2.2.

Without prior approval, an employee spent $500 of company money to purchase a device that simplifies work flow
in his area. This is an example of:
a.Management lack of control
b.Worker waste
c.Employee empowerment
d.Employee involvement
2. 7.The "quality function" of a company is best described as:
a.The degree to which the company product conforms to a design or specification
b.That collection of activities through which "fitness for use" is achieved
c.The degree to which a class or category of product possesses satisfaction for people generally
d.Where the quality department fits in the organizational chart
2. 9.The purpose of a quality manual is to:
a.Provide a basis for every quality decision
b.Standardize the methods and decisions of a department
c.Optimize company performance and the effectiveness of the quality department
d.Make it possible to handle every situation in exactly the same manner
2.13.In planning for quality, an important consideration at the start
a.The relation of the total cost of quality to the net sales
b.The establishment of a company quality policy or objective
c.Deciding precisely how much money is to be spent
d.The selling of the quality program to top management
2.14.The company has a good SPC program in manufacturing, how a customer has a product failure in his hands. The
cause result of changing vendors. This would be a/an:
a.Vendor cause problem
b.Common cause
c.Assignable cause
d.Bad inspection procedure
2.19.Any process of importance or complexity should have:
a.A written documented procedure
b.An established measurement of nonconforming product
c.A method of achieving corrective action
d.A connection to the organization's mission statement

2.23.A work instruction does NOT give information about which one of the following?

a.The steps necessary to perform certain work

b.Which specifications are applicable
c.The identity of the person who does the work
d.Normal set-up information
2.28.Which of the following descriptors is LEAST likely to apply to service quality?
a.Reliability
b.Attractiveness
c.Responsiveness
d.Competency
2.30.Consider the following statements about processes and systems. Which statement would be most correct?
a.Processes are generally smaller in scope than subsystems
b.Input is required for processes but not for systems
c.A product or service can be the input data for a process
d.Only the end customer can provide effective process feedback
2.35.Which of the following quality planning process elements would be LEAST likely to be measured?
a.Strategic quality goals
b.Tactical quality plans
c.Quality mission statements
d.Short-term quality goals
2.36.A twenty year veteran of the paint dip line explained to a rookie that the only way to get consistent thickness is to
adjust the speed based on the last piece checked. This technique will have what effect on process variation?
a.Minimize it
b.Reduce it
c.No effect
d.Increase it
2.40.Assigning an individual to assume the combined duties of what were formerly several different, but related, jobs
is an example of:
a.Job enrichment
b.Job rotation
c.Job enlargement
d.Job simplification

2.43.The authoritative act of documenting compliance with agreed requirements is known as:
a.Objective evidence

b.Certification
c.Sampling plan
d.Quality control
2.44.A "failure to meet the specified requirement, supported by evidence" is best described as a:
a.Discrepancy
b.Rework
c.Characteristic
d.Deviation
2.45.Which of the following statements regarding systems is NOT true?
a.Flow charts are required for all procedures
b.A work instruction expands upon a procedure to include "how" and "when"
c.A process transforms inputs into outputs with the objective of adding value
d.A procedure includes details such as "who" and "where".
2.49.Which document details specific quality practices, resources, and sequences of activities to ensure that customer
requirements, needs, and expectations are met?
a.Tactical plan
b.Control plan
c.Quality plan
d.Strategic plan
2.51.A key to management understanding the system variation is their ability to distinguish the difference between:
a.Material and non-material errors
b.Common and special causes
c.Environmental and procedural influences
d.Routine and special processes
2.52.In many situations, the easiest means to achieve savings by minimizing rejected material is:
a.Process centering
b.Control charting
c.Kaizen
d.Seiri

