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Q1
Q2
Q5
Q6
Q7
orbital holding the outermost electron becomes larger as we go down a column of the
periodic table. Although the number of protons in the nucleus also becomes larger, the
electrons in smaller shells and subshells tend to screen the outermost electron from some of
the force of attraction of the nucleus. Furthermore, the electron being removed when the
first ionization energy is measured spends less of its time near the nucleus of the atom, and
it therefore takes less energy to remove this electron from the atom. Elements with the
highest first ionization energies are therefore to be found in the upper right region of the
periodic table.
(A), (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect; students may not fully understand the factors affecting
the first ionization energy.
Q8
Cl
Both C-Cl and C-H are polar bonds, but with different magnitudes. From the structure
above, one can see that the vector addition of the polarity of the bonds gives a non-zero
value. On the other hand, if the compound is trans-HClC=CHCl, the compound would have
zero dipole moments.
(B) is incorrect; student may not know what dipole moments are. A dipole moment can
only be formed from molecules with bonds linking atoms with unequal electronegativities. In this case, the bond is between two identical atoms O2 molecule and
hence cannot give rise to dipole moments.
(C) is incorrect; student may be thinking that the molecular geometry of BF3 is pyramidal
and hence the molecule will be polar and have a non-zero dipole moment. Students
may not be aware that boron is able to form compounds without satisfying the octet
rule. The Lewis structure of BF3 has boron forming three covalent bonds. The
resultant electron pair structure and molecular geometry is therefore trigonal planar.
Although the B-F bond is polar, the trigonal planar arrangement cancels out the
polarity, giving the molecule zero dipole moment.
(D) is incorrect; students may not be familiar with shapes of molecules. The central atom
in ICl4 has two lone pairs and four single covalent bonds. The resultant electron pair
geometry of molecule, ICl4 is octahedral. Since it has two lone pairs, the four Cl
atoms forms a square planar geometry. Although the four I-Cl bonds are polar, they
are arranged in a square and the vector sum of the dipole moments is zero.
(E) is incorrect; students may not realize that the shape of CO2 is linear, and hence the
polarities of the two C=O bonds cancel out each other.
Q9
is the intermolecular bonds that needs to be broken. Ionic bonds are typically stronger than
other intermolecular bonds, hence ionic solids typically have higher melting points than
molecules. Comparing between ionic solids with ions of same stoichiometry and charge,
due to Coulombs law, the smaller the distance is between the anion and cation, the
stronger the ionic bond is. In this case, comparing between NaCl and NaF, fluoride ions
are smaller than chloride. Hence, NaF has a higher melting point than NaCl.
(A) is incorrect; NaCl has a melting point of 801 C. Student realizes that ionic solids
should have the highest melting point, but failed to realize that, given similar charge
of the ions, the smaller the size of the ions, the stronger the ionic bond and therefore
the higher the melting point.
(B) is incorrect; octane has a melting point of 57 C. Students may mistakenly think that
the higher the relative molar mass, the higher the melting point. C8H18.
(D) is incorrect; rubidium Chloride has a melting point of 718 C. Student realizes that
ionic solids should have the highest melting point, but failed to realize that, given
similar charge of the ions, the smaller the size of the ions, the stronger the ionic bond
and therefore the higher the melting point.
(E) is incorrect; hydrogen Chloride has a melting point of -114.2C. Students may not
realize that HCl is not an ionic solid, but is a molecular compound
Q10 CORRECT ANSWER: (A)
In this compound, the central atom S has one lone pair and four covalent bonds with the
atoms H, F, Cl and Br. The VSEPR electron pair geometry is therefore trigonal
bipyramidal. With one lone pair, the molecular geometry is a seesaw
A
C
B
The four different atoms attached to S can be either on the equatorial positions or the axial
positions. By simple permutation, there are six ways to divide the four different atoms into
the two positions. Since the molecules mirror image is not superimposable onto itself, it is
chiral. This multiplies the possible number of isomers by two, bringing the total number of
isomers to 12.
(B) is incorrect; student recognizes the concepts that lead to choice A but fail to recognize
that the molecules are chiral.
(C) is incorrect; students may be making a random guess.
(D) is incorrect; students may not have recognized that the lone pair geometry of the
molecule is trigonal bypyramidal. Instead, students may be thinking that the geometry
is tetrahedral.
(E) is incorrect; Students may have thought that the molecular geometry is tetrahedral and
did not consider the possibility that the molecule is chiral.
0.0125 g
L atm
0.082
(298.2 K )
0.125 L
K mol
=
= 74.94 g/mol.
24.8 mmHg.1atm
760 mmHg
Therefore, B6H10 has a molar mass of 74.94 g.
