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MOCK TEST (SBI Clerk)


INSTRUCTIONS
This practice test contains five sections each has 40 questions. Answer to all the questions is essential.
Every question has five options, of which only one is correct.The candidates are advised to read all options
thoroughly.
There is negative marking equivalent to 1/4th of the mark allotted to the specific question for wrong
answer.
Time : 135 minutes

r
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Section - I : General Awareness


Sports coaches receive which of the following awards?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(b) Dronacharya Award
(c) Arjuna Award
(d) Magyasya Award
(e) None of these
Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates?
(a) Microsoft Secrets
(b) The Road Ahead
(c) The Elephant Paradigm
(d) How Nations Compete
(e) None of these
The expansion for the BIS, in the context of the banking
industry is
(a) Bank for International Settlements
(b) Bank for Industrial Settlements
(c) Bank for Industrial Sectors
(d) Bank for International Services
(e) None of these
In 1955, Imperial Bank of India, a leading commercial bank of
that time, was nationalised and renamed as
(a) Central Bank of India (b) Bank of India
(c) Indian Bank
(d) State Bank of India
(e) None of these
Where is the headquarters of the UNO ?
(a) Geneva
(b) The Hague
(c) New York
(d) Paris
(e) None of these

Max. Marks : 200

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

Vyas Samman is awarded annually by


(a) Azim Premji Foundation
(b) Times Group
(c) KK Birla Foundation
(d) Ministry of Culture
(e) None of these
The Last War was written by
(a) Sandipan Deb
(b) Madhumita Mukherjee
(c) Vinod Mehta
(d) Harsh Mander
(e) None of these
Who was the first Indian woman who won the gold medal in
Asian games?
(a) PT Usha
(b) Sunita Rani
(c) Shiny Abraham
(d) Kamaljeet Sandhu
(e) None of these
When is the World Population Day observed?
(a) July 8
(b) July 10
(c) July 11
(d) July 19
(e) None of these
Which of the following term is associated with the game of
Cricket?
(a) Bouncer
(b) Love
(c) Goal
(d) Mid Court
(e) Collision
What is the full form of FINO, a term we see frequently in
financial newspapers?
(a) Financial Investment Network and Operations
(b) Farmers Investment in National Organisation
(c) Farmers Inclusion News and Operations
(d) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
(e) None of these

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12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

Which of the following terms is NOT a financial term?


(a) Investment
(b) El Nino effect
(c) Core banking Solution(d) RTGS
(e) All are financial terms
Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank?
(a) Corporation Bank
(b) United Bank of India
(c) Vijaya Bank
(d) Bank of Maharashtra
(e) Axis Bank
Who is the author of book Durbar?
(a) Amitav Ghosh
(b) Tavleen Singh
(c) Amit Chaudhuri
(d) Arundhati Roy
(e) None of these
Which of the following rates is/are NOT decided by RBI?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Repo rate
(c) Prime Lending Rate (d) Cash Reserve Ratio
(e) None of these
During which plan was the National Bank for Agriculture
and Rural Development (NABARD) established to facilitate
the rural credit and agricultural development?
(a) Third Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan (d) Eighth Five Year Plan
(e) None of these
Which of the following names is not associated with the
insurance business in India?
(a) Bajaj Allianz
(b) GIC
(c) LIC
(d) GE Money
(e) None of these
Which of the following is not a tax/duty levied by the
Government of India?
(a) Service Tax
(b) Education Cess
(c) Customs Duty
(d) Toll Tax
(e) None of these
Which of the following schemes was launched to promote
basic education in India and attract children in the school
going age to attend the classes?
(a) Operation Flood
(b) Pulse Polio Abhiyan
(c) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(d) Operation Black Board
(e) None of these
Who is the first woman to win Nobel prize?
(a) Marie Curie
(b) Pearls Buck
(c) Bertha Von Suffner
(d) Mother Teresa
(e) None of these
Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of
(a) Music
(b) Social Service
(c) Literature
(d) Classical Dance
(e) None of these
INS Airavat is Indias
(a) Naval Ship
(b) Amphibious Ship
(c) Submarine
(d) Army Command Centre
(e) None of these

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Sebi recently allowed the valid address proof as


(a) Voter ID
(b) Passport
(c) Aadhar Card
(d) Driving License
(e) None of these
As per RBI Monetary and Credit Policy (April 1, 2014) Cash
Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Repo rate stood at
(a) 3.75% and 8.0% respectively
(b) 3.75 and 8.25% respectively
(c) 4.0% and 8.0% respectively
(d) 4.0% and 8.25% respectively
(e) None of these
Ennore Port in Tamil Nadu was re-named as
(a) Rajeev Gandhi Port
(b) Kamrajar Port
(c) MG Ram Chandran Port
(d) Indira Gandhi Port
(e) None of these
Which of the Indian companies have been named among
the worlds most admired companies by Fortune magazine?
(a) Tata Steel and ONGC (b) BHEL and ONGC
(c) BHEL and Tata Steel (d) RIL and ONGC
(e) None of these
As per WTOs International Trade Statistics 2013, Indias
share in global export is
(a) 1.5%
(b) 1.6%
(c) 1.7%
(d) 1.8%
(e) None of these
Which of the following reports is not prepared and published
by the World Economic Forum?
(a) World Development Report
(b) Global Information Technology Report
(c) Global Risk Report
(d) The travel and tourism Competitiveness Report
(e) None of these
Consider the following facts about cooperative banks in
India:
I. Urban Cooperative banks are regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India and governed by the Banking Regulations
Act, 1949, and Banking Laws (Cooperative Societies)
Act, 1965.
II. Rural cooperative banks are regulated by state registrar
of cooperatives.
Choose the correct codes of answers
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I and II are correct
(d) Either I or II is correct
(e) Neither I nor II is correct
Which state in India has the highest Infant Mortality rate in
India in 2013?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) M.P.
(e) None of these

3
31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36

37.

38.

39.

40.

Which among the following countries has won the


2014-Uber Cup tournament?
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) India
(e) None of these
"Ahn Dai-Hee", has been named as new Prime Minister of
________?
(a) North Korea
(b) Nairobi
(c) South Korea
(d) Egypt
(e) None of these
Which among the following constituencies has recorded
highest voter turnout in the recently concluded Lok Sabha
election?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Bishnupur
(c) Dhubri
(d) Kanthi
(e) None of these
Madhav Mantri, who passed away recently, was India's
oldest ___?
(a) Hockey Player
(b) Football Player
(c) Cricketer
(d) Tennis Player
(e) None of these
Which among the following movies has won the top Palme
d'Or award for best film at the 67th Cannes International
Film Festival?
(a) Winter Sleep
(b) Le Meraviglie
(c) Mommy
(d) Adieu au Langage
(e) None of these
The 23rd World Economic Forum on East Asia was recently
concluded in____?
(a) Thailand
(b) Philippines
(c) Vietnam
(d) Indonesia
(e) None of these
Which among the following countries has won the AFC
Women's Asian Football Cup 2014?
(a) Vietnam
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) Australia
(e) None of these
"Cristiano Ronaldo", world's most marketable footballer
belongs to which country?
(a) Argentina
(b) Spain
(c) Portugal
(d) Brazil
(e) None of these
Recently, which country has announced it would start an
anti-terrorism partnership fund, which will be used to help
train other countries to take on rising extremism?
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Canada
(e) None of these
The Daroji Sanctuary exclusively created for the preservation
of Indian Sloth bears is located in which state?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of these

