ADVANCED AIRPLANE BRIDGING COURSE

EXAMINATION
HIGH SPEED AERODYNAMIC
1. Critical
a. The
b. The
c. The
d. The

Mach
Mach
Mach
Mach
Mach

number
number
number
number
number

is
which
which
which
which

the
the
the
the

airspeed
airspeed
airspeed
airspeed

over
over
over
over

the
the
the
the

wing
wing
wing
wing

reach Mach 1.0

exceed Mach 1.0
exceed MMO
all supersonic

2. Mach tuck is caused by

a. Forward shift of Center of Pressure
b. Forward shift of C of G
c. Aft ward shift of Center of Pressure
d. Aft ward shift of C of G
3. Use of winglet
a. Reduce induced drag
b. Reduce transonic drag
c. Reduce parasite drag
d. Increase fuel consumption
4. When are inboard ailerons normally used?
a. Low-speed flight only
b. High-speed flight only
c. Low-speed and high speed flight
d. Locked when flaps are down
5. When are outboard ailerons normally used?
a. Low-speed flight only
b. High-speed flight only
c. Low-speed and high speed flight
d. Locked when flaps are down
6. Swept wing stall characteristic
a. Nose down
b. Nose up
c. Nose down and roll
d. Roll
7. Coffin Corner is
a. Max certified altitude depicted in AFM
b. Max absolute altitude, higher than max certified altitude
c. Max altitude for one engine inoperative condition
d. A waypoint on an airway with change of heading more than 245
degrees
8. Mach buffet is
a. High speed buffet
b. Low speed buffet
c. Buffet caused by other airplane nearby
d. Aileron buzz

9. VMCA
a. Minimum Control Speed in the air
b. Visual Meteorological Condition airborne
c. Minimum Control Speed - airplane
d. Visual Meteorological Condition airplane
10.Critical
a. The
b. The
c. The
d. The

Engine is
one engine
one engine
one engine
one engine

which, if failed will cause the least yaw

which, if operating will cause the greatest yaw
which, if failed will cause the greatest yaw
with the critical airplane system

11.On an airplane with 4 turboprop engine rotating counter clock wise, the
critical engine is number from left to right)
a. No. 1 and No.4
b. No.2 and no. 3
c. No. 1
d. No. 4
GAS TURBINE ENGINE
12.Controls for a turboprop engine
a. Thrust lever and reverse thrust lever
b. Power Lever, and condition lever
c. Throttle, Propeller and Mixture
d. Throttle and speed brake/spoiler lever
13.Controls for a jet engine
a. Forward Thrust lever, Reverse thrust lever and fuel control
b. Power lever and condition lever and fuel control
c. Throttle, Propeller and Mixture
d. Throttle and speed brake/spoiler lever
14.A turbine is designed to
a. Provide compressed air for combustion
b. Ignite the fuel air mixture
c. Extract power from the expanding gas to rotate the compressor
d. Provide cooling air to the engine
15.Ignition on a gas turbine engine is
a. Normally only turned on during engine start
b. Continuously on by magneto power
c. Turned on for start and adverse weather and takeoff/landing operation
d. Both a and b is correct
16.The correct Gas turbine engine cycle is
a. Intake-expansion -compression-combustion -exhaust
b. Intake-compression-combustion-expansion-exhaust
c. Intake-combustion-compression -expansion-exhaust
d. Intake-exhaust -compression-combustion-expansion
17.Pure turbo jet engine characteristic is

a.
b.
c.
d.

Efficient both at lower and higher speed

Inefficient both at lower and higher speed
Inefficient at lower speed, efficient at higher speed
Efficient at lower speed, inefficient at higher speed

18.Gas turbine acceleration from idle to max thrust may take as long as
a. 1 second
b. 2 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 8 seconds
19.Gas turbine advantage over piston engine
a. Lower weight
b. Lower vibration
c. Higher thrust
d. All answer above are correct
20.A compressor stall is caused by
a. Loss of fuel
b. Reversed airflow within the engine
c. Loss of combustion
d. A turbine disk rupture
21.On a turboprop engine, a Beta Mode is where
a. The propeller pitch is controlled directly by the power lever
b. The propeller pitch is controlled by the condition lever
c. The propeller RPM is sensed by the Negative Torque System
d. The propeller is feathered

22.By pass ratio is

a. The ratio of fan air bypassing the combustion section and the air
through the combustion section
b. The ratio of fuel and air mixture
c. The ratio air burned and cooling air in the combustion section
d. The ratio of fan and compressor diameter

