OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING.

practiacal viva questions for ec

1.The impedance curve of an RLC
network cuts the frequency axis only when the frequency is such that
(a) XL=XC (b) XL=XC=0
(c) R=0 and XL=XC (d) none of these
2.In a semiconductor diode, Pside
is grounded and Nside
is applied a potential of 5V
through a resistance of 100
ohms. the diode shall
(a) conduct fully (b) not conduct
(c) conduct partially (d) none of these
3. the junction diode s capacitance that is made use of in varactors is known as
(a) transition capacitance (b) diffusion capacitance
(c) space charge capacitance (d) interelectrode
capacitance.
4. when current through a zener diode increases by a factor of 2, voltage across
its terminals
(a) is halved (b) is doubled too
(c) is practically unchanged (d) none of these
5. SCRs are connected in series to enchance
(a) their overall dv/dt rating (b) their voltage ratings
(c) their current handling capabilities (d) none of these
6. the condition that decides the oscillator s out put frequency is :
(a) loop gain should at least be unity
(b) loop phaseshift
should be zero or integral multiple of 2p radians
(c) loop gain should be precisely unity
(d) loop phaseshift
should be precisely zero radian.
7. most popular oscillator configuration for audio applications is :
(a) Hartley oscillator (b) colpitt s oscillator
(c) weinbridge
oscillator (d) RC
phase shift oscillator
8. pick the oddone
out :
(a) Hartley oscillator (b) collpitt oscillator
(c) clap oscillator (d) wein bridge oscillator
9.the output voltage at no load in an unregulated power supply is the same as it
s output voltage at rated load current.
its internal resistance is therefore
(a) extremely small (b) zero
(c) infinite (d) extremely large.
10. mark the rectifier circuit that produces the least ripple
(a) single rectifier,half wave, single phase (b) four rectifiers,full wave,singl
e phase
(c) two rectifiers,full wave,single phase (d) six rectifiers,full wave,three pha
se.

11. indicate the false statement

(a) closed loop gain is always less than the open loop gain.
(b) input impedance is always greater than the out put impedance
(c) the open loop gain falls to zero decibel at a frequency equal to unity gain
crossover frequency
(d) closed loop bandwidth is always greater than the open loop babdwidth.
12. one of the following statements in reference to a unity gain noninverting bu
ffer using an opamp is in correct.
identify this statement
(a) it has extremely high input impedance,much higher than even its open loop in
put impedance
(b) its input impedance is very high almost approaching its open loop input impe
dance magnitude
(c) the voltage gain is unity. (d) the inputis applied to the noninverting
input
(e) the feed back magnitude is 100 per cent.
13.the SLEW RATE specification of an opamp is usually measured in
(a) microvolts per second (b) volts per microsecond
(c) decibels (d) volts per microvolt
14. a given opamp has an open loop gain of 110dB and a CMRR rating of 106dB. wha
t should be the open loop
common mode gain of this opamp?
(a) it cannot be determined from the given data (b)4dB
(c) 216 dB (d) 110Db
15. in a 555 astable multivibrator operating from Vcc of 15V, the output wave fr
om duty cycle is 0.4 (duty cycle = ONtime/
total time period.) the circuit is slightly modified with the capacitor now char
ging from a voltage of 30V rather than
Vcc. the duty cycle of the output waveform in the modified circuit will
(a) remain unchanged (b) become about 0.6
(c) be approximately 0.2 (d) none of these
16. the pulse width in a 555 monostable multivibrator is given by
(a)t = 0.69 RC (b)t = 1.1 RC
(c)t = RC (d) none of these
17.
ges
(a)
(c)

in the astable mode of operation of IC 555, the timing capacitor always char
between
0 and 1/3 Vcc (b) 1/3 Vcc and 2/3Vcc
0 and 2/3 Vcc (d) 0 and Vcc

