13] Christians say:Jesus had authority to forgive sins, so he must be God

They use the following incident to try and prove that Jesus has the authority to forgive sins,
so he must be God:
- [Mark 2:5-7] - When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralyzed man, Son, your sins are
forgiven. Now some teachers of the law were sitting there, thinking to themselves, Why
does this fellow talk like that? Hes blaspheming! Who can forgive sins but God alone?
It is true that Jesus seems to have the authority to forgive sins in this instance. However, this
does not make him divine, as Jesus told the disciples they can also forgive sins:
- [John 20:23] - "If you forgive anyones sins, their sins are forgiven; if you do not forgive
them, they are not forgiven.
Were the disciples also God incarnate? Of course not.

12] In the beginning was the Word

Perhaps the most commonly quoted evidence for Jesus divinity is the following:
- [John 1:1] - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God.
There is a certain level of deception in this translation. The Greek word for God used in the
phrase and the Word was with God, is the definite form 'ton theos', meaning The God.
However, in the second phrase and the Word was God, the Greek word used for God is
the indefinite form 'theos', which means a god. Consequently, John 1:1 should more
accurately be translated:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
If we look at some different verses, 2 Corinthians 4:4 and Act 28:6, we find the exact same
word (theos) that was used in John 1:1 to describe Jesus is now used to describe Satan and
Paul. However, now the system of translation has been changed:
- [2 Corinthians 4:4] - "the god of this world (Satan) hath blinded the minds of them which
believe not."
- [Act 28:6] Howbeit they looked when he (Paul) should have swollen, or fallen down dead
suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they
changed their minds, and said that he was a god.
This exposes inconsistency in the translation of the Greek word theos. Jesus, Satan and Paul
are all referred to as theos, however only the reference to Jesus has been translated as
God. The Greek used for all is the indefinite article and should therefore be translated as

"a god" for all of them. We are now starting to get a glimpse of how the "translation" of the
Bible took place.
Furthermore, in Biblical language, the term god is used metaphorically to indicate power:
- [Psalms 82:6:] - "I have said, Ye (the Jews) are gods; and all of you are children of the most
High"
- [Exodus 7:1] - "And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made you a god to Pharaoh"
- [2 Corinthians 4:4] - "the god of this world (Satan) hath blinded the minds of them which
believe not."
In the West, it is common when one wishes to praise someone to say "You are a prince," or
"You are an angel", etc. When someone says this do they mean that that person is the son of
the King of England, or a spiritual being? There is a very slight grammatical difference
between saying "You are a prince" and "You are THE prince," however the difference in
meaning is quite dramatic.

10]Christians use this verse to prove that Jesus is God:

- [John 14:11] - "Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at
least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves".
These phrases would imply Jesus divinity, but only if the remainder of the same Gospel is
ignored. Jesus goes on to say to his disciples:
- [John 14:20] - "In that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in
you.
Thus, if Jesus statement I am in the Father and the Father is in me means that he is God,
then so were his disciples. This symbolic statement means oneness of purpose and not
oneness of essence.

9] Christians quote and interpret the following verse to mean that Jesus existed before his
birth on earth therefore proving that Jesus was divine:
- [John 8:58] - Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, before Abraham was, I
am.
This does not prove that Jesus was divine, because the concept of the pre-existence of the
prophets, and of man in general, exists in the Old Testament:
- [The Book of Jeremiah 1:4-5] Now the word of the Lord came to me saying, Before I
formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I
appointed you a prophet to the nations.
- Prophet Solomon says [Proverbs 8:23-27] - Ages ago I was set up at the first, before the
beginning of the earth. When there were no depths I was brought forth, when there were no

springs abounding with water, Before the mountains had been shaped, before the hills, I was
brought forth; before he had made the earth with its fields, or the first of the dust of the
world When he established the heavens, I was there.
Moreover, a blind man uses this exact same phrase when referring to himself in the New
Testament, so it cant be interpreted to mean divinity:
- [John 9:8-9] The neighbours therefore, and they which before had seen him that he was
blind, said, Is not this he that sat and begged? Some said, This is he: others [said], He is like
him: [but] he said, I am [he].