HIGH ALTITUDE PHYSIOLOGY

23.After a rapid decompression at 35,000 feet, the estimated TUC is
a. 20 to 30 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 to 30 seconds
d. 5 seconds
24.On a multi crew airplane, should a pilot leave his/her station above FL 250
but not below FL 410, the pilot at the control must
a. Make sure his/her oxygen mask is ready to use
b. Don oxygen mask and use it until the other pilot returns

c. Notify ATC
d. Fasten his seatbelt and shoulder harness
25.Hyperventilation is
a. The result of loss of CO2 from the body
b. The result of loss of O2 from the body
c. The result of evolved gas in the body
d. The result of trapped gas in body cavity
26.The Bends is
a. The result
b. The result
c. The result
d. The result

of
of
of
of

loss of CO2 from the body

loss of O2 from the body
evolved gas in the body
trapped gas in body cavity

AIRCRAFT SYSTEM
27.Is pressurized air taken from engine :
a. compressor
b. turbine
c. turbine and compressor
28.In modern aircraft, bleed air are used for :
a. Engine start, Hydraulic start, Air data Heater
b. Engine start, Cabin Pressurization, Air Condition
c. Air Condition, Air data heater, Cabin Pressurization
29.Generally anti icing system for civilian aircraft using
a. Bleed air
b. Electric
c. Liquid
d. All above
30.Windshield anti ice to add strength and flexibility when bird strike occur.
a. False.
b. True.
31.APU is used on the ground to supply
a. Electric
b. Hydraulic
c. Pneumatic (bleed air)
d. A and c above
32.The APU battery supply power to the starter, also supply to
a. Air inlet door, APU controller, DC fuel pump, and APU fire detection and
protection system.
b. Air inlet door, APU controller, and DC fuel pump.
c. APU controller, DC fuel pump, and APU fire detection and protection
system.
33.If the Battery switch is positioned OFF prior to completion of the cool down
period, the APU will not shut down immediately.
a. False
b. True

34.The most electrical in use for an Airplane are:

a. 115 volt, three phase, 60 Hz
b. 225 volt, three phase, 400 Hz
c. 115 volt, three phase, 400 Hz
35.Electric as a heater of air data, what item being used as air data source?
a. Pitot tube, static port, and TAT probe
b. Pitot tube, static port, and water waste exile
c. Static port, TAT probe, and water waste exile.
36.Normally battery life for emergency is
a. 20 minutes
b. 25 minutes
c. 30 minutes
37.Fire protection system consist of
a. Fire Detection
b. Fire Warning system
c. Fire extinguishing system
d. All of above.
38.The fire bell can be silenced by extinguishing the fire or pushing Master
Warning/Caution Reset switch.
a. True.
b. False.
39.Fuel drip stick can be found underneath each tank..
a. Below the wing.
b. Over the wing.
c. Below the body.
40.Each tank at least has two fuel pumps which are electrically operated.
a. The same bus.
b. Different bus.
c. The same current.
41.Hydraulic power pumps normally has pressure of
a. 2800 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 3500 psi
42.Modern transport airplane equipped with retractable landing gear in order
to have
a. Lower drag
b. Minimize fuel consumption
c. Higher altitude capability
d. All of above
43. Anti skid function are prevent wheel locked condition and prevent tyre
blow out
a. False

b. True
44. Wind shear alerts are enabled during takeoff, approach, and landing.
a. True
b. False
45. Approaching selected altitude, when the highlight white box no longer
displayed?
a. 900 feet of the selected altitude.
b. 300 feet of the selected altitude.
c. 000 feet of the selected altitude.
46. TCAS provides advisories and traffic display, what red bold square mean?
a. other traffic display
b. proximate traffic display
c. traffic advisory (TA) and display
d. resolution advisory (RA) and display

