ONGC Previous Paper 2009

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. A single phase transformer is connected to a supply of voltage V and frequency f and is

supplying a load, connected across its secondary winding. If the supply voltage is
reduced from V to V/2, the flux established in the core will
1. decrease by nearly 50%
2. increase by nearly 50%
3. remain unchanged
4. be affected by amount of load and not by the applied voltage
2. Under magnetic saturation of the core of a transformer, the reactance parameters of its
equivalent circuit are affected such that
1. X1 and X2 increase while Xm does not change
2. X1 and X2 do not change while Xm decreases
3. X1 and X2 do not change while Xm increases
4. X1 and X2 decreases while Xm does not change
3. A single phase 2000/200 V, 10 kVA, two winding transformer is reconnected as a step-up
autotransformer with 2000 V winding as primary. The kVA rating of the autotransformer
shall be
1. 10 kVA
2. 11 kVA
3. 110 kVA
4. 220 kVA
4. The power factor at which power is drawn by a transformer is
1. very low under O.C. test but high under S.C. test
2. high under O.C. test but low under S.C. test
3. low both under O.C. and S.C. tests
4. high both under O.C. and S.C. tests

5. The O.C.C. of a shunt d.c. generator is represented by E = 12+66I. If the field resistance
is 70 ohms, the no-load voltage of the generator will be
1. 144 V
2. 210 V
3. 220 V
4. 288 V
6. In d.c. shunt motors, the developed torque is proportional to
1. induced e.m.f.
2. armature current
3. output power
4. line current
7. The speed of a separately excited d.c. motor can be controlled below base speed by (a)
armature resistance control and (b) supply voltage control. What happens to the slope of
modified speed-torque characteristics under the two methods?
1. It changes in both types of control
2. It remains unchanged in both types of control
3. It remains unchanged in armature resistance control while changes
in supply voltage control
4.

It remains unchanged in supply voltage control while changes in

armature resistance control

8. The polarity of interpoles used in d.c. machines is

1. same as the main pole ahead in generators while opposite of the
main pole ahead in motors
2. same as the main pole ahead ion motors while opposite of the main
pole ahead in generators
3. same as the main pole ahead in both motors and generators
4. opposite of the main pole ahead in both motors and generators
9. In synchronous generators, examine the following statements about voltage regulation:
1. Synchronous impedance method gives pessimistic results
2. MMF method gives optimistic results

3. In unsaturated machine both methods (synchronous impedance and MMF)

give same result
Which of the statements are correct?
o
o

1, 2 and 3
Only 1 and 2

Only 3

Only 2 and 3

10. Under symmetrical short circuit of a synchronous generator, the armature reaction is
1. magnetizing
2. demagnetizing
3. cross-magnetising
4. mainly magnetising
11. In synchronous generators, the fifth harmonic in induced emf can be eliminated by using
coils show chorded by an angle
1. 9o
2. 18o
3. 27 o
4. 36o
12. In induction motor operation, a slip greater than 1 refers to
1. regenerative braking
2. motoring in reverse direction
3. plugging
4. dynamic braking
13. As the applied voltage to an induction motor, operating under no-load, is reduced to half
1. its speed reduced and stator current increases
2. its speed reduced and stator current also reduces
3. its speed reduces but there is not change in stator current
4. there is no change in speed but stator current reduces

14. A 3-phase induction motor is delivering a load of 10 kW at a lagging p.f. of 0.5. If a 3phase capacitor bank of 7.3 kVAR is connected at its input, the resulting kVA drawn from
supply shall be (approximately)
1. 26.5
2. 24.5
3. 20.0
4. 14.0
15. An electric motor developing a starting torque of 10 Nm starts with a load of 6 Nm at its
shaft. If the acceleration at start is 2 rad/sec2 , the moment of inertia of the system must
be
1. 2 kg-m2
2. 2 N-m2
3. 0.5 kg-m2
4. 0.5 N-m2
16. A synchronous motor works as a synchronous condenser if
1. underexcited
2. overexcited
3. excited with 100% excitation
4. unexcited
17. In relation to damper bar winding in a synchronous motor, examine the following
statements:
1. Damper bars are provided in slots on poles
2. Damper bars improve excitation
3. Damper bars help the motor self start
4. Damper bars minimize hunting.
Which of the statements are correct?
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 4