8] Christians claim that the miracles of Jesus prove he was divine.

But where does Jesus get the miracles from? Remember that he gets his miracles from God:
-[Acts 2:22] - Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested to you by
God with mighty works and wonders and signs which God did through him in your midst, as
you yourselves know....
Add to that the fact that other prophets performed miracles, a lot of which were identical to
the miracles of Jesus:
1. Jesus raised the dead. Elijah did the same (I Kings 17:22). So did Elisha (II Kings 4:34).
Even Elishas bones could restore the dead (II Kings 13:21).
2. Jesus caused the blind to see. Elisha caused the blind to see (II Kings 6:17&20).
3. Jesus healed lepers. Elisha cured Naaman the leper (II Kings 5:14).
4. Jesus fed 5,000 people with five loaves of bread and two fishes. Elisha fed 100 people with
twenty barley loaves and a few ears of corn (II Kings 4:44)

7] Christians claim that Jesus accepted worship as God.

They quote a passage like the following in order to show that people worshipped Jesus as
God and he accepted it (or didnt reject it):
-[Matthew 28:17] - When they saw him, they worshiped him; but some doubted.
First, we have to understand what is meant by the word 'worship'. Often in the original
manuscripts the Greek word used for worship is proskyne'o. Ungers Bible Dictionary says
that this word literally means to kiss the hand of someone in token of reverence or to do
homage. An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, by W. E. Vine, says that this

word denotes an act of reverence, whether paid to man or to God. The context determines
whether proskyne'o should be rendered "revere" or "worship."
Consider the parable Jesus gave of the slave who was unable to repay a substantial sum of
money to his master. A form of this Greek word appears in this parable, and in translating it
the King James Version of the Bible says that the servant therefore fell down, and
worshipped [form of proskyne'o] him [the king], saying, Lord, have patience with me, and I
will pay thee all [Matthew 18:26]. Was this man committing an idolatrous act? Not at all! He
was merely expressing the kind of reverence and respect due the king, his master and
superior.
Another example is that Jacob bowed down seven times upon meeting his brother, Esau
[Genesis 33:3], or when Josephs brothers prostrated themselves, or did obeisance, before
him in honour of his position at the Egyptian court [Genesis 42:6]. Clearly, then, the word
proskyne'o, rendered worship in some Bible translations, is not reserved exclusively for
the type of adoration due to God. It can also refer to the respect and honour shown to
another person.
Moreover, if it can be shown that Jesus explicitly told people to worship God alone then it
nullifies any of the above linguistic disagreements:
-[John 4:21-24] - Jesus declared, "Believe me, woman, a time is coming when you will
worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem. You Samaritans worship what
you do not know; we worship what we do know, for salvation is from the Jews. Yet a time is
coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and
truth, for they are the kind of worshipers the Father seeks. God is spirit, and his worshipers
must worship in spirit and in truth." Here Jesus is telling a non-Christian that what she
currently worships is a false deity and that in order to be a true worshiper she needs to
worship the thing that Jesus worships, God almighty.
He also tells the Devil (as a response to being invited to worship the Devil):
-[Luke 3:8] - And Jesus answered him, It is written, You shall worship the Lord your God, and
him only shall you serve.

5]Christians may use the following verse to support the notion of Jesus being God:
[John 10:30]- I and my father are one.
They will say that this shows that Jesus and God are one and the same. What it actually

means is that they are one in purpose, NOT one person or entity. Similar language is used in
another part of the Bible:
[John 17:21] - "that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you.
May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me".
Here Jesus is asking that his disciples be made one like him and the father. Note that the
original Greek word used for one is identical in both verses. Does this mean that the 13
disciples are one person? Of course not, it's purely referring to them all being one in
purpose!
Moreover, when the Jews accused him of claiming divinity based on that statement, Jesus
himself responded with:
- [John 10:34] - Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
He clarified for them, with a scriptural example well known to them, that he was using the
metaphorical language of the prophets which should not be interpreted as ascribing divinity
to himself or to other human beings.