HIGH LEVEL METEOROLOGY

47.What should pilots do before performing each flight at dispatch center?
a. Gather an appropriate weather briefing.
b. Gets the right flight plan.
c. Gets the Notice to Airman.
d. All above correct.
48.Weather specialist will brief weather, all of the three kind weather briefing
a. False
b. True
49.Standard weather briefing should include adverse weather condition,
weather synopsis, current condition as well as
a. En-route forecast
b. Destination forecast
c. Wind temperature aloft
d. All of above
50.These part of sig-met: SIGMET ROME02 VALID UNTIL 100530
What does ROME02 mean?
a. Romeo 2, second day.
b. Romeo 2, second issuance day.
c. Romeo 2, the second issuance.
51.KORD 011405Z 0114/0218 08006KT P6SM FEW030
FM011900 07008KT P6SM SKC
FM020700 12004KT P6SM FEW030
FM021300 12006KT P6SM SKC
What is period of few 3000?
a. Day 2nd 0700-1300
b. Day 2nd 0700-1200
c. Day 1st 1900-0700 day 2nd
MULTICREW
52.When is the PIC has to take his seat? Choose the correct statement.
a. Below 10000 AGL is a must.
b. The PIC has to be Route Instructor, Flight Instructor or Check Pilot to
take the RH seat.
c. When other Pilot has the qualification to take the LH seat (Captain or
Captain Training), then the Route Instructor, Flight Instructor or Check
Pilot is allowed to take the RH seat.
d. All of above.
53.Enlarge Crew.
When there are 2 captains and one first officer in one enlarge crew flight.
How many captains have to be nominated as PIC in that flight?
a. Two.
b. One.
54.Whom the F/O has to report to if in his opinion any aspect of the flight

preparation has been overlooked.

a. Chief Pilot.
b. Ramp coordinator.
c. None, just advise the Captain.
55.Who is responsible for the execution of the flight and for the safety of the
aircraft and its occupants during the flight?
a. Ramp coordinator.
b. The Chief Pilot.
c. The Captain.
56.Choose the correct statement:
a. The pilot and co-pilot have the same duties as crew
b. The pilot and co-pilot duties are allocated so that they work in a
coordinated pattern thereby enhancing operational performance.
c. Teamwork is mutual respect for the other pilot, by being supportive of
each other while achieving the common goal of enhanced safety and
operational proficiency.
d. b and c.
57. Cockpit Management involves 7 principles which are important for multicrew operations, 3 of them are:
a. Appropriate delegation of tasks and assignments of responsibilities.
b. Establishment of a logical order of priorities.
c. Continuous monitoring and cross-checking of essential instruments and
systems.
d. All of above.
58. Choose the correct answer on the task of verification on reading the
checklist:
a. The task of verification has to be left only to the pilot responding to the
Checklist.
b. The pilot making the challenge calls read the checklist items but also
has to move his eyes away from the list to cross-check his partner.
c. The pilot flying answer with the proper response immediately when
he/she heard the challenge call from the pilot not flying, not verifying
that the item called was set accordingly.
59. A basic principle of the normal checklist is the caller should be satisfied
that the crew member replying has carried out the action required.
a. True
b. False.
60.When on emergency, impending or existing, is detected, who has to
nominate the emergency checklist he is about to action?
a. The Captain.
b. The PF.
c. The PIC.
61.Emergency Checklist.
The checklist is actioned first by the pilot in command calling Phase 1

items from memory with challenge and response action. When the
emergency actions are completed he will call for the checklist to be read.
a. Phase 1 items are read silently and Phase 2 items are read in the
normal challenge and response actions and principles.
b. Phase 1 items are read loudly and Phase 2 items are read in the normal
challenge and response actions and principles.
c. Phase 1 items are read normally and Phase 2 items are read in the
normal challenge and response actions and principles.
62.Task sharing and responsibility.
Choose the correct statement.
a. The Pilot Flying is responsible for controlling the vertical flight path and
horizontal flight path and for energy management.
b. The Pilot Flying supervising the auto pilot (AP) vertical guidance and
lateral guidance and the auto thrust (A/THR) operation.
c. Pilot Flying hand flying the aircraft, with or without flight director (FD)
guidance and with or without Autothrottles / auto thrust (A/THR)
assistance.
d. All of above.
COST INDEX QUESTIONAIRE
63.Cost Index Definition.
The CI is the ratio of the time-related cost of an airplane operation and the
cost of fuel.
a. True.
b. False.
64.Time Related Costs.
Choose the correct statement.
a. Flight crew, Cabin crew, Aircraft Leasing and Maintenance are included
in Time Related Costs.
b. Expressed in units of currency per flight-hour ($/hour).
c. May be difficult to determine.
d. All of above.
65.Fuel Costs
a. Fuel cost considers Price of fuel used on all flight.
b. Fuel Cost expressed in units of currency per quantity of fuel
(cents/pound).
c. Fuel Cost probably difficult to calculate.
d. All of above.