5. 1, 3, 4
18. In large power ratings, synchronous motor is considered superior to induction motor,
since
1. it is less expensive
2. its efficiency is better
3. it can be operated at better power factor
4. its speed regulation is superior.
19. An induction motor drive is designed for two speed operation. For this purpose, the motor
is provided with two windings on its stator corresponding to 4 poles and 8 poles. While
the motor was running on 4 pole winding, a changeover to 8 pole winding is made. The
motor will
o

experience dynamic braking

experience regenerative braking

experience no braking but will slow down due to its inertia

draw dangerously high current

20. A d.c. shunt motor drive of 100 h.p. is run (a) at half the rated speed by armature voltage
control and (b) at 1.5 times the rated speed by field control. Its power rating in the two
cases shall be modified as

100 h.p. in both cases

50 h.p. in case (a) and 150 h.p. in case (b)

50 h.p. in case (a) and 100 h.p. in case (b)

100 h.p. in case (a) and 150 h.p. in case (b)

21. A single phase full controlled rectifier can work as inverter, if the firing angle is between

0o and 90o

60o and 90o

90o and 180o

0o and 60o

22. When d.c. voltage is converted to a.c. by an inverter, PWM technique is used to

control only the output voltage from within the inverter

control both the output voltage and frequency from within the
inverter

control the output current

reduce losses in the inverter

23. A thyristor which is in ON state is to be switched OFF. For this purpose a reverse bias is
applied across it. Examine the following statements regarding flow of current from anode
to cathode (forward current):

Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is purely resistive

Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is dominantly inductive

Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is dominantly

capacitive

Forward current will immediately stop flowing.

Which of the above statements are correct?

o
o

Only 4
Only 1

Only 2 and 3

Only 2

24. In a 3-phase full controlled thyristor bridge rectifier operating under continuous
conduction mode, each thyristor conducts for
o

180o and two thyristors conduct at a time

120o and three thyristors conduct at a time

180o and three thyristors conduct at a time

120o and two thyristors conduct at a time

25. A single phase fully controlled rectifier is feeding a d.c. motor. At a = 0o, the armature
voltage is 200 V and motor speed is 1000 rpm. Neglecting armature resistance and
considering continuous conduction, the armature voltage and speed at a = 60o will be
o

100 V and 500 rpm

100 V and 1000 rpm

200 V and 500 rpm

100 V and speed will depend upon load

26. The grading capacitors are provided across the series connected interrupters in EHV
circuit breakers for

reducing short circuit current

improving power factor

equalizing distribution of recovery voltage across the interrupters

preventing inductive current chopping.

27. The minimum cost operating condition for a thermal plant is that
o

the larger units should generate more power as compared to smaller units

the smaller units should generate more power as compared to larger units

the incremental cost rate of the units be proportional to their rating

the incremental cost rate of all the units be equal

28. The effect of earth on a three-phase transmission line is to

o

increase its capacitance and decrease inductance

decrease its capacitance and increase inductance

increase its capacitance without affecting inductance

increase its inductance without affecting capacitance.

29. In case of a transmission line if the voltage regulation is negative, then the load power
factor is
1. zero
2. lagging
3. unity
4. leading
30. The voltage gradient at the surface of a cable, having a conductor of radius r and a sheath
of radius R, is minimum when
1. R = r/e
2. R = r
3. R =er
4. R = er

where e = natural exponent

31. In an N-bus power system with M-PV buses, the size of the Jacobian matrix for load flow
calculation is
1. NN
2. (N-M) (N-M)
3. (N-1) (N-1)
4. (N-M-1) (N-M-1)
32. The zero-sequence equivalent circuit of a delta-star transformer, with solidly grounded
neutral, is

1.

2.

3.

4.
33. The plug setting multiplier of a 5 Amp. IDMT relay for a fault current of 4000 Amp. and
a relay setting of 125%, with a C.T. ratio of 80 will be
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 8
34. If the cost of electricity generation is to be reduced then
1. the diversity factor and load factor both should be low
2. the diversity factor and load factor both should be high
3. the diversity factor should be high while the load factor should be low
4. the diversity factor should be low and the load factor should be high
35. The coefficients of reflection for voltage and current for an open ended line are
respectively

1. -1.0 and -1.0

2. -1.0 and 1.0
3. 1.0 and 1.0
4. 1.0 and -1.0
36. If G is the MVA rating of a synchronous machine with inertia constant H sec. and
operating frequency f, then the angular momentum M of the machine, in MJsec/electrical degree, is

1.