4] Christians use the following verse to support the notion of Jesus being God.
[John 20:28]- Thomas kneels at his feet and says to Jesus my lord, my god.
But here the context is missing. The context is that Thomas wasnt there when Jesus went to
the upper room for the first time after his apparent crucifixion (when he was proving to his
disciples that he wasnt a spirit / spook). The disciples told Thomas that they saw Jesus alive
in the upper room. He didnt believe them (as he wasnt there). However when Thomas
eventually sees Jesus when he comes to the upper room for the second time, Jesus tells him
to come and feel him as proof hes still alive. Thomas then realises this and responds with
the above verse. And my lord, my god is not meant literally! It is meant in the context
when you are shocked or relieved and say thank god or my god.

[2] Dawah is about sincerely sharing the truth of Islam with people. Allah is the guide we
make the introduction. Remember this, every time you give dawah.
Verily you [O Muhammad] guide not whom you like, but Allah guides whom he wills. And He
knows best those who are guided [The Quran 28:56]
Your duty is to convey the message [The Quran 42:48]
And it is not for any soul to believe except by the permission of Allah[The Quran 10:100].

17] Christians use the following verse to support the notion of Jesus being God:
[KJV] [Jn.14.9]: Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou
not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou
then, Show us the Father?
But due to the Bible no one can see God, we can read in John 1:18:
[KJV][Jn.1.18][No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the
bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.]
Also in John 5:37
[KJV][Jn.5.37][And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye
have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.]
Also in John1 4:12:
[KJV][Jn1.4.12][No man hath seen God at any time.
Also in timothy 1 6:16 it says
:
[KJV][Tm1.6.16][Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach
unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honors and power everlasting.
Amen.]
So in that verse Jesus speaks metaphorically and we can see that easy with a little research
in the Bible:
Jesus says to disciples in Luke 10:16:

[KJV][Lk.10.16][He that heareth you heareth me; and he that despiseth you despiseth me;
and he that despiseth me despiseth him that sent me.]
Also he said to them:
[KJV][Mt.10.40][He that receiveth you receiveth me, and he that receiveth me receiveth him
that sent me.]
So know can we say that Disciples are Jesus?
For sure no.
And in Luke 9:48 he said concerning the little child:
[KJV][Lk.9.48][And said unto them, Whosoever shall receive this child in my name receiveth
me: and whosoever shall receive me receiveth him that sent me: for he that is least among
you all, the same shall be great.]

15] MUST READ! Rebuttal for [John 3:16]!

Christians claim that Jesus is the only begotten son of God.
They quote the following verse to prove he is unique because he is the only begotten son of
God:
- [John 3:16] - "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that
whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
Often Muslims use the following two verses to respond to Christians in order to prove that
Jesus isnt the only begotten son of God in the Bible:
- [Psalm 2:7] - "I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this
day have I begotten thee".
- [Exodus 4:22] - "And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel is my son,
even my firstborn".

