1.

All SSR system operate on the same frequencies, interrogation being at

Mhz, and
transponder replies at
Mhz
1. 1090, 1030 respectively
3. 1030, 1090 respectively
2. 1040, 1080 respectively
2. Interference whether conducted or radiated can be categorized by
1. Amplitude behavior
3. Occurrences
2. Waveform
4. All
3. A periodic occurrence is
1. Predictable
2. As in 1 & have a defined repetition rate.
3. Unpredictable
4. All
4. It is helpful to remember that a change of 20 db & 6 db implies that voltage or current has
changed by a factor of
1. Two, ten respectively
3. Ten, two respectively
2. Ten, three respectively
4. None
5. If sensitivity of receiver is increased EMI will
1. Decrease
3. No effect
2. Increase
6. Where wire size shielding is incorporated for lighting protection it is important that shield
pigtail be kept their
1. Designed length
2. As in 1 and an inch added to length will result in improved protection
3. As in 1 &two inch added to the length will result in degraded protection
4. None
7. Subject of series R
1. Airborne communication, Navigation
2. As in 1 & radar
3. A/c radio equipment
4. None
8. Installation of mode A/C and mode S enhances
1. Safety of a/c
3. ATCOs
2. Relief to the pilot
4. All
9. Helicopter is equipped with
1. Mode A
3. Mode S
2. Mode S and SSR also
4. All
10. For allotment of specific mode S address, application is submitted by
1. QCM
3. DGCA through RAO
2. Operator
4. QCM/Operator
11. MTCS
1. The operator shall ensure that mode A/C, S is ON
2. As in 1 & transponder shall be installed in an approved manner by manufacturer
3. As in 2 & operator shall ensure that transponder is ON throughout the operation
4. None
12. Equipment purchased for a/c installation must have successfully qualified for
1. EMI test
3. FDT test
2. EMC test
4. All
13. GPS installation may be installed by
1. AME
3. 1/2
2. Authorized
4. Manufacturer
14. Primary Radar shows the
1. Altitude of the target
2. Location of the target
1

3. Height above terrain

4. All the above
15. The Secondary Radar provides
1. Identification of a/c
2. Information about the a/c
3. Transmits a characteristic group of pulses
4. All the above
16. First SIX bits of the 24 bits Mode S address provided by DGCA indicates
1. The country Code
3. Location of the airfield
2. Address of the a/c
4. None of the above
17. Whenever the a/c is equipped with Mode S transponder, the owner/operator shall apply for
allotment of Mode S address to
1. Ministry of Communication
3. RAO
2. DGCA
4. Any of the above
18. Last EIGHTEEN bits of the 24 bits Mode S address provided by DGCA indicates
1. The Mode S address
3. Position of the a/c
2. Location of the a/c
4. All the above
19. The operator shall lay down its procedure that the transponder is
1. Kept ON throughout the operations
2. As and when needed it must be ON
3. It should not be switched ON unless emergency
4. All are correct
20. Which of the following specifications are acceptable to DGCA in respect of Mode A/C
transponder
1. TSO C74 C
3. TSO T74 C
2. TSO C75 C
4. TSO T75 C
21. Which of the following specifications are acceptable to DGCA in respect of Mode S
transponder
1. TSO C111
3. TSO C113
2. TSO C112
4. TSO C114
22. Under MEL due to defect in the transponder system
1. Aircraft can be released
2. Aircraft can not be released
3. Aircraft can be released if suitably placarded in the cockpit and entry in maintenance
record is made
4. All the above
23. Inspection/certification of transponders is done by the AME holding licence in category
and trained on the transponder
1. Category B or X
3. Category R or V
2. Category I or X
4. Any of the above
24. Undesirable voltage or current which affect a system is termed as
1. Electromagnetic Competency
3. Electrostatic Interference
2. Electromagnetic Interference
4. Any of the above
25. Which of the following sources do emit interference energy?
1. Fluorescent lights
2. Radio & Radar Transmitters
3. Power lines, Switching & Dimming circuits
4. All the above
26. Systems which may be susceptible to EMI are:
1. General Display and navigation instruments
2. Computers
3. Radio & Radar receivers
4. All the above
2