III.QUALITY BENEFITS AND PHILOSOPHIES QUESTIONS

3.1.When Deming encouraged the elimination of numerical quotas, he was emphasizing which of the following?
a.Good workers already know what is expected

b.Not to sacrifice quality for quantity

c.That zero defects are unrealistic
d.A detection system adds to rework
3.7.Community or society quality benefits would NOT include which of the following?
a.Safe products to use
b.Enhanced ability to pay taxes
c.Prestige and self-fulfillment
d.An expansion of job openings
3.12.Dr. Juran's Quality Trilogy involves all of the following, EXCEPT?
a.Quality control
b.Quality design
c.Quality improvement
d.Quality planning
3.16.Of all of an organization's stakeholder groups, which would be considered the most removed from internal
processes?
a.Society
b.Stockholders
c.Suppliers
d.Customers
3.20.Why does Crosby emphasize quality improvement in terms of money to such a great extent?
a.He believes that it would lower costs to the customer
b.He believes that it will capture the attention of management
c.He believes that it will prompt corrective action
d.He believes that it will require the creation of quality cost reports
3.23.Why does Juran suggest that chronic waste in an organization will often go unnoticed by management.
a.Management is so engrossed in long term planning they lose touch with basics
b.These wastes are built into the standards and become accepted
c.Management is so concerned with control they fail to implement breakthrough projects
d.Quality planning focuses on control items to the exclusion of improvement ideas

3.25.A thorough review of the work of the major quality gurus would indicate which of the following to be the most
effective way to create quality?
a.Effective problem solving
b.Continuous process improvement

c.Modern statistical control techniques

d.Benchmarking the best comparable processes
3.31.Within the evaluation of the Malcolm Baldrige 2006 Criteria for Performance Excellence, which of the following
criteria categories carries the greatest point value?
a.Leadership
b.Process Management
c.Customer and Market Focus
d.Strategic Planning
3.34.Dr. Deming attributed what percentage of responsibility for quality related problems to management?
a.28%
b.56%
c.94%
d.100%
3.38.The quality management perspective, user perspective, and manufacturer's perspective are respectively
associated with:
a.Juran, Deming, and Crosby
b.Deming, Crosby, and Juran
c.Deming, Juran, and Crosby
d.Crosby, Deming, and Juran
3.43.Deming felt that slogans and exhortations should be:
a.Used extensively, because they motivate people
b.Eliminated, because they're meaningless
c.Emotional, because they will have more impact
d.Objective, because they will be better accepted
3.48.A supplier to an organization:
a.Is also a stakeholder of the organization
b.Cannot be a stockholder of the organization
c.Uses their stakeholder position to direct the organization's activities
d.Initiates the purchase contract for goods or services

IV.TEAM ROLES AND RESPONSIBILITIES QUESTIONS

4.6.Individual team members benefit from team work by:
a.Sharing ideas and being creative
b.Forging stronger working relationships with management

c.Implementing widely held beliefs

d.Receiving time off from day-to-day operations
4.8.Each team member is most responsible for:
a.Applying the steps of the improvement process
b.Completing assignments at the meetings
c.Encouraging dominant members
d.Discussing ideas between meetings
4.10.A facilitator would most likely be considered:
a.A team leader
b.A catalyst
c.A trainer
d.A reformer
4.13.A skilled facilitator will:
a.Intervene when progress ceases
b.Correct the group when their ideas are wrong
c.Take sides when one side is correct
d.Publish and distribute team meeting minutes
4.15.Which of the following would be considered the three most important team roles?
a.Member, supervisor, manager
b.Leader, member, timekeeper
c.Facilitator, consultant, member
d.Facilitator, member, recorder
4.19.A team commissioned to design and install an automated part degreaser would be considered:
a.A self-directed team
b.An autonomous team
c.An improvement team
d.A project team

4.23.The greatest value a team can provide to an organization is:

a.Implementing solutions
b.Having well planned meetings
c.Identifying organization-wide problems
d.Meeting at least once a week

4.26.The type of team that draws its members from a natural work area is generally called a:
a.Cross-functional team
b.Process improvement team
c.Self-directed team
d.Project team
4.30.The team member generally responsible for taking concise and understandable notes of the proceedings of the
team is:
a.The assistant team leader
bThe recorder
c.The facilitator
d.The timekeeper
4.32.Which of the following would be indicative of a poorly functioning team?
a.Conflict is openly discussed
b.All team members participate in deliberations and meetings
c.Goals of the team have been predetermined without negotiation
d.Decisions are made by consensus
4.34.Over the life of a team, the involvement of a facilitator generally decreases because:
a.Team members' leadership capabilities increase over time
b.The team tires of the facilitator's involvement
c.Team members' resentment of the facilitator increases over time
d.Resource hours become more costly as the team progresses
4.36.Lack of expertise on the part of which of the following would be most detrimental to the team functioning
effectively?
a.Champions
b.Facilitators
c.Team members
d.Managers

