Max Marks:360

JEE-MAIN

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Maths and
chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for each correct response.
Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response of each
question. 1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an
item in the answer sheet.
There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in
each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instruction

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2.

The minimum kinetic energy of electron, hydrogen ion, and helium ion
required for ionization of a hydrogen atom at rest by colliding with it
are E1 , E2 and E3 respectively, then
1) E1 E2 E3
2) E1 E2 E3
3) E1 E2 E3
4) E1 E3 E2
Calculate the charge on the capacitor long time after the assembling of
the circuit:
4V

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1.

PHYSICS

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3.

4.

1) 5 C
2) 10 C
3) 15 C
4) zero
A string fixed at both the ends is vibrating in the lowest mode of
vibration for which a point at quarter of its length from one end is a
point of maximum amplitude. The frequency of vibration in this mode
is 100 Hz. What will be the frequency emitted when it vibrates in the
next mode such that the point is again a point of maximum
amplitude?
1) 400 Hz
2) 200 Hz
3) 600 Hz
4) 300 Hz
A projectile of mass 2 kg has velocities 3 m/s and 4 m/s at two points
during its flight in the uniform gravitational field of the earth. If these
two velocities are perpendicular to each other, then the minimum
kinetic energy of the particle during its flight is
1) 6.32 J
2) 8.40 J
3) 16.32 J
4) 5.76 J

7.

1)

2)

2R
2 1

3)

R
2 1 2

4)

R
2 1 2

ps

A particle of positive
charge per unit mass is released from origin

with velocity v v0 i in a magnetic field

te

8.

R
1 2

6.

In the experiment to determine the Youngs modulus of a wire, a graph

is plotted between:
1) Load on hanger and radius of wire
2) Load on hanger and mean value of slide calliperse reading
3) Radius of the wire and slide calliperse reading
4) Load on hanger and slide calliperse reading during load increasing
A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K. The energy of radiation
emitted by this object with wavelength between 499 nm and 500 nm is
U1 , between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U 2 and between 1499 nm and
1500 nm is U 3 . The wein constant, b 2.88 106 nm K . Then
1) U1 0
2) U 3 0
3) U1 U 2
4) U 2 U1
A plano convex lens touches a plano-concave lens such that their
curved surfaces are in contact. If the lenses are made of different
materials of refractive indices 1 and 2 and R is the radius of curvature
of the curved surfaces of both the lenses then focal length of the
combination is:

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5.

ys

3 v0
3 v0
B B0 k for x
and B 0 for x
2 B0
2 B0

would be:
3B0

3 v0

v0 t
2)

2 B0
3B0

3)

v
3 v0

0 t

2 B0 2 3B0

.s
t

3 v0
3

v0 t

2 B0
2 B0

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9.

1)

ud

The x-co-ordinate of the particle at time t

4)

vt
3 v0
0
2 B0 2

A simple microscope has a focal length of 5 cm. The magnification at the least
distance of distinct vision is (Least distance of distinct vision D=25cm)
1) 1
2) 5
3) 4
4) 6
10. Statement-I Surface waves and sky waves cannot be used for broadcasting on the
moon.
Statement-II Atmosphere of variable refractive index is required for successful
broadcasting using surface & sky waves
1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1
3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is true
11. In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of friction between the
two blocks is 1/ 2 . The force of friction acting between the two blocks
is:

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1) 8 N
2) 10 N
3) 6 N
4) 4 N
12. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a
forward resistance of 50 and with infinite backward resistance. If the
battery voltage is 6 V, the current through that 100 resistance (in
amperes) is

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14.

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13.

