Quiz 2

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____

1. A good project manager knows how to develop a plan, execute it, anticipate problems, and make adjustments.

____

2. The most critical element in the success of a system development project is user involvement.

____

3. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is key to a successful project.

____

4. Gantt charts become useless once the project begins.

____

5. Project feasibility analysis is an activity that verifies whether a project can be started and successfully
completed.

____

6. Feasibility analysis essentially identifies all the risks of failure.

____

7. Current trends indicate that iterative, evolutionary approaches help to improve project success.

____

8. Economic feasibility asks whether the anticipated benefits are greater than the projected costs to develop the
information system.

____

9. Increased customer satisfaction (not measurable in dollars) is an example of a tangible benefit.

____ 10. Schedule feasibility is not a concern when the project must be completed by a specific date.
____ 11. Questionnaires are an effective method for obtaining preliminary insight into the information needs of the
various stakeholders.
____ 12. The review of existing forms and reports is seldom used as a fact-finding method.
____ 13. Interviewing stakeholders is by far the most effective way to understand business functions and business
rules.
____ 14. The very first, and most important, step in preparing for an interview is to establish the objective of the
interview.
____ 15. Joint application design (JAD) is a technique used to expedite the investigation of system requirements.
____ 16. A physical model shows what the system is required to do in great detail, without committing to any one
technology.
____ 17. The modern structured analysis technique uses data flow diagrams (DFDs) and entity-relationship diagrams
(ERDs).
____ 18. One of the analyst's first tasks is to identify every type of stakeholder who has an interest in, or will be
involved in, the new system.
____ 19. Top executives of an organization are interested in strategic issues.
____ 20. Systems analysis involves the creation of detailed logical models.
____ 21. Business process reengineering questions the assumptions of a business process to try to find a completely
new way of doing things.
____ 22. The Zachman Framework is a comprehense approach for documenting an entire organizations information
systems architecture.
____ 23. The systems reaction to an event is called a use case.

____ 24.

Cardinality can only be established for only one direction of the relationship.

____ 25. An analyst can best describe the requirements for an information system using a collection of models.
____ 26. A key reason that modeling is important in system development is the complexity of describing information
systems.
____ 27. An elementry business process (EBS) is a task performed by one person, in one place, in response to a
busienss event.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 28. Which of the following best describes the reason why projects fail?
a. Clear objectives
c. User involvement
b. Changing system requirements
d. Executive support
____ 29. Which of the following principles of project management defines and controls the functions that are to be
included in the system?
a. Project quality management
c. Project cost management
b. Project time management
d. Project scope management
____ 30. A(n) ____ is one that can be measured or estimated in terms of dollars and that accrue to the organization.
a. net present value (NPV)
c. breakeven point
b. tangible benefit
d. intangible benefit
____ 31. A(n) ____ is a bar chart that represents the tasks and activities of the project schedule.
a. critical path method (CPM) chart
b. entity-relationship diagram (ERD)
c. Gantt chart
d. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart
____ 32. An example of an intangible benefit is ____.
a. increased levels of service
c. lost productivity
b. reduced employee morale
d. lost customers
____ 33. A ____ combines three components: the problem description, the business benefits, and the system
capabilities.
a. proof-of-concept prototype
c. system scope document
b. context diagram
d. data flow diagram (DFD)
____ 34. ____ feasibility asks the question: Is the anticipated value of the benefits greater than projected costs of
development?
a. Technological
c. Cultural
b. Economic
d. Organizational
____ 35. ____ are normally described in terms of the influences that can change the financial statements, either by
decreasing costs or increasing revenues.
a. Work breakdown structures
c. Scope documents
b. Intangible benefits
d. Business benefits
____ 36. During the planning phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), the ____ helps to define the scope
of the problem.
a. critical path method (CPM) chart
b. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart
c. proof of concept prototype
d. context diagram

____ 37. The major benefit of a good ____ is that it provides the most accurate estimate for the duration and effort
required for a project.
a. system scope document
c. proof of concept prototype
b. work breakdown structure (WBS)
d. context diagram
____ 38. The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate.
a. project evaluation and review technique (PERT)
b. return on investment (ROI)
c. cost/benefit analysis
d. net present value (NPV)
____ 39. Which of the following is a responsibility of the project manager from an external perspective?
a. report project status and progress
b. assess project risks
c. work with the client
d. identify resource needs and obtain resources
____ 40. Which of the following describes what the system is required to do?
a. Functional requirements
c. User requirements
b. General requirements
d. Technical requirements
____ 41. Questions that have a simple, definitive answer are called ____ questions.
a. opinion
c. open-ended
b. closed-ended
d. multiple choice
____ 42. The purpose of joint application design (JAD) is to ____.
a. establish a design environment
b. design a prototype
c. expedite the design of the system
d. expedite the investigation of system requirements
____ 43. A group support system (GSS) is a computer system that ____.
a. facilitates group discussion sessions
b. supports all employees in the same group
c. provides secure access to a group of users
d. permits users to form personal groups
____ 44. The objective of a structured walkthrough is to ____.
a. fix problems in the system
c. find errors and problems
b. inform the project leader of progress
d. walkthrough a piece of work
____ 45. The strength of closed-ended questions is that they ____.
a. invite discussion and elaboration
c. invite opinions
b. limit answers to a set of choices
d. invite comments
____ 46. A ____ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or customer
request.
a. model
c. mock-up
b. prototype
d. workflow
____ 47. A(n) ____ describes the various user (or system) activities, the person who does each activity, and the
sequential flow of these activities.
a. activity diagram
c. mock-up
b. synchronization bar
d. swim lane
____ 48. A(n) ____ is an initial working model of a larger, more complex entity.
a. activity diagram
c. activity diagram
b. prototype
d. workflow