Section - II : General English

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-52) : Read the following passage carefully


and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases
are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering
some of the questions.
In the second week of August 1998, just a few days after the
incidents of bombing the US embassies in Nairobi and Dar-esSalaam, a high-powered, brain-storming session was held near
Washington D.C., to discuss various aspects of terrorism. The
meeting was attended by ten of Americas leading experts in
various fields such as germ and chemical warfare, public health,
disease control and also by the doctors and the law-enforcing
officers. Being asked to describe the horror of possible bio-attack,
one of the experts narrated the following gloomy scenario.
A culprit in a crowded business centre or in a busy shopping
mall of a town empties a test tube containing some fluid, which in
turn creates an unseen cloud of germ of a dreaded disease like
anthrax capable of inflicting a horrible death within 5 days on any
one who inhales it. At first 500, or so victims feel that they have
mild influenza which may recede after a day or two. Then the
symptoms return again and their lungs start filling with fluid. They
rush to local hospitals for treatment, but the panic-stricken people
may find that the medicare services run quickly out of drugs due
to excessive demand. But no one would be able to realise that a
terrorist attack has occurred. One cannot deny the possibility
that the germ involved would be of contagious variety capable of
causing an epidermic. The meeting concluded that such attacks,
apart from causing immediate human tragedy, would have dire
long-term effects on the political and social fabric of a country by
way of ending peoples trust on the competence of the
government.
The experts also said that the bombs used in Kenya and
Tanzania were of the old-fashion variety and involved quantities
of high explosives, but new terrorism will prove to be more deadly
and probably more elusive than hijacking an aeroplane or a gelignite
of previous decades. According to Bruce Hoffman, an American
specialist on political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific
manifesto - to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system
and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or
hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing
so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off.
Political terrorists want a lot of people watching but not a lot of
people dead. Old terrorism sought to change the world while the
new sort is often practised by those who believe that the world
has gone beyond redemption, he added.
Hoffman says, New terrorism has no long-term agenda but
is ruthless in its short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous
cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest
against the West in general and the US in particular. Its
perpetrators may be religious fanatics or diehard opponent of a
government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply
intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain on the victim.

4
41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

In the context of the passage, the culprits act of emptying


a test tube containing some fluid can be classified as
(a) a terrorist attack
(b) an epidemic of a dreaded disease
(c) a natural calamity
(d) panic created by an imaginary event
(e) None of these
In what way would the new terrorism be different from that
of the earlier years ?
A. More dangerous and less baffling
B. More hazardous for victims
C. Less complicated for terrorists
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and B only
(d) All the three
(e) None of these
What was the immediate provocation for the meeting held
in August 1998 ?
(a) the insistence of Americas leading
(b) the horrors of possible bio-attacks
(c) a culprits heinous act of spreading germs
(d) peoples lack of trust in the government
(e) None of these
What could be the probable consequences of bio-attacks,
as mentioned in the passage ?
A. several deaths
B. political turmoil
C. social unrest
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) A and B only
(e) All the three
The authors purpose of writing the above passage seems
to explain
(a) the methods of containing terrorism
(b) the socio-political turmoil in African countries
(c) the deadly strategies adopted by modern terrorists
(d) reasons for killing innocent people
(e) the salient features of terrorism of yester years
According to the author of the passage, the root cause of
terrorism is
A. religious fanatism
B. socio-political changes in countries
C. the enormous population growth
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) A and B only
(e) All the three
The phrase such attacks, as mentioned in the last sentence
of the second paragraph, refers to
(a) the onslaught of an epidemic as a natural calamity
(b) bio-attack on political people in the government
(c) attack aimed at damaging the reputation of the
government
(d) bio-attack monoeuvred by unscrupulous elements
(e) None of these

48.

The sole objective of the old terrorism, according to


Hoffman, was to
(a) plant bombs to kill innocent people
(b) remove colonial power or capitalist system
(c) make people realise the incompetence of the
government
(d) give a setback to socio-political order
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 49-50) : Choose the word which is most
OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
49. gloomy
(a) discouraging
(b) disgusting
(c) bright
(d) tragic
(e) versatile
50. cacophonous
(a) loud
(b) melodious
(c) sonorous
(d) harsh
(e) distant
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-52) : Choose the word which is most nearly
the SAME in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
51. perpetrators
(a) opponents
(b) followers
(c) sympathisers
(d) leaders
(e) monoeuvrers
52. elusive
(a) harmful
(b) fatal
(c) destructive
(d) baffling
(e) obstructing
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 53-57) : Below each sentence has given four
possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b), (c)
or (d) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response
on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), (c)
or (d). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate
(e) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a No
improvement response will be signified by the letter (e).
Errors may be in grammar, appropriate word usage or
idioms. There may be a necessary word missing or there
may be a word which should be removed.
53. It was my business to cross the bridge to explore the
bridgehead and to find out the extent to which the enemy
had advanced.
(a) how much
(b) the extent where
(c) the point where
(d) limit at which
(e) No improvement
54. The world is becoming increasingly polarised between the
rich and the poor.
(a) among rich
(b) around the rich
(c) in between the rich
(d) amid rich persons
(e) No improvement

5
55.

56.

57.

I laid all the facts before him so that he could make his own
Judgement.
(a) laid all the facts in front of him
(b) lay all the facts before him
(c) lay all the facts in front of him
(d) did I lay all the facts before his
(e) No improvement
If only she had told me about her problem I would have
helped her.
(a) would help
(b) could help
(c) had helped
(d) would not help
(e) No improvement
Apollo was worshipped as long as the Roman Empire
continued.
(a) was continued
(b) ruled
(c) lasted
(d) did not exists
(e) No improvement

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-62): In each question below a sentence


with four words printed in bold type is given. These are indicated
as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words may be either
wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.
Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any.
The letter of that word is your answer. If all he four words are
correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence,
mark (e) i.e. All Correct as your answer.
58. His derogatory (a) / remark humiliated (b) / me, but I kept my
cool (c) / and didnt allow my work to be affected (d) / by it.
All Correct (e).
59. The suspected (a) / criminals (b) / who were accused (c) / of
snatching ladies necklesses (d) / were finally booked. All
Correct (e).
60. The objective (a) / of the programme (b) / is to entertainment
(c)/ the spectators (d) /. All Correct (e).
61. Enforcement of laws and clean and efficiency (a) /
administration are fundamental (b) / functions of the
government machinery (c) / known as bureaucracy (d) /.
All Correct (e).
62. The quantification (a) / of intellectual property is more
complicating (b) / than most pricing because today it is
relatively (c) / inexpensive (d) / to make copies of most
intellectual property. All Correct (e).
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 63-67): Rearrange the following six sentences
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below
them.
(A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at
once truly raise our productivity or merely help us spin our
wheels faster?
(B) More important, theyre exploring what can be done about
it how we can work smarter, live smarter and put our beloved
gadgets back in their proper place, with us running them,
not the other way around.

(C)

The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and


communicate so readily also disrupt our work, our thoughts
and what little is left of our private lives.
(D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and
the economic costs of the interrupted life in dollars,
productivity and dysfunction.
(E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and metnal channel
switching taking on our ability to think clearly work
effectively and function as healthy human beings?
(F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts
and information-technology researchers have begun to
explore those questions in detail.
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
64. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
66. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
67. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)
sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-72) : In each of these questions, each
sentence has four bold words or phrases marked (a), (b), (c) and
(d). Choose one word or phrase that must be changed for the
sentence to be correct. If all the four world or phrases are
gramatically correct in the context of sentence, mark (e) i.e., No
error as your answer.
68.

Engines used (a) in space shuttles are much larger (b) and
more strong (c) than the ones used (d) in jet planes. No
error (e).

69.