18.when a PLL is being used as an FM demodulator,the demodulated signal appears

at
(a) the output of phase comparator (b) the output of low pass filter
(c) the VCO output (d) none of these.
19. A NOR gate is equivalent to a bubbled AND gate . this statement is an outcome of
(a) demorgan s theorems (b) involution law
(c) absorption law (d) idempotent law
20.for one of the following conditions, clocked jk
flip flop can be used as DIVIDE BY 2 circuit where the pulse train to
be divided is applied at clock input.
(a) J=1, K=1 and the flip flop should have active HIGH inputs
(b) J=1, K=1 and the flip flop should have active LOW inputs
(c) J=0, K=0 and the flip flop should have active high inputs

(d) J=1, K=1 and the flip flop should be a negative edge triggered one.
21. in a presettable, clearable positive edge triggered JK
flip flop, the Q output when the flip flop is clocked for
J=1,K=0,preset=1 and clear = 0 will be
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) indeterminate (d) complement of what it was at the time of clocking
(assume all the inputs to be active LOW inputs).
22. A 4bit
circulating register is initially set to 0001(1 is the true output of the first
flip flop and represents LSB).
4bit
number preset in the register at the end of 16 clock pulses is(a) 0001 (b) 0010
(c) 0100 (d) 1000
23. a shift counter comprising of 5 flip flops with an inverse feedback from the
output of the MSB flip flop to the input of
the LSB flip flop is a
(a) divide by 32 counter (b) divide by 10 counter
(c) 5bit
shift register (d) modulus5
counter
24. number of comparators needed to build a 6bit
simultaneous A/D converter is
(a) 63 (b) 64
(c) 7 (d) 6
25. the average conversion time in a 4bit
counter type A/D converter run by a 10 MHZ clock shall be
(a) 8ms (b) 400ns
(b) 800ns (d) none of these
26.
(a)
(b)
(c)

out of the following,the fastest A/D converter type is

counter type A/D converter
successive approximation type A/D converter
dual slope integrating type A/D converter

27.
is
the
(a)
(b)
(c)

if the received carrier frequency in an AM communications broadcast receiver

changed from 560kHz to 1120kHz
resonant frequency of the IF tuned circuits
would have to be changed from 455Khz to 910kHz.
would remain unchanged at 455kHz
would also change in the same proportion but in the opposite direction.

28. in a broadcast communication receiver,most of the receiver selectivity is ac

hieved in
(a) RF Section (b) IF Section (c) Mixer
29. antenna reciprocity is put to use in :
(a) television broadcast systems (b) commercial radio broadcast
(c) radar systems (d) none of these
30. an antenna behaves as a resonant circuit only when its length is :
(a) l/2 (b) l/4
(c) l/2 or its integral multiple (d) none of these
31. an antenna should have :
(a) a very high SWR (b) a very small SWR
(c) a moderate value of SWR (d) none of these

32. the input impedance of a centrefed

halfwave
dipole is :
(a) 300 W (b) 288 W
(c) 75 W (d) none of these
33. an antenna is radiating 100 watts and is drawing 2A from the transmitter, it
s radiation resistance is :
(a) 100 W (b) 50 W
(c) 25 W (d) none of these
34.smaller the beamwidth angle :
(a) smaller the directivity (b) higher the directivity
(c) higher the power gain (d) none of these
35.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

in a broadside array :
maximum reception is in a direction perpendicular axis
maximum reception is along the axis
the directional pattern is undirectional
none of these

36. in an endfire
array:
(a) maximum reception is along the axis
(b) maximum reception is perpendicular to the axis
(c) directional pattern is bidirectional
(d) none of these
37.the simplest parasitic array comprises of :
(a) two elements (b) three elements
(c) five elements (d) none of these
38. a yagiantenna
in horizontal plane :
(a) produces an endfire
pattern (b) produces a broadside pattern
(c) produces a figure eight pattern (d) none of these
39. a television transmitting antenna should have :
(a) an omnidirectional pattern (b) an endfire
pattern
(c) a broadside pattern (d) none of these
40.
(a)
(c)
es
(e)

by increasing the height of the TV receiving antenna :

the range of TV broadcast decreases (b) signal pick up is less
antenna may fail to receive the signal (d) the range of TV broadcast increas
none of these

