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Electronics Engineering 1

1. The resonant circuit of a tuned collector transistor oscillator has a resonant


frequency of 5MHz. If the value of capacitance is increased by 50%, calculate the
new resonant frequency.
(a) 2.6 MHz (b) 3.33 MHz (c) 4.08 MHz (d) 11.25 MHz
2. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in the armature of a 10-pole 1,200
rpm generator.
(a) 10
(b) 0.1
(c) 100
(d) 1000
3. The exact relative permittivity of air is
(a) 1.00006 (b) 1.0006
(c) 1.006

(d) 1.06

4. At room temperature, a silicon crystal acts approximately like a/an


(a) Insulator (b) Semiconductor (c) Conductor (d) Superconductor
5. Which component cannot be fabricated into ICs?
(a) Diode
(b) Resistor (c) Inductor (d) Transistor
6. Class of mass memory devices that use a laser beam to write and read unto a
specified coated disk.
(a) Mass Storage
(b)RAM
(c) Optical Disk Memory (d) SDRAM
7. Which of the following cannot be used to make a magnet?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Carbon
(c) Iron
(d) Lodestone
8. Determine how long a battery will last whose rating is 100Ah; 24 volts and will
run a 300 watts electronic equipment and 50 watts light.
(a) 26.65 hours (b) 6.85 hours
(c) 50.05 hours (d) 12 hours
9. What is the program used to enter a program into the computer memory?
(a) Compiler (b) Subroutine (c) Loader (d) Compiler
10. An electronic component that is non-linear resistor and its resistance is a function
of the voltage across it.
(a) Film resistor
(b) varistor
(c) thyristor (d) varactor
11. A certain Zener diode has a maximum power rating of 400 mW at 50 degrees
Centigrade and a derating factor of 3.2 m W/degree Centigrade. Determine the
maximum power the zener can dissipate at temperature of 90 degrees Centigrade.
(a) 128 mW (b) 272 mW (c) 400mW (d) 544 Mw

12. One of the following is the most outstanding advantage of CMOS.


(a) Frequency compensation by internal feedback.
(b) None of the fabrication materials are toxic.
(c) Low impedance input and output levels.
(d) Simplicity in fabrication process and low power.
13. A Field-Effect Transistor (FET)
(a) Had more terminals compared to BJT.
(b) Is a voltage-controlled device
(c) Has a single charged carrier
(d) Also ha an active region
14. Which of the following characterizes Complimentary Metal-Oxide
Semiconductor (CMOS) logic?
(a) P-channel FETs(b) Bipolar FETs
(c) N-channel FETs
(d) Both P-channel and N-channel FETs
15. What is the most influential factor in the switching speed of saturated Bipolar
Transistor?
(a) Collector current (b) hFE
(c) Emitter current
(d) Base current
16. What do you called the phenomenon which occurs in an electrical circuit when
the inductive reactance is equal to the capacitive reactance.
(a) Reactive equilibrium
(b) Resonance
(c) High Q (d) Reactive Q Pt.
17. What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses tapped coil tuned circuit?
(a) Clapp
(b) Colpitts (c) Pierce
(d) Hartley
18. There are four identical resistors (R), two resistors in parallel are in series
connection with the other resistor also connected in parallel, if one resistor was
opened in the first pair and the other one was shorted on the other pair, the total
resistance is?
(a) R/2
(b) 2R
(c) 3R/2
(d) R
19. Two diodes are place in series reverse to each other, if this is connected to a load
resistance impressed and a 5 volt supply. Which of the following statement is
true?
(a) Voltage across the diode is 5 volts. (c) The two diodes has infinite resistance
(b) Neither diode will conduct
(d) load resistor has infinite current
20. What is the effect in terms of bandwidth when Q of a single-tune stage is
doubled?
(a) The same (b) doubled (c) halved
(d) four times

