AIIMS Question Paper

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
PA L A
Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............
AIIMS MODEL EXAM
12- 05- 2014
VE RSI ON
X1
Physics + Chemistry + Biology + GK
FT14N/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]
Maximum Mark : 200
Duration :3.30 hr.
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

I. Please ensure that the VERSION CODE shown on the top of this question booklet is the same as that
shown in the OMR answer sheet issued to you.
II. For each question in this examination, there are four suggested answers given against (A), (B), (C) and (D)
of which only one will be the MOSTAPPROPRIATEANSWER and indicate it in the OMR answer sheet.
III. Negative marking : In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to a penalisation
formula based on the number of correct answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked.
Each correct answer will be awarded ONE MARK. For each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.
No credit will be given for the questions not answered. More than one response will be negatively marked.
1.
PHYSICS
A thin uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is hinged at one end A to the level floor. Initially it stands
vertically and is allowed to fall freely to the floor in the vertical plane. The angular velocity of the rod when
its end B strikes the floor.
mg
A)
L
2.
1/ 2
mg
B)
3L
g
C)
L
1/ 2
3g
D)
L
A circular portion of diameter R is cut out from a uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R as shown
in fig. The moment of inertia of the remaining (shaded) portion of the disc about an axis passing through the
centre O of the disc and perpendicular to its plane is :
15
7
13
3
2
MR 2
MR 2
MR 2
B)
C)
D) MR
32
16
32
8
Two solid sphere of radii r and 2r, made of the same material are kept in contact. The mutual gravitational
force of attraction between them is proportional to :
A)
3.
1
1
B) 2
C) r2
D) r4
4
r
r
The escape velocity of a body on the earths surface is Ve. A body is thrown with a speed 3Ve. Assuming
that the sun and planets do not influence the motion of the body, its final speed would be :
A)
4.
A) zero
5.
B) Ve
C)
D) 2 2 Ve
2Ve
The displacement x (in centimetres) of an oscillating particle varies with time t (in seconds) as :
x = 2 cos 0.5t / 3 . The magnitude of the maximum acceleration of the particle in cms-2 is :
6.
7.
A) / 2
B) / 4
C) 2 / 2
D) 2 / 4
A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe of same length produce 2 beats / sec when they are set into
vibrations together in fundamental mode. The length of open pipe is now halved and that of closed pipe is
doubled. The number of beats produced will be :
A) 7
B) 4
C) 8
D) 2
Two uniform strings A and B made of steel are made to vibrate under the same tension. If the first overtone
of A is equal to the second overtone of B and if the radius of A is twice that of B, the ratio of the lengths of
the strings is :
A) 2 : 1
B) 3 : 4
C) 3 : 2
D) 1 : 3
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
8.
A body cools from 60oC to 50oC in 10 minutes. If the room temperature is 25oC and assuming Newtons
law of cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the end of the next 10 minutes will be
A) 38.5oC
B) 40oC
C) 42.85oC
D) 45oC
9.
The dimensions of
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
1
0 E 2 ( 0 = permittivity of free space and E = electric field) are
2
A) MLT-1
B) ML2T-2
C) ML-1T-2
D) ML2T-1
What is the SI unit of plancks constant
A) watt second
B) watt per second
C) joule second
D) joule per second
-1
A bullet is fired vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50ms . If g = 10ms-2, what is the ratio of the
distance travelled by the bullet during the first and the last second of its upward motion
A) 9 : 1
B) 9 : 2
C) 3 : 1
D) 9 : 4
When a projectile is at the highest point of its trajectory, the directions of its velocity and acceleration are
A) parallel to each other
B) anti-parallel to each other
C) inclined to each other at an angle of 450
D) perpendicular to each other
A boy wants to climb down a rope. The rope can withstand a maximum tension equal to two-thirds the
weight of the boy. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, the minimum acceleration with which the boy
should climb down the rope should be
A) g/3
B) 2g/3
C) g
D) zero
Bullets of mass 0.03 kg each hit a plate at the rate of 200 bullets per second with a velocity of 50ms-1 and
reflect back with a velocity of 30ms-1. The average force (in newton) acting on the plate is
A) 120
B) 180
C) 300
D) 480
The kinetic energy acquired by a mass m in travelling a certain distance d, starting from rest, under the
action of a constant force is
A) directly proportional to m
C) directly proportional to
16.
17.
18.
19.
1
m
B) independent of m
D) directly proportional to m
A wire suspended vertically from one end, is stretched by attaching a weight of 20N to the lower end. The
weight stretches the wire by 1mm. How much energy is gained by the wire
A) 0.01 J
B) 0.02 J
C) 0.04 J
D) 1 J
The height to which a liquid rises or falls in a capillary tube is directly proportional to
A) the radius of the capillary
B) the surface tension of the liquid
C) the density of the liquid
D) the angle of contact
A spherical black body of radius 12cm radiates 450W power at 500K. If the radius were halved and the
temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be
A) 225
B) 450
C) 900
D) 1800
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 5 F. When a glass slab of thickness equal to the separation
between the plates is introduced between the plates, the potential difference reduces to
20.
1
of the original
8
value. The dielectric constant of glass is

A) 1.6
B) 5
C) 8
D) 40
The frequency of the charged particle circulating at right angles to a uniform magnetic field doesnot depend
upon the
A) speed of the particle
B) mass of the particle
C) charge of the particle
D) magnetic field
21.
A thin bar magnet of length 2l and breadth 2b pole strength P and magnetic moment M is divided into 4
equal parts with length and breadth of each part being half of original magnet. Then the pole strength of
each part is
A) P
B) P/2
C) 2P
D) P/4
22.
A prism of refractive index 2 has a refracting angle of 300. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is
polished. A beam of monochromatic light will retrace its path if its angle of incidence on the refracting
surface is
A) 00
B) 300
C) 450
D) 600
A convex lens and a concave lens are placed in contact. The ratio of the magnitude of the power of the
convex lens to that of the concave lens is 4 : 3. If the focal length of the convex lens is 12cm, the focal
length of the combination will be
A) 16 cm
B) 24 cm
C) 32 cm
D) 48 cm
The SI unit of displacement current is
A) coulomb
B) volt
C) ampere
D) faraday
Light of two different frequencies, whose photons have energies 2eV and 10eV respectively, successively
illuminate a metal of work function 1eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons will be
A) 1:5
B) 3:11
C) 1:9
D) 1:3
23.
24.
25.
26.
A radioactive substance disintegrates