27. An interference problem will exist when the noise level is

1. Greater than the susceptibility threshold level
2. Smaller than the susceptibility threshold level
3. Equal to the susceptibility threshold level
4. None of the above
28. When the susceptibility threshold level is greater than the conducted or radiated emission
level EMI problem do not exist. This situation is called
1. EMC
3. EMF
2. EMI
4. All the above
29. A very common unit in the measurement of electromagnetic interference is
1. Bel
3. Millibel
2. Decibel
4. Microbel
30. Some items which must be maintained to ensure Electromagnetic Compatibility (EMC) are:
1. Proper wire separation between source & Susceptible
2. Wire lengths be kept as short as possible
3. Circuit ground must not be lengthy than designed
4. All the above
31. A GPS System which has a dedicated display and provides no signals to any other a/c system is
called
1. Stand alone airborne GPS System
2. Matrix GPS System
3. Standard airborne GPS System
4. None of the above
32. A statement detailing any operating limitations and/or restrictions applicable to the particular
GPS System
1. Must be inserted into relevant section of AFM
2. Must be placarded in the cockpit at suitable place
3. No need of any such statement
4. None of the above
33. An unambiguous means must be provided to the flight crew when the GPS System
1. Has failed
2. Reverted to dead reckoning mode
3. As in 1 & 2
4. None
34. Indications of EMI
1. STATIC in audio receivers
2. inaccuracies in instrument indications
3. herringbone effect in video projections
4. all
35. When the energy is transmitted from interference source to susceptible receiver through the
medium of air, is called
1. Conduction
3. electrostatic field radiation
2. electromagnetic field radiation
4. all the above are correct
36. Whether a system will have an adverse response to EMI depends on
1. Type of energy
3. Change in energy
2. Amount of energy
4. Except 3 all are correct
37. Bandwidth of EMI
1. narrow or broad
2. as in 1 + Broad band interference is caused by devices generating random
frequencies
3. As in 2+ it is the strength of the signal
4. bandwidth is same as interference
3

38. Interference amplitude can be categorised by

1. narrow or broad
3. aperiodic, or random
2. stable or random
4. None
39. MTCS;
1. More energy is released when the change in signal level and rate is increased
2. Aperiodic occurrence is simply unpredictable
3. Random occurrence is predictable but does not have a defined repetition rate
4. All are incorrect
40. the voltage or current has changed by a factor of ten, is indicated by
1. change of 20 db
3. change of 30 db
2. change of 6db
41. The provision of pressure-altitude reporting transponder
1. Annex10,Vol.IV
3. Annex10,Vol.V
2. Annex4,Vol.10
4. Annex10,Vol.VI
42. Mode A replies for
1. altitude and surveillance
3. altitude and surveillance
2. identity and surveillance
4. none
43. Mode `S transponder provides the communication capabilities
1. ACAS/ TCAS equipped a/c
3. both 1 and 2
2. ATCRBS
4. only 1 is correct
44. On completion of electrical wiring work, the complete wiring shall be checked for
1. Continuity
3. Continuity and bonding
2. Continuity and insulation
4. All
45. Equipment chasis shall be checked for
1. Proper bonding
3. Proper screening
2. Proper shielding
4. All
46. Performance test of radio equipment shall be carried out at various
1. Altitude
3. Speed
2. Both 1 & 2
4. None
47. MTCS
1. Aircraft rule 57 (3) specify that all A/c shall be fitted with the radio apparatus
2. AME can amend the empty weight
3. As in 2 and also QCM
4. All
48. After feasibility study, an approved person
1. Prepares structural installation drawing
2. Prepares system wiring drawing
3. Drawings are prepared by only AME
4. As in 1 & 2
49. FTD checks for ADF, HF, VHF equip. the intervals of this check are in
1. MS manual
3. Operation manual
2. QC manual
4. Manufacturers manual
50. Replacement of radio equips. must be done by approved parts mentioned in
1. MS manual
3. Manufacturer parts Catalog
2. QC manual
4. None
51. Certificate of inspection for radio equipment must be completed by.& signed
by..respectively
1. AME & telegraph engineer
2. licenced AME &Wireless telegraph engineer
3. Wireless telegraph engineer & licenced AME
4. Wire telegraph engineer & pilot
52. After feasibility study the AME has to prepare drawing of installation & wiring in . Copies
4

1. 2 copies
3. 6 copies
2. 4 copies
4. 8 copies
53. In case the installation us new or existing one is being replaced a short term aeromobile
licence for operating apparatus is to be obtained from
1. DAW of DGCA
2. RAO through Sub RAO
3. WPC Wing of Min of Communication
4. All the above
54. The Radio & Navigation equipments be installed and operated with a licence under the
1. Indian Telegraph Act of 1985
3. Indian Telegraph Act of 1865
2. Indian Telegraph Act of 1885
4. Indian Telegraph Act of 1965
55. Which of the following feasibility study to be made by AME or approved person if desired to
install a new radio equipment or to replace existing avionic installation:
1. Proposed equipment is type approved & compatible with existing system
2. Necessary electrical power and required space is available at suitable location for the
proposed equipment
3. CG should remain within the limits if equipment is fitted
4. All the above
56. The radio equipment installed in aircraft registered in India shall
1. not be operated in flight unless it has been inspected and certified as being in proper
working order by a person authorised by the DGCA.
2. be installed and operated with a licence issued by DGCA.
3. be operated only by a person who holds appropriate licence issued by DGCA.
4. All are correct.
57. While installing anew avionic system on an aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's
guidelines the AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that
1. Empty weight of the aircraft remains same after installation.
2. Empty weight C.G. remains same after installation.
3. Loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation.
4. C.G. should remain in limit after installation
58. For approval of an avionic installation, in absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall
submit the modification details along with
1. six copies of drawing to LAO.
2. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
3. three copies of drawing to RAO.
4. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
59. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper insulation to ensure that
1. radio interference is least.
2. static interference is maximum.
3. precipitation static interference is minimum.
4. static interference is minimum.
60. Installation of a new avionic system on an aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining
1. the permission from DGCA.
2. the permit from DGCA.
3. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications.
4. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications
61. Maintenance of airborne communication and navigation equipments shall be carried out in
accordance with
1. CAR series E part II.
2. CAR series E part III.
3. CAR series R part II
4. CAR series R part III
5

62. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or lightning strike has to be inspected for
1. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised.
2. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for any possible damage to glass
components.
3. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to the wire.
4. All are correct.
63. Inspection schedule for radio equipment is approved by;
1. Head of Engineering
3. RAO
Department
4. Head of safety Department
2. Operator
64. Maintenance checks for communication, navigation and radar equipment can be broadly
classified as
1. Hard time and condition monitoring
2. Insitu and workshop
3. Bench check and workshop
4. Condition monitoring and workshop
65. The operation check shall be carried out with engine(s) running in case where it is so
mentioned in
1. MSM
3. CMM
2. As in 1 or AMM
4. As in 3 or AMM
66. Workshop check performed over radio equipment is classified as
1. FTD check
2. Insitu check or FTD check
3. Bench check or FTD check
4. As in 3 + requirement of performing FTD is given by manufacturer
67. Whenever any radio communication and navigation equipment is not operated for more than
02 years, it must be subjected to
1. FTD check
2. Bench check
3. Insitu check
68. The battery of ELT should be replaced when
1. 50% of useful life crossed
2. 50% of their useful life of charge has crossed
3. when the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour
4. either of the above
69. the guidelines for preparing approved installation check schedule for radio equipment are
contained in;
1. BCAR section R
2. As in 1 + FAA Advisory Circular AC 43-13
3. This schedule should be approved by LAO
4. Both 2 and 3
70. All ELTs installed on the a/c shall be inspected;
1. Within 12 calender months
2. As in 1+ inspected for Battery corrosion
3. As in 2+ also for operation of crash sensor
4. In should be inspected once in two year

72) Storage condition

1). Temp. 50-70 C
2). Humidity should be 65%
3). Storage parts kept at a distance of not more than 3ft. away from the source of heat
4). All the above
73) Rubber tyres
1). Are stored vertically in racks supporting tubes
2). Each tyre should be supported at 2 points close enough that major portion of the tyres is above the tubes
3). Parts packed in air tight tins should be lined with wax paper or polythene to avoid direct contact with
the metal
4). All are correct
74)Storage limiting period of rubber parts
1). Isolation from atmospheric oxygen
2). Parts to be packed in air tight container and wrapping and liberal use of talc & French chalk
3). Parts packed in air tight tins they should be lined with wax paper pr polythene to avoid direct contact with the metal
4). All are correct
75)In the absence of rigorous test, for the life escalation the hoses are subjected to
1) 1 times the working pressure
2). 2 times the working pressure
3). 2 times the operating pressure and retained at elevated pressure for 5 min.
4). None of the above
76)Shelf life of hydraulic and pneumatic system rubber components
1). Rubber parts for hydraulic and pneumatic to 6 years from the cure date

2). Rubber parts/ seals stored more than 4 years as sample seal from each batch should be checked for deterioration by stret
3). 1 & 3 are correct
4). None.

77) Shelf life of Group A hoses

1). 10 years

3). 15 years

2). 5 years

4). 4 years

78) Before installation of hoses on the a/c pressure test should be carried out at
1). 1 times the working pressure
2). 2 times the working pressure1
3). 1 times the working pressure every 2 years
79) MTCS regarding hoses
1). Fuel, oil, pneumatic & hydraulic pressure hoses are Group A hoses
2). Other hoses like hydraulic return line & instruments hoses etc. are also Group A hoses
3). 1 & 2 and group includes pneumatic hoses
4). None of above
80) If information regarding service life of hoses is not given by the manufacturer than1). Initial life at hoses should not exceed 4 years for Group B hoses.
2). Initial life at hoses should not exceed 6 years for Group A hoses.
3). As in 1 & service life of hoses in Group A can be developed upto 6 years
4). None.
81) Rubber parts & seals which have been stored for more than
1). 4 years
2). 6 years
3). 8 years
82) Series S part II is applicable to
1). Turbine engine
2). Reciprocating engine
3). Turbo prop engine
4). Turbo fan engine

should be subjected to detailed examination and

83) All reciprocating engine must be thoroughly inspected reassembled and tested
1). Atleast twice in 5 years
2). Once in 10 years
3). Twice in 10 years
4). Once in a year

84) Series A/c means

1). C of A & design of which is similar in every essential respect to the design of aicraft for which C of A is previously issued
2). C of A & design of which is not similar in every essential respect tot the design of a/c for which C of A is previously issued
3). Both 1 & 2 are correct

10

11