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OPEN TEST
CLASS -X
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 1 Hr.
Date : 30-09-2012
Max. Marks : 90
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form is not allowed.
5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.
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E-mail : pccp@resonance.ac.in
SAT PAPER
1.
2.
(B)
(C)
(D)
The value of
1
1
( 2 2) is :
( 2 2) ( 2 2)
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 2 2
3.
If u, v and w are the digits of decimal system, then the rational number represented by 0.uwuvuvuvuv.........is
(A) (100 uw + 99 uv)/99 (B) (99uw + uv)/980
(C) (99uw + uv)/9900
(D) (9uw + 99uv)/900
4.
Three wheels can complete respectively 60, 36, 24 revolutions per minute. There is red spot on each
wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time all the sport will simultaneously touch
the ground again ?
(A) 5 seconds
5.
(B) 6 seconds
4 61 4 62 4 63 4 64 is divisible by :
(A) 3
(B) 10
(C)
5
seconds
2
(C) 11
(D)
5
seconds
3
(D) 13
6.
In a bangle shop, the shopkeeper displays the bangles in the from of a square then he is left with 38
bangles with him. If the wanted to increase the size of square, by increasing one unit, each side of the
square he found that 25 bangles fall short of in completing the square. The actual number of bangles
which he had with him in the shop was :
(A) 1690
(B) 999
(C) 538
(D) can not be determine
7.
If ab, cd, ba and dc are two digit numbers then the maximum value of (abcd)(ba dc) is , where a, b, c,
d are distinct non-zero integers :
(A) 7938
(B) 7128
(C) 6930
(D) None of these
8.
9.
10.
If the zeros of the polynomial f (x) = x3 12x2 + 39x + k are in A.P., then find the value of k.
(A) 28
(B) 28
(C) 14
(D) 14
Space For Rough Work
11.
12.
D
X
7
E
2
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
13.
14.
In the adjoining figure, chord ED is parallel to the diameter AC of the circle with centre O. If
CBE = 65 then the measured of DEC is equal to.
(A) 35
15.
(C) 37.5
(D) 25
If two chords of lenghts 2a each, of a circle of radius R, intersect each other at right angles then the
distance of their point of intersection from the centre of the circle is
(A) 2 R 2 a 2
16.
(B) 55
(B)
2(R 2 a 2 )
(C) 4 (R 2 a 2 )
If (3, 4) and ( 6, 5) are the extremities of the diagonal of a parallelogram and ( 2, 1) is its third vertex,
then its fourth vertex is (A) ( 1, 0)
(B) (0, 1)
(C) ( 1, 1)
(D) None of these.
Space For Rough Work
17.
sin
sin
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) none
18.
The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the suns altitude is 30. When the suns altitude is 60, then
the length of shadow will be
(A) 60 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 5m
19.
If the radius of a right circular cylinder is increased by 50% and height is decreased by 20% then
the percentage change in volume of cylinder is
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
20.
The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is
(A) 22
(B) 23.5
(C) 24
(D) 24.5
21.
22.
(C) 44 D
23.
24.
25.
(D) 400 D
26.
Velocity of a moving object is changing uniformly and the kinetic energy changes accordingly. Which of
the following graph depicts the correct relationship.
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
(A)
(B)
Velocity
Velocity
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
(C)
(D)
Velocity
Velocity
27.
A wagon weighing 1000 kg is moving with a velocity 50 km/h on smooth horizontal rails. A mass of 250 kg
is dropped on it. The velocity with which it moves now is
(A) 12.5 km/h.
(B) 20 km/h.
(C) 40 km/h.
(D) 50 km/h.
28.
At a given place where acceleration due to gravity is g m/sec2 , a sphere of lead of density d kg/m3 is
gently released in a column of non-viscous liquid of density r kg/m3. If d>r then the acceleration of the
sphere is:
(A) g
(B) zero
(C) g
(d r )
d
(D)
g
d
29.
A boy claps his hands in front of a staircase and hears a musical echo. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, and
if each step is 33 cm deep, then the pitch of the echo is
(A) 1000 Hz
(B) 500 Hz
(C) 250 Hz
(D) 10 Hz
30.