1) Zero
2) 0.02
3) 0.03
4) 0.036
Two coils A and B have coefficient of mutual inductance M 2 H . The
magnetic flux passing through coil A changes by 4 Wb in 10 s due to
the change in current in B. Then:
1) Change in current in B in this time interval is 0.5 A
2) The change in current in B in this time interval is 2 A
3) The change in current in B in this time interval is 8 A
4) A change in current of 1A in coil A will produce a change in flux
passing through B by 4 Wb.
The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two
atoms of X fuse to give one atom of Y and an energy Q is released.
Then
1) Q 2 E2 E1
2) Q E2 2 E1
3) Q 2 E1 E2
4) Q E2 E1
After perfectly inelastic collision between two identical particles moving
with same speed in different directions, the speed of the particle
become half the initial speed. The angle between the velocities of the
two before collision is:
1) 600
2) 450
3) 1200
4) 300
An AC source producing emf V V0 sin t sin 2t is connected in series
with a capacitor and a resistor. The current found in the circuit is
i i1 sin t 1 i2 sin 2t 2 . Then
1) i1 i2
2) i1 i2
3) i1 i2
4) i1 may be less than, equal to or greater than i2
A small electric dipole is placed at origin with its dipole moment
directed along positive x-axis. The direction of electric field at point
2, 2 2, 0 is

15.

16.

17.

18.

1) Along positive x-axis

2) Along positive y-axis
3) along negative y-axis
4) along negative x-axis
Figure shows the intensity wavelength relations of X-rays coming from two different
Coolidge tubes. The solid curve represent the relation for the tube A in which the
potential difference between the target and the filament is VA and the atomic number of
the target material is Z A . These quantities are VB and Z B for the other tube. Then

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1) VA VB , Z A Z B
2) VA VB , Z A Z B
3) VA VB , Z A Z B
4) VA VB , Z A Z B
19. In YDSE bi-chromatic light of wavelengths 400 nm and 560 nm are
used. The distance between the slits is 0.1 mm and the distance
between the plane of the slits and the screen is 1 m. The minimum
distance between two successive regions of complete darkness is.
1) 4 mm
2) 5.6 mm
3) 14 mm
4) 28 mm
20. A block of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a spring of force
constant k 20 N / m . The other end of the spring is attached to a fixed
rigid support. This spring block system is made to oscillate on a rough
horizontal surface 0.04 . The initial displacement of the block from
the equilibrium position O (O is the position of the block when the
spring is in natural length) is a 30 cm . How many times the block
crosses the point O before coming to rest? g 10 m / s 2

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1) 11
2) 7
3) 6
4) 15
21. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air
using the resonance column method, the length of the air column that
resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1 m. When
this length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with
the first overtone. Calculate the end correction.
1) 0.012 m
2) 0.025 m
3) 0.05 m
4) 0.024 m
22. Three closed vessels A, B and C at the same temperature T and
contain gases which obey the Maxwellian distribution of velocities.
Vessel A contains only O2 , B contains only N 2 and C contains a mixture of
equal quantities of O2 and N 2 . If the average speed of the O2 molecules in
vessel A is v1 and that of the N 2 molecules in vessel B is v2 , the average
speed of the O2 molecules in vessel C is
1)

v1 v2
2

2) v1

3) v1v2

1/2

4)

3KT
M

g
sin
2

2) 2 g sin

3) g sin

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1)

23. A compass needle is placed in the gap of a parallel plate capacitor. The
capacitor is connected to a battery through a resistance. The compass
needle
1) Does not deflect
2) Deflects for a very short time and then comes back to the original
position
3) Deflects and remains deflected as long as the battery is connected
4) Deflects and gradually comes to the original position in a time which
is large compared to the time constant.
24. The acceleration a of the plank P required to keep the centre C of a
cylinder in a fixed position during the motion is (no slipping takes
place between cylinder and plank). (Wedge is fixed)

4)

2 g sin

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25. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with increase
of temperature
2) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p-type semiconductors
3) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes
4) A p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode.
26. In the given circuit it is observed that the current I is independent of
the value of the resistance R6 . Then, the resistance values must satisfy:

1) R1 R2 R5 R3 R4 R6

2)

1
1
1
1

R5 R6 R1 R2 R3 R4

3) R1 R4 R2 R3

4) R1 R3 R2 R4

27. A spherical steel ball released at the top of a long column of glycerin of
length l, falls through a distance l/2 with accelerated motion and the
remaining distance l/2, with uniform velocity. Let t1 and t2 denote the
times taken to cover the first and second half and w1 and w2 the work
done against gravity in the two halves then
1) t1 t2 , w1 w2
2) t1 t2 , w1 w2
3) t1 t2 , w1 w2
4) t1 t2 , w1 w2
28. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if
an external electric field is switched on

m YA KL
2) 2
YAK

1/2

mYA
3) 2

KL

ps

1/2

m
1) 2
k

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1) Only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute

2) Only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute
3) Both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute
4) Force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change.
29. One end of long metallic wire of length L is tied to the ceiling. The
other end is tied to massless spring of spring constant k. A mass m
hangs freely from the free end of the spring. The area of cross-section
and the Youngs modulus of the wire are A and Y respectively. If the
mass is slightly pulled down and released it will oscillate with a time
period T equal to:
1/2

mL
4) 2
YA

2m
4m M

3)

m
M m

MATHEMATICS

4)

4m
2m M

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31.

2)

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8m
4m M

1)

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30. Two men each of mass m stand on the rim of a horizontal circular
disc, diametrically opposite to each other. The disc has a mass M and
is free to rotate about a vertical axis passing through its centre of
mass. Each man start simultaneously along the rim clockwise and
reaches their original starting positions on the disc. The angle turned
through by the disc with respect to the ground (in radian) is:

Let z1 , z2 , z3 be three distinct complex numbers such that

z z
z1 2 z2 2 z3 2 and arg 3 1 . Then the value of
z2 z1 6
z2 2 z32 2 z2 2 z3 z2 z3 6 .

32.

33.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 0
Let X ={1,2,3,4,..,98,99,100} and Y be a subset of X such that the sum of no two
elements in Y is divisible by 7, then maximum possible number of elements in Y
is..
1) 44
2) 45
3) 46
4) 43
The number of ways in which 4 married couples can be sit, four on each side of a long
table so that males on one side and females on the other side and no wife is in front of
her husband is,..
1)216
2)9
3)672
4)652
n

34.

If

Pr 1 n Pr n Pr 1

, then the value of

a
b
c

1) 1

2) 2

b2
=
a b c

3)1/2

4)3/2

35.

36.

Mr.A tosses a fair coin. If it shows tail, A is asked to roll a fair die and As score is,
the number that the die shows. If the coin shows head, A is asked to toss five more
fair coins and As score is, total number of heads (including the first coin). If A tells
you that his score is 3, then the probability that A rolls a die, is
1) 23/96
2) 1/6
3) 7/44
4) 8/23
Find the maximum value of log a.log b It is given that coefficient of 2nd,3rd& 4th
1

25

22

terms in the expansion a b are in A P and the value of 3rd term is equal to 84
(a,b>1)
1)1/2
2) 3
3) 2
4)1
2
2
2
If each pair of the equations x ax b 0, x bx c 0 and x cx a 0 has one
common root, then product of all those common roots is
1) abc
2) 2 abc
3) ab bc ca
4) 2 ab bc ca
n

The number of terms in the expansion of

1) 501

2) 601

n 1

r 1

3r 3 r 1 !

n 2 !

968

500

which are integers, is given by

3) 251

4) 451

6
, then the value of n = .
7

1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7
o
A vertical tower PQ subtends the same angle of 30 at each of two places A and B,
60m apart on the ground. If AB subtends an angle of 120o at P, the foot of the tower,
the height of the tower is
1)20m
2)15m
3)25m
4) 22m

x 1 y 2 z a
(a, a real number) lies in the plane 3 x 4 y 6 z 7 0 .If the

2
3
1

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The line

plane is rotated about the line, till the plane passes through origin, then the equation of
the plane in new position is..
1) 2 x 3 y 4 z 0
2) x y z 0
3) x 2 y z 0
4) 2 x y 2 z 0

If p, q are mutually perpendicular unit vectors and if the vectors x p xq y ( pxq ) ,

y p yq z ( pxq ) , p ( pxq ) are coplanar vectors, then y is
1) A M of x & z
2) G M of x & z 3) H M of x & z 4) (x+z)/3
In a triangle ABC, if a = 2, B 600 , C 750 then which of the following is incorrect
about the triangle ABC

42.

43.

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41.

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40.

If

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39.

38.

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37.

1) b 6 units

2) area of the triangle is

3 3
square units
2

3) length of angle bisector of angle B is 4 units 4) circumradius of the triangle is 2

44.