Banglore is a beautiful city (a) which in (b) people have


successfully blended (c) the modem with (d) the traditional.
No error (e).

70.

The bus (a) was hired (b) by (c) the ladies for its picnic (d).
No error (e).

71

The ways of (a) travelling has changed (b) dramatically since


(c) the late nineteenth century (d). No error (e).

72.

Usually (a) the climate in mountainous areas becomes much


(b) windy (c) at higher (d) altitudes. No error (e).

6
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 73-80) : In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
the appropriate word in each case.
The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure
more 73 in governance. The Prime Ministers announcement that
his Government is 74 drafting legislation to establish the citizens
right to information is indeed welcome . Though the talk on the
right to information is not new, we may 75 the bill to be brought
early this time. The previous Government had set up a high-level
committee to prepare a draft bill. But nothing has been heard
about the matter since, 76 the committee did quite some work.
The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution
cannot be 77 further. Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a foreign
judge once said, while 78 the unwarranted secrecy in an
administrative system. When those in authority know that
people have the right to ask questions and the government is
under the 79 to provide them with answers, 80 of authority, or
of public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to
happen.
73. (a) strictness
(b) rudeness
(c) leniency
(d) economy
(e) transparency
74. (a) personally
(b) busy
(c) not
(d) reluctantly
(e) absolutely
75. (a) expect
(b) wait
(c) try
(d) frustrate
(e) appeal
76. (a) even
(b) as
(c) because
(d) until
(e) though
77. (a) found
(b) expected
(c) delayed
(d) looked
(e) longed
78. (a) nurturing
(b) criticising
(c) demanding
(d) appreciating
(e) upholding
79. (a) pretention
(b) affect
(c) substance
(d) obligation
(e) property
80. (a) misuse
(b) governance
(c) dishonour
(d) curbing
(e) breach
r

Section - III : Quantitative Aptitude

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-90): What will come in place of question


mark (?) in the following questions?
81.

3
4
5
of of
of 1015 = ?
5
7
12
(a) 220
(b) 340
(c) 240
(d) 145
(e) None of these

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

1.5 0.025 + (?)2 = 0.1


(a) 0.28
(c) 0.25
(d) None of these

(b) 0.27
(d) 0.235

1.52 0.0225 = ?
(a) 0.3375
(c) 32.75
(e) None of these

(b) 3.275
(d) 0.0375

0.0289 12 1.5 = ?
(a) 1.36
(b)
(c) 13.90
(d)
(e) None of these
125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500
(a) 32
(b)
(c) 23
(d)
(e) None of these
45% of 750 25% of 480 = ?
(a) 216
(b)
(c) 245
(d)
(e) None of these

87.

758.5 753.8 = ( 75)

88.

(a) 4.9
(c) 3.3
(e) None of these
39798 + 3798 + 378 = ?
(a) 49532
(c) 43974
(e) None of these

89.

56
46

217.50
236.50

(b) 3.6
(d) 4.7

(b) 43984
(d) 43576

7
3
1
+ 7 1 = ?
11
11 2

(a) 13

10
11

9
11
(e) None of these
1080 12 10 = ?
(a) 900
(c) 120
(e) None of these

(c) 14

90.

2.06
14.80

(b) 14

6
11

(d) 10

17
22

(b) 90
(d) 12

DIRECTIONS (Qs.91-95) : Study the following chart to answer


the questions given below :
Villages

% population below poverty line

A
B
C
D
E
F
G

45
52
38
58
46
49
51

7
Proportion of population of seven villages in 1995
A
G
13%
15%

92.

B
16%

F
13%

93.
C
8%

E
18%

91.

D
17%
In 1996, the population of villages A as well as B is increased
by 10% from the year 1995. If the population of village A in
1995 was 5000 and the percentage of population below
poverty line in 1996 remains same as in 1995, find
approximately the population of village B below poverty
line in 1996.
(a) 4000
(b) 45000
(c) 2500
(d) 3500
(e) None of these

94.

95.

If in 1997 the population of village D is increased by 10%


and the population of village G is reduced by 5% from 1995
and the population of village G in 1995 was 9000, what is the
total population of villages D and G in 1997?
(a) 19770
(b) 19200
(c) 18770
(d) 19870
(e) None of these
If in 1995 the total population of the seven villages together
was 55,000 approximately, what will be population of village
F in that year below poverty line ?
(a) 3000
(b) 2500
(c) 4000
(d) 3500
(e) None of these
If the population of village C below poverty line in 1995 was
1520, what was the population of village F in 1995 ?
(a) 4000
(b) 6000
(c) 6500
(d) 4800
(e) None of these
The population of village C is 2000 in 1995. What will be the
ratio of population of village C below poverty line to that of
the village E below poverty line in that year ?
(a) 207 : 76
(b) 76 : 207
(c) 152 : 207
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it.
State
Year
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998

96.

A
App. Qual.
4500 600
5700 485
8500 950
7200 850
9000 800

Sel.
75
60
80
75
70

B
App. Qual.
6400 540
7800 720
7000 650
8800 920
9500 850

Sel.
60
84
70
86
90

App.
5200
6500
4800
7400
7500

What is the average number of candidates appeared over


the years for State B ?
(a) 8900

(b) 7900

(c) 7400

(d) 8100

(e) None of these


97.

98.

What approximately is the percentage of total number of


candidates selected to the total number of candidates
qualified for all the five states together during the year
1996 ?
(a) 11%
(b) 15%
(c) 12%
(d) 16%
(e) None of these
For which of the following years is the percentage of
candidates selected over the number of candidates qualified
the highest for state C ?
(a) 1997
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1994
(e) None of these

C
Qual
350
525
400
560
640

99.

Sel.
55
65
48
70
82

App.
7100
6800
5600
7500
4800

D
Qual
650
600
620
800
500

Sel.
75
70
85
65
48

E
App. Qual.
6400 700
8200 680
7500 720
7800 810
8000 850

Sel
75
85
78
82
94

For which of the following states the average number of


candidates selected over the years is the maximum ?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these
100. For which of the following states is the percentage of
candidates qualified to appeared the highest during the year
1997 ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these
101. The number zero (0) is surrounded by the same 2-digit
number on both (left and right) the sides; for example, 25025,
67067, etc. The largest number that always divides such a
number is
(a) 7
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) 1001
(e) None of these

8
102. The number of 3-digit number exactly divisible by 5 is
(a) 181
(b) 180
(c) 179
(d) 199
(e) None of these
103. If a certain sum of money becomes double at simple interest
in 12 years, what would be the rate of interest per annum ?
(a) 8 1
3

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

(b) 10

(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) None of these
Three successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% amount
to a single discount of
(a) 36.28 %
(b) 34.68%
(c) 37 %
(d) 32.68%
(e) None of these
The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last
year. This year, the price of A is increased by 25% and that
of B by Rs 50000. If their prices are now in the ratio 9 : 10, the
price of A last year was
(a) Rs 3,60,000
(b) Rs 4,50,000
(c) Rs 4,80,000
(d) Rs 5,00,000
(e) None of these
During a journey of 80 km a train covers first 60km with a
speed of 40 km/h and completes the remaining distance with
a speed of 20 km/h. What is the average speed of the train
during the whole journey?
(a) 30 km/h
(b) 32 km/h
(c) 36 km/h
(d) 40 km/h
(e) None of these
An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled
time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in
time, it has to increase its speed by 250 km/h from its usual
speed. Find its usual speed.
(a) 1000 km/h
(b) 750 km/h
(c) 850 km/h
(d) 650 km/h
(e) None of these
A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs 3,600 in 40 annual
instalments which form an AP. When 30 of the instalments
are paid, he dies leaving one-third of the debt unpaid. Find
the value of the first instalment.
(a) 55
(b) 53
(c) 51
(d) 49
(e) None of these
A tank 30 m long, 20 m wide and 12 m deep is dug in a field
500 m long and 30 m wide. By how much will the level of the
field rise, if the earth dug out of the tank is evenly spread
over the field?
(a) 0.33 m
(b) 0.5 m
(c) 0.25 m
(d) 0.4 m
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 110-114) : Find the next term in the given


series in each of the questions below.
110. 198, 194, 185, 169, ....
(a) 136
(b) 144
(c) 9
(d) 92
(e) None of these
111. 6, 9, 7, 10, 8, 11, ....
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 9
(d) 14
(e) None of these
112. 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, ....
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 17
(d) 20
(e) None of these
113. 35, 30, 25, 20, 15, 10, ....
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) None of these
114. 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, ....
(a) 38
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 115-120): Find out the approximate value
which should replace the question mark (?) in the following
questions. (You are not expected to find out the exact value).
115.