V.TEAM FORMATION AND DYNAMICS QUESTIONS

5.1.The most common management argument against improvement teams is:
a.They believe that the teamwork concept is invalid
b.They believe workers do not have worthy ideas
c.They believe unions will not tolerate them

d.They believe that the U.S. industrial climate will not support them
5.6.During the team building phase, which of the following best describes the actions of the team?
a.The group is uncertain of their duties
b.Members prioritize and perform tasks
c.Members operate smoothly
d.The team leader is usually a delegator
5.9.What primary activities take place during most team meetings?
a.Conflict between the leader and the team members
b.Taking detailed minutes and publishing the information promptly
c.Learning the teamwork process and improving the work process
d.Consensus building and conflict resolution
5.11.When data alone cannot drive a team decision, consensus may be the strongest option. One would define
consensus as:
a.Unanimity of position among team members
b.A majority vote among team members
c.Complete satisfaction by all team members
d.A decision that all team members can support
5.14.The team's charter describes the team's:
a.Leader, facilitator, recorder, and timekeeper
b.Meeting dates, milestones, and targets
c.Mission, scope, and objectives
d.Members, sponsors, and facilitators
5.22.When team members' desires for unanimity overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives, this is called:
a.Wanderlust
b.Bonding
c.Groupthink
d.Risky-shift

5.23.When two team members express strong opposite views, the remaining team members should:
a.Ask both members to leave
b.Vote that the leader stop the discussion
c.Have the two clearly state their positions
d.Use the sponsor to clarify the situation

5.28.Groupthink is:
a.Beneficial to evaluating ideas
b.An impediment to appraising alternatives
c.Enhancing to independent critical thinking
d.An inability to pressure dissenters
5.34.An endorsed team charter should:
a.Authorize expenditures of corporate resources
b.Leave boundaries of the project subject to later resolution
c.Specify detailed metrics for completion
d.Require approval by the facilitator
5.38.The proper sizing of a team is:
a.Something that senior management should determine in the team charter
b.Best based upon including representatives of all affected parties
c.A straightforward management decision
d.A complex balancing of considerations of inclusion and manageability
5.40.Divided member loyalties, having personal confrontations, thinking individually, and learning team members roles
are indicators that a
team is in which evolutionary stage?
a.Forming
b.Storming
c.Performing
d.Norming
5.45.In order to be a member of a team, a person should have all of the following prerequisites, EXCEPT:
a.An emotional interest in the problem
b.A reason for working on the team
c.An acceptance of interdependency
d.An acceptance of team values

5.49.When the team is creating their guidelines, the issue of what information will be shared outside the team is
called:
a.Brainstorming
b.Conflict resolution
c.Confidentiality
d.Empathic listening

5.51.Keeping records of team meetings is important because:

a.Single meeting progress may be slow
b.Time must be justified
c.Rewards will be based on them
d.Participation is encouraged
5.53.Rewards are given because:
a.Employees expect them
b.Companies want to reinforce correct behavior
c.They generate team competition
d.They match what other organizations do
5.59.When an organization confers recognition and rewards for a team's excellent performance, it should be given to:
a.All team members
b.The leader
c.The team champion
d.The team sponsor
5.62.Identify the facilitation technique that would most likely result in team conflict:
a.Multi-voting
b.Voting
c.Consensus
d.Nominal group technique
5.64.When a team has a tendency to jump immediately to problem solutions, a facilitator should take all the following
actions, EXCEPT:
a.Slow the process down
b.Reinforce the need for data
c.Strive for quicker decision making
d.Ask for alternate solutions