66.Economy Speed
How economy speed is determined ? Choose the wrong statement.
a. Economy Speed (which is using fixed descent speed) is the speed at
which the fuel cost plus time cost during descend is minimized.

b. Economy Speed (which is using fixed climb speed) is the speed at

which the fuel cost plus time cost during climb is minimized.
c. Economy Speed (which is using fixed cruise speed) is the speed at
which the fuel cost plus time cost during cruise is minimized.
d. All of above.
67. Cost Index summary.
a. Cost Index is determined by company staff using various data which
normally also available to pilots.
b. Use Cost Index given by the company, but modifying Cost Index by
pilot is also allowed.
c. Modifying Cost Index by pilot will result to a contra productive with
company policy.
d. All of above.
PERFORMANCE
68.Choose the correct statement.
5 Basic T/O Performance requirements are:
a. Field Length requirement, Climb capabilities requirement, Obstacle
clearance requirement, Tire Speed requirement and Brake Energy
requirement.
b. Safely stop before V1 requirement, Climb capabilities requirement,
Obstacle clearance Field Length requirement, Climb capabilities
requirement, Obstacle clearance requirement,
c. Extra margin of Runway on normal T/O, Climb capabilities requirement,
Obstacle clearance requirement, Tire Speed requirement and Brake
Energy requirement.
69.Choose the correct statement.
Climb requirements are specified in the terms of Climb Gradients.
a. Climb Gradient is the ratio (in the same unit) expressed as a
percentage of Change in height to the Horizontal distance traveled.
b. 1st segment requirement is positive Climb Gradient for 2 engines
aircraft.
c. 1st segment requirement is Climb Gradient of 0.5 % for 4 engines
aircraft.
d. All of above.
70.Choose the correct statement.
a. V1: Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of
critical engine, either to continue take-off within limits of available
take-off length or to stop the aircraft within limits of available runway
length.
b. V1: Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35
feet.
c. V1: Take-off safety speed, reached before the altitude 35 feet with
d. one engine failed.

71.Choose the correct statement.

a. V2: Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of
critical engine, either to continue take-off within limits of available
take-off length or to stop the aircraft within limits of available runway
length.
b. V2: Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35
feet.
c. V2: Take-off safety speed, reached before the altitude 35 feet with
one engine failed.
72.Choose the correct statement.
a. VR: Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of
critical engine, either to continue take-off within limits of available
take-off length or to stop the aircraft within limits of available runway
length.
b. VR: Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35
feet.
c. VR: Take-off safety speed, reached before the altitude 35 feet with one
engine failed.
73.VMCG : Minimum controllable speed on ground from which a sudden
failure of the critical engine can be controlled by use of primary
flying controls only. Another engine remaining at take-off power.
a. True.
b. False.
74.VMCG : Minimum controllable speed on ground from which a sudden
failure of the critical engine can be controlled by use of primary
flying controls only. Another engine remaining at take-off power.
a. True.
b. False.
75.Stopway is:
a. A defined rectangular area selected or prepared for the normal take-off
and landing run of an aircraft.
b. An area extending beyond the runway, with the following requirements:
Not less in width than the runway it augments, designated by the
airport authorities for use in decelerating the aircraft during reject takeoff and capable of supporting the aircraft during a rejected take-off
without inducing structural damage to the aircraft.
c. An area extending beyond the runway, with the following
requirements: Not less than 500 feet wide, the maximum length is 50%
of the TORA under the control of the airport authorities.
76.2nd segment:
In the configuration existing along the one-engine-out gross take-off flight
path at the point where the gear is fully retracted, the steady climb
gradient without ground effect shall not be less than 2.4% for two-engine
aircraft.
a. True.
b. False.

77.Minimum Altitude which guarantees the same obstruction clearance as

does the MEA but that assures a reliable navigation signal only within 22
nautical miles of the VOR facility is:
a. MEA
b. MORA
c. MOCA
NAVIGATION
78.Radio Navigation System are VOR DME ILS ADF
a. ATC transponder, Weather Radar
b. ATC transponder, FMS
c. FMS, IRS
79.In the modern aircraft, Flight Management System is inclusive in
Navigation system.
a. False.
b. True.
80. Navigation Satellite Timing and Ranging Global Positioning System.
a. Owned by UN, Operated by US Air force
b. Owned by US Government, Operated by NASA
c. Owned by US Government, Operated by US Air force
81.Normally Two GPS receivers installed in commercial aircraft.
a. They are independent receivers and automatic tuning.
b. They are independent receivers and manual tuning.
c. They are independent receivers, only one be used, the other as a backup.
82. The GPS symbols are identical and display as a single symbol when the
GPS receivers calculate the same position.
a. True.
b. False.
83.The IRS consists of at least .. and the IRS mode selector panel.
a. Four Inertial Reference Units (IRUs)
b. Three Inertial Reference Units (IRUs)
c. Two Inertial Reference Units (IRUs)
84.If NAV mode become inoperative in flight, rotating from NAV mode into ATT
mode, aircraft must be in
a. Straight and turn in order to get best accuracy.
b. Straight and level in order to get best accuracy.
c. Descend and turn in order to get best accuracy.