10609 7938.81 = ?
(a) 9200
(b) 81973.
(c) 8553.3
(d) 8682.7
(e) None of these
?

3
116. (13)2 = 2197

(a) 3

117.

118.

119.

120.

1
3
(d) 4

(b)

(c) 0.5
(e) None of these
18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = ?
(a) 253
(b) 231
(c) 211
(d) 241
(e) None of these
(98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = ?
(a) 10812
(b) 18012
(c) 10910
(d) 18102
(e) None of these
8959 ? 4 5 = 26.35
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 17
(e) None of these
3739 + 164 27 = ?
(a) 10540
(b) 4000
(c) 8400
(d) 8200
(e) None of these

9
r

Section - IV : Reasoning Ability

121. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is


related to
(a) Cow
(b) Buffalo
(c) Camel
(d) Zebra
(e) None of these
122. Which one is different from the remaining three?
(a) GIJK
(b) DFGH
(c) CEFG
(d) ABCD
(e) None of these
123. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
CORPORATE each of which has as many letters in the same
sequence between them in the word as in the english alphabet ?
(a) Four
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these
124. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are
reversed, then the last three letters are added and then the
remaining letters are reversed and added, then which letter
will be exactly in the middle ?
(a) H
(b) N
(c) R
(d) S
(e) None of these
125. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and
Mona is sixth from the right. When they interchange their
places among themselves, Kashish becomes thirteenth from
the left. Then, what will be Mona's Position from the right?
(a) 4th
(b) 14th
(c) 8th
(d) 15th
(e) None of these
126. In a certain coding system, RBM STD BRO PUS means the
cat is beautiful. TNH PUS DIM STD means the dog is
brown. PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS means the dog has the
cat. What is the code for has ?
(a) CUS
(b) BRO
(c) DIM
(d) STD
(e) None of these
127. If NAXALITE is written in a certain code as LYVYJGRC
how will INTEGRATE be written in the same code ?
(a) LGRECYPRC
(b) GLRCEPYRC
(c) PYWMNOPQR
(d) BLACKHOLE
(e) None of these
128. If light is called morning, morning is called dark, dark
is called night, night is called sunshine and sunshine
is called dusk, when do we sleep ?
(a) Dusk
(b) Dark
(c) Night
(d) Sunshine
(e) None of these
129. X told Y, Though I am the son of your father, you are not
my brother. How is Y related to X ?
(a) Sister
(b) Son
(c) Daughter
(d) Father
(e) None of these

130. A postman was returning to the post office which was in


front of him to the north. When the post offfice was 100
metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50
metres to deliver the last letter at shantivilla. He then moved
in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and
moved 100 metres. How many metres away he was now
from the post office?
(a) 0
(b) 150
(c) 90
(d) 100
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131-135) : In each of the questions below are
given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I,
II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly know facts. Read all
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
131. Statement :
A. Some boys are rains.
B. All rains are clouds.
C. Some clouds are cars.
Conclusions :
I. Some clouds are boys.
II. Some cars are boys.
III. Some cars are rains.
IV. Some rains are boys.
(a) Only II follows
(b) Only IV follows
(c) Only I follows
(d) Both I and IV follow
(e) None of these
132. Statement :
A. All bricks are flowers.
B. Some houses are flowers.
C. All pens are houses.
Conclusions :
I. Some houses are bricks.
II. Some pens are flowers.
III. Some flowers are bricks.
IV. No pen is flower.
(a) Only either II or IV and III follow
(b) Only either II or IV and I follow
(c) Only either I or II and IV follow
(d) Either II or IV follow
(e) None of these
133. Statement :
A. All lions are ducks.
B. No duck is a horse.
C. All horses are fruits.
Conclusions :
I. No lion is a horse.
II. Some fruits are horses.
III. Some ducks are lions.
IV. Some lions are horses.
(a) All follows
(b) Only either I or II and both III and IV follow
(c) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow
(d) Neither I nor II follow
(e) None of these

10
134. Statements :

Conclusions :

(a) Only I follows


(c) Only III follows
(e) None of these
135. Statements :

A.
B.
C.
I.
II.
III.
(b)
(d)

Some stones are bricks.


All plants are stones.
No flower is a plant.
No flower is a stone.
Some bricks are plants.
No bricks are plants.
Only II follows
Either II or III follows

A. All tigers are jungles.


B. No jungle is a bird.
C. Some birds are rains.
Conclusions :
I. No rain is a jungle.
II. Some rains are jungles.
III. No bird is a tiger.
(a) Only either II or III follows
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only either I or II and III follow
(d) Neither II nor III follow
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136-140) : Study the following information
carefully to answer the questions that follow.
(I) M, N, P, Q, S and T are six members of a group in which there
are three female members. Females work in three departments
Accounts, Administration and Personnel and sit in three
different floors 1st, 2nd and 3rd. Persons working in the
same department are not on the same floor. On each floor,
two persons work.
(II) No two ladies, work in the same department or on the same
floor. N and S work in the same department but not in
personnel. Q works in Administration. S and M are on the
1st and 3rd floors respectively and work in the same
department. Q, a lady, does not work on 2nd floor. P, a man,
works on the Ist floor.
136. Which of the following groups of persons is females ?
(a) SQT
(b) QMT
(c) QPT
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
137. T works in which department ?
(a) Accounts
(b) Administration
(c) Personnel
(d) Accounts or Personnel
(e) None of these
138. Which of the following pairs of persons work on IInd floor?
(a) PT
(b) SM
(c) QN
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
139. If T is transferred to Accounts and S is transferred to
Administration, who is to be transferred to Personnel to
maintain the original distribution of females on each floor ?
(a) P
(b) N
(c) Q
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

140. Which of the following pairs of persons works in


Administration ?
(a) QP
(b) QN
(c) SP
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 141-145) : In each of these questions a group
of letters is given followed by four combinations of numbers codes
lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). The group of letters is to be coded with
the numbers codes and the condition given below. The serial
number of the number combination. Which correctly represents
the letter group, is your answer.
Letters
Numbers Codes

D
3

J
9

K
7

Q
6

H
4

V
8

N
2

E
1

B
5

A
0

Conditions : If the first or the last letter or both in the letter group
is /are a vowel then the same is/are to be coded by symbol #.
141. EHNDJV
(a) #42389
(b) 142398
(c) #42398
(d) 14239#
(e) None of these
142. KQDJNH
(a) 763942
(b) 736924
(c) #36924
(d) #63924
(e) None of these
143. AJNVQE
(a) #9286#
(b) 09286#
(c) #92861
(d) 092861
(e) None of these
144. QHJVND
(a) 648923
(b) 649823
(c) #49823
(d) 64892#
(e) None of these
145. JKEDHA
(a) 97#34#
(b) 971340
(c) 971430
(d) 97134#
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS : (Qs. 146-150): In the questions given below,
certain symbols are used with the following meaning:
A @ B means A is greater than B.
A + B means A is either greater than or equal to B.
A B means A is smaller than B
A B meansA is either smaller than or equal to B.
A $ B means A is equal to B
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given
statements to be true find which of the two conclusions I
and II given below them is /are definitely true. Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true.
(b) if only conclusion II is true.
(c) if either I or II is true.
(d) if neither I nor II are true.
(e) if both I and II are true.