VI.CONTINUOUS IMPROVEMENT QUESTIONS

6.1.Consider the steps in a product life cycle. Which of the following most closely aligns with the study or check
element?
a.Based on feedback, modify the product
b.Design the product and test it
c.Make the product and put it on the market

d.Test the product in service and observe usage

6.5.A lowered rejection rate following corrective action:
a.Gives a positive indication that performance has improved
b.May be unrelated to the corrective action
c.Indicates that the corrective action was directly related to the problem
d.Has no significance
6.7.Which of the following actions or techniques is used to determine the original fundamental cause of a product or
process
nonconformance?
a.Continuous improvement
b.Reengineering
c.Root cause analysis
d.Preventive action
6.14.What does the Japanese concept of poka-yoke mean?
a.Root cause analysis
b.Standardizing corrective actions
c.Mistake proofing
d.Reengineering
6.15.Why is the PDCA cycle so readily accepted by most American teams and individuals?
a.It is the natural way that most people already approach problems
b.It was promoted by Dr. Deming who has a wide American following
c.It was successful in Japan and American companies adapted it
d.It requires much less work than comparable improvement techniques
6.21.Which two of the following actions would most likely result in breakthrough improvement?
a.Reengineering and six sigma
b.Kaizen and ergonomic design improvement
c.PDCA and mistake proofing
d.Concurrent engineering and Kaizen

6.22.What can be wrong with one department making a small improvement in a process without advising others in the
organization?
a.The change may go unnoticed and top management might not recognize their effort
b.The small departmental improvement might cause increased difficulties or expenses in another department
c.There would be a lost opportunity for sister departments to benchmark the change and make similar improvements
d.Others in the organization might really see how the small improvement can be expanded into a larger improvement

6.25.The best, simplified, definition of Kaizen is:

a.Error cause identification
b.Continuous improvement
c.A system of cards associated with material flow
d.Breakthrough improvement
6.28.A Japanese word referring to the seven classes of waste is:
a.Muda
b.Mela
c.Muesli
d.Mikado
6.40.Using unique connectors for each input/output on a personal computer is an example of:
a.Kanban c.Poka-yoke
b.PDCA

d.Work simplification

6.42.One weakness of Kaizen is:

a.Costs associated with this process can be substantial
b.It does not produce breakthrough improvements
c.The process must be halted while changes are being made
d.Changes typically involve the purchase of expensive new technology
6.45.Cycle time reduction must be balanced with:
a.Reduced product lead times
b.Associated increased (life cycle) costs
c.Any related DOE expenses
d.Concurrent engineering difficulties

VII.BASIC QUALITY TOOLS QUESTIONS

7.2.If 87 data observations from a process were to be plotted on a histogram, the rule of thumb would suggest using
which number of
intervals across the range of the data?
a.19
b.4
c.12
d.9
7.7.A scatter diagram in which the plotted points appear to form a straight band that flows from the upper left to the
lower right would
be said to display:
a.A positive correlation
b.No correlation
c.A higher order relationship

d.A negative correlation

7.9.The most powerful statistical tool to analyze variation in most processes is a:
a.Flow chart
b.Pareto chart
c.Control chart
d.Fishbone diagram
7.13.Which of the following would NOT be expected to result in a trend on an X-bar and R chart?
a.Friction increasing due to buildup of debris on a machine
b.A new operator taking over a production machine
c.An operator getting tired on a machine
d.A machine operator's safety glasses gradually fogging due to high humidity
7.14.Average (X-bar) and range (R) control charts show a process to be in control if:
a.The X-bar chart is in control but the R chart is out of control
b.Both the X-bar chart and the R chart are in control
c.Both the X-bar chart and the R chart are out of control
d.The R chart is in control but the X-bar chart is out of control
7.19.A scatter diagram in which most of the points fell on a horizontal line across the range of the diagram would be
expected to have a
correlation coefficient indicating:
a.No correlation
b.A strongly positive correlation
c.A strongly negative correlation
d.A slightly negative correlation
7.20.When drawing a 5 M and E diagram, which of the following is included?
a.Energy
b.Money
c.Measurement
d.Entitlement