A) 5 sec
27.
1
of initial value in 60 seconds. The half life of the substance is
64
B) 10 sec
C) 30 sec
D) 20 sec
Two tiny spheres carrying charges of 1C and 3C are placed 8cm apart in air. What is the electric
1
9
2 2
potential at the mid point of the line joining the two changes? Given 4 9 10 Nm C
0
A) 9 10 2 V
28.
B) 9 103 V
C) 9 10 4 V
D) 9 105 V
A capacitor of capacitance 4F is charged to 80V and another capacitor of capacitance 6F is charged

to 30V. When they are connected together, the energy lost by the 4F capacitor is
A) 7.8 mJ
29.
B) 4.6 mJ
C) 3.2 mJ
D) 2.5 mJ
Each resistor in the network of figure has a resistance of 10 . The resistance between points A and B is
A) 10
30.
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
For a paramagnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility on the absolute temperature
T is given by
1
D) = constant
T
The wire shown in figure carries a current of 40A. If r = 3.14 cm, the magnetic field at point P will be
A)
31.
A) 1.6 10 3 T
B) constant T
C)
B) 3.2 10 3 T
C) 6 1 0 4 T
D) 4.8 10 3 T
32.
At a certain place a magnet makes 30 oscillation per minute. At another place where the magnetic field is
double its time period will be
A) 4 sec
33.
34.
C)
1
sec
2
D)
2 sec
A) Number of turns in the coil
B) Resistance of the coil
C) Magnetic moment of the magnet
D) Speed of approach of the magnet
A transformer has 200 windings in the primary and 400 windings in the secondary. The primary is connected
to an ac supply of 110V and a current of 10A flows in it. The voltage across the secondary and the current
in it respectively, are
B) 440V, 5A
C) 220V, 10A
D) 220V, 5 A
C) volt A-1
D) Volt sec A-1
What is the unit of self inductance of a coil

A) volt-1A-1
36.
B) 2 sec
The magnitude of the induced emf produced in a coil when a magnet is inserted into it does not depend
upon the
A) 55V, 20 A
35.
B) volt-1A
In a LCR series circuit at resonant frequency

A) The impedence and the current are maximum
B) The impedence is maximum
C) The current and voltage are out of phase
D) The current is maximum
37.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along X - axis. At a particular point in space, the
electric field along Y axis is 9.3 vm-1. The magnetic induction (B) along Z- axis is
A) 3.1 10 8 T
38.
B) 3.1 10 5 T
C) 3.1 10 6 T
D) 9.3 10 6 T
The magnifying power of a compound microscope is high if

A) Both objective and eye piece have short focal lengths
B) Both objective and eye piece have long focal lengths
C) The objective has a long focal length and eye piece has a short focal length
D) The objective has a short focal length and the eye piece has a long focal length
39.
What is the effect on the interference fringes in Youngs double slit experiment if the widths of the two slits
are increased.
A) The fringe width increases
B) The fringe width decreases
C) The bright fringe are equally bright and equally spaced
D) the bright fringes are no longer equally bright and equally spaced
40.
Light of wavelength is incident on a slit of width d. The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
screen at a distance D. The linear width of the principal maximum is equal to the width of the slit if D equals
d
A)
41.
2
B)
d
d2
C)
2
2 2
D)
d
The threshold frequency for a certain photosensitive metal is 0 . When it is illuminated by light of frequency
20 , the maximum velocity of photoelectron is 0 What will be the maximum velocity of the
photoelectrons when the same metal is illuminated by light of frequency 50 ?
A) 20
B) 20
C) 2 20
D) 40
42.
The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor is

and holes is
A)
43.
7
and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons
4
5
, then ratio of concentrations of electrons and holes will be
4
5
7
B)
7
5
C)
25
49
D)
49
25
In a common emitter configuration of a transistor, the voltage drop across a 500 resistor in the collector
circuit is 0.5V when the collector supply voltage is 5V. If the current gain in the common base mode is
0.96, the base current is
44.
1
A
5
The circuit as shown in figure is equivalent to
45.
A) NOR gate
B) OR gate
C) AND gate
D) NAND gate
To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown in figure, the inputs A, B and C must be respectively
C) 0,1,0
46.
A) 1,0,1
B) 1,1,0
Frequency range for microwaves is
A) 3 10 4 to 3 109 Hz
B) 3 109 to 3 1013 Hz
C) 3 109 to 3 1014 Hz
D) 1 109 to 3 1011 Hz
A) 1 20 A
47.
48.
B)
C)
1
mA
20
D)
1
mA
24
D) 1,0,0
A transmitting antenna of height h and the receiving antenna of height 45m are separated by a distance of
48km for satisfactory communication in line of sight mode of communication. Then the value of h is
A) 55m
B) 50m
C) 45m
D) 40m
An ac source of variable frequency f is connected to an LCR series circuit. Which one of the graphs in
figure represents the variation of current I in the circuit with frequency f
A)
B)
C)
D)
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
C) Assertion is true but the reason is false
D) Both and Assertion and Reason are false
49.
50.
51.
52.
Assertion : A body moving with a uniform velocity is in equilibrium

Reason : A body can move with a uniform velocity if a constant force is acting on it.
Assertion : When a body is dropped or thrown horizontally from the same height, it would reach the
ground at the same time.
Reason: Horizontal velocity has no effect in the vertical direction
Assertion : When a body tends to slide down an inclined plane, force of friction acts up the plane
Reason : Friction always opposes the relative motion
Assertion : Two bodies of different masses have same kinetic energies. Their momenta are in the direct
ratio of their masses.
Reason : K.E =
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
60.
1
mv 2
2
Assertion : Moment of inertia plays the same role in rotational motion, as mass plays in linear motion
Reason : Moment of inertia depends primarily on mass
Assertion : When radius of orbit of a satellite is made 4 times, its time period becomes 8 times
Reason : Greater the height above the surface of earth, greater is the time period of revolution.
Assertion : Steel is more elastic than rubber
Reason : Under a given deforming force, steel is deformed less than rubber.
Assertion : Heat from the sun reaches the earth by convection.
Reason : Air can be heated by radiation.
Assertion : When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate on the surface of moon, its time period increases
Reason : Moon is much smaller compared to earth.
Assertion : When two waves each of amplitude a produce a resultant wave of amplitude a, the phase
difference between them must be 1200.
Reason : It follows from
R
59.
a 2 b 2 2ab cos
Assertion : In a series combination of capacitors charge on each capacitor is same