11
146. Statements : T $ G, K @ P, M T, P + M
Conclusions:
147. Statements :
Conclusions:
148. Statements :

I. K @ M II. G $ P
R + N, S Q, P @ N, Q $ P
I. S $ N II. P N
G $ K, F @ J, K + Q, Q F

Conclusions: I. K $ F

II. F K

Answer figures

(a)
(b)
157. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

149. Statements : W @ S, K Z, U + W, S $ K
Conclusions: I. U @ K II. Z @ S
150. Statements : G $ E, D K, E S, K G
Conclusions: I. S @ D II. D E
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 151-155) : These questions are based on the
following letter/ number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully
and answer the questions.
3 BE 4 # W9 A2 J K * 1 5 U Q R7 F @ HI 6 $ V
151. How many such numbers are there, each of which is
immediately preceded by a vowel but not immediately
followed by a consonant ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
152. 6I : E4 :: A9 : ?
(a) 7F
(b) F@
(c) R7
(d) 7R
(e) None of these
153. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement,
each of which is immediately preceded by a number and
immediately followed by a consonant ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
154. Which element is sixth to the right of eleventh from the right
end ?
(a) #
(b) @
(c) 1
(d) H
(e) None of these
155. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the
basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group?
(a) W 9 #
(b) B E 3
(c) 2 J A
(d) H I @
(e) R Q 7
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 156 - 160): In each of the questions given
below which one of the five answers figures should come after
the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
156. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a)
(b)
158. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a)
(b)
159. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a)
(b)
160. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a)

(b)

12
r

Section - V : Marketing Aptitude/


Computer Knowledge

161. Marketing in banks is defined as


(a) Negotiable Instruments Act
(b) Banking Regulation Act
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act
(d) Companies Act
(e) None of these
162. Value-added services means
(a) giving full value for money
(b) better value for better price
(c) costlier service
(d) additional service
(e) All of these
163. Marketing is not required for which one of the following
products?
(a) Corporate Loans (b) Export Business
(c) Import Business (d) Credit Card Business
(e) None of these
164. The traditional marketing style involves
(a) Telemarketing
(b) Digital Marketing
(c) Indirect Marketing (d) Direct Marketing
(e) All of these
165. Motivation means
(a) inspiring employees to perform better
(b) better communication skills
(c) sales coaching
(d) market research
(e) None of these
166. In marketing terms, attitude can best be defined as a
(a) rude behaviour of salesperson
(b) rude behaviour of consumer
(c) mental state of consumer
(d) ego of the marketing executive
(e) None of these
167. Which among the following is included in fringe benefits
available to an employee ?
(a) old age survivours benefits
(b) pensions
(c) gratuities
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) None of these
168. According to product life cycle theory, the profit is maximum
in
(a) developed Stage (b) early stage
(c) matured Stage
(d) declined Stage
(e) None of these

169. In banks, loans & advances are considered as


(a) assets
(b) liabilities
(c) resources
(d) cause of expenditure
(e) None of these
170. What is meant by the term psychological pricing?
(a) The process of raising the customer awareness of the
supposed values/qualities of your product, so building
its brand image.
(b) The cutting out of wholesalers from the distribution
chain.
(c) Setting prices that reinforce the concept of value. e.g.
99 and not 100.
(d) The forces of supply and demand and how they
determine price.
(e) None of these
171. Market share can be measured by
(a) counting the number of customers there are in a market,
and for a particular firm within it.
(b) comparing the sales value for a company with the total
unit sales for the whole market.
(c) comparing the sales value for a company with the total
sales value for the whole market.
(d) comparing the number of outlets a firm has with the
total number of outlets within the market.
(e) None of these
172. A firm is productively efficient when
(a) it is producing its product or service at the lowest unit
cost that it can.
(b) it is selling at the lowest price possible.
(c) it has the highest labour productivity that it can.
(d) it is making what its customers want.
(e) None of these
173. Cell production is the modern production method where
(a) buildings are made from prefabricated units, or cells.
(b) production is done in small rooms.
(c) the output from the Prison Service factories.
(d) production on assembly lines is managed and run by
groups of workers who are responsible for the quality
of their work.
(e) None of these
174. Which of the following will NOT result following the
introduction of a more decentralised system of management?
(a) Increased motivation amongst those empowered to
make decisions.
(b) Greater consistency in the decisions made.
(c) The development of skills amongst the junior members
of the management team.
(d) An increase in the speed at which essential decisions
are made.
(e) None of these

13
175. Which of the following is the best definition of a centralised
management system?
(a) A system that encourages empowerment of workers.
(b) A management structure that concentrates on
developing the skills of junior personnel.
(c) A system that involves authority and responsibility
for decision-making being in the hands of senior
managers.
(d) A system that encourages faster decision-making.
(e) None of these
176. Which of the following is NOT normally a sign of poor
morale amongst a workforce?
(a) High levels of absenteeism.
(b) High levels of turnover.
(c) Increased levels of personal productivity.
(d) A poor external image and difficulties attracting good
recruits.
(e) None of these
177. The dominant firm in a market is operating at near full
capacity, and the other firms can do little to significantly
increase their supply to the market. This will lead to all of
the following, except
(a) rising prices as demand begins to outstrip supply.
(b) high and rising profit margins.
(c) increased levels of marketing, especially advertising.
(d) new firms considering entering the market.
(e) None of these
178. Find the incorrect statement
(a) Marketing has no relevance in public sector banks
(b) Marketing has no relevance in private sector banks
(c) Marketing has no relevance in foreign banks
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
179. Public relations is required for
(a) improving customer service in the company
(b) improving marketing functions in the company
(c) better atmosphere in the company
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
180. Vegetable market in India is nearly an example of
(a) perfect Competition(b) monopoly
(c) oligopoly
(d) imperfect competition
(e) high monopsony
181. Which of the following is a web browser ?
(a) Paint
(b) Power Point
(c) Firefox
(d) Word
(e) All of these
182. Editing a document consists of reading through the
document youve created, then
(a) Correcting your errors
(b) Printing it
(c) Saving it
(d) Deleting it
(e) None of these

183. Codes consisting of bars or lines of varying widths or


lengths that are computer - readable are known as
(a) an ASCII code
(b) a magnetic tape
(c) an OCR scanner
(d) a bar code
(e) None of these
184. In addition to keying data directly into a database, data
entry can be done from a (an)
(a) input form
(b) table
(c) field
(d) data dictionary
(e) None of these
185. If you type a word that is not in words dictionary, a wavy
_________ underline appears below the word.
(a) red
(b) green
(c) blue
(d) black
(e) None of these
186. Use the _________, to choose a slide layout.
(a) Quick Styles gallery
(b) Format gallery
(c) Layout gallery
(d) Layout collection
(e) None of these
187. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?
(a) GB
(b) KB
(c) MB
(d) TB
(e) None of these
188. Which of the following are objects in an acess database ?
(a) table, form
(b) queries, reports
(c) macros, modules (d) All of the above
(e) None of these
189. The ________ shows all the web sites and pages that you
have visited over a period of time.
(a) status bar
(b) task bar
(c) history list
(d) tool bar
(e) None of these
190. ________ controls the way in which the computer system
functions and provides a means by which users can interact
with the computer.
(a) The platform
(b) The operating system
(c) Application software
(d) The motherboard
(e) None of these
191. An example of non-numeric data is
(a) Bank balance
(b) Examination marks
(c) Real numbers
(d) Employee address
(e) None of these