2.

3.

4.
37. Circular grooves are provided underneath the insulator disc for
1. reducing the weight of the disc
2. improving disc strength
3. increasing cooling of the disc
4. increasing the creepage distance
38. The arc formation in vacuum circuit breaker is initiated by
1. field emission
2. thermal emission
3. photo emission
4. secondary emission
39. The series reactors are used to
1. limit over voltages
2. control Ferranti effect

3. limit fault current

4. improve stability
40. If the spacings Dab, Dbc and Dca between the phases a, b, and c of a three phase
transmission line are not equal, then the equivalent spacing Deq can be calculated as
o

(Dab + Dbc + Dca)/3

(Dab * Dbc * Dca)/3

(Dab + Dbc + Dca)1/3

(Dab * Dbc * Dca)1/3

41. For calculating fault current for a double line to ground fault in an ungrounded system
o

positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in series

positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in parallel

positive and negative sequence networks are connected in parallel

positive and negative sequence networks are connected in series

42. The unit of R, the regulation constant of turbine speed governor, is

o

Hz/MW

MW/sec

MW/Hz

MW-Hz

43. If in a power system the line to line base voltage is VB kV and the 3-phase base MVA is
SB, then the base impedance of the system is

44. The pumped storage hydro plants are used as

o

Base load plants

Peak load plants

Mid-range plants

both (A) and (B)

45. The specified operating criteria for the proper operation of interconnected power system
is , that Area Control Error (ACE) must be zero at least once in a
o

1 sec period

1 min period

10 min period

1 hr period

46. If a network has b branches and n nodes, then the number of independent KVL equations
for the network are
o

b-n

n-b+1

b-n-1

b-n+1

47. What will be the value of ZL for maximum power transfer condition in the circuit shown
in Fig. Q.47?

o
o

(2-j2)W
(2+j2)W

(3-j2)W

(3+j2)W

48. Which of the following statements does not apply to series RLC circuit?
o

The current and the admittance are maximum at resonance

The phase angle of the impedance changes from +90o to 90o as the frequency is
varied from 0 to

The total stored energy in the circuit is constant at resonance

The power factor is unity at resonance

49. The average value of a sine wave over a full cycle is

o
o

zero

50. A two port network is reciprocal and symmetrical, if ABCD parameters satisfy the
conditions:
o

AB-CD = 1 and A = D

AD-BC = 1 and A = D

AC-BD = 1 and A = D

AD-BC = 1 and B = C

51. Tellegens theorem is applicable to

o

linear time invariant networks only

non-linear time invariant network only

any network satisfying Kirchoffs current and voltage laws

linear time variant network only

52. The circuit element having identical properties for forward and reverse direction of
current flow through it, is called a
o

linear element

irreversible element

bilateral element

unilateral element

53. A fundamental cut set contains

o

only one tree branch and minimum number of links

only one link and minimum number of tree branches

only tree branches

only links

54. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q. 54 if the switch is opened at t = 0 and the initial current
through the switch and L1 is 10 A, then the current i(t) and the voltage v(t) of t > 0 are

o
o

0 A, 0 V
0 A, V

6 A, 12 V

10 A, 20 V

55. The Thevenin and Norton equivalents of network A at points X, Y (Fig. Q.55) can not be
found if

o
o

Networks A and B are coupled

A is an active network

B is a passive network

B is a non-linear network

56. If XY= 0 then XY is equal to

o

X+Y

o
o
o

57. The value of base x will be

(101)x + (110)7 = (101)8 + (29)16
o
o

2
7

10

58. Consider the counter circuit shown in Fig. Q.58.

If the present state QA QB of the counter is QA = 1 & QB = 0, the next state of the
counter will be
o
o

QA = 1, QB = 1
QA = 1, QB = 0

QA = 0, QB = 1

QA = 0, QB = 0

59. In 8085 A mp, stack pointer is a 16 bit register which is

o

Incremented by 2 whenever data is pushed on to stack

Incremented by 2 whenever data is popped from stack

Incremented by 1 whenever data is pushed on the stack

Neither incremented nor decremented a result of PUSH and POP operation

60. The instruction LDA 0805H is used to input a data from an I/O device. Choose the
correct statement
o

It is possible only if device is interfaced using memory mapped I/O

It is possible only if device is interfaced using I/O mapped I/O

Instead of LDA 0805H, the instruction STA 0805H should be used

only IN PORT instruction can be used in 8085 A mp.