Reason : In such a combination, charge can move only along one route.
Assertion : A charged particle moves perpendicular to a magnetic field. Its K.E remains constant but
momentum changes.
Reason : Force acts on the moving charged particle in the magnetic field.
CHEMISTRY
1021 molecules are removed from 200mg of CO2. The moles of CO2 left are
A) 2.83103
B) 28.3103
C) 283103
D) 28.3103
62. Which of the following pairs of solutions are expected to be isotonic, temperature being the same?
A) 0.1M glucose and 0.1M C6H5N+H3Cl
B) 0.1M NaCl and 0.05M BaCl2
C) 0.1M Na2SO4 and 0.1M KNO3
D) 0.1M BaCl2 and 0.075M FeCl3
63. The isoelectronic pair is
A) Cl2O3 and ICl2
B) ICl2 and ClO2
C) IF2+ and I3
D) ClO2 and ClF2+
64. Among the following the species having square planar geometry for central atom are
61.
(i) XeF4
(ii) SF4
(iii) NiCl 4
A) (i) and (iv)
B) (i) and (ii)
C) (ii) and (iii)
(iv) PtCl 4
D) (iii) and (iv)
65. A gas cylinder containing cooling gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9atmosphere. The pressure gauge of
cylinder indicates 12 atmosphere at 27C. Due to sudden fire in the building the temperature starts rising.
The temperature at which cylinder explodes is
A) 87.5C
B) 99.5C
C) 115.5C
D) 135.5C
66. Both oxidation and reduction take places in
A) NaBr HCl NaCl HBr
B) HBr AgNO3 AgBr HNO3
C) H 2 Br2 2HBr
D) CaO H 2SO 4 CaSO 4 H 2 O
67. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1108 in a solution in which the concentration of A+ ions is 103M. The
salt will precipitate when the concentration of B ions is kept.
A) between 108 M to 107M
B) between 107 M to 108M
C) >105M
D) <108M
68. For reaction aA xP , when A 2.2mM , the rate was found to be 2.4mMs 1. On reducing
concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6mMs1. The order of reaction with respect to A is
A) 1.5
B) 2
C) 2.5
D) 3
69. Which of the following is a lyophobic colloidal solution?
A) Aqueous starch solution
B) Aqueous protein solution
C) Gold solution
D) Polymer solvent in some organic solvents
70. Enthalpy of formation of HF and HCl are 161KJ and 92KJ respectively. Which of the following statement
is incorrect?
A) HCl is more stable than HF
B) HF and HCl are exothermic compounds
C) The affinity of fluorine to hydrogen is greater than the affinity to chlorine to hydrogen
D) HF is more stable than HCl
71. Which of the following statement is correct about ionization potential?
A) It is independent of atomic radii
B) It remains constant with change in atomic radii
C) It increases with an increase in atomic radii
D) It decreases with an increase in atomic radii
72. The correct sequence of increasing melting points of BeCl2, MgCl2, CaCl2, SrCl2 and BaCl2
A) BaCl 2 SrCl 2 CaCl 2 MgCl 2 BaCl 2
B) BeCl 2 MgCl 2 CaCl 2 SrCl 2 BaCl 2
C) BeCl 2 CaCl 2 MgCl 2 SrCl 2 BaCl 2
D) MgCl2 BeCl2 SrCl2 CaCl2 BaCl2
73. Al2O3 on heating with carbon in an atomosphere of N2 at high temperature produces

A) Al+CO2
B) Al+CO2+NO
C) Al4C3+CO2
D) AlN+CO
74. The statement true for N3 is
A) it has non-linear structure
B) It is called psuedohalogen
C) The formal oxidation state of nitrogen in this anion is 1
D) It is isoelectronic with NO2
75. Hypo on treatment with iodine produces
A) H2S
B) Na2SO4
C) Na2SO3
D) Na2S4O6
76. In which of the following cases, the stability of two oxidation states is correctly represented
A) Ti3 Ti 4
B) Mn 2 Mn 3
C) Fe 2 Fe 3
D) Cu Cu 2
77. The EAN of Zn in Zn OH 4 complex is

2
A) 16
B) 26
78. German silver is an alloy of
A) Fe, Cr, Ni
B) Ag, Cu, Au
C) 36
D) 46
C) Cu, Zn, Ni
D) Cu, Zn, Sn
79. The IUPAC name of the complex Hg Co CNS 4 is

A) Mercury tetrathiocyanatocobaltate(II)
B) Mercury cobalttetrasulphocyano (II)
C) Mercury tetrasulphocyanidecobalt (II)
D) Tetrasulphocyantocobalt mercurate (II)
80. The oxidation states of iodine in HIO4, H3IO5 and H5IO6 are respectively
A) +1, +3, +7
B) +7, +7, +3
C) +7,+7,+7
D) +7, +5, +3
81. Which of the following is correctly named?
NO2
Cl
A) 2ON
NO2
Cl
B)
CH3
(4-methyl-5-chloronitro benzene)
(4-chloro-1,3-dinitro benzene)
C)
D)
(3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl
cyclo hexane
(1-ethyl-3,3 dimethyl
cyclohexane
82. Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridisation sp 2 sp 2 sp sp from left to right?
A) H 2 C CH C CH
B) HC C CH 2 C CH
C) H 2 C C C CH 2
D) H C
2
CH2
X
H3C
CH3
83. In the Newman projection for 2,2 dimethyl butane
X and Y can respectively be
H
Y
A) H and C2H5
B) CH3 and CH3
C) C2H5 and H
D) Both A and B
84. Which of the following resonating structures of 1 methoxy 1, 3butadiene is least stable?
A)
CH
C) CH2
CH =CH
CH
CH =O
CH=CH
CH
B) CH2=CH
CH3
D) C H 2
CH
CH
CH
CH3
CH=O
CH
CH3
OH
(i)CH3CO3H
B
(ii)H O
85. Consider the following reaction and identify (B)
OH
OH
A)
B)
O
O
CH2OH
C)
D)
CH2OH
86. A substance C5H10O does not reduce Fehlings solution forms a phenylhydrazone, shows the haloform
reaction and can be converted into n-pentane by strong reduction. The structural formula of the original
substance is
A) CH3COC3H7
B) C2H5COC2H5
C) CH3COCH(CH3)2 D) C4H9CHO
OH
H 2 / Ni
NH 2 OH
Cu
H
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
100atm
573K
87.
A)
COOH
COOH
OH
N
B)
NH2
NH2
C)
D)
NH
88. In the following reaction
N
H
conc.HNO3
X the structure of the major product

conc.H 2SO 4
(X) is
O 2N
NO2
A)
B)
N
H
N
H
C)
N
H
D) O2N
NO 2
N
H
10
89. Wurtz reaction using bromoethane yields

A) 2-bromobutane
B) n-butane
C) Isobutane
Cl
90. In the following reaction with isotopic carbon ( )
D) Ethane
H 2O
OH
i) The product is
ii) The product is

OH
iii) The product is
OH
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Both I and III
NH2
NaNO 2
CuCN
A
B compounds A and B respectively are
HCl,278K
91. In the chemical reaction
A) fluorobenzene and phenol
B) benzene diazonium chloride and benzonitrile
C) nitrobenzene and benzonitrile
D) benzene diazonium chloride and naphthalene
92. Which of the following do not give Cannizzaro reaction?