14
192. For seeing the output, you use
(a) monitor
(b) keyboard
(c) mouse
(d) scanner
(e) None of these
193. Where are programs and data kept while the processor is
using them?
(a) Main memory
(b) Secondary memory
(c) Disk memory
(d) Program memory
(e) None of these
194. What does C represent in MICR?
(a) Code
(b) Column
(c) Computer
(d) Character
(e) None of these
195 A CD-RW disk
(a) has a faster access than an internal disk
(b) is a form of optial disk, so it can only be written once
(c) holds less data than a floppy disk
(d) can be erased and rewritten
(e) None of these
196. To take information from one source and bring it to your
computer is referred to as
(a) upload
(b) download
(c) transfer
(d) de-link
(e) None of these

197. Which of the following could do to remove a paragraph


from a report you had written?
(a) Delte and edit
(b) Highlight and delete
(c) Cut and paste
(d) Undo typing
(e) None of these
198. Which equipment is used to capture information and
commands?
(a) Output device
(b) Input device
(c) Storage device
(d) Telecommunication device
(e) None of these
199. A file that contains definitions of the paragraph and
character styles for your document and all things you
customised like toolbars and menus is called a
(a) guide
(b) pattern
(c) base document
(d) template
(e) None of these
200. A computer cannot boot if it does not have the
(a) Compiler
(b) Loader
(c) Operating System (d) Assembler
(e) None of these

15
(b)

21

(c)

41

(a)

61

(a)

ANS WER KEY


(d) 101 (d)
81

(b)

22

(b)

42

(b)

62

(b)

82

(a)

23

(c)

43

(e)

63

(a)

83

(a)

103

(a)

123

(c)

143

(a)

163

(e)

183

(d)

(d)

24

(c)

44

(e)

64

(e)

84

(a)

104

(d)

124

(d)

144

(b)

164

(d)

184

(a)

(c)

25

(b)

45

(c)

65

(e)

85

(e)

105

(a)

125

(b)

145

(d)

165

(a)

185

(a)

(c)

102

(b)

121

(b)

141

(c)

161

(e)

181

(c)

122

(d)

142

(e)

162

(d)

182

(a)

(c)

26

(a)

46

(a)

66

(b)

86

(b)

106

(b)

126

(a)

146

(c)

186

(b)

(a)

27

(c)

47

(d)

67

(c)

87

(d)

107

(b)

127

(b)

147

(a)
(b)

166

167

(e)

187

(d)

(d)

28

(a)

48

(d)

68

(c)

88

(c)

108

(c)

128

(d)

148

(c)

168

(a)

188

(d)

(e)
(e)

169

(a)

189

(c)

170

(c)

190

(b)

(c)

29

(c)

49

(c)

69

(b)

89

(b)

109

(b)

129

(a)

149

10

(a)

30

(d)

50

(b)

70

(d)

90

(e)

110

(b)

130

(c)

150

11

(d)

31

51

(e)

71

(b)

91

(d)

111

(c)

131

(d)

151

(d)

171

(c)

191

(e)

52

(d)

72

(b)

92

(a)

112

(b)

132

(a)

152

(a)

172

(a)

192

(a)

53

(c)

73

(e)

93

(d)

113

(c)

133

(c)

153

(c)

173

(d)

193

(a)

12

(b)

32

(a)
(c)

13

(e)

33

(c)

14

(c)

54

(e)

74

(b)

94

(c)

114

(b)

134

(d)

154

(d)

174

(b)

194

(d)

(a)
(b)

55

(e)

75

(a)

95

(b)

115

(a)

135

(c)

155

(e)

175

(c)

195

(d)

56

(e)

76

(e)

96

(b)

116

(c)

136

(a)

156

(d)

176

(c)

196

(b)

(b)

34

15

(c)

35

16

(c)

36

17

(d)

37

(c)

57

(c)

77

(c)

97

(a)

117

(b)

137

(c)

157

(c)

177

(c)

197

(b)

18

(d)

38

(c)

58

(e)

78

(b)

98

(d)

118

(a)

138

(e)

158

(b)

178

(d)

198

(b)

19

(c)

39

59

(d)

79

(d)

99

(b)

119

(d)

139

(c)

159

(a)

179

(e)

199

(d)

20

(a)

40

(a)
(b)

60

(c)

80

(a)

100

(a)

120

(a)

140

(d)

160

(c)

180

(a)

200

(c)

HINTS & SOLUTION


1.

6.

7.

8.

9.

(b) Dronacharya award is an award presented by the


government of India for excellence in sports coaching.
The award comprises bronze statue of Dronacharya, a
scroll of honour and a cash component of Rs.500,000.
The award was instituted in 1985. The last recipient of
the award is Raj Singh for wrestling in the year 2014.
(c) The Vyas Samman is a literary award which was first
awarded in 1991. It is awarded annually by the K.K.
Birla Foundation and includes a cash of ` 250,000 (as
of 2005). To be eligible for the award, the literary work
must be in the Hindi language and has been published
in the past 10 years.
(a) The Last War by Sandipan Deb is a novel about a
business family that deals in many illegal activities.
The novel stretches from the year 1955 to the year
2007, during which time the life of the family members
takes various twists and turns. The novel bursts with
drama, deceit and manoeuvre.
(d) Kamaljeet Sandhu is a former woman Indian athlete
who won gold medal at 1970 Asian Games in 400 m
race. She was the first woman to win Gold in any Asian
games.
(c) World Population Day is observed on July 11 every
year, which seeks to raise awareness of global
population issues. The event was established by the
Governing Council of the United Nations Development

10.

(a)

12.

(b)

16.

(c)

41.

(a)

42.

(b)

43.

(e)

Programme in 1989.
In the sport of cricket, a bouncer (or bumper) is a type
of delivery, usually bowled by a fast bowler which is
pitched short so that it bounces on the pitch well short
of the batsman and rears up to chest or head height.
El Nino effect is a band of warm ocean water temperatures that periodically develops off the Pacific Coast
of South America.
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD) is an apex development bank in India
having headquarters in Mumbai. It was established on
12 July 1982 in sixth five year plan by a special act by
the parliament and its main focus was to uplift rural
India by increasing the credit flow for elevation of
agriculture and rural non-farm sector.
Ascertain the hidden meaning of the sentence. but
no one would be able to realise that a terrorist attack
has occurred . So, undoubtedly the culprits act can
be classified as a terrorist attack.
New terrorism has no long-term agenda but its ruthless
in its short-term intentions. This statement from the
passage supports (B). While in the light of passage,
(C) also seems suitable.
The immediate provocation for the meeting held in
August 1998 has not been given among the options. It
was the incidents of bombing the U.S. embassies in
Nairobi and Dar-es-Salaam.

16
44.