41. a transmission line is having a reflection coefficient of 1/3 when terminate

d in a certain load. it is SWR is :
(a) 2 (b)
(c) 3 (d) none of these
42. medium wave travel as :
(a) space waves (b) surface waves
(c) sky waves (d) none of these
43. high frequency waves follow :

(a) the ground wave propagation (b) the line of sight direction
(c) the ionosphere propagation (d) the bend along the curvature of earth.
44. VHF waves travel as :
(a) space waves (b) sky waves
(c) ground waves (d) surface waves
45. UHF waves travel as :
(a) space waves (b) surface waves
(c) ground waves (d) sky waves
46.
the
(a)
(c)

during nighttime
ionosphere consists of :
D,E,F1,F2 layers (b) D,E,F1, layers
E,F1,F2 layers (d) E and F2 layers.

47. if the heights of the transmitting and receiving antennas are doubled, the r
ange of TV broadcast:
(a) decrease by a factor of 2 (b) increases by a factor of 2
(c) increases by factor of 1:414 (d) is reduced to onefourth.
48. in electromagnetic waves, polarisation is :
(a) due to transverse nature of waves (b) always vertical in isotropic medium
(c) due to longitudinal nature of waves (d) caused by reflection of waves
49. the UHF waves are also called as :
(a) millimeter waves (b) centimeter waves
(c) long waves (d) short waves
50. a transmission line has an SWR of 3 when terminated in a certain load. the r
eflection coefficient
is
(a) 3 (b)
(c) 1/3 (d) none of these
51. lines of constant resistance on a smith chart are
(a) parallel to each other (b) all circle tangent to each other on one extreme
(c) arcs of circles (d) none of these
52. electromagnetic wave in which the electric field is entirely transverse to t
he direction of propogation is known as
(a) TE wave (b) TEM wave
(c) TM wave (d) TE10 wave
(e) TE11 wave
53. one of the following modes does not exist in wave guides
(a) TE10 mode (b) TE11 mode
(c) TEM mode (d) TM01 mode
54. the dominant mode in rectangular waveguides is the
(a) TE10 mode (b) TM01 mode
(c) TE11 mode (d) TM11 mode.
55. for a rectangular wave guide with a=2 cm and b=1 cm, the cutoff
wavelength for TE10 mode will be
(a) 2 cm (b) 1 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) none of these.
56. in a radar system, a rotating system is used to
(a) determine the target range (b) determine the target crosssection

(c) determine the target bearing (d) none of these

57. a device that is used to detect objects under water is known as
(a) radar (b) sonar
(c) MTI (d) pulse compression radar
58.
get
(a)
(c)

a radar system that can determine the range of the target along with the tar
velocity is
CW radar (b) MTI
pulse radar (d) Doppler radar

59. market the correct expression

(a) Doppler shift = 2vrf/c (b) Doppler shift = 2cf/v4
(c) Doppler shift = 2f/cv4 (d) Doppler shift = vrf/c
60. in a TV picture tube, the deflection of electron beam is achieved by :
(a) electrostatic means
(b) electromagnetic means
(c) electrostatic means for horizontal deflection and electromagnetic means for
vertical deflection
(d) electromagnetic means for horizontal deflection and electrostatic means for
vertical deflection
61. identify secondary colours
(a) red,green,blue (b) red,cyan,yellow
(c) cyan,yellow,magneta (d) magneta,cyan,green
62. luminance signal is expressed by
(a) Y = R+G+B (b) Y=0.3 R +0.59G+0.11B
(c) Y = 0.5 R + 0.5 G + 0.5 B (d) Y=0.59R + 0.3 G +0.11B
63. one of the following camera tubes is based on photo emissive principle
(a) vidicon (b) saticon
(c) image orthicon (d) newvicon
64. pick the odd one out
(a) vidicon camera (b) plumbicon camera
(c) CCD camera (d) saticon camera
65.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

transient response of a control system is the one

which approaches zero when the time approaches infinity
which does not depend up on time
which is time dependent
none of these