____ 49. ____ sessions have been largely successful in reducing project development efforts and shortening the
schedule.
a. Business process reengineering (BPR)
c. Swimlane
b. Group support system (GSS)
d. Joint application design (JAD)
____ 50. The modern structured analysis technique uses data flow diagrams (DFDs) and ____.
a. entity-relationship diagrams (ERDs)
c. decision support systems (DSS)
b. activity diagrams
d. workflows
____ 51. ____ requirements may apply to areas such as network communications and storage.
a. Technical
c. Usability
b. Security
d. Reliability
____ 52. ____ requirements describe operational characteristics related to users.
a. Usability
c. Reliability
b. Technical
d. Performance
____ 53. In the Zachman Framework, columns and rows depict which of the following?
a. abstractions and perspectives
c. processes and locations
b. data and information
d. entities and relationships
____ 54. A series of formulas that describe technical aspects of a system is a(n) ____ model.
a. concrete
c. graphical
b. descriptive
d. mathematical
____ 55. Narrative memos, reports, or lists that describe some aspect of a system is a(n) ____ model.
a. descriptive
c. mathematical
b. concrete
d. graphical
____ 56. Diagrams and schematic representations of some aspect of a system are examples of a ____ model.
a. logical
c. mathematical
b. graphical
d. descriptive
____ 57. Structured English or pseudocode is an example of a ____ model.
a. concrete
c. mathematical
b. descriptive
d. graphical
____ 58. An occurrence at a specific time and place, which can be described and is worth remembering, is called a(n)
____.
a. external agent
c. temporary effect
b. event
d. state of requirement
____ 59. An event that occurs as a result of reaching a point in time is called a(n) ____ event.
a. temporal
c. external
b. logical
d. state
____ 60. Checks or safety procedures are put in place to protect the integrity of the system. This is referred to as ____.
a. perfect technology assumption
c. system controls
b. risk control assumption
d. technology protection
____ 61. A table that lists specific occurrences in rows and key pieces of information about each occurrence in columns
is called a(n) ____ table.
a. entity
c. interactive
b. event
d. object
____ 62. ____ refers to a signal that tells the system that an event has occurred, either the arrival of data needing
processing or a point.
a. Source
c. Response
b. Activity
d. Trigger
____ 63. An external agent or actor that supplies data to the system is called a(n) ____.
a. trigger
c. destination

____ 64.

____ 65.

____ 66.

____ 67.

____ 68.

____ 69.

____ 70.

b. activity
d. source
An output, produced by the system, that goes to a destination is called a(n) ____.
a. source
c. activity
b. response
d. trigger
An attribute that uniquely identifies a thing is called a(n) ____.
a. class
c. compound attribute
b. key
d. attribute
The type or classification to which all similar objects belong is referred to as a(n) ____.
a. class
c. method
b. attribute
d. aggregation
The ____ of a class are the behaviors that all objects are capable of doing.
a. inheritance
c. methods
b. messages
d. responses
A data entity that represents a many-to-many relationship between two other data entities is called a(n) ____
entity.
a. encapsulated
c. aggregated
b. associative
d. inherited
____ is based on the idea that people classify things in terms of similarities and differences.
a. Aggregation
c. Multiplicity
b. Encapsulation
d. Generalization/specialization hierarchy
____ define data storage requirements that are included in data flow diagrams (DFDs).
a. Entity-relationship diagrams (ERD)
c. Domain 0
b. Use cases
d. Context diagrams

Quiz 2
Answer Section
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.

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T
T
T
F
T
T
T
T
F
F
T
F
T
T
T
F
T
T
T
T
T
T
T
F
T
T
T

PTS:
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1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
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81
87
88
90
93
93
75
95
99
100-101
136
127
127
128
138
114
114
120
121
114
116
117
166
172
152
153
159

PTS:
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1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

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75
80
99
90
99
85
95
85
86
89
98

MULTIPLE CHOICE
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.

ANS:
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B
D
B
C
A
C
B
D
D
B
D

39.
40.
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42.
43.
44.
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46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.

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A
A
B
D
A
C
B
D
A
B
D
A
B
A
A
D
A
B
B
B
A
C
B
D
D
B
B
A
C
B
D
A

PTS:
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1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
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1
1
1
1
1
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76
114
137
138
139
142
137
132
133
136
139
114
119
119
118
154
155
156
156
159
162
164
166
166
166
167
173
174
174
177
183
190