(e) Bio-attack will result in several deaths which will lead


to political turmoil creating social unrest.
46. (a) Religious intolerance, as cited in the last paragraph
stands behind terrorism.
53. (c) The correct sentence should be read, 'It was my
business to cross the bridge to explore the bridge head
and to find out the point where the enemy had
advanced'. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer, the
reason being the enemy had already advanced to that
place therefore its a particular point or destination' the
other two options the extent where and how much
means the exact point or location is unknown therefore
these options are correct.
54. (e) This sentence is grammatically correct none of the
suggested changes will improve it. So, the option (e) is
the correct answer.
55. (e) This sentence is correct none of the changes suggested
will improve it. So, the option (e) is the correct answer.
56. (e) This sentence is grammatically correct none of the
changes suggested will improve it. So, the option (e) is
the correct answer.
57. (c) The correct sentence should be read, 'Appollo was
worshipped as long as the Roman empire 'lasted'
therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The reason
being Apollo was worshipped till the Roman empire
was there therefore 'lasted' fits in best, the other two
options was continued or ruled are incorrect.
58. (e) No correction required.
59. (d) It should be neckleces
60. (c) It should be entertain.
61. (a) It should be efficient.
62. (b) It should be complicated
For (Qs. 6367) : The correct order of the sentences to form a
meaningful paragraph is AEFDBC. Because A and E ask questions
and F is attempting to explain them.
68. (c) For the verb strong the comparative degree usage is
stronger and not more strong.
69. (b) Since it is a city-Bangalore- where must be used
instead of which because the referrent is a place and
not a thing.
70. (d) The noun is ladies, so the pronoun used for them
cannot be it (which is used for things) but their.
71. (b) It should be have changed, the noun is plural (ways),
has is used for singular nouns.
72. (b) There is a comparison being made, so comparative
degree higher has been used. Therefore instead of
much the comparative degree more would be correct.
4
3
5
3 4 5
1015
= 145
of of
of 1015 = 1015 =
5 7 12
7
5 7
12

81.

(d)

82.

(c) 1.5 0.025 + (?)2 = 0.1 (?) 2 = 0.1 - 1.5 0.025

(?) 2 = 0.1 - 0.0375 ? = .0625 = 0.25


83.

(a) 1.5 2 0.00225 = 2.25 0.15 = 0.3375

84.

(a)

85.

(e) 125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500


?% of 700 = 500 125% of 260

0.0289 12 1.5 =

0.0289 12 0.17 12
=
= 1.36
1.5
1.5

?% of 700 = 175
\

86.

?=

175 100
= 25
700

(b) 45% of 750 25% of 480


=

45 750 25 480
= 337.5 - 120 = 217.5
100
100

758.5 753.8 = 75(8.5 -3.8) = 754.7

87.

(d)

88.

(c) 39798 + 3798 + 378 = 43974

89.

(b) 3
=

7
3
1
+ 7 1
11 11 2
40 80 3 160
6
+ =
= 14
11 11 2 11
11
1080
=9
12 10

90.

(e) 1080 12 10 =

91.

(d) Population of village B in 1995 = 5000

16
6150
13

110
= 6750
100
Population below poverty line = 52% of 6750 3500

Population of village B in 1996 = 6150

92.

(a) Population of village D in 1995 = 9,000

17
= 10, 200
15

Population of village D in 1997 = 10, 200

110
100

= 11,220
Population of village G in 1997 = 9,000

93.

\ Total population of village D and G in 1997


= 11,220 + 8,550 = 19,770
(d) Population of village F below poverty line
= 55000

94.

95
= 8,550
100

13
49

3500
100 100

(c) Population of village F in 1995


= 1520

100 13
= 6500
38 8

17
95.

(b) Population of village C below poverty line


= 2000

38
= 760
100

Population of village E below poverty line


=

2000
46
18
= 2070
100
8

\ Required ratio =
96.

760
= 76 : 207
2070

(b) Average no. of candidates appeared for state B


=

6400 + 7800 + 7000 + 8800 + 9500


= 7900
5
361
100 11%
3340

97.

(a) Required percentage =

98.

(d) Percentage of candidates selected for state C can be


seen in the following table:
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
15.7% 12.3% 12% 12.5% 12.8%
Alternatively : We have to find the year for which

99.

Sel.
Qual.
is the highest; i.e.,
is the least. Clearly,,
Qual.
Sel.
only for the year 1994 it below 7. In other cases it is
more than 7. Hence our answer is (d).
(b) Average no. of candidates selected
A B C
D
E
72 78 64 68.6 82.8

SI = (2P - P ) = P
Now, I =
or r =

11.8% 10.4% 7.5% 10.6% 10.3%


Alternatively : We have to find the highest value of

App.
Qual.
.
, i.e., the least value of
Qual.
App.
It is least for state A, which is less than 9. In other
cases it is more than 9. So, our answer is (a).
101. (d) First start with the option (d).
1001 25 = 25025
1001 67 = 67067 etc.
Thus 1001 is the largest number which divides the
numbers of the type 25025, 67067 etc.
102. (b) A three digit number to be exactly divisible by 5 must
have either 0 or 5 at its units place.

P r 12
Prt
P=
100
100

100 25
1
=
=8 %
12
3
3

104. (d) Applying successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15%


on 100, we get 100 0.9 0.88 0.85 = 67.32
Single discount = 100 67.32=32.68
105. (a) Let the prices of two houses A and B be Rs 4x and
Rs 5x, respectively for the last year.
Then, the prices of A this year = Rs (1.25 4x) and that
of B = Rs (5x + 50,000)
This year, Ratio of their prices = 9 : 10
\

100. (a) Percentage of candidates qualified in 1997


A

Such numbers will be 100, 105, 110, ..........., 995.


First term = 100, last term = 995
Let the required number be n.
To find the value of n, we may use the following formula
of arithmetic progression,
Tn = a + (n 1) d
.... (1)
Where d = common difference = 5
Tn = 995
a = 100
Hence from (1)
995 = 100 + (n 1) 5
5n = 900
n = 180
Digits to be used = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9.
103. (a) Let the principal be P, then amount after 12 years = 2P

1.25 4x
9
=
5x + 50,000 10

50x - 45x = 450000 5x = 4,50,000


x = 90,000
Hence, the price of A last year was
4x = Rs 3,60,000
106. (b) Average speed =

Total distance
Total time
80
60 20
+
40 20

80
= 32 km/h
2.5

107. (b) Let the usual speed of the aeroplane be x km/h.


Then,

1500 1
1500
- =
x
2 (x + 250)

Solving, we get x = 750 km/h


108. (c) Sum of 40 instalments = S40 = 3600 = 20 (2a + 39d)
or 2a + 39d = 180
...(i)

18
Sum of 30 instalments = S30 = 2400 = 15 (2a + 29d)
or 2a + 29d = 160
...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get a = 51 and d = 2
The value of first instalment = Rs 51
109. (b) Volume of the earth taken out = 30 20 12 = 7200 m3

89.1
8 79388.81
64
169 1538
1521
1781
1781
1781
0

Field

470 m
30 m

30 m

Hence 103 89.1 = 9177.3 9200


116. (c) Let x be there in place of question mark.
x

x
3
So, (13)2 = 2197 (169)3 = 2197

20 m
470 m

4826809x = 2197, taking log10 on both the sides


x log10 (4826809) = log10 2197
x 6.68366 = 3.34183

30 m
Tank

Area of the remaining portion (leaving the area of dug


out portion)
= 470 30 + 30 10 = 14100 + 300 = 14400 m3
Let h be the height to which the field is raised when
the earth dug out is spread.
Then, 14400 h = 7200
\ h = 0.5 m
110. (b)

198

194
2

185

169
4

12

+1
+2
+1
+2
+1
113. (c) The series progress with a difference of 5.