A) CCl3CHO
B) C6H5CHO
C)
CHO
D)
CHO
i O2
A CH 3COCH 3
93. Cumene
iidil.H 2SO 4
CHCl3
A
aq NaOH B B is
A) Salicylic acid
B) benzoquinone
C) salicylaldehyde
D) chlorobenzene
94. Which of the following compounds does not have any geometrical isomer?
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
A)
Cl
Cl
Cl
B)
C)
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
95. The non aromatic compound among the following is
O
o
A)
B)
Cl
D)
C)
D)
11
96. The amino acid that cannot be obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is

CH2COO
A) HOOCCH 2 CH N H 3 COO
CH2
C
SH
NH3
+
COO-
CH
C) HN
B)
NH3
D)
NH CH
3
2 4
CH NH 2 COO
97. Fluorescein is an example of

A) azo dyes
B) phthalein dyes
C) triphenyl methane dyes D) nitro dyes
98. Synthetic detergents are more effective in the hard water than soaps because
A) they are non ionic
B) their Ca2+ and Mg2+ salts are insoluble in water
C) their Ca2+ and Mg2+ salts are water soluble
D) they are highly soluble in water
99. Structures of some common polymers are given which one is not correctly presented?
NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4
A) Nylon-6,6
B) Teflon
CO
n
CF2
CF2
n
CH2
C=CH
C) Neoprene
CH2
CH2
Cl
D) Terylene
CO
COOCH2
CH2
O
n
100. Cros-linking is present in

A) polythene
B) bakelite
C) nylon-6
D) polyester
Assertion-Reason
A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
C) If assertion is correct, that reason is incorrect.
D) If both assertion and reason are false
101. Assertion (A) : The normality of 0.3M aqeous solution of H3PO3 is equal to 0.6N
Reason (R): Equivalent weight of H3PO3 =
Molecular weight of H 3 PO 3
3
102. Assertion (A) : Molecules of larger size have higher polarizability

Reason (R) : Polarizability is observed only in those molecules which has permanent dipolemoment
103. Assertion (A) -In a titration of weak acid and NaOH, the pH at half equivalence point is PKa
Reason (R): At half equivalence point, it forms an acidic buffer and the buffer capacity is maximum where
acid salt
12
104. Assertion (A): In chemisorption, adsorption first increases with temperature and then decreases
Reason (R): Heat keeps on providing more and more activation energy
105. Assertion (A) : Sulphuric acid is more viscous than water
Reason (R): Concentrated sulphuric acid has a great affinity for water
106. Assertion: (A) A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the presence of a little
hydrochloric acid, it becomes laevorotatory
Reason (R): Sucrose on hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this,
change in sign of rotation is observed
107. Assertion (A): Dumas method is more applicable to nitrogen containing organic compounds than Kjeldahls
method
Reason (R) Kjeldahls method does not give satisfactory results for compounds in which Nislinked to O
atom.
108. Assertion (A): molecules that are non superimposable on their mirror images are chiral
Reason (R):All chiral molecules have chiral centres
109. Assertion (A): MeMgBr should be prepared under perfectly anhydrous conditions
Reason (R):Grignard reagent reactswith water
110. Assertion (A): Rate of decarboxylation of ethanoic acid is greater than propanoic acid
Reason (R): CH3 is less stable than CH3CH2
111. Assertion: Hydrogen combines with other elements by losing, gaining or sharing of electron
Reason: Hydrogen forms electrovalent and covalent bonds with other elements
112. Assertion: Both cyclopropane and propene give addition reactions readily.
Reason: Cyclopropane and propene are isomers of each other
113. Assertion: The solubility of AgCl in water decreases in NaCl is added to it
Reason: NaCl is highly soluble in water whereas AgCl is sparingly soluble
114. Assertion: B2H6 contains two three centre electron pair bonds
Reason: B2H6 is electron deficient molecule
115. Assertion : For a reaction at equilibrium, H is equal to T S
Reason: At equilibrium free energy change is equal to zero
116. Assertion : The lactic acid shows the geometrical Isomerism
Reason: Lactic acid has carbon-carbon double bond
117. Assertion : Van der Waals equation is applicable only to non-ideal gases.
Reason: Ideal gases obey the equation PV=nRT
118. Assertion: Dextrorotatory substances rotale the plane of polarised light towards right
Reason: Dextrorotatory substances are represented by putting (D) before their name
119. Assertion: Benzyl carbonium ion is more stable than tertiary carbonium ion
Reason: In Benzyl carbonium +I effect is more in comparison to tertiary carbonium ion
120. Assertion: In an acid- base titration involving a strong base and a weak acid, methyl orange can be used as
an indicator
Reason: Methyl orange changes its colour in PH range 3 to 5
13
BIOLOGY
Assertion - Reason type question
A) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
C) If Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
D) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
121. Assertion : Inspiration occurs due to muscular contraction
Reason : During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscle relaxes simultaneously
122. Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters
Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in the synaptic cleft
123. Assertion : Many fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
responsible for the disease ring worm infection.
Reason :Ring worm infection is generally acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes, comb etc. of
infected individuals.
124. Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, while in the ascending limb
of loop of Henle, the urine becomes hypotonic.
Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to Na+, while ascending limb is impermeable to H2O
125. Assertion : Prothrombin is essential for blood clotting.
Reason : Prothrombin is synthesised in the liver in the presence of Ca++
126. Which of the following is/are not the characteristics of the class Osteichthyes?
(i) Body is streamlined and mouth is terminal
(ii) Gills are covered by operculum
(iii) Skin covered with cycloid and placoid scales
(iv) Many of them are viviparous
A) (iv) only
B) (iii) and (iv)
C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
D) (i) and (iv)
127. Which one of the following cells contains the largest quantity of extra cellular material?
A) Striated muscle
B) Areolar tissue
C) Stratified epithelium
D) Myelinated nerve fibres
128. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cell and their secretion is correctly matched?
A) Oxyntic cells - a secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0
B) Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans - a secretion that decreases blood sugar level.
C) Kupffer cells - a digestive enzyme that hydrolysis nucleic acids
D) Sebaceous glands - a secretion that evaporates for cooling
129. Identify the type of muscle from the following hints
i) Nonstriated
ii) Located in the inner walls of hollow visceral organs
iii) They are not under voluntary control of the nervous system
A) Skeletal muscles
B) Smooth muscles
C) Cardiac muscles
D) Striated muscles
130. Find out the mismatch
A) Cervical vertebrae 7
B) Thoracic vertebrae 12
C) Lumbar vertebrae 5
D) Sacral vertebrae
2
14
131. The T of the ECG denotes:-
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
A) Excitation of SA node
B) Beginning of ventricular systole
C) Depolarisation of ventricles
D) Ventricular repolarisation
Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering:
A) Rh antigens
B) Anti-Rh antibodies
C) Blood of a person with group O
D) Blood of a person with group AB
Chordae tendinae are found in
A) Ventricles of heart B) Atria of heart
C) Joints
D) Tissue fluid
Which of the following is not true of hormones and target organs :
A) PRL - mammary gland
B) ACTH - Adrenal medulla
C) TSH - Thyroid gland
D) ICSH - Gonads
Thermostat of human brain is
A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla
C) Cerebrum
D) Hypothalamus
Match the following
1. Oxytocin
a) ICSH
2. Leydig cells
b) Adrenaline
3. Islets of Langerhans
c) Aldosterone
4. Na and K level in blood
d) Insulin
5. Catecholamines
e) Pars nervosa
12345
12345
12345
12345
B)
C)
D)
aedcb
abcde
eadcb
dbaec
137. The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney produce
A) Erythropoietin
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Gastric inhibitory peptide
D) Atrial natriuretic factor
138. Which of the following shows the spermatogenic tissue in mammals:
A) Seminiferous tubule
B) Interstitial cells of Leydig
C) Prostate gland
D) Cowpers gland
139. Choose the correct combination of labelling the hormonal control of female reproductive system.
A)
A)
B)
C)
D)
a = GnRH, b = TSH, c = PTH, d = uterus