21. An ideal voltage source and an internal resistance is an example of the


(a) Ideal approximation
(c) Higher approximation
(b) Second approximation
(d) Exact model
22. An ideal current source has infinite internal resistance and a real current source
has __________________.
(a) Zero internal resistance
(b) Infinite internal resistance
(c) A small internal resistance
(d) A large internal resistance
23. Thevenins theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an
(a) Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor
(b) Ideal current source and parallel resistor
(c) Ideal voltage source and series resistor
(d) Ideal current source and series resistor
24. Nortons theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an
(a) Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor
(b) Ideal current source and parallel resistor
(c) Ideal voltage source and series resistor
(d) Ideal current source and series resistor
25. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger, the output is a
(a) Rectangular wave
(b) Triangular wave
(c) Rectified sine wave
(d) Series of ramps
26. For emitter bias, the voltage across the emitter resistor is the same as the voltage
between the emitter and the ground. For emitter bias, the voltage at the emitter is
0.7 V less than the ____________.
(a) Base voltage
(b) Emitter voltage
(c) Collector voltage
(d) Ground voltage
27. Voltage divider bias is noted for its stable Q point, with VDB the base voltage is
_______________.
(a) Less than the base supply voltage
(b) Equal to the base supply voltage
(c) Greater than the base supply voltage
(d) Greater than the collector supply voltage

28. The current gain of a pnp transistor is the ratio of collector current to base current.
Which is the largest current in a pnp transistor?
(a) Base current
(b) Emitter current
(c) Collector current
(d) None of these
29. Push-pull is almost always used with Class B Amplifier, one advantage of Class B
push-pull amplifier is __________________________.
(a) Very small quiescent current drain
(b) Maximum efficiency of 78.5 percent
(c) Greater efficiency than class A
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
30. In a class A amplifier, the collector current flows for the entire cycle. With Class
A amplifier the output signal should be _____________________.
(a) Unclipped
(b) Clipped on positive voltage peak
(c) Clipped on negative voltage peak
(d) Clipped on negative current peak
(e) Always clipped on both positive and negative peak.
31. The easiest way to bias a JFET in the ohmic region is with voltage-divider bias,
self-biasing the JFET produces a _________________.
(a) Positive feedback
(b) Negative feedback
(c) Forward feedback
(d) Reverse feedback
32. Trans-conductance is measured in mhos or Siemens. It indicates how effectively
the input voltage controls the ______________________.
(a) Voltage gain
(b) Input resistance
(c) Supply voltage
(d) Output current
33. What usually controls the open-loop cutoff frequency of an op amp?
(a) Stray-wiring capacitance
(b) Base-emitter capacitance
(c) Collector-base capacitance
(d) Compensating capacitance

34. If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and the mid-band open-loop voltage gain is
200,000, the cutoff frequency is
(a) 25 Hz
(b) 1 MHz
(c) 1.5 MHz
(d) 15 MHz
35. An LF157A is a
(a) Differential amp
(b) Source follower
(c) Bipolar op amp
(d) BIFET op amp
36. The non-inverting amplifier has a large closed- loop input impedance. The closedloop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals _____________.
(a) The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance
(b) The open-loop voltage gain
(c) The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance
(d) The input resistance
37. In a common black and white 12 television set power supply section, the low
voltage supplies the audio, sync, IF amplifier and RF amplifier sections. The high
voltage supplies the fly-back. What is the high voltage measurement in the flyback that illuminates the CRT?
(a) 26 kilovolts (b) 15 kilovolts
(c) 22 kilovolts
(d) 18 kilovolts
38. A common black and white 12 dead set television indicates that there is a
regulator output that is okay, but there is no raster, and there is no picture. In
trouble-shooting this means that the high voltage supply is the culprit. The
regulator output with heat sink (transistors collector), the supplied voltage B+
equals to 12 volts. What B+ will you measure if it is a colored television set?
(a) 12 volts (b) 48 volts (c) 96 volts (d) 115 volts
39. What is the power factor in % when the impedance of the circuit is 11.2 ohms and
the resistance is ten ohms?
(a) 79.3%
(b) 80%
(c) 89.3%
(d) 79%
40. Maximum power is transferred from a generator to a load when the load
impedance (ZL) is equal to the generator impedance (ZG).
(a) The statement is false
(b) the statement is true
(c) Maybe
(d) I dont know the answer
41. Using a solar panel system as an alternative power source, during a cold snap, a
1500 watt electric heater runs continuously for 8 hours. What will be the cost of
electric service if it is commercially billed 10 centavos per kilowatt-hour?
(a) $1.50 (b) 1.20 pesos
(c) SR 1.30 (d) 1.25 Php

