their greatest numbers, does the graph meet the
stated goal; thus, option B is the correct answer.
ScQ15-Answer: The best answer is D. A quick glance at the chart shows
that of the species listed, turtles and crocodilians were fairly flat at lower
numbers throughout the time periods measured on the graph, and
dinosaurs had smaller growth curves overall than snakes and lizards,
which had the most significant numbers of any species listed, regardless of
which time period is being examined. Therefore, options A and C can be
automatically eliminated from further consideration. Upon examination of
the graph, lizards clearly have greater numbers than snakes, as shown by
the graphic distribution through the Quaternary and Tertiary periods, which
automatically eliminates option B from consideration. Thus, option D is the
correct answer.
ScQ16-Answer: The best answer is B. While all the listed species existed
in the Jurassic, a look at the chart shows that all of them continued on into
at least one more period, thereby eliminating option A from consideration.
By the Permian period, only two species had continued on-turtles and
dinosaurs-which eliminated option C from further consideration. By the
Pennsylvanian period, which followed the Permian period, only dinosaurs
were left according to the graph, so option D is not suitable. Despite the
miniscule extent of three of the five listed species, all five did have
durations in the Triassic period according to the graph, so therefore only
option B is the correct answer.
ScQ17-Answer: The best answer is A. Based on the information in the
chart, a tree grown in a normal atmospheric mixture took 18 days to shed
all its leaves, while a tree grown in a CO2 enriched atmosphere took a total
of 26 days to shed all its leaves. Simple subtraction shows that this is an 8-
day difference between the two, and in order to find the percentage, the
difference must be divided by the original time period. Thus, 8 18, which
can be expressed as 8/18 or, after simplifying, 4/9, or 0.4444, which gives
a value of 44%. Therefore, the increase in time to shed all leaves resulting
from a CO2 enriched atmosphere is 44%, which means option A is the
correct answer.
ScQ18-Answer: The best answer is C. A quick glance at the chart shows
that the control atmosphere led to a total time of 18 days, which was less
than at least one term but longer than others, so option A can be
eliminated. As demonstrated in the previous question, CO2 actually
increased the length of time to shed leaves to 26 days, so option B can be
eliminated. The CO2 + O3 mixture did substantially decrease the total
shed time to 10 days, but as the chart shows, using the O3 mix cut it to
three days, the lowest value on the list. Thus, option D can be eliminated,
leaving option C as the correct answer.
ScQ19-Answer: The best answer is D. As shown on the chart, the
shortest period of time for shedding leaves was three days using O3 as an
atmospheric additive. The longest period of time was 26 days, using CO2
as an atmospheric additive. Since the only measures needed to determine
the total variance are the high and low values, the other two
measurements can be ignored for this determination. Thus, the total time
variance would be the difference between the longest period for shedding
leaves measured on the chart and the shortest period measured on the
chart. Simple subtraction yields the result, which is 26 days minus 3 days,
or 23 days total. Thus, option D would be the correct answer.
ScQ20-Answer: The best answer is C. Mitosis, or the process of cell
division, is related to virtually all processes performed by trees, but is too
general to fit within the scope of this experiment, thus eliminating option A.
Likewise, option D can be eliminated, as replication is another process that
is too general to fit within the scope of the experiment. Respiration is
superficially a good fit for this experiment, but with respect to trees, it is a
subcomponent of a larger process of photosynthesis, which directly affects
the life cycle of leaves; it controls the coloration, functionality and point at
which the leaf falls, making it a far better choice in terms of the experiment.
Thus, option B is discarded, leaving option C as the correct answer.


Writing Essay Sample
Independent Prompt Example
Your college administration is considering whether or not there
should be a physical education requirement for undergraduates.
The administration has asked students for their views on the issue
and has announced that its final decision will be based on how such
a requirement would affect the overall educational mission of the
college. Write a letter to the administration arguing whether or not
there should be a physical education requirement for
undergraduates at your college.
(Do not concern yourself with letter formatting; simply begin your
letter, "Dear Administration.")