If cos 1 cos 1 and p 9 x 2 4 y 2 12 xy cos then which of the following is

2
3
incorrect
1) Maximum value of p is 36
2) Minimum value of p is 0
x

3)
0

45.

p
p 36 p

4) p d 18
0

If ABC is an acute angled triangle with side lengths a, b, c and its area is k square
units, then the value of a 2b2 4k 2 b2c 2 4k 2 c 2 a 2 4k 2

1) a b c
2

46.

2) 2 a b c

a
3)

b2 c2

a
4)

b2 c2
2

ABC is a triangle whose incentre is at I. Let P and Q be the feet of the perpendiculars,
AP AQ

BI CI
B
C
4) tan tan
2
2

drawn from A to the lines BI and CI respectively. Then the value of

2) cot
3) tan
2

2
From a point P, outside a circle, with centre C, two tangents PA, PB are drawn to the
A

1) cot A
47.

1
1
1

. Then the length of the chord AB is equal to ..

2
2
(CA) ( PA) 16

circle such that

1)8
48.

2)4

Evaluate lim
x 0

1
sin x

3)6

ln(1 x )

4)10

1 tan 2 y y dy ....
0

1) e
2) e2
3) e1
4) e 2
In a triangle ABC, equation of BC is x - y = 0, orthocenter and centroid of the triangle
are (5, 8) and (3, 14/3) respectively. If the diameter of circumcircle of the triangle
ABC, is 10 then the value of ,is
1)4
2)3
3)5
4) 6
A variable line from (-1,0) intersects the parabola x 2 4 y at two distinct points A and
B Then the locus of the centroid of the triangle OAB (where O is origin) is ..
1) 3x 2 2 x 4 y
2) 3x 2 2 x 4 y
3) 3 y 2 2 y 4 x
4) 3x 2 2 x 2 y

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51.

cos x x sin x dx = ..
x cos x x

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50.

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49.

cx

cos x x
3) ln cos x x c

x 7 tan 3 x 1 tan 2 x dx

tan

x tan x

1
2

1
The value of

5
2

e tan

tan 1 sin x

sin x

and
2

1 2sin

2sin

2n

2n

then

r 1

f (sin 4 x)dx =

3)1

4)0

sin
sin
0 and sin sin .
1 and
sin
sin

....

2)4

n (2 r 1)

4) None

=..

sin sin

1) 2
55.

dx

tan 1 cos x

3) 2 tan x 2 sec x c

2)-1

If , 0,

lim

2) 2 tan x 2 c

1)2
54.

=.

1) 2 tan x 2 c
53.

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t

2) ln

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52.

9 tan

cos x x

cx

4) ln x ln cos x x 2 ln cos x c

ud

1) ln

3)3

4) 0

1) f (sin 4 x)dx
0

56.

2) n. f (sin 4 x)dx
0

3) 2n 2 . f (sin 4 x)dx

4) None of these

1
2 and
[2 x]

Number of common points for the curves y sin 1 (2 x) tan 1

y cos 1 (2 x 5) 1 , is (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function) .

57.

58.

1) 1
2)0
3) 3
4) 4
Circles are drawn on the chords of the rectangular Hyperbola xy = 4, that are parallel
to the line y = x, as diameter pass through two fixed points, they are .., .
1) (2,2) & (-2,-2)
2) (2,-2) & (-2,2)
3) (1,2) & (-1,-2)
4) (-1,2) & (1,-2)
The mean and variance of n observations x1 , x2 , x3 ,......xn are 5 and 0 respectively. If
n

x
i 1

400 then the value of n is equal to

1) 12
2)16
3)14
4) 15
If from the point P of (4,4) perpendiculars to the straight lines 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and
y = mx + 7 meet at Q and R respectively such that the area of triangle PQR is
maximum, then the value of m is equal to,..
1) 1
2) -3/4
3) -1
4) 4/3
Statement 1: If the line x + y =3 is a tangent to an ellipse whose foci are at (4,3) and
(6,a), at the point (1,2) then a = 17.
Statement 2 : Tangent and normal drawn to an ellipse at any point P, bisect the angle
subtended by foci S and S1 at that point and hence a focus (S1), the point of tangency
(P), image of other focus(S), with respect to the tangent line are collinear points.
1) Statement 1, statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1
2) Statement 1, statement 2 are true and statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement 1
3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

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60.