42. ________________ is used to create a virtual disk drive in RAM. The virtual
disk simulates the operation of a disk drive using RAM rather than the magnetic
surface of the disk to hold the files.
(a) RAMDRIVE.EXE
(b) RAMDRIVE.SYS
(c) RAMDRIVE.UTIL
(d) RAMDRIVE.EXT
43. A non-volatile memory where the information is not lost even if the power is
turned off.
(a) Random Access Memory (c) SDRAM
(b) Read Only Memory
(d) Primary storage memory
44. In early computers like PC-XT, it is normally smaller in size and used for
temporary storage of active information such as the Operating System of the
computer, the program that is currently being executed and the data that are being
processed. Which memory unit is it?
(a) Secondary Storage Memory
(c) Primary Storage Memory
(b) Tertiary Storage Memory
(d) Loss Storage Memory
45. A single phase, half wave rectifier is used to supply power to a load of impedance
10 ohms from 230 volts, 50 Hertz ac supply at a firing angle of 30 degree.
Calculate the average value of voltage.
(a) 96.35 volts
(b) 158 volts
(c) 87 volts
(d) 86.35 volts
46. In question number 45 calculate the load current.
(a) 18.5 A
(b) 19.6 A
(c) 9.6 A
(d) 10.5 A
47. A three phase four pole induction motor is operating on an input frequency of 75
Hertz and slip of 4%. If the rotor resistance referred to stator is 1 ohm, calculate
the torque developed by motor. Assume a three phase voltage of 415 Volts.
(a) 6700 synchronous watts (b) 6889 synchronous watts
(c) 7000 synchronous watts (d) 6989 synchronous watts
48. What is the rotor frequency in the previous question?
(a) 7.5 Hertz (b) 1.5 Hertz (c) 3 Hertz
(d) 50 Hertz
49. If a diode is connected in anti-parallel to a thyristor as its integral part then the
resulting combination is called ________________.
(a) Reverse Breakdown Thyristor
(b) Reverse Conducting Thyristor
(c) Avalanche Voltage of Thyristor
(d) Peak Inverse Voltage of Thyristor
50. A triac is a bidirectional thyristor. It incorporates two thyristors in a single chip
device and the complete unit is controlled by:
(a) Terminal A
(b) Terminal B
(c) Gate
(d) Drain

51. When the positive (+) terminal of a battery is connected to the negative (-)
terminal of the next battery the total equivalent voltage is called ____________.
(a) Series-opposing voltage (b) Parallel-opposing voltage
(c) Parallel-aiding voltage
(d) Series-aiding voltage
52. What is the 10s complement of 012398?
(a) 923407
(b) 987013
(c) 987602

(d) 923456

53. Give the 2s compliment of 1101100.


(a) 1110011 (b) 0010100 (c) 0010011

(d) 1110001

54. In what year does George Boole introduced a systematic treatment of logic and
developed for this purpose on algebraic system now called Boolean algebra.
(a) 1834
(b) 1844
(c) 1854
(d) 1864
55. Convert 41.6875 to binary and 10110001101011.111100000110 to octal.
(a) 101001.1011 and 26153.7460
(b) 110010.0111 and 26351.7640
(c) 100101.0101 and 21653.7460
(d) 100011.0101 and 21653.7046
56. ASCII is an acronym meaning:
(a) American Standard Code for Interchange Information
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) American Standard Code for Information International
(d) American Standard Code for Informative Interchange
57. When an op amp is not saturated, the voltages at the non-inverting and inverting
inputs are
(a) Almost equal
(b) Much different
(c) Equal to the output voltage
(d) Equal to +15 V
58. The trans-resistance of an amplifier is the ratio of its
(a) Output current to input voltage
(b) Input voltage to output current
(c) Output voltage to input voltage
(d) Output voltage to input current
59. When the two bases are grounded in a differential amplifier, the voltage across
each emitter diode is
(a) Zero
(b) 0.7 V
(c) The same
(d) High