A motorboat is travelling with a speed of 3 m/s. When the force on boat due to water flow is 500 N, the
power of the boat is :
(A) 15 kW.
(B) 150 kW.
(C) 150 W.
(D) 1.5 kW.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
During the electrolysis of fused NaCl, the reaction that occurs at the anode is (A) Chloride ions are oxidised
(B) Chloride ions are reduced
(C) Sodium ions are oxidised
(D) Sodium ions are reduced.
The aqueous solution of copper sulphate has the following nature (A) Acidic
(B) Alkaline
(C) Neutral
(D) Amphoteric
Aluminium appears like gold when it is mixed with (A) 90 % Cu
(B) 50% Ni
(C) 90 % Sn
(D) 50 %Co
(D) propane
37.
The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula (CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is (A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane
(B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene
(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene
(D) 1,1Dimethyl -3-butene
38.
39.
40.
Atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5. It has two isotopes of atomic weight 35 & 37 respectively. What is the
percentage of the heavier isotope in the sample ?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 25
(D) 20
41.
Two nuclides X and Y are isotonic to each other with mass numbers 70 and 72 respectively. If the atomic
number of X is 34, then that of Y would be (A) 32
(B) 34
(C) 36
(D) 38
42.
At 80C, pure distilled water has H3O+ concentration equal to 1 10 6 mol L 1. The value of Kw (ionic
product of water) at this temperature will be (A) 1 10 8
(B) 1 10 12
(C) 1 10 14
(D) 1 10 6
43.
4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules present
in the container will be (A) 6.022 1023
(B) 1.2044 1023
(C) 2 mole
(D) 6.023 1024
Space For Rough Work
44.
In which of the following, dispersed phase is a liquid and dispersion medium is a gas ?
(A) Cloud
(B) Smoke
(C) Gel
(D) Soap bubble
45.
46.
47.
Light
Chlorophyll is present :
(A) In the grana of chloroplast
48.
Epiglottis is
(A) a cartilagenous flap that guards the opening of larynx.
(B) a membranous structure present in pharynx.
(C) a muscle that guards the opening of nasal cavity
(D) A cartilagenous flap that guards opening of pharynx
49.
The exchange of gases in alveoli of lungs takes place by(A) passive transport
(B) simple diffusion
(C) osmosis
50.
53.
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(C) SA node
52.
51.
(D) 12
54.
55.
(C) Aorta
56.
57.
Political symbols like broken chains, the Sceptre and bundles of rods were used during the French
Revolution because French peasants were
(A) socially adaptable. (B) politically inclined. (C) educated.
(D) illiterate.
58.
59.
(C) Dausa
(D) JhunJhunu
60.
Call for industrial action by the Assembly of Russian workers was taken at the
(A) Moscow public works
(B) Putilov Iron Works.
(C) Margerta Steel Factory
(D) Russian mill works.
61.
Some events are named below. The ascending order of the events according to their occurence period is
(i) Non co-operation movement
(ii) Jallianawala Bag Massacre
(iii) Civil Disobedience movement
(iv) Dandi March
Select the carrect option
(A) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(D) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
62.
(i) 1930
(ii) 1922
(iii) 1920
(iv) 1942
(B) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)
(D) (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (iii), (d) (ii)
63.
64.
The names of some dynasties and their founders are given below. Match them and select the correct
option
65.
66.
(iv) Yashovarman
Characterstics
(i) The newer, younger deposits of the flood plains, are renewed almost every
year and so are fertile, ideal for intensive agriculture.
b. Terai
c. Bhangar
(iii) Wet, swampy and marshy region. A thickly forested region full of wildlife.
d. Khadar
(iv) They lie above the fold plains of the rivers and present a terrace like feature.
68.
SectionB
(i) Normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days.
b. Western Disturbances (ii) A period of transition from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. Owing
to high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive during
the day.
c. Loo
(iii) A narrow belt of high altitude (above 12,000m) westerly winds in the
troposphere.
d. Burst of Monsoon
(iv) Weather phenomena of winter months brought in by the westerly flow from
the Mediterranean region.
e. October heat
(v) Strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over the north and
northwestern India.