a = GnRH, b = LH / FSH, c = estrogen or progesterone, d = uterus
a = GnRH, b = STH, c = LH, d = uterus
a = GnRH, b = ACTH, c = LH, d = Uterus
15
140. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
a) Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
b) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast feeds the infant upto two years
c) MTP is legalized in India in 1971
d) Contraceptive pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
e) In vasectomy, a small part of vasa efferentia will be removed or tied up through a small incision on the
scrotum.
Which two of the above statements are correct
A) a, d
B) a, b
C) a, e
D) a, c
141. Which among the following is not a marine fish which is edible :
A) Hilsa
B) Sardine
C) Mackeral
D) Catla
142. Arrange the mode of infection of AIDS virus in proper sequence :

1. Viral RNA gets incorporated into host DNA and directs the host cell to produce more viral particles
2. The virus enter the helper - T - lymphocytes and replicates to produce progeny viruses
3. The virus enters the macrophages
4. Viral RNA replicates to form DNA with the help of reverse transcriptase enzyme
5. New viruses can infect other cells
A) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
C) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
D) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
143. Name the disease from the following hints :

a) Pathogens generally present in the small intestine
b) infections mainly through contaminated food and water
c) pathogens migrate to other parts of the body through blood
d) pathogenic bacterium causes intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases
e) This could be confirmed by widal test
A) Malaria
B) Typhoid
C) Amoebiasis
144. Identify the incorrect statement about frog :

A) Parathyroid and pineal body are present
B) There are ten cranial nerves only
C) Optic lobes are situated in the mid brain
D) The ventricle opens into the conus arteriosus
145. Which of the following groups contains only urecotelic animals :
A) Reptiles, birds, land snails, insects
B) Reptiles, birds, land snails, aquatic insects
C) Amphibians, birds, land snails, insects
D) Amphibians, reptiles, birds, insects
146. Integration of the visual, tactile and auditory inputs occurs in the :
A) Peripheral nervous sytem
B) Limbic system
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Midbrain
D) Elephantiasis
16
147. The given table enlists various hormones and their chemical nature. Select the option which completes
the table.
Hormone
Chemical composition
(i)
Peptide
Testosterone
(ii)
Thyroxine
(iii)
(iv)
Amino - acid derivative
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
A) Cortisol
Steroid
Polypeptide
Estradiol
B) Insulin
Protein
Polypeptide
Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
Protein
Iodothyronine
Estradiol
D) Insulin
Steroid
Iodothyronine
Epinephrine
148. The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons was :
A) Ramapithecus
B) Australopithecines C) Dryopithecus
D) Homo erectus
149. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
A) They all possess dorsal heart
B) None of them is aquatic
C) They all belong to the same phylum
D) They all have jointed paired appendages
150. The given figure illustrates the changes in lung volume during the process of breathing. The change from
II to III indicates the :
A) Movement of diaphragm away from the lungs

B) Expansion of the thoracic cavity
C) Movement of air out of the lungs
D) Expansion of ribs
151. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa and fruit as a capsule or berry
are characteristic feature of:A) Liliaceae
B) Asteraceae
C) Brassicaceae
D) Solanaceae
152. The character of flower which is represented by floral formula but not by floral diagram is:A) Aestivation
B) Placentation
C) Position of gynoecium
D) Adhesion of stamen
153. Protein amino acids are called:A) -amino acids
B) -aminoacids
154. Photosynthetic leaves of ferns are called:A) Sporophylls

B) Ramenta
C) -amino acids
D) -amino acids
C) Fronds
D) Microphylls
17
155. Selaginella and gymnosperms show resemblances in:A) Heterospory
B) Vascular tissue
C) Strobili
D) All
156. Interaction involved in Lichens, between the mycobiont and phycobiont:A) Commensalism
B) Amensalism
C) Mutualism
D) Parasitism
157. Species biodiversity share of India in global biodiversity is:A) 2.1%
B) 8.1%
C) 5.4%
D) 12%
158. Which of the following cells of anther are binucleate?

A) Epidermis
B) Endothecium
C) Tapetum
D) Middle layer
159. Two male gametes in angiosperms are produced by:A) Meiosis of microspore mother cell
B) Meiosis of megaspore mother cell
C) Mitosis of generative cell
D) Mitosis of vegetative cell
160. Nucleotide base present in DNA and not in RNA is:A) Cytosine
B) Thymine
C) Uracil
D) Guanine
161. Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I (Aestivation of corolla)
Column-II (Examples)
A) Valvate
I) China rose
B) Twisted
II) Calotropis
C) Imbricate
III) Cassia
D) Vexillary (Papilionaceous)
IV) Pea
A) A II, B I, C III; D IV
B) A II; B I; C IV;; D III
C) A I; B II; C III; D IV
D) A II; B IV; C I; D III
162. Part of chromosome after secondary constriction is called:A) Chromomere
B) Telomere
C) Satellite
D) Primary
163. What type of vascular bundles are A, B and C?
A)
B)
C)
A) Radial, close collateral conjoint, open collateral conjoint