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59.

CHEMISTRY

61.

A tetra atomic molecule (A) on reaction with nitrogen(I)oxide, produces two

substances (B) and (C). (B) is a dehydrating agent. While substance (C) is a diatomic
gas which shows almost inert behaviour. The substances (A) and (B) and (C)
respectively will be
1) P4, P4O10, N2
2) P4, N2O5, N2 3) P4, P2O3, Ar
4) P4, P2O3, H2
62. The IUPAC name of the compound
CH 2CH 3

Cl
C C
H 3C

63.

is
1) E-2-choloro-3-iodopent-2-ene
2) Z-2- choloro-3-iodopent-2-ene
3) E-3-iodo-4-chloropent-3-ene
4) Z-3-iodo-4-choropent-3-ene
A real gas is supposed to abey the gas equation P v b nRT at STP if one mole of a
gas occupies 25dm3 volume at STP, calculate diameter of each gas molecule.
1) 1.27 108 cm
2) 1.27 106 cm
3) 4.56 108 cm
4) 4.56 106 cm

The enthalpies of hydration of Ca 2 , Mn 2 and Zn 2 follow the order

1) Mn 2 Ca 2 Zn 2
2) Zn 2 Ca 2 Mn 2
3) Mn 2 Zn 2 Ca 2
4) Zn 2 Mn 2 Ca 2
65. The absolute configuration of
64.

CO2 H

HO2C

HO
H

OH

is

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1) S,R
2) S,S
3) R,R
4) R,S

66. A stationary He ion emitted a photon corresponding to the first line H of the
lyman series. That photon liberated a photon electron from a stationary H-atom in
ground state. What is the kinetic energy of that electron?
1) 2.36 1018 Joul
2) 4.36 1018 Joul
3) 4.36 1016 Joul
4) 2.36 1016 Joul
67. If a mixture of NaCl, conc. H 2 SO4 and K 2Cr2O7 is heated in a dry test tube. A red
vapour(P) is formed. This vapour(P) dissolves in aqueous NaOH to form a yellow
solution.Which upon treatment with AgNO3 forms a red solid (Q). P and Q are
respectively .
1) CrO2Cl2 and Ag 2Cr2O7
2) Na2 [CrOCl5 ] and Ag 2CrO4
3) Na2 [CrOCl5 ] and Ag 2Cr2O7
4) CrO2Cl2 and Ag 2CrO4
68. Amongst the following compounds

ys

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CHO

OH

CHOH

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t

O
(I )

( II )

CHO

CH 2OH
( IV )

( III )

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1) I,III,IV are stereoisomers

2) I,II are tautomers
3) III,IV are positional isomers 4) I,IV are tautomers
69. Rate of diffusion of ozonized oxygen is 0.4 5 times that of pure oxygen
what is percentage of degree of association of oxygen assuming pure O2
in the sample initially
1) 20
2) 40
3) 60
4) none of these
70.
Number of anti bonding electrons in N2 is
1) 4
2) 10
3) 12
4) 14
71. Which of the following compound is most reactive towards catalytic
hydrogenation?
1) H 2C CH 2
2) H 3C CH CH 2
CH 3

H 3C

CH 3

H 3C

C C

C C

H
3) H
4) H C
72. For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction A 2 B C of the total
pressure after time t was Pt and after long time t was P then k in
terms of Pt , P , and ' t ' is
3

CH 3

 P
2.303
log

t
p pt

2 P
2.303
3) k
log

t
3 p pt

1) k

73.

74.