60. The typical input stage of an operational amplifier has a


(a) Single-ended input and single-ended output
(b) Single-ended input and differential output
(c) Differential input and single-ended output
(d) Differential input and differential output
61. The input voltage to an emitter follower is usually
(a) Less than the generator voltage
(b) Equal to the generator voltage
(c) Greater than the generator voltage
(d) Equal to the supply voltage
62. A square wave output of an emitter follower implies
(a) No clipping
(b) Clipping at saturation
(c) Clipping at cutoff
(d) Clipping on both peaks
63. For a class B push-pull emitter follower to work properly, the emitter diodes must
(a) Be able to control the quiescent current
(b) Have a power rating greater than the output power
(c) Have a voltage gain of 1
(d) Match the compensating diodes
64. In a buck-boost regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a choke-input filter.
The buck-boost regulator is also known as
(a) A step-down regulator
(b) A step-up regulator
(c) An inverting regulator
(d) All of the above
65. Premise cables in Local Area Network (LAN) backbones often contain ________.
(a) Only MM fiber (b) only SM fiber
(c) both MM and SM fiber
(d) Only Plastic optical fiber
66. Which of the following items is/are part of a fiber optic transmitter?
(a) an optical source
(b) a source drive circuit
(c) an optical source and a source drive only
(d) a and b and an interface circuit
67. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) produce light by what process?
(a) Recombination
(b) stimulated emission
(c) spontaneous emission
(d) Photosynthesis
68. In fiber optics systems, what are the principal types of detectors used?

(a) Integrating spheres


(c) Photovoltaic diodes

(b) Photons
(d) PIN photodiodes and APDs

69. What are the two most common semiconductor materials used in electronic and
electro-optic devices?
(a) Germanium and aluminum
(c) silicon and gallium arsenide
(b) Indium and zirconium
(d) zinc and platinum
70. What is the name of the current produced by a photodiode when no light is
incident on the device?
(a) Threshold current (b) reverse current
(c) direct current (d) dark current
71. The first television picture tube was developed in 1920s by Vladimir Sworykin,
an American researcher. What was the name given on the first picture tube?
(a) Cathode ray tube (b) kinescope (c) oscilloscope
(d) telescope
72. In 1904 a British scientist, constructed a vacuum tube that allowed electrical
current in only one direction. The tube was used to detect electromagnetic waves
and it was the forerunner of the more recent vacuum diode tubes.
(a) Triode
(b) audion
(c) Fleming valve
(d) pentode
73. Find the resistance of a 100 ft. length of copper wire with a cross sectional area of
810.1 CM. The resistivity of copper is 10.4 CM-ohm/ft.
(a) 3.76 ohms
(b) 4.65 ohms
(c) 1.284 ohms
(d) 2.543 ohms
74. What is the SI unit of flux density (B)?
(a) Gauss
(b) Weber
(c) Gilbert

(d) Tesla

75. If the opposition to current flow refers to resistance what do you call the
opposition to creation of magnetism and what is the SI unit of such.
(a) Permeance, Wb/Atm
(b) conductance, Wb/Atm
(c) Reluctance, A-t /Wb
(d) susceptance, A-t/Wb
76. A diode has a static resistance and a dynamic resistance. What is the AC
resistance of a diode if the current is 1 mA?
(a) 25 ohms (b) 2.5 ohms (c) 2.6 ohms (d) 26 ohms
77. Faradays Law is stated as follows:
(a) When current through a coil changes, an induced voltage is created and
the direction is such that it always opposes the change in current.
(b) The voltage induced across a coil equals the number of turns in the coil
times the rate of change of the magnetic flux.
(c) One ampere is the amount of current in a coil when a number of electrons
having one coulomb of charge move past a given point in one second.
(d) One ohm of resistance exists when there is one ampere of current in a coil
with one volt applied across it..