The first verse does not refer to David according to the NT but rather Jesus:
[Act 13:33] God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up
Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I
begotten thee.
Therefore it is better not to use this as a rebuttal just in case the Christian catches you out.
Similarly, the second verse does not refer to Jacob (as is often interpreted by Muslims) but
rather it is a metaphor referring to the nation of Israel.
A better rebuttal is as follows. Point out the implications of the word begotten by explaining
its dictionary definition:
Adj. 1. begotten - (of offspring) generated by procreation; "naturally begotten child".
Therefore the implication of the word begotten, audhu billah, is that God procreated with
Mary in order to bring about Jesus. If they have any sense of shame they will realise that the
word begotten is wrong, and admit that Jesus was not begotten. In which case Jesus is now
just a non-begotten son of God, like many other sons of God in the Bible, meaning hes
righteous before God which we as Muslims can agree with as all prophets are righteous
before God.
If they stubbornly insist that the word begotten is correct then you can dive into the original
Greek word that begotten was translated from. This word is monogenes, which literally
means "one kind", mono (one) and genes (kind)...or more appropriately, "only kind" or
"unique". Monogenes does not accurately mean "only begotten", nor does it mean "born" or
"only born". If this were the case, then Abraham's monogenes son Isaac in Hebrews 11:17
would mean that Abraham had only one-begotten son, Isaac:
[Hebrews 11:17] By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had
received the promises offered up his only begotten [son].
Yet Isaac was not the only son of Abraham, he also had Ishmael, so if we take the meaning
of monogenes as begotten then we have a contradiction. However, Isaac was Abraham's
"unique" son, the son of the promise. So, the correct way to translate John 3:16 is as follows:
[John 3:16] - "For God so loved the world, that he gave his unique Son, that whosoever
believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
This is the correct translation which we Muslims have no problem accepting, because Jesus
as a prophet was most definitely unique in many senses, such as the fact that he had a
mother but no father and that hes the only prophet coming back to this world just before
the Day of Judgement.

14] Christians say:

Jesus is the eternal Word made flesh in the same way that the Quran is Allahs eternal
speech made into a book
The Quran is indeed the eternal, uncreated speech of Allah. The above assertion by the
Christian represents a philosophical trick of sorts, however there are a number of reasons
why it is a false equivalence to say that Jesus is the eternal Word made flesh in the same
way that the Quran is the eternal speech made into a book:
1. Quran is an expression of God's knowledge, but we don't say that the Quran itself is God.
Nor do we worship it as such. Christians, however, say that Jesus is an expression of God as
his word, and he IS God. He is also worshipped as such.
2. The Quran is God's speech. Speech itself does not have a mind of its own, nor a separate
will from God. Jesus had a mind of his own and also a different will.
3. It would nonsensical to make a statement like "God's speech is less great than God",
because the entity of speech (words, sounds etc.) is not a comparable to the entity of the
speaker (the one who generates the words, sounds). We might compare ourselves to each
other or any other human being, just as we might compare our speech, because these are
similar entities. But I wouldn't compare myself to my speech, or myself to anothers speech.
And yet Jesus compares himself to God Almighty many times (e.g. "The Father is greater
than I").
Consider this: if they disagree in spite of all these points, then their reasoning is no different
to an Atheist 'proving' that God doesn't exist by asking the philosophical trick question "Can
God create a rock so big that even he can't move it?"

13] Christians say:Jesus had authority to forgive sins, so he must be God

They use the following incident to try and prove that Jesus has the authority to forgive sins,
so he must be God:

- [Mark 2:5-7] - When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralyzed man, Son, your sins are
forgiven. Now some teachers of the law were sitting there, thinking to themselves, Why
does this fellow talk like that? Hes blaspheming! Who can forgive sins but God alone?
It is true that Jesus seems to have the authority to forgive sins in this instance. However, this
does not make him divine, as Jesus told the disciples they can also forgive sins:
- [John 20:23] - "If you forgive anyones sins, their sins are forgiven; if you do not forgive
them, they are not forgiven.
Were the disciples also God incarnate? Of course not.