85.Alignment can be accomplished only when the airplane is in

a. Park
b. Flight
c. Push back

86.The Commercial plane normally two VOR receivers are installed. The
receivers can be tuned manually on the NAV RADIO page on the CDU or
Navigation Radio Box.
a. False
b. True
87.It is essential to verify the identity of the tuned navigation (with
decoded) station from the audio Morse code if
a. All bellow
b. The tuned frequency remains displayed
c. An incorrect identifier displays.
88.ATC transponder, mode S operates continuously when the transponder
mode selector is :
a. At TA/RA.
b. Out of standby.
c. At TA.
89.In flight, the selected transponder activates beacon and altitude reporting
when the transponder mode selector is in
a. ALT ON
b. TA
c. TA/RA
d. All the answer above
90.The FMS automatic flight functions manage the airplane lateral flight path
(LNAV) and vertical flight path (VNAV).
a. False
b. True
91.The FMS navigation database supplies the necessary data to fly routes
such as,
a. SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and procedure turns
b. SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and high level app. proc.
c. SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and taxy routes.
92.Two IRUs in conjunction with one FMC and two FMS-CDUs meet the
requirements as the sole means of navigation for flights
a. Up to 06 hours duration.
b. Up to 12 hours duration.
c. Up to 18 hours duration.
93.After a journey completed, one of pilot duty on the FMS called
a. Landing complete.
b. Flight complete.
c. Mission complete.
94.Entry wind and temperature loft data into leg page categories as :
a. Required preflight data
b. Optional preflight data
c. Compulsory preflight data
95.Climb phase starts at thrust reduction for climb and terminates at the top

of climb (T/C) point, step climbs and en route descents are inclusive on
this climb part.
a. True
b. False
96.The DIRECT TO or INTERCEPT COURSE TO a procedures after OFFSET or off
from active route could be done for
a. Return into active route
b. Return into Flight Level
c. Return into normal condition after emergency condition experienced
97.Dual FMC failure, all pages of CDU are still available
a. True
b. False
98.Which identifies the active waypoint on the ND (Navigation Display)?
a. White waypoint symbol
b. Magenta way point symbol
c. Blue waypoint symbol

99.What is the FMC data base?

a. A Navigation chart
b. A computer information storage area that can be updated by
maintenance which contains Navigation and Performance data.
c. An unchangeable computer information storage area

100. With FLCH selected on the Mode Control Panel , What is annunciated as
the engaged pitch mode of the PFD?
a. V/S
b. FLCH SPD
c. ALT

101. How much time is required for the IRU selected to the ATT mode to
align ?
a. 20 seconds of straight and level flight

b. 30 seconds of straight and level flight

c. 60 seconds of straight and level flight

102.

How much time is required for alignment to complete?

a. Approximately 5 minutes
b. Approximately 10 minutes
c. Approximately 15 minutes

AIRWAY MANUAL
103. Which of these is transition altitude?
a. The altitude in the vicinity of an airport at or below which the vertical
position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes (MSL)
b. The initial level-off altitude after takeoff from an airport
c. The altitude above which the altimeter is changed to 29.92 HPa

104.

Which of these is transition level?

a. The initial level-off altitude after takeoff from an airport
b. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
c. The altitude beyond which altitudes are called 'flight levels'

105.

What SID and STAR for?

a. Short Cut to join Airways and Avoidance Weather

b. Fly and join the Airway
c. Airspace management, Noise abatement, terrain and obstacle
avoidance

106.

What is Visual Approach?

a. Flight /approach conducted on IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot
to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport at all times
b. Condition where weather are reported CAVOK
c. Reported weather at the airport Ceiling at or above 1000 Feet and
visibility of 3 miles or greater (see ICAO term of Visual Approach)

107.

Which one is correct for 'Alternate Airport'

a. Airport other than destinations airport

b. An airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended
airport becomes inadvisable (see ICAO term Alternate Aerodrome)
c. Airport use incase emergency