B) Close collateral conjoint, open collateral conjoint; radial
C) Open collateral conjoint, close collateral conjoint, radial
D) Bicollateral, concentric, radial
164. During the seed germination the activity of stored food hydrolyzing enzymes is induced by:A) ABA
B) Gibberellin
C) Auxin
D) Cytokinin
165. Which of the following represents the gametophytic stage of life cycle of angiosperm?
A) Ovule
B) Anther
C) Embryo sac
D) Seed
166. The developing pollen grain in angiospermic plants got nutrition from:A) Endosperm
B) Tapetum
C) Nucellus
D) Endothecium
18
167. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer:List-I
List-II
a) Primary consumer
i) Phytoplankton
b) Primary producer
ii) Small fish
c) Secondary consumer
iii) Zooplankton
d) Tertiary consumer
iv) Fish eating bird
a
A) ii iii i iv
B) iii i ii iv
C) i ii iii iv
D) iii ii i iv
168. The given kind of age pyramid, the population is:-
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
A) Declining
B) Stable
C) Expanding
D) Extincting
A non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells-both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic, and with in
certain other cell organelles:A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Chondrioids
Most common type of endosperm development in Angiosperms:A) Monosporic type B) Free nuclear type
C) Cellular type
D) Helobial type
Assertion & Reason
Directions
In the following questions there are two statements A (Assertion) and R(Reason) consider both accordingly
A) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B) If both A & R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
C) If A is true and R is wrong
D) If both A and R are wrong
A-The gardeners cut top of the stems of the shrubs to make them dense
R-The auxin found in the terminal bud is responsile for less dense shrubs
A-Maize is one seeded fruit with pericarp firmly fused with testa
R-Hilum and micropyle are not visible in maize seed
A-The fruit protects the immature seed against the hostile environmental conditions
R-Seed is protected by fruit wall colour
A-stem develops from hypocotyl of embryo
R-Internodes bear axillary buds
A-Sucker is an underground stem
R-Sucker stem never comes above the ground
A-An incomplete flower can be perfect
R-Perfect flowers (incomplete) are called neuter
19
177. Assertion - Photosynthetically C4 plants are less efficient than C3 plants

Reason- The operation of C4 pathway requires the involvement of only bundlesheath cells
178. A-Deforestation is one main factor contributing to global warming
R-Besides CO2, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included under green house gases
179. A-Senescence is the time when age associated defects are manifested
R-Certain genes may be undergoing sequential switching on and off during ones life
180. A-Ginger has a prostrate growing rhizone
R-Shoot growth is not effected by gravity
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
181. Which organisation won the Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2013 for its extensive efforts to eliminate
chemical weapons ?
A) OPEC
B) OPCW
C) UN Security Council
D) Russian nation Security Council
182. Who among the following was nominated posthumously for the Ashok Chakra, the country highest
peacetime gallantry medal, on August 14, 2013 ?
A) Lohit Sonowal
B) K Prasad Babu
C) Murali Kannan
D) Swagat Kumar Das
183. Who among the following was on August 22, 2013 appointed by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh as his
Special Envoy to visit Japan in the rank of a Cabinet Minister ?
A) Srikant Jena
B) Ambika Soni
C) Shashi Tharoor
D) Ashwani Kumar
184. Who among the following was selected to suceed Jayant Prasad as Indias new ambassador to Nepal on
August 23, 2013 ?
A) Ranjit Rae
B) Amar Sinha
C) Ashok Tomar
D) Rajeev Shahare
185. The second Asian .................. Games were organised at Nanjing, China in August 2013
A) Scout
B) Youth
C) Cadet
D) Police
186. Which of the following committees has not been associated with the estimation of poverty line ?
A) Alagh Committee
B) Lakdawala Committee
C) Narasimham Committee
D) Tendulkar Committee
187. Which of the following will use the data and images sent by the INSAT-3D satellite put into space on July
26, 2013 ?
A) Weather monitoring
B) Minerals exploration
C) Mobile telephony
D) Television broadcasting
th
188. Who among the following was elected as the 12 President of Pakistan on July 30, 2013 ?
A) Raza Rabbani
B) Mamnoon Hussain
C) Raja Parvez Ashraf
D) Wajihuddin Ahmed
189. Who among the following was elected new President of Mali in electrion held in August 2013 ?
A) Mande Sidibe
B) Alpha Oumar Konare
C) Abdoulaye Sekou Sow
D) Ibrahim Boubacar Keita
190. Where was Indias first Cyber Forensic Laboratory (CFL) inaugurated on August 11, 2013 ?
A) Aizwal
B) Kohima
C) Shillong
D) Agartala
191. Which Indian company has launched fuel efficient Neptune engine for commercial vehicles in August
2013?
A) Force Motors
B) Mahindra & Mahindra
C) Tata Motors
D) Ashok Leyland
20
192. Indian Satellite Reasearch Organisations (ISRO) satellite IRNSS-1A was launched on July 2, 2013.
IRNSS is Indian ............... Navigation Satellite System
A) Reconnaissance
B) Resources
C) Regional
D) Review
193. Which public sector company is the most internationalized Indian company according to a ranking by the
Indian School of Business (ISB) in July 2013 ?
A) SBI
B) STC
C) MMTC
D) ONGC Videsh
194. 100th Birth Anniversary of which former President of India was observed on May 19, 2013 ?
A) V V Giri
B) Zakir Hussain
C) K R Narayanan
D) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
195. The winner of the 2013 Man Booker International Prize is a / an ............... author
A) Irish
B) Israeli
C) US
D) Indian
196. Where was the World Economic Forum (WEF) on East Asia organised in June 2013 ?
A) Manila
B) Bangkok
C) Vientiane
D) Nay Pyi Taw
197. Who among the following has launched a badmintorn academy at Vijayawada, AndraPradesh in June
2013?
A) Pullela Gopichand
B) Chetan Anand
C) Jwala Gutta
D) Parupalli Kashyap
198. President Pranab Mukherjee conferred the status of Miniratna - Category 1 on NEEPCO in April
2013. NEEPCO is a CPSE in which sector ?
A) Coal
B) Power
C) Petroleum
D) Construction
199. National Florence Nightingale Awards were coferred by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on
International Nurses Day on ................ 2013
A) May 10
B) May 11
C) May 12
D) May 13
200. V S S Mani is the founder of which Indian internet ventrue, in news for an IPO (Initial Public Officer) in
May 2013 ?
A) Flipkart
B) Yatra
C) Myntra
D) Justdial
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
PA L A
Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............
AIIMS MODEL EXAM
12 - 05- 2014
The loss in P.E when its end B strikes the floor =
Gain in K.E =
2.
X1
Key with Hints
1.
VE RSI ON
1 2
I ;
2
M.I f complete disc I =
1
mgL
2
1
1 1
1
3g
I mL2 ; mL2 2 mgL ;
3
2 3
2
L
1
MR 2 ;
2
Masss of cut out portion m = M/4

2
1 2 1 M R
1
MR 2
M.I of cut out portion I 0 mr
2
2 4 2
32
2
MR 2 M R
3
I C I 0 mr

MR 2
32
4 2 32
2
r = R/ 2 ;
M.I. of the shaded portion about O is IS = I - IC ;