78. When a conductor moves within a magnetic field a voltage is induced across the
conductor. The faster the relative motion between a conductor and magnetic field,
the __________ is the induced voltage.
(a) Lesser
(b) greater
(c) no voltage
(d) weak voltage
79. In a circuit with capacitance and resistance, the voltage and current during
charging and discharging make a 63% change during each time-constant interval.
Five time constants are required for a capacitor to fully charge or discharge. This
is called the __________________.
(a) Time constant
(b) transfer time
(c) transient time
(d) active time
80. Capacitance is directly proportional to the plate area and dielectric constant and
inversely proportional to the distance between the plates. What is one factor that
determines the breakdown voltage of a capacitor?
(a) Dielectric constant (b) dielectric capacitance (c) dielectric strength
(d) Dielectric capacity
81. One of these is not a ways of liberating free-electron (movement of free
electrons):
(a) Secondary emission
(b) tertiary emission (c) thermionic emission
(d) Field emission
82. Doping is what we called adding of impurities to a pure semiconductor or crystal
in the purest form. What are the extrinsic materials?
(a) Si and Ge materials
(b) p and n type materials
(c) B and In materials
(d) Bi and As materials
83. Valence electron is an electron on the outer orbit. In a conduction band the
electron starts to flow. In the forbidden band, electron must satisfy the energy
gap. What is the energy gap for a semiconductor material like germanium and
silicon?
(a) 0.3 and 0.7 electron Volts
(b) 0.67 and 1.1 electron Volts
(c)
5.2 and 7.6 electron Volts
(d) 0 and 0.67 electron Volts
84. Peak inverse voltage for a germanium diode is 400V and for silicon is 1000V.
What is the other name for PIV of a diode?
(a) Reverse Saturation Voltage
(b) Reverse Conduction Voltage
(c) Reverse Depletion Voltage
(d) Reverse Breakdown Voltage
85. A cut-off transistor has a condition of _______________.
(a) normal operating condition
(b) at open circuit you will have a maximum voltage, conductivity is zero
(c) at short circuit you will have a maximum current, conductivity is high
(d) All of the above.

86. In a band pass filter (current response) voltage output is ______________ at


resonance and in the band stop filter (voltage response) voltage output is
___________ at resonance.
(a) Minimum, maximum
(b) minimum, minimum
(c) Maximum, minimum
(d) maximum, maximum
87. A series RC circuit in which output voltage is taken across the capacitor is known
as ______________.
(a) RC Differentiator
(b) LC Differentiator
(b) LC Integrator
(d) RC Integrator
88. A multivibrator is a sequential logic circuit. Which one has no stable state but
switches continuously between the two states that produce a train of square waves
pulsed at fixed frequency.
(a) Monostable
(b) bistable (c) astable
(d) tristable
89. Find the voltage drop develop across a DArsonval meter movement having an
internal resistance of 1 kilo ohms and full deflection current of 150 microampere?
(a) 150 k Volt
(b) 150 m Volt
(c) 150 Volt (d) 150 microvolt
90. The resonant circuit tuned collector transistor oscillator has a resonant frequency
of 25 MHz, if the value of L is decreased by 75%, the new frequency would be?
(a) 33.33 MHz (b) 11.25 MHz
(c) 26.75 MHz (d) 28.88 MHz
91. When voltage of 100V at 50 Hz is applied to a coil A, the current taken is 8A and
the power is 120W. When applied to coil B, the current is 10A and power is
500W. What power would be taken when 100V is applied to the two coils
connected in series?
(a) 4727 W (b) 140 W
(c) 70 W
(d) 1454 W
92. What is the primary to secondary impedance ratio if a transformer quadruples the
ac voltage?
(a) 1:4
(b) 4:1
(c) 1:16
(d) 16:1
93. What is the voltage regulation that has DC voltage of 67V without load and 42V
with load?
(a) 59.5%
(b) 15.9%
(c) 62.6%
(d) 32.5%
94. The _____________ are two of the most common mechanical configuration of
industrial robots.
(a) Spherical and Pneumatic
(b) Articulated arm and cylindrical
(c) Spherical and Hydraulic
(d) Jointed-arm and electric
95. A system in which the precise movement of a large load controlled by a relatively
weak signal.
(a) Hydraulic (b) Electromagnetic (c) Synchro (d) Servo

96. A user-program that has the ability to move a robot axis to any position within its
range.
(a) Point to point (b) Continuous path (c) Positive stop (d) Pick and place
97. What is the reason why robot actuators have lesser capabilities than electric or
hydraulic robot actuator?
(a) It has quick response
(b) it has always oil leaks
(c) It always has all or nothing motion
(d) it has high initial cost
98. Magnetic materials with permeability slightly less than that of free space are
referred to as ___________.
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) non-magnetic
(c) diamagnetic (d) paramagnetic
99. How does an ohmmeter behave if its positive lead is connected to cathode of a
diode while its negative lead is connected to anode?
(a) Has increasing resistance
(b) has unstable resistance
(c) Has infinite resistance
(d) has a very low resistance
100.
Refers to the radiation that results from recombination of charges carriers
injected in PN or PIN junction which is biased in the forward direction.
(a) Malter effect (b) Lossev effect (c) Seebeck effect (d) Lexemburg effect

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