7.24.A team has been tasked to improve the small purchase process in your company. They decide to create a flow
chart of the existing
process because it will:
a.Visualize the process
b.Identify delays
c.Prioritize delays

d.Rank costs
7.27.If the number of deaths from cholera in a city is plotted on a map, one is creating a:
a.Recording check sheet
b.Cause-and-effect diagram
c.Measles chart
d.Scatter diagram
7.30.A team decides that it will need a histogram of process XYZ's output performance. To create the histogram, the
team would use
information from a:
a.Scatter diagram
b.Pareto chart
c.Affinity diagram
d.Tally sheet
7.33.A process improvement team is assigned the project of improving the quality of plastic shelf holders. The team
has identified variation in
the holder length as a significant factor. Which tool should the team use first to study the variation?
a.A scatter diagram
b.A control chart
c.A Pareto chart
d.A cause-and-effect diagram
7.36.A control chart for the weight of 16 pound bowling balls has shown random variation for three months. The
machine operator has
noticed that for the last 10 plotted averages charted, all of the values are below the chart centerline. What conclusion
can be made?
a.The recent data continues to show normal variation
b.The low average readings are due to a reduction in average range values
c.This is indicative that the process has shifted
d.The operator should note this as a "recurring cycle" on the chart
7.39.Long-term users of X-bar and R charts recommend attacking rule violations in the range chart first. Why would
they make this
suggestion?
a.If variability is predictable, the process can usually be controlled
b.Its generally easier to accomplish
c.It dramatically affects the average chart
d.It may require outside engineering help
7.42.The tabulation of the number of times a given quality characteristic measurement occurs, within a product
sample, is called a:
a.Histogram
b.Normal distribution

c.Control chart
d.Random function
7.45.Pareto diagrams are used to:
a.Determine a cause-effect relationship between one or more variables
b.Focus attention on problems in priority order
c.Generate a large number of ideas
d.Display causes in a nongraphical manner
7.48.A problem exists with the labels in the print shop and there is a need for each shift to keep track of the number of
defective units. The
production rate varies from shift-to-shift and the customer is demanding that a control chart be implemented. What
would be the best tool to
keep track of the number of defective units?
a.Histogram
b.p chart
c.c chart
d.X-bar and R chart
7.50.Which of the following statements can be safely made about Pareto diagrams?
a.They have little application outside of the quality area
b.They reflect an observation of fact
c.They are bound by a universal set of laws
d.They have no validity for discrete data
7.52.It has been determined that a control chart must be kept on the total number of defects found in each sample of
plastic film. The sample
size is fixed at 1,000 units. Which control chart would be the appropriate choice?
a.p chart
b.np chart
c.c chart
d.u chart

VIII.QUALITY MANAGEMENT TOOLS QUESTIONS

8.3.Affinity diagrams are best classified as:
a.A conflict resolution technique
b.A problem tracking technique
c.A cost reduction technique
d.A grouping technique

8.4.The practice of comparing current projects, methods, or processes with the best practices and using this
information to drive
improvement is called:

a.Flow charting
b.Benchmarking
c.Auditing
d.Control charting
8.8.Design review costs, training costs, safety reviews, and housekeeping costs are all considered what type of cost
category?
a.External failure
b.Internal failure
c.Appraisal
d.Prevention
8.13.Which of the following statements about a quality cost reporting system is accurate?
a.It does not suggest specific actions
b.It prevents short-term mismanagement
c.It does not provide emphasis on doing each job right the first time
d.It ensures that all important costs are included
8.14.An audit conclusion that identifies a condition having a significant adverse effect on the quality of goods or
services produced is called:
a.An examination
b.A finding
c.An observation
d.A verification
8.17.When a benchmarking cycle is complete, expected performance would be:
a.At least as good as the benchmarked process
b.50% improved
c.90% improved
d.No worse than before the cycle
8.22.When first starting a quality cost program, it is not unusual to see:
a.Appraisal costs decrease
b.External failures increase
c.Internal failures increase
d.Total failures decrease