3.
M1
1
3
13
MR 2 MR 2
MR 2
2
32
32
4 3
4
r ; M2
(2r)3
3
3
4 3 4
(2r)3
r
GM1M 2
3
3
; F r4
F
G
2
2
d
9r
4.
From the law of conservation energy
1
GmM 1
mv12
mv f2
2
R
2
1
GmM 1
1
1
1/2
mv e2
; mv12 mv e2 mv f2 ; vf vi2 ve2 ; vi 3v e ; v f 2 2v e
2
R
2
2
2
5.
dx
2 0.5 sin 0.5t / 3
dt
dv
a
2 0.5 0.5 cos 0.5t / 3 ;
dt
6.
7.
nc
v
v
, n0 ;
4l
2l
n10
v
v
v
v
; n1c
;
2l / 2 l
4(2l ) 8l
n1
2
2l1
n1 = n2 ;
8.
T
2
m l1D1
a max
; | a max | 2 / 2
2
v v
v
2; 8
2l 4l
l
T
3
; n2
2l2
No. of beats /sec = n10 n1c ;
T
3
m l2 D 2
l1D1 2 l1 2D 2 2 l1
; .
; 1: 3
l2 D 2 3 l2 D 2
3 l2
v v 7v 7

8 7
l 8l 8l 8
9.
q1q 2
F
2 and E
q;
40 r
2
q 1q 2
q1q 2 F
1
2
;
0
4 Fr 2 2
8Fr 2 q 2
1
F MLT 2
2
dim
ensions
of
Dimensions of
0
2
r2
L2
10.
11.
unit of E
joule
Joule seond
unit of (sec ond) 1
unit of h =
Maximum height attained by the bullet is given by h
ML1T 2
u2
2g
50 50
125 m
2 10
The total time taken by the stone to attain this height is given by t =
During the first second, h1= ut
When t = 4 se ;
h = 50 4 -
u 50
5sec
g 10
1 2
1
gt 50 1 10 12 45m
2
2
1
10 42 120m
2
Distance travelled by the stone during the last second of its upward motion is h2 = 125 - 120 = 5
h1 45
9
h2
5
12.
D
At the highest point of the trajectory, the velocity of the projectile is parallel to the ground but its
acceleration is directed vertically down wards
13.
T = mg - ma ;
14.
Change of momentum of one bullet = m (v - u)

= 0.03 (50 - (-30) = 2.4 kg ms-1 ;
Average force = 200 2.4 = 480 N
15.
Kinetic energy K =
F
d;
m
1
mv 2 ;
2
a = g/3
V2 = 2ad
Which is independent of m
1
F ;
2
16.
17.
P 4r T ;
18.
2
2
mg ; mg mg ma ;
3
3
1
20 1 103 102 J ;
2
= 0.01 J
2 cos
rg
2
r 2T4 ;
P2 r2 T2 1 2
4
P1 r1 T1 2 1
2
P2 UP1 4 450 1800w
19.
C0
0 A C K0 A C K
;
;
d
C0
d
Q C 0 V0 , Q CV ;
V C0 1 V 1
K 8
V0 C K ; V0 8
V V qB

2r 2 mV
Frequency =
21.
As breadth of each part is half the original breadth, therefore pole strength becomes half ie, (P/2)
22.
Sin i = Sin r 2 Sin30o
23.
qB
which is independent of V
2m
20.
P1 4
P2 3 ;
f2 4
f4 3 ;
1
2
Sin i
Sin r
; i 45o
f 2 4
4
4
;f1
12 16cm
f2 is -ve, f 3 ; f 2
3
3
1
The focal length F of the combination is given by
1 1 1 1
1
1

F f1 f 2 12 16 48 ;
24.
25.
1
E mv2 h0 w 0 ;
2
F = 48cm
E1 2 1 1ev ; E 2 10 1 9ev
1
mv12
1 V 1
E1 1 2
1
; 1
;
E2 9
mv 2 2 9 V2 3
2
half life =
60
10sec
6
26.
64 = 26 ;
27.
Electric potential at the mid point is
q1 1 10 6 C ;
r = 0.04m ; V 9 105 V
28.
q 2 3 10 6 C ;
C1V1 C 2 V2
C1 C 2 ;
4 106 80 6 106 30
50v
4 106 6 106
Energy lost by 4F capacitor
29.
1 q1 q 2

40 r
r
1
1
C1V12 C1V 2
2
2
1
1
C1 V12 V 2 4 106 80 2 50 2 ; 7.8 10 3 J 7.8mJ
2
2
Resistors in arms CD and DF are in series which add up to 10 + 10 = 20 ohm. Resistors in arms CE
and EF are also in series which add upto 20 ohm, resistance between points C and F is given by
1
1
1
, R = 10 ohm ;
R 20 20
Resistance between points A and B is
10 R 10 10 10 10 30 .
30.
Magnetic susceptibility is inversely proportional to absolute temperature.
31.
3 0 I 3 4107 40

4 2r 4 2 3.14 102
The field at P is due to
32.
33.
34.
I
60
T 2
;
mB 30
3
th of the loop of radius 6 1 0 4 T
4
T1 2
Es Ep
Voltage across secondary is
Current in secondary is
Is E p
T1
1
, 1
2
2 T 2 sec
I
m 2B ;
ep
es
Ns 110 400
220V
Np
200
10 110
5A
220
volt second
Ampere
35.
Unit of L
36.
At resonance X L X C , Z R 2 XL XC
Current Iv
37.
BE
38.
39.
40.
Ev
; Iv is maximum , when Z is minimum.
2
9.3 / 3 108 3.1 10 8 T
L D
1 ; For M to be high both f0 and fe must be small.
f0 fe
The single slit diffraction effects at the two slits becomes important and as a result , the interference
fringe pattern will be modified . The bright fringes will not now be equally bright and equally spaced.
If D>>d , the linear width of the central principal maximum = angular width distance D
2 D
d
2 D
d2
d or D
d
2
41.
1
mv 2 h 0 ; 20 ;
2
1
mv 02 h 2v 0 v 0 h0
2
For light of frequency 50 we have
1
mv 2 h 50 0 4h0 ;
2
42.
Ie neVe
I nAeVd ; I nVd ; Ib nbVb ;
43.
IC
44.
The output of NOR gate gives Y1 A B
VC 0.5
1mA;
R0 500
v 2 4v 02 ; v 20
ne Ic vb 7 4 7

nb Ib ve 4 5 5
0.96
24 ;
1 1 0.96
Ib
Ie 1mA
1
_
mA
24
24
11
The output of NAND agte gives Y A B . A B A B .
The output of NOT gate Y A B ; It is a Boolean expression for NOR gate
45.
The output OR gate is

1
Y1 A B . The output of AND gate is Y Y , C A B .C
If A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 ;
46.
47.
Y = (1 + 0).1 = 1
Coverage range
2Rh t
2Rh r
48 103 2 6.4 106 h 2 6.4 106 45 2 6.4 106 h 24 103

On solving h = 45m
48.
The current in a LCR circuit is given by I
V
2
2
1
R L
c
where 2 . Thus I increases with increase in upto a value of C given by
C L
1
, C
C C
1
LC
When I become maximum. At > c , I decrease with increase in .