Q13 CORRECT ANSWER: (A)
The ideal gas equation is given by PV = nRT
n
P
125.6 103
=
=
= 46.8moles / m 3
V RT 8.31 (273 + 50)
The molar mass of NO2 is 14.0+(216.0) g/mol = 46.0g/mol.
Density = (46.846) g/m3 = 2153 g/m3 = 2.15g/L
(B), (C), (D), (E) Students may be confused by the unit conversions.
Q14 CORRECT ANSWER: (A)
Statement I is not correct:
For a non-ideal gas (CH4), at moderately high external pressure and constant temperature,
values of PV/(RT) < 1 are due to intermolecular attractions. As pressure rises and volume
of sample decreases, average intermolecular distance becomes smaller and molecular
attraction between molecules lowers the force of collision of molecules with the wall.
Therefore, P decreases and the numerator of PV/(RT) < 1.
Statement II is not correct:
At very high pressure and constant temperature, values of PV/(RT) >1 are due
predominantly to molecular volume. This is because the free volume between molecules is
significantly less than the container volume because of the volume of the molecules
themselves.
Statement III is correct:
At high pressure (and low temperature), non-ideal gas behaviour is most significant. This is
close to conditions under which gas liquefies.
Q15 CORRECT ANSWER: (A)
Statement I is true since PV = nRT. When T = 0K (absolute zero), V = 0.
Statement II us false since PV = nRT, only a plot of P vs. T will be a straight line.
Statement III is true. Two cases to consider. When the opposite arm is evacuated, no gas
exerts pressure on either mercury surfaces and the mercury levels in the two arms will be
the same. When a gas is in the opposite arm, it pushes the mercury level such that the level
rises in the closed-arm.
Statement IV is true from the postulate that collisions are elastic.
Q16 CORRECT ANSWER: (C)
This question tests your understanding of enthalpy. The quantity of heat needs to be
calculated based on the number of moles of isooctane. For one mole of isooctane, the
corresponding Horxn = (10,992 2) kJ mol1.
C8H18 (l) + 12 O2 (g) 8 CO2 (g) + 9 H2O (l)
= volume density
= 1000 mL 0.69 g mL1
= 690 g
The number of moles of isooctane
= mass molecular weight
= 690 g 114 g mol1
= 6.05 mol
The heat of combustion of 1 L (6.05 mol) isooctane = 5,496 kJ mol1 6.05 mol
=
33,251 kJ.
The quantity of heat transferred = 33,251 kJ since heat, a quantity of energy, cannot be
negative. The sign refers to the direction of heat transfer.
The mass of isooctane
(A) is incorrect; because it is simply the Horxn of the given reaction without taking into
account the number of moles of isooctane.
(B) is incorrect; because the Horxn was not divided by 2 in order to obtain the correct
number of moles.
(D) is incorrect; because the quantity of heat cannot be negative.
(E) is incorrect; because it is simply based on dividing the Horxn by the number of moles.
Ho = 91.8 kJ
Ho = 453.1 kJ
Ho = +725.4 kJ
(B) (E) are incorrect answers that arise from algebraic mistakes that may be made in
manipulating the equations.
Q18 CORRECT ANSWER: (D)
The system is the reactants and products, and the surroundings are the pistons, the cooling
system, and the rest of the car. Heat is released by the system, so q is negative. Work is
done by the system to push the pistons outward, so w is also negative.
Therefore, q = -325 J, w = -451 J, E = q + w = -325 J + (-451 J) = -776 J
Q19 CORRECT ANSWER: (B)
This question tests your understanding of the concepts of oxidation and reduction. By
definition, the oxidant should itself be reduced and the reductant should undergo oxidation.
Therefore, Fe(OH)3 contains Fe3+ which undergoes reduction to Fe2+, and I is oxidized to
I2 (via I).
(A) is incorrect; because it is the opposite of (B).
(C) is incorrect; because, while H+ can be reduced, Fe(OH)3 does not undergo oxidation.
(D) is incorrect; because Fe2+ does not get reduced and I2 does not get oxidized.
(E) is incorrect; because I does not get reduced and H+ does not get oxidized.
Q20 CORRECT ANSWER: (C)
This is a redox reaction. Mn is reduced from an oxidation state of +7 to +2, while S is
oxidized from an oxidation state of +4 to +6. The equation is balanced therefore with the
coefficients for MnO4 and HSO3 being 2 and 5, respectively.
(A) is incorrect; it is probably a result based just on the number of atoms.
(B) is incorrect; probably just a random guess.
(D) is incorrect; it is a correct coefficient for HSO3 with the corresponding coefficient of
4 for MnO4; but this is not the smallest integers possible.
(E) is obviously not correct.
The E0cell must be positive in order for the reaction to be spontaneous. This is because the
G will be negative (G0 = nFE0cell).