12] In the beginning was the Word

Perhaps the most commonly quoted evidence for Jesus divinity is the following:
- [John 1:1] - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God.
There is a certain level of deception in this translation. The Greek word for God used in the
phrase and the Word was with God, is the definite form 'ton theos', meaning The God.
However, in the second phrase and the Word was God, the Greek word used for God is
the indefinite form 'theos', which means a god. Consequently, John 1:1 should more
accurately be translated:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
If we look at some different verses, 2 Corinthians 4:4 and Act 28:6, we find the exact same
word (theos) that was used in John 1:1 to describe Jesus is now used to describe Satan and
Paul. However, now the system of translation has been changed:
- [2 Corinthians 4:4] - "the god of this world (Satan) hath blinded the minds of them which
believe not."
- [Act 28:6] Howbeit they looked when he (Paul) should have swollen, or fallen down dead
suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they
changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

This exposes inconsistency in the translation of the Greek word theos. Jesus, Satan and Paul
are all referred to as theos, however only the reference to Jesus has been translated as
God. The Greek used for all is the indefinite article and should therefore be translated as
"a god" for all of them. We are now starting to get a glimpse of how the "translation" of the
Bible took place.
Furthermore, in Biblical language, the term god is used metaphorically to indicate power:
- [Psalms 82:6:] - "I have said, Ye (the Jews) are gods; and all of you are children of the most
High"
- [Exodus 7:1] - "And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made you a god to Pharaoh"
- [2 Corinthians 4:4] - "the god of this world (Satan) hath blinded the minds of them which
believe not."
In the West, it is common when one wishes to praise someone to say "You are a prince," or
"You are an angel", etc. When someone says this do they mean that that person is the son of
the King of England, or a spiritual being? There is a very slight grammatical difference
between saying "You are a prince" and "You are THE prince," however the difference in
meaning is quite dramatic.

11] "I am the Way"

Christians interpret the following verse to mean that Jesus is God and that no one shall enter
into heaven except if they worship Jesus.
-[John 14:6] - "... I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except
through me".
This is not the case, as the full context of this statement is given just a few verses earlier:
- [John 14:2] - "In my Father's house are many rooms; if it were not so, I would have told you.
I am going there to prepare a place for you".
He said that in God's mansion there are "many" rooms. Jesus was sent to guide to only one
of them. The countless other rooms were reserved for other tribes and nations if they would
obey their messengers. However, Jesus was telling his followers that they need not worry
themselves about the other rooms. Anyone from among his people who wished to enter into
the room which was reserved for them could only do so if they followed Jesus and obeyed his

command. So Jesus confirmed that he was going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the
mansions in "my Father's house". Further, the verse clearly states that Jesus was the "WAY"
to a mansion. He did not say that he is the "DESTINATION" which would be the case if he
were God. This is indeed confirmed in John 10:9 where Jesus tells us that he is "the door" to
"the pasture."

9] Christians quote and interpret the following verse to mean that Jesus existed before his
birth on earth therefore proving that Jesus was divine:
- [John 8:58] - Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, before Abraham was, I
am.
This does not prove that Jesus was divine, because the concept of the pre-existence of the
prophets, and of man in general, exists in the Old Testament:
- [The Book of Jeremiah 1:4-5] Now the word of the Lord came to me saying, Before I
formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I
appointed you a prophet to the nations.
- Prophet Solomon says [Proverbs 8:23-27] - Ages ago I was set up at the first, before the
beginning of the earth. When there were no depths I was brought forth, when there were no
springs abounding with water, Before the mountains had been shaped, before the hills, I was
brought forth; before he had made the earth with its fields, or the first of the dust of the
world When he established the heavens, I was there.
Moreover, a blind man uses this exact same phrase when referring to himself in the New
Testament, so it cant be interpreted to mean divinity:
- [John 9:8-9] The neighbours therefore, and they which before had seen him that he was
blind, said, Is not this he that sat and begged? Some said, This is he: others [said], He is like
him: [but] he said, I am [he].

6] Christians say: Jesus had no father, so he must be God!

Well, Adam had neither father nor mother and Melchizekdek was "without father or mother
or genealogy, and has neither beginning of days nor end of life, but resembling the Son of
God" [Hebrews 7:3].