49. C
50. A
55. A
60. B
CHEMISTRY
61.
51.
56.
A
D
52.
57.
D
B
53.
58.
C
A
54.
59.
B
A
Wt.in g
200
4.5 10 3 moles
; No. of moles in 200mg =
Mol.Wt
1000 44
No. of moles =
No. of moles in 1021 molecules =
1021
1.67 103
23
6.02 10
No. of moles left = 4.5 1.67 103 2.83 103

62.
63.
64.
65.
67.
= 30.1=0.3 ; Effective molarity of FeCl3 = 40.075=0.3
12
14.9
P1 P2
From Charles T T ; 273 27 T
2
1
2
T2
66.
14.9 300
372.5K
12
= 372.5273=99.5C
AB A B ; K sp A B
Salt will precipitate if ionic conc.>Ksp

A B 1 10 8 ;
68.
1 10 3 B 1 10 8 ;
1 108
B
or1 105
3
1 10
When the concentration of reactant is reduced to half its initial value, the rate is reduced by
2.4
4 times ;
0.6
rate [reactant]2;
69.
73.
74.
D
Azide ion, N3 has a linear structure. It has 22(21+1) electrons thus it is iso-electronic with N2O
(14+8=22)
75.
2Na 2S2 O3 I 2 Na 2S4 O6 2NaI
76.
Mn2+(3d5) is more stable than Mn3+(3d4)
77.
78.
82.
70.
71.
order of reaction = 2
72.
Al2 O3 N 2 3C 2AlN 3CO
79.
80.
81.
CH3
4
83.
H 3C
CH2
CH3
C
CH3
On C2C3 bond axis, X=CH3; Y=CH3 ; On C1C2 bond axis, X=H,Y=C2H5

84.
C
The octect of all atoms are complete in structures a and b . Then they are stable. In structure
d the electron deficiency of positive charged carbon is duly compensated by lone pair electrons of
adjacent oxygen atoms no such neighbouring group support is present in structure (C)
OH
OH
85.
C H 3C O 3H
i

ii H O
(A)
86.
1 H
(2) H
CH2OH
A is a keto compound and contains (MeCO) group and converts into pentane.
O
A
Me
Me
N-OH
OH
o
1
2
87.
H 2 |Ni
(A)
100atm,
Cu
575K H2
(B)
(C)
NH
H
Beckman
NH 2 OH
(D)
6
4
(E)
7
o
O 2N
88.
Conc.HNO3
Conc.H 2SO 4
Ring I is more active, electrophilic substitution takesplace over ring 1.

NH
Ph
O
89.
90.
is orthopara directing, para product is more predominating
C 2 H 5 Br 2Na BrC 2 H 5
C 2 H 5C 2 H 5 or CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
Cl
OH
Product I
H 2O
Resonance
H 2O
OH
Intermediate
carbocation
Product II
91.
B
O
92.
O( )
H
>N
The carbonyl group is resonance stabilised by the +M effect of N group

CH3
93.
CH
OH
CH3
i,O 2
ii)dil,H 2SO 4
C
C um ene
CH3COCH3
(A)
OH
CHO
CHCl3 ,NaOH
A
(Reimer Tiemann reaction
Salicylic acid (B)
Cl
94.
Cl
Cl
Exchange of both Cl will produce same molecule
O
95.
Aromatic
anti-aromatic
Aromatic
C H 2C O O
96.
Hydrolysis of protein (natural molecules) yields amino acids
CH
NH3
SH
97.
103. A
109. A
115. A
98.
104. C
110. B
116. D
99.
105. B
111. A
117. B
100. B
106. C
112. B
118. C
101. C
107. B
113. B
119. D
102. C
108. C
114. B
120. A
BIOLOGY
121. C
122. B
123. B
124. A
125. C
126. B
127. B
128. A
129. B
130. D
131. D
132. B
133. A
134. B
135. D
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
C
A
A
B
D
D
B
B
B
A
D
D
B
A
C
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
D
C
A
C
D
C
B
C
C
B
A
C
A
B
C
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
186. C
181. B
187. A
182. B
188. B
183. D
189. D
184. A
190. D
185. B
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
D
C
D
D
C
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
B
B
B
C
B
A
A
C
D
C
D
D
B
B
B
D
B
B
C
D
amino acids

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Brilliant

AIIMS MODEL EXAM

12- 05- 2014

Physics + Chemistry + Biology + GK

Maximum Mark : 200

Duration :3.30 hr.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

value. The dielectric constant of glass is

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

A radioactive substance disintegrates

A capacitor of capacitance 4F is charged to 80V and another capacitor of capacitance 6F is charged

A) Number of turns in the coil

B) Resistance of the coil

C) Magnetic moment of the magnet

D) Speed of approach of the magnet

D) Volt sec A-1

What is the unit of self inductance of a coil

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

In a LCR series circuit at resonant frequency

The magnifying power of a compound microscope is high if

The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor is

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Assertion : A body moving with a uniform velocity is in equilibrium

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Assertion : In a series combination of capacitors charge on each capacitor is same

A) (i) and (iv)

B) (i) and (ii)

C) (ii) and (iii)

D) (iii) and (iv)

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

B) HBr AgNO3 AgBr HNO3

D) CaO H 2SO 4 CaSO 4 H 2 O

B) BeCl 2 MgCl 2 CaCl 2 SrCl 2 BaCl 2

C) BeCl 2 CaCl 2 MgCl 2 SrCl 2 BaCl 2

D) MgCl2 BeCl2 SrCl2 CaCl2 BaCl2

73. Al2O3 on heating with carbon in an atomosphere of N2 at high temperature produces

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

77. The EAN of Zn in Zn OH 4 complex is

79. The IUPAC name of the complex Hg Co CNS 4 is

X and Y can respectively be

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

85. Consider the following reaction and identify (B)

88. In the following reaction

X the structure of the major product

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

89. Wurtz reaction using bromoethane yields

90. In the following reaction with isotopic carbon ( )

ii) The product is

iii) The product is

D) Both I and III

91. In the chemical reaction

A) fluorobenzene and phenol

B) benzene diazonium chloride and benzonitrile

C) nitrobenzene and benzonitrile

D) benzene diazonium chloride and naphthalene

92. Which of the following do not give Cannizzaro reaction?

95. The non aromatic compound among the following is

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

96. The amino acid that cannot be obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is

97. Fluorescein is an example of

100. Cros-linking is present in

102. Assertion (A) : Molecules of larger size have higher polarizability