61. The macro RTL implemented by INR M in 8085 A microprocessor is

o

(M) (M) +1

(H,L)(H,L) + 1

M(H,L) M(H,L) +1

(H) (H) + 1, (L) (L) +1

62. In an 8085 A microprocessor when INTR interrupt, becomes active, the control will be
transferred to
o

0024 H memory location

003C H memory location

anywhere in the memory decided by the interrupting device

0034 H memory location

63. In an 8255 programmable peripheral interface both the groups are programmed in made
0. The possible number of combination in which the ports can be programmed is
o

16

64. The meaning of direct addressing mode is

o

The address of operand is available in register pair

The address of operand is available in PC

The data is directly available in the instruction itself

The address of the operand is available in the instruction itself.

65. The schematic symbol shown in following Fig. Q. 65 is that of

o
o

Zener diode
Esaki diode

Varistor

Varactor

66. The V-I characteristic shown in Fig. Q. 66 is that of

o
o

PN junction diode
Tunnel diode

Zener diode

Varactor

67. In a four variable V-K Map shown in Fig. simplified expression for X is

o
o
o
o

68. In following circuit assuming voltage drop of LED as 2 V, the LED current when
transistor is saturated will be

o
o

12 mA
9.7 mA

6 mA

5.8 mA

69. In the following circuit the collector voltage VC is (assume VBE = 0.7 V)

o
o

-17.4 V
5.6 V

12.3 V

17.4 V

70. From the following V-K map the simplified expression for Z is

o
o
o

71. The method of absolute measurement of resistance is

o

Ohm method

Potentiometer method

Lorenz method

Rayleigh method

72. The instrument which gives the value of the quantity to be measured in terms of
instrument constants and its deflection is called the
o

absolute instrument

secondary instrument

recording instrument

integrating instrument

73. The current passing through a resistor of (500.2)W is (4.00.02)A. The limiting error in
the computed value of power will be
o

0.2 %

0.4 %

0.9 %

1.4 %

74. The coil of an instrument has 40 turns. The mean length of the coil is 25 mm and the
axial length of the coil is 20 mm. If the flux density is 0.1 T and the coil current is 20
mA, the torque on the moving coil will be
o

40106 N-m

20106 N-m

40103 N-m

20103 N-m

75. In thermocouple element, heat energy transferred to the hot junction is converted to
electrical energy by
o

Johnsons effect

Seebeck effect

Hall effect

Faradays effect

76. The scale of dynamometer type instrument marked in terms of RMS value would be
o

uniform throughout

non-uniform, crowded near full scale

non-uniform, crowded at the beginning

non-uniform, crowded around mid-scale

77. The harmonic distortion percentage is accurately measure with

o

V.T.V.M.

An oscilloscope

Harmonic distortion meter

Square wave generator

78. A thermometer has a time constant of 3.5 s. It is quickly taken from a temperature 0oC to
water bath at 100oC. What temperature will be indicated after 1.5 s?
o

100oC

50oC

35oC

15oC

79. A digital voltmeter employees an ADC which requires a start pulse, uses an analog
comparator and has a relatively fixed conversion time independent of applied voltage.
The ADC is
o

digital ramp converter

dual slope converter

successive approximation converter

flash type

80. In measurements made using Q-meter, impedance elements should be connected in

1. star
2. delta
3. series
4. parallel
81. The measured values of iron losses of a magnetic specimen are 15 W and 25 W at, 40 Hz
and 60 Hz respectively at constant flux density. The respective hysteresis and eddy
current losses at 50 Hz are
1. 14.584 W and 5.208 W
2. 7.5 W and 12.5 W
3. 5.208 W and 14.548 W
4. 5 W and 10 W
82. The most common and best bridge method for precise measurement of inductance over a
wise range is
1. Maxwells
2. Hays
3. Wien
4. Anderson
83. The AC bridge that can be used for accurate determination of excitation frequency is
1. Wien bridge
2. Schering bridge
3. Anderson bridge
4. De Sauty bridge
84. A thermo-couple arrangement is to be used to measure temperature in the range of 700800oC. Point out the pair that would be most suitable for this application
1. Copper-constantan
2. Chromel-alumel
3. Platinum-platinum rhodium