69.
70.
71.
Characterstics
(i) The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar
because of the increasing calcium content downwards.
b. Black
(ii) Found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly
areas of Orissa and Assam.
(iii) Also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the
Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
d. Laterite soil
e. Arid Soil
(v) Found in parts of Orissa, Chattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga
plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.
72.
Which one of the following is not a way by which communities have conserved and protected forests and
wildlife in India ?
(A) Establishment of Bhairodev Dakav Sanctuary by the inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of
Rajasthan.
(B) Establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.
(C) Chipko Movement in the Himalayas
(D) Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya.
73.
Multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition for a variety of
reasons. Which one of the following is not an appropriate reasons
(A) Resistance of these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement of local
communities.
(B) Has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and
commercial crops.
(C) Have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir, have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling
floods at the time of excessive rainfall.
(D) Dams have been built not only just for irrigation but for electricity generation.
74.
75.
Which of the following is termed as the basic industry since all other industries heavy, medium and
light, depend on it for their machinery ?
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Cement Industry
(C) Aluminium Smelting
(D) Chemical Industries
76.
Used to be a British colony named Gold Coast. It became independent in 1957. It was among the first
countries in Africa to gain independence. It inspired other African Countries to struggle for independence.In
the above lines which country is talked about
(A) Zimbabwe
(B) Chile
(C) Namibia
(D) Ghana
77.
78.
Elections to the Constituent Assembly which made the Indian Constitution were held in
(A) July 1946
(B) December 1946
(C) November 1949
(D) January 1950
79.
80.
Definition
(i) A set of procedures for regulating the conduct of government and
political life in the country.
(b) Legislature
(ii) A body of persons having authority to initiate major policies,
make decisions and implement them on the basis of the Constitution
and laws of the country.
(c) Political Institution (iii) An assembly of peoples representatives with the power to enact
laws for a country.
(d) Reservations
(iv) An institution empowered to administer justice and provide a
Mechanism for the resolution of legal disputes.
(e) Executive
(v) A policy that declares some positions in government employment
And educational institutions reserved for people and communities
Who have been discriminated against, are disadvantaged & backward.
(A) a. (iv), b. (i), c. (iii), d. (v), e. (ii)
(B) a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (v), e. (ii)
(C) a. (v), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (iv), e. (ii)
(D) a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (ii), d. (v), e. (i)
81.
82.
Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka.
(i) In Belgium, the Dutch speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority
French speaking community..
(ii) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhale speaking
Majority.
(iii) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their culture,
Language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
(iv) The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible
Division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) Only (i) & (ii) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct
(D) All are correct
83.
84.
Arrange the following statements in a logical sequence and select the right answers by using the code
given below.
(i) But all political expression of social divisions need not be always dangerous.
(ii) Social divisions of one kind or the other exist in most countries.
(iii) Parties try to win political support by appealing to social divisions.
(iv) Some social differences may result in social divisions.
(A) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
85.
86.
87.
Characterstics
launched in 1999, aims at bringing the
assisted poor families above the poverty
line by organizing them into self help
groups. (SGSY)
(ii)
launched in 1995, aims to create selfemployment opportunities in rural areas
and small towns. (REGP)
(iii)
launched in 2000, additional central
assistance is given to states for basic
services. (PMGY)
(iv)
Passed in September 2005, provides 100
days assured employment every year to
every household in 200 districts. (NAR)
(v)
launched in 2004 in 150 most backward
districts of the country, open to all rural
poor who are in need of wage
employment and desire do manual
unskilled work.
(B) a. (v), b. (iv), c. (iii), d. (i), e. (ii)
(D) a. (iv), b. (v), c. (ii), d. (i), e. (iii)
(i)
88.
89.
Which of the following is not a criteria for counting the rank of any country under the Human Development
Report published by UNDP ?
(A) Life expectancy at birth.
(B) Gross enrolment ratio for three levels.
(C) Literacy rate for 15+ years population
(D) Infant Mortality rate per 1000
90.