114. (b)
115. (a)

2
+2

6
+4

12
+6

20
+8

30

10609 = 103, by long division method, as below:

103
10 10609
100
203
609
609
0

below:

8959
8959
= 26.35 x =
= 17
x 45
26.35 20

120. (a) ? = 3739 + 164 27


= 3739 + 4428
8200
121. (b) Both live together to derive benefits from each other.
122. (d) In others there is a gap of one letter between the first
and the second letters of the group.
123. (c)

C O R P O R A T E

+10

10609 7938.81

Also,

So,

11

1
0.5
2

117. (b) 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = 0.184 656 + 0.127 864
= 120.704 + 109.728 = 230.432 231
118. (a) (98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = 9682.56 + 1128.96 = 10811.52 10812
119. (d) Let there be x in place of question mark

144

111. (c) The first, third, fifth .... and second, fourth .... terms
are groups of consecutive natural numbers.
112. (b)

x=

7938.81 = 89.1 , by long division method, as

Three pairs (P, R), (R, T) and (P, O) have as many


letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet. But since the letters must be in the same sequence in the word as in English alphabet, so that desire pairs are (P, R) and (R, T) only.
124. (d) Clearly, we have :
COMPREHENSION (COM) (PREHENS) (ION)
COMIONSNEHERP
The middle letter is the seventh letter, which is S.
125. (b) Clearly 6th position from right (Mona) is 13th position
from left. That means there are 13 + 5 = 18 children in
the row. Hence 5th position from left will be 18 5 + 1 =
14th from right (Monas new position).
Previous K
M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

19
Present M
K
126. (a) RBM STD BRO PUS the cat is beautiful
....(i)
TNH PUS DIM STD the dog is brown
....(ii)
PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS the dog has the cat ....(iii)
(i) and (ii) STD PUS is
(ii) and (iii) PUS DIM the dog
(i) and (iii) PUS BRO the cat
\ From (iii), CUS has
127. (b) As,
Similarly,
+2

G I
+2
L N

N L

-2
A Y
-2
X V
-2
A Y

-2
L J
-2
I G

-2
T R

-2
E C
-2

+2

R T
+2
C E
+2

E G
+2
P R
+2

Y A
+2
R T
+2
C E
128. (d) In the code, night is called sunshine. As we sleep in
night, the correct answer is sunshine.
129. (a) As X is the son of Ys father and Y is the sister of X and
thus, he has to be the brother of Y.

130. (c)

Post Office

100m

100m

50 m
40 m
Shantivilla

Postman

From the diagram, E is the final point where postman


has reached. Hence his distance from the post office
= 40 + 50m = 90m.
Clouds

Boys

Cars

Flowers

132. (a)

Bricks

or Boys

Lions

Horses

Flowers

Houses

or

Bricks

Either

Ducks

or

Lions

Fruits
Horses

Conclusions : I.
II.
III.
IV.
134. (d) Statements :
Conclusions :
Statements :
Conclusions :

()
Conversion of C
()
Either
()
Conversion of A
()
Some stones are bricks.
Some bricks are stone. (conversion)
All plants are stones.
Some plants are stones. (Implication)
Some stones are plants. (conversion)
Statements : No flower is plant.
Conclusions : Some flowers are not plant.
(Implication)
No plant is flower.
(Conversion)
Statements : No flower is plant.
All plants are stones.
Conclusions : Some stones are not flower.
(E + A = O* type)
Since, II and III form a complementary I-E pair, either of
two must follow.
135. (c) Statements : All tigers are jungles.
Conclusions : Some tigers are jungles. (Implication)
Some jungles are tigers. (conversion)
Statements : No jungle is bird.
Conclusions : Some jungle are not bird.
(Implication)
No bird is jungle.
(conversion)
Statements : Some birds are rains.
Conclusions : Some rains are birds. (conversion)
Statements : All tigers are jungles.

No jungle is bird.
No tiger is bird. (A + E = E-type)
No bird is tiger. (conversion)

Hence III follows.


Statements : No jungle is bird.
Some birds are rains.
Conclusions : Some rains are not jungle.
(E + I = O* type)
Since I and II form a complementary E-I pair, either of
two must follow.

()
()
()
() Convesion of A

Pens

Fruits

Conclusions :

Rains

Cars

Conclusions: I.
II.
III.
IV.

133. (b)

()
()
()
()

Ducks

Clouds

Rains

131. (d)

Conclusions : I.
II.
III.
IV.

Houses
Pens

20
For (Qs. 136-140)
The given information can be summarized as follows.

I
Member
P
Department Not

S
Acc

Acc

clear

Sex

Floors
II
N
T

III
Q

Per- Acct. Adm.


sonnel

136. (a) From the analysis of table constructed above, SQT


is the group of females.
137. (c) Clearly, T works in personnel.
138. (e) N and T work on the second floor.
139. (c) To maintain the original distribution of females on each
floor, Q must be transferred to personnel.
140. (d) Data is inadequate to determine the department of P.
From the information provided only we can say that
Q works in administration.
141. (c)

Letter E H N D J V
Code

3 9

Condition is applied.
142. (e)

143. (a)

Conclusions : I. K = F (P)
II. F < K (P) Either
Hence, either I or II is true.
149. (e) W > S, K Z, U W, S = K
UW>S=KZ
Conclusions : I. U > K (P)
II. Z > S (P)
Hence, both I and II are true.
150. (e) G = E ....(i), D < K ...(ii), E < S .....(iii), K G
D<KG=F<S
Clearly, both conclusions I and II follow.
151. (d) Three
152. (a)
3 B E 4 #W 9A 2 J K * 1 5 U Q R 7 F @ H I 6 $ V

Symbol

153. (c)

Symbol

3BE 4#W 9A2J K* 15 UQR 7 F@HI 6 $V


No. Cons

No. Cons

6th to the right

Letter K Q D J N H
Code 7 6 3 9 2 4

154. (d) 3 B E 4 # W 9 A 2 J K * 1 5 U Q R 7 F @ H I 6 $ V

Letter A J

N V Q E

Code

155. (e) In all other second and third elements are to the right
and left of the first element respectively.
156. (d) The smaller arrow moves through 90 and 45
anticlockwise respectively while the bigger one moves
through 135 in each subssequent figure clockwise.
157. (c) The movement of design is as follows:

Condition is applied.
144. (b)

Letter Q H J V N D

Code 6 4 9 8 2 3

145. (d)

Letter J K E D H A
Code 9 7 1 3 4 #

Condition is applied.
For (Qs. 146-149)
Symbols @ + $
Meaning > < =
K > P, M < T, P M
K>PM<T=G
Conclusions: I. K > M (P)
II. G = P ()
Hence, only conclusion I is true.
147. (b) R N, S Q, P > N, Q = P
SQ=P>NR
Conclusions : I. S = N ()
II. P N (P)
Hence, only conclusion II is true.
148. (c) G = K, F > J, K Q, Q F
G=KQF>J
146. (a) T = G,

11th from the right

Problem fig. 1 to 2
Problem fig. 2 to 3
Problem fig. 3 to 4
Problem fig. 4 to 5
Problem fig. 5 to answer fig. 6
158. (b) In each subsequent figure the design moves through
90 anticlockwise and shifts diagonally halfway while
the arrow shifts halfway diagonally and is each time
inverted.
159. (a) From problem figure (1) to (2) both the lower designs
and both the upper designs inrterchanged their
positions. From problem figures (2) and (3) both the
upper designs shift lower and vice-vrsa. The same order
of change is repeated.
160. (c) From problem figure (1) to (2) both the lower designs
reverse. From problem figure. (2) to (3) third design
from the bottom reverses. From problem figure (3) to
(4) first and fourth designs from the bottom reverse.
From problem figure (4) to (5) second design from the
bottom reverses. Hence from problem figure (5) to (6)
third and fourth designs from the bottom will reverse.

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