(A) is incorrect; because it is simply the difference in potential between the two written
reactions (2.34 0.74) and it is negative.
(B) is incorrect because the sign is incorrect.
(D) is incorrect; it is the answer that would be obtained if the half-cell potential for the
Cr/Cr3+ system were divided by the number of electrons (3). The number of electrons
transferred in the reaction does not affect the potential.
(E) is incorrect because it is simply the difference in potential between the two written
reactions.
Q22 CORRECT ANSWER: (E)
The magnitude of the equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction is a function of
temperature and change only with change in temperature.
(A) is incorrect; removing products as they are formed will shift the position of
equilibrium, but will not change the magnitude of the equilibrium constant.
(B) is incorrect; adding more of a reactant will shift the position of equilibrium, but will
not change the magnitude of the equilibrium constant.
(C) is incorrect; adding a catalyst will accelerate a reaction toward equilibrium, but will
not change the magnitude of the equilibrium constant.
(D) is incorrect; increasing pressure may change the equilibrium position of a reaction
involving gaseous reactants or products, but will not change the magnitude of the
equilibrium constant.
Q23 CORRECT ANSWER: (B)
From the kinetics point of view, when a chemical system is at equilibrium, the rate of the
forward reaction and that of the reverse reaction are equal, the concentrations of the
reactants and products, hence, have constant values.
(A) is incorrect; the concentrations of the reactants and those of the products are not
necessarily equal when a chemical reaction is at equilibrium.
(C) is incorrect; the forward and reverse reactions are still on when a chemical reaction is
at equilibrium.
(D) is incorrect; when a chemical reaction is at equilibrium, the reaction quotient, Q, has a
constant value which may be a minimum or a maximum depending on the direction
toward which the equilibrium is approached.
(E) is incorrect; when a chemical reaction is at equilibrium, the reaction quotient, Q, has a
constant value which may be a minimum or a maximum depending on the direction
toward which the equilibrium is approached.
Q24 CORRECT ANSWER: (D)
The equilibrium constant of the second equilibrium is a reciprocal of that of the first
equilibrium, i.e., 2.5 x 103 = 1/(4.00 x 104)
(A) is incorrect; the equilibrium constant of the second equilibrium is not equal to half of
that of the first equilibrium.
(B) is incorrect; the equilibrium constant of the second equilibrium is not equal to the
negative of that of the first equilibrium.
(C) is incorrect; the equilibrium constant of the second equilibrium is not equal to half of
the reciprocal of that of the first equilibrium.
(E) is incorrect; the reciprocal of 4.00 x 104 is 1/(4.00 x 104), not 4.00 x (1/104).
Q25 CORRECT ANSWER: (D)
The solubility constant for Ag2SO4 can be described by [Ag+]2[SO42+] = 1.710-5.
Considering the stoichiometry of the salt (1 mole SO42+ to 2 mole Ag+), and the common
ion provided by the 0.1 M sulfuric acid, the equation to solve is
(2x)2(x+0.01) = 1.710-5
(A) is incorrect; student did not include the common ion effect. The resultant equation
becomes (2x)2x = 1.710-5.
(B) is incorrect; student erroneously used the approximation that the common ion (SO42+ )
provided by the sulphuric acid is so high that one can ignore the ions provided by
Ag2SO4. The resultant equation to solve becomes
(2x)20.01= 1.710-5
(C) is incorrect; student has incomplete understanding of solubility constant. Student may
have used the following expression for the solubility constant of Ag2SO4:
[Ag+][SO42+] = 1.710-5, and also ignored the common ion effect.
(E) is incorrect; student understood the common ion effect but may have forgotten to
factor in the stoichiometry of the ions that make up the salt. Consequently, student
may have end up with this equation to solve: x(x+0.01)= 1.710-5.
Q26 CORRECT ANSWER: (E)
Increase in temperature increases the speed and hence the energy of molecular collisions.
The rate of chemical reaction is increased then because there are now more collisions with
energy exceeding the activation energy required for reaction.
(A) is incorrect; increase in temperature does not necessarily lead to an increase in the
number of collisions having the correct orientation of molecules.
(B)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C) After hydrolysis with dilute alkali, the sodium salt of benzoic acid was obtained. So,
benzoic acid cannot be obtained.
(D) Students may be making a wild guess.
(E) The sodium salt of benzoic acid cannot be extracted with diethyl ether.
Q60 CORRECT ANSWER: (A)
The tripeptide must contain both alanine and serine, and no other amino acids. So, there
must be two molecules of either one, but, from the data, we do not know which. (A)
satisfies these requirements; (B) is only a dipeptide; (C) also contains glycine; (D) contains
only alanine and serine, but one of the linkages is an ester rather than a peptide (amide)
bond; (E) contains only alanine and serine, but one of the linkages is through a urea, rather
than a peptide.