8.26.The preparation of the audit plan is the responsibility of:

a.The lead auditor

b.The client
c.The auditee
d.The plant manager being audited
8.30.One means of creating consistency and uniformity in audits is by:
a.Using an audit checklist
b.Using the same person as lead auditor
c.Using the services of an external auditor
d.Holding management responsible for selecting the audit team
8.33.A company wishing to focus on product price and technical features would most likely undertake what type of
benchmarking activity?
a.Process
b.Strategic
c.Project
d.Performance
8.36.In order to lower overall quality costs, a company would be best served to invest money in:
a.Redesign activities
b.Appraisal activities
c.Preventive activities
d.Customer complaint activities
8.38.Assume that the cost data available for a certain period is limited to the following:
$ 20,000- final test , 350,000- field warranty costs , 170,000- reinspection and retest , 45,000- inventory
reduction , 4,000- vendor quality surveys ,30,000- rework The total of the quality cost is:
a.$619,000 c.$574,000
b.$621,000 d.$576,000
8.40.Prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, which causes a reduction in the
number of product defects.
This action produces a reduction in:
a.Appraisal costs
b.Operating costs
c.Quality costs
d.Failure costs
8.41.What is the purpose of a quality audit program?

a.Catch defects missed by inspection

b.Ensure that people follow procedures

c.Provide a super continuous improvement system
d.Measure and report the effectiveness of the control functions
8.47.A pre-award survey of a potential supplier is best described as which of the following audits?
a.Compliance

b.Assessment
c.Quantitative
d.Product
8.48.Analysis of quality costs consists of:
a.Reviewing manpower utilization against standard costs
b.Establishing management tools to determine net worth
c.Examining each cost element in relation to other elements and the total
d.Providing an accounting mechanism to spread costs over serviced areas
8.49.What other problem solving tool is customarily used to compliment the fishbone diagram?
a.Scatter diagrams
b.Pareto diagrams
c.Brainstorming
d.Force field analysis
8.50.The basic objective of a quality cost program is to:
a.Identify the source of quality failures
b.Interface with the accounting department
c.Improve the profit of a company
d.Identify quality control department costs

IX.CUSTOMER - SUPPLIER RELATIONSHIPS QUESTIONS

9.2.On average, what percentage of dissatisfied customers will actually let the organization know their feelings?
a.4% - 10%
b.25%
c.1%
d.45%
9.9.The term indicating that joint parties in a common business have an equal standing with each other is which of the
following?
a.A venturec.A partnership
b.An allianced.A team
9.11.The roof of the house of quality represents what?
a.Benchmarked target values for design features
b.Ranking of customer's needs
c.Relationship between competitors' performances against customer needs
d.Interrelationships between design features

9.19.The majority of customers, who leave a company, do so because of:

a.Service quality

b.Product quality
c.Lack of product availability
d.Cost considerations
9.22.What type of expectation is met when a product has attributes that are worthwhile, but not necessarily expected?
a.Desired
b.Expected
c.Basic
d.Unanticipated
9.26.Commonly used metrics used to assess supplier performance,relative to products or services, are:
a.Quality and delivery
b.Engineering and support
c.Cost and availability
d.Design and reliability
9.28.Just-in-time (JIT) procurement is a good option when:
a.No lots have been found containing defects in six months
b.The quality level is either very good or quite poor
c.A single defective component causes critical defects in the product
d.Receiving inspection is accepting about 90% of the lots as good
9.31.The outstanding service company performs which activity first:
a.Treats employees as external customers
b.Trains employees extensively in customer service skills
c.Gives communication skills training
d.Provides good recovery skills training
9.37.A key characteristic of a business partnership is:
a.Sharing of critical business information
b.Limited access to human resources
c.Special company audits are performed
d.Only plant managers agree on agendas
9.41.Communication with vendors on quality problems:
a.Should be initiated by the vendor's quality control department
b.Should be initiated by the vendee's purchasing department
c.Should be initiated by the vendee's engineering department
d.Can be resolved only through personal visits between vendor and vendee
9.44.On surveys from customers, what do high customer satisfaction numbers NOT indicate?
a.Customer satisfaction
b.Customer service

c.Customer loyalty
d.Product quality satisfaction
9.47.Your company has recently started using the house of quality approach to customer satisfaction. When using this
technique, what
is normally shown in the roof area?
a.Customer needs
b.Interrelationships of design features
c.The design features to meet customer needs
d.Comparison of customer priorities