4. Iron-constantan
85. Rotameter is employed for measuring
1. flow
2. rotation
3. specific gravity
4. viscosity
86. Consider the following statements regarding the stability of a control system
1. Gain margin and phase margin are negative
2. Gain margin and phase margin are positive
3. All roots of characteristic equation must lie in left half of s-plane
4. Gain margin is positive and phase margin is negative
Out of these statements
5. 1 and 3 are correct
6. 1 and 2 correct
7. 2 and 3 are correct
8. 3 and 4 are correct
87. In the feedback system shown below, if the steady state error for a step input is 0.05, then
the value of K is

1. 0.05
2. 0.95
3. 1.9
4. 19
88. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I (Location of poles on s-plane)

1.

2.

3.

4.
List II (Impulse Response)

5.

6.

7.

8.
Codes:
A

a.
b.

4
3

1
4

2
2

3
1

c.

d.

89. The Nyquist plot for a control system is shown in Fig. Q.89. The Bode plot of |G| for the
same system will be

a.

b.

c.

d.

90. A unity feedback second order control system is characterized by

where
J = moment of inertia
B = viscous damping coefficient
K = system gain
The transient response specification which is not affected by variation of system gain is
the

a. peak overshoot
b. damped frequency of oscillations
c. setting time
d. rise time

91. The second order system X = AX has

and natural frequency wn are respectively

. The value of its damping factor x

a. 0.5 and 1
b. 1 and 1
c. 0.707 and 2
d. 1 and 2
92. A negative unit feedback system has forward path transfer function as Ks/(s2+2s+25).
The break in point(s) of root locus occur at
a. s=5
b. s=-5
c. both A & B
d. s = 25
93. In an electrical analog of mechanical system of rotational motion, using torque-voltage
analogy, inertial and viscous damper are respectively analogous to
a. Inductance and capacitance
b. Capacitance and resistance
c. Inductance and resistance
d. Capacitance and inductance
94. The characteristic equation of a feedback system is given by

For this system, stable closed loop behavior can be ensured when gain K is such that
a. 0 K 40
b. 0 K 10
c. 0 K

d. 0 K 20

95. The eigen values of the matrix

are

a. (a+1), 0
b. a, 0
c. (a-1), (a-1)
d. 0, 0
96. A first order linear system is initially relaxed. For a unit step signal u(t), the response of
the system is
(1-e-3t), t > 0
If a signal 3. u(t) + d(t) is applied to the same initially relaxed system, the response will
be
a. 3(1-e-3t) .u(t)+ e-3t. d(t)
b. (1-3e-3t) .u(t)
c. 3(1+e-3t) .u(t)
d. 3.u(t)
97. Consider the following statements regarding the non linear system
1. dead zone can be classified as single valued non-linearity
2. hysteresis and backlash can be classified as double valued non-linearity
3. Coulomb friction can be classified as double valued non-linearity
Out of these statements
a. 1 and 3 are correct
b. all three are correct
c. 1 and 2 are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
90. Consider the system

.
The condition for complete state controllability and complete observability is
a. d1 > 0, b2 > 0, b1 and d2 can be anything
b. d1 > 0, d2 > 0, b1 and b2 can be anything
c. b1 > 0, b2 > 0, d1 and d2 can be anything
d. b1 > 0, b2 > 0, d1 < 0 and d2 can be anything
91. The semilog plot of gain characteristic (BODE plot) of a network is shown in the Fig.
Q.99.

The gain cross over frequency wc is

a. 20 rad/sec
b. 30 rad/sec
c. 40 rad/sec
d. 25 rad/sec
92. The pole-zero configuration of a phase lead compensating network is given by

a.

b.

c.

d.