5]Christians may use the following verse to support the notion of Jesus being God:
[John 10:30]- I and my father are one.
They will say that this shows that Jesus and God are one and the same. What it actually
means is that they are one in purpose, NOT one person or entity. Similar language is used in
another part of the Bible:
[John 17:21] - "that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you.
May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me".
Here Jesus is asking that his disciples be made one like him and the father. Note that the
original Greek word used for one is identical in both verses. Does this mean that the 13
disciples are one person? Of course not, it's purely referring to them all being one in
purpose!
Moreover, when the Jews accused him of claiming divinity based on that statement, Jesus
himself responded with:
- [John 10:34] - Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
He clarified for them, with a scriptural example well known to them, that he was using the
metaphorical language of the prophets which should not be interpreted as ascribing divinity
to himself or to other human beings.

4] Christians use the following verse to support the notion of Jesus being God.
[John 20:28]- Thomas kneels at his feet and says to Jesus my lord, my god.
But here the context is missing. The context is that Thomas wasnt there when Jesus went to
the upper room for the first time after his apparent crucifixion (when he was proving to his
disciples that he wasnt a spirit / spook). The disciples told Thomas that they saw Jesus alive
in the upper room. He didnt believe them (as he wasnt there). However when Thomas
eventually sees Jesus when he comes to the upper room for the second time, Jesus tells him
to come and feel him as proof hes still alive. Thomas then realises this and responds with
the above verse. And my lord, my god is not meant literally! It is meant in the context
when you are shocked or relieved and say thank god or my god.

[2] Dawah is about sincerely sharing the truth of Islam with people. Allah is the guide we
make the introduction. Remember this, every time you give dawah.
Verily you [O Muhammad] guide not whom you like, but Allah guides whom he wills. And He
knows best those who are guided [The Quran 28:56]
Your duty is to convey the message [The Quran 42:48]
And it is not for any soul to believe except by the permission of Allah[The Quran 10:100].

God tells us in the Quran that the ONLY true religion from God is Islam. Islam is the only way
to Paradise.
And whoever desires other than Islam as religion - never will it be accepted from him, and
he, in the Hereafter, will be among the losers. [Quran 3:85]
While in the Bible, the religion of Christianity, is not mentioned even once.

They said, "The Most Gracious has begotten a son"! You have uttered a gross blasphemy.
The heavens are about to shatter, the earth is about to tear asunder, and the mountains are
about to crumble. Because they claim that the Most Gracious has begotten a son. It is not
befitting the Most Gracious that He should beget a son. Every single one in the heavens and
the earth is a servant of the Most Gracious. He has encompassed them, and has counted
them one by one. All of them will come before Him on the Day of Resurrection as individuals.
[Quran 19:88-95].

The Messiah, son of Mary, was not but a messenger; [other] messengers have passed on
before him. And his mother was a supporter of truth. They both used to eat food. Look how
We make clear to them the signs; then look how they are deluded. [Quran 5:75].

The Father and Jesus are two DIFFERENT PERSONS. They are not one same person. Jesus is
not the Father and the Father is not Jesus. In the Bible, Jesus tells us that the Father is
ANOTHER person.
[KJV][Jn.5.31][If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.]

[KJV][Jn.5.32][There is ANOTHER that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness
which he witnesseth of me is true.]
KJV][Jn.5.37][And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have
neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.]
Then Jesus declares the Father to be the ONLY TRUE GOD.
[KJV][Jn.17.3][And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus
Christ, whom thou hast sent]
Anyone trying to prove Divinity of Jesus is going against the words of Jesus. Jesus is a
messenger of God, and Jesus declared someone else to be the ONLY TRUE GOD.