2) k

2 P
2.303
log

t
p pt

4) k

2 P
2.303
log
t
2 p pt

Among the following donors the one that forms most stable adduct with the Lewis
acid B(CH 3 )3 is
1) 4-methyl pyridine
2) 2,6-dimethyl pyridine
3) 4- nitro pyridine
4) 2,6-di-tert-butyl pyridine
In the following carbocation, H/CH3 that is most likely to migrate to the positively
charged carbon is
H

1
+
5
CH 3 2C 3C C CH 3

HO H

CH 3

4) H at C-2

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1) CH3 at C-4
2) H at C-4
3) CH3 at C-2
H
75. The P of the resultant solution of 20 mL of
1) P log 2

2) P

ka1

3) P

ka1

P ka1 P ka2
4)
2

The correct order of tri positive ionic radius of Ce, Sm, Tb, Lu is
1) Ce>Sm>Tb>Lu
2) Lu>Tb>Sm>Ce
3) Tb>Lu>Sm>Ce
4) Sm>Tb>Lu>Ce
77. In the reaction

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76.

ka2

ps

0.1 M H 3 PO4 and 20 mL 0.1 M Na3 PO4 is

.s
t

ud

NaI
HBr
Alc . KOH
(C )

( B )
( A)
Acetone
CH 3 CH CH 3
Peroxide

Br

, The compound C is

CH 3 CH CH 3

CH 3 CH CH 2 I

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I
I
1) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 I 2)
3)
4) CH 3 CH CHI
78. 108 g of fairly concentrate solution of AgNO3 is electrolyzed using 0.1 F
of electricity the weight of resulting solution is
1) 94 g
2) 11.6 gm
3) 96.4 gm
4) none of these
0
79. The reaction of ammonium chloride with BCl3 at 140 C followed NaBH 4 gives product
X. Which of the following statements is/are true for X?
(i) X is not isoelectronic with benzene.
(ii) X undergoes addition reactionwith HCl
(iii) X is isostructural with Graphite
(iv) X undergoes polymerization at 900 C .
1)(i) and (ii)
2) (ii) only
3) (ii) and (iii)
4) (i) and (iv)
80. Which one of the following will most readily be dehydrated in basic
condition?

1)

OH

OH

2)

OH
OH
3)
4)
81. When 36.0 gm of a solute having the empirical formula CH 2O is
dissolved in 1.20 kg of water the solution freezes at 0.930 C what is the
molecular formula of the solute K f 1.860 C kg / mol

82.

on reaction with methanol in presence of acidic medium gives

majorly
O

OCH 3

.i

83.

1) C2 H 4O
2) C2 H 2O2
3) C2 H 4O3
4) C2 H 4O2
The structures of the complexes Cu NH 3 4 (ClO4 )2 and Cu NH 3 4 (ClO4 ) in the solution
respectively are
1)Square planar and tetrahedral
2) Octa hedral and square pyramidal
3)Octahedral and trigonal bipyramidal
4) Tetra hedral and square planar

ps

OCH 3

OCH 3

CH 3

OCH 3

ys

te

1) O
2) O
3) O
4) O
84. The percentage of oxalate ion in a given sample of oxalate salt of which 0.3 g
N
KMnO4 solution for complete
20

ud

dissolved in 100 ml of water required 90 ml of

ww
w

.s
t

oxidation.
1) 66
2) 19.8
3) 6.6
4) 1.98
85. The ionic conductivity of aqueous alkali metal cations at a given concentration follow
the following order
1) Li Na K Rb
2) Li Na K Rb
3) Li Na K Rb
4) Li Na K Rb
O

86.

CH 2 NH 2
NaOH

A
B

A and B in the above reaction are respectively

CH 3

1)

2)

O
O

,
3)
4)
87. Graph between log x / m and log p is a straight line at angle 450 with
intercept OA as shown in figure. Then x / m at a pressure of 2 atm is

450

x
log
m

log 2

log p

1) 2
2) 4
3) 8
88. In the froth flotation process, pine oil
1) increases the surface tension of the solution.
2) decreases the surface tension of the solution.
3) does not affect the surface tension of the solution.
4) acts as a depresent.

4) 1

soda lim e
C4 H 6O4
C3 H 6O2
C2 H 6

89.

2)

CH 2

te

CH 3 CH COOH 2

COOH

ps

CH 2

.i

The compound A is

COOH

ww
w

.s
t

ud

ys

1)
3) Both are correct
4) none is correct
90. The acid ionization (hydrolysis) constant of Zn2 is 1109 then calculate pH of
103 M ZnCl2 solution.
1) 6
2) 5
3) 4
4) 5.5