Whenever I discuss with Christians they write list of verses from the bible which has nothing
to do with what we are discussing. I posted the 10 top reasons why Jesus peace upon him is
not God, and they posted this verse to me
John 13:8-12
8 Peter saith unto him, Thou shalt never wash my feet. Jesus answered him, If I wash thee
not, thou hast no part with me.
9 Simon Peter saith unto him, Lord, not my feet only, but also my hands and my head.
10 Jesus saith to him, He that is washed needeth not save to wash his feet, but is clean
every whit: and ye are clean, but not all.
11 For he knew who should betray him; therefore said he, Ye are not all clean.
12 So after he had washed their feet, and had taken his garments, and was set down again,
he said unto them, Know ye what I have done to you?



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The question is what does washing the dispels's feet has to do with the divinity of Jesus
peace be upon him?
They claim that the creator of heaven and earth washed feet!! to show how humble he
was !!! I am really lost with this logic !

Top 10 reasons why Jesus peace be upon him is not God

10. God cannot be born, God had no beginning. But "Jesus was born"
9. Jesus never said "I'm God" in any religion, Jesus never said "Worship me", No explicit
statement ever.
8. No one has ever seen God. But "People saw Jesus"
7. During Jesus time, many people didn't believe Jesus was "God". If he was God, then
everybody at that time would have worshiped him, but there were Jewish people practicing
their religion and go to synagogue and so on. Jesus never taught Trinity. Word Trinity no
where in the Bible.
6. God dont Sleep, Eat, Drink,etc. But Jesus Slept, Ate, Drank. Therefore, Jesus is a
Messenger not God. Additionally, it says in the Bible that Jesus was praying, so if Jesus is
God then why he needs to pray?
5. God knows Everything. But Jesus didnt know everything. In the Bible, Jesus claimed that
Gods knowledge is greater than him. Jesus asked about the hour of the day of judgement. If
he would have been God, he would have known that.
4. Jesus explicitly stated he is not God. The Bible says: John 17:3 And eternal life is this: to
know you, the one true God, and him whom you sent, Yeshua the Messiah
3. The title Son of God doesnt make any sense, In fact, Jesus never had a father and Mary
was virgin.
So what do we mean when we say God had a son? Lets make it clear. For instance, we see
that dogs have puppies and cats have kittens. So what do God have? baby Gods?? So
it doesnt make any sense. It is like saying: Hey I had a son who is a Goldfish or I have a son
who is me (I had myself, or I made myself). So it doesnt make any sense. In fact, God
doesnt die, God doesnt have children and God doesnt have human needs.
2. God doesnt change. For example, God doesnt get old, or get tired, or steal. Because only

God is perfect.
1. God is the object of worship. No matter what religion you follow and who ever they call
God, is their object of worship. Like give devotion to God, make prayer to God and pay
charity in the name of God. So had Jesus been God? He would have been told people to
worship him. But in fact in Matthew 15:9 he did the exact opposite. But in vain they do
worship Me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men also another translation
Their worship of me is empty since they teach instructions that are human rules. So Jesus
said dont worship me in the Bible.

1 Samuel 20:30 (The Living Bible)

"... you stupid son of a bitch ..."
1 Samuel 20:30 (The Message) Saul exploded in anger at Jonathan: "You son of a slut!"
1 Samuel 20:30 (New Living Translation)
Saul boiled with rage at Jonathan. "You stupid son of a
whore!" he swore at him. "
Is that the word of God ??
How Can a divine book contain such words ??
is God's revelation teaching us how to swear?

How can Jesus be God when his power comes from God
- [John 5:30] -"I can of mine own self do nothing... and [Acts 2:22] - Men of Israel, hear
these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested to you by God with mighty works and
wonders and signs which God did through him in your midst, as you yourselves know....
- [John 13:16] - "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither
he that is sent greater than he that sent him".
- [John 14:28] - " ...My father is greater than I".

It's clear from the Bible that Jesus is not God. He is a sent by God.

In Matthew 27:46, And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "Eli,
Eli, lama sabachthani?" that is, "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?"
If Jesus is God, who is he crying to? is he crying to himself?
Why was he crying? didn't he come for this to die for us on the cross? did he change his
mind there?