66.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a causal system is the one in which the output depends up on

input as well as output
present and past inputs
present as well as future inputs
present and past inputs and past outputs

67. area under a unit impulse function is

(a) infinity (b) zero (c) unity (d) none of these
68. stability of a control system can be determined from one of the following re
sponses.
(a) impulse response (b) step response
(c) ramp response (d) steady state response

69. a feed back control system has a transfer function given by

P (s) = (s+1)(s+3)/s(s+2)(s+4)
it s a
(a) type5
system (b) type 2
system (c) type3
system (d) type4
system
70. gain margin can be determined from the root locus plot
(a) value of gain factor (K) at imaginary crossover/design
(b) design value of gain factor (k) / value of gain factor
sover
(c) value of gain factor (K) at real axis crossover/design
(d) none of these

by
value of (k)
(k) at imaginary cros
value of (k)

71. a higher value of gain factor (K) at the imaginary axis crossover of the roo
t locus part of a control system
(a) brings it closer to instability (b) takes it farther from instability
(c) is always undesirable (d) none of these
72. for drawing the root locus plot of a certain closed loop control system, one
needs to know
(a) only the open loop transfer function of the system
(b) the closed loop transfer function
(c) the closed loop system polezero
map
(d) the open loop transfer function, gain and phase margins
73. when the PLL is being used as a frequency multiplier or a frequency divider,
the output is taken from
(a) the VCO input (b) the output of phase comparator
(c) the VCO output (d) LPF output
74. the essential building blocks of a phase locked loop are
(a) the VCO , the phase comparator and the error amplifer
(b) the VCO, the phase comparator and the low pass filter
(c)the VCO, the low pass filter and the error amplifer
(d) the phase comparator,the low pass filter and the error amplifier
(e) the phase comparator and the VCO
75. while connecting SCRs in series, the individual SCRs chosen for the purpose
should have closely matched
(a) di/dt rating (b) reverse biased characteristics
(c) forward and reverse blocking characteristics (d) forward ONstate
characteristics
76. while connecting SCRs in parallel, the SCRs to be connected in parallel shou
ld have closely matched
(a) forward ONstate
characteristics
(b) forward and reverse OFFstate
characteristics
(c) forward OFFstate
and ONstate
characteristics
(d) SCRs cannot be connected in parallel
77. a UJT relaxation oscillator circuit produces a sawtooth like waveform
(a) at B1 terminal (b) at B2 terminal
(c) across the capacitor (d) none of these
78. in half wave SCR power control circuit, if the firing angle is 300 c, then f

or one complete cycle of operation,the load

gets power for
(a) 600 (b) 1500 (c) 3300 (d) 300
79. most popular oscillator configuration for audio applications is :
(a) Hartley oscillator (b) colpitt s oscillator
(c) weinbridge
oscillator (d) RC
phase shift oscillator.
80. the multivibrator characterized by one quasistable
state is:
(a) bistable multivibrator (b) monostable multi vibrator
(c) astable multivibrator (d) Schmitt trigger
81. one of the following can be used to generate a pulse when ever triggered:
(a) flipflop
(b) monostable multivibrator
(c) astable multivibrator (d) Schmitt trigger
82. one of the following opamp type number is a comparator
(a) LM710 (b) LM 741
(c) LM748 (d) LM747
83. the operation of a thermocouple is based on :
(a) seebeck effect (b) peltier effect
(c) Thomson effect (d) faraday s laws
84. a high Qfactor
coil has:
(a) a flat response (b) a response with slightly lower bandwidth
(c) a higher power loss (d) a peaked response
85.lower the thermal resistances (junctiontocasetoambient)
of a bipolar transistor,
(a) lower is the power dissipation capability for a given ambient temperature
(b) higher is the power dissipation capability for a given ambient temperature
(c) higher is the probability of the device going to thermal runaway
(d) better is its high frequency performance
86. pulse communication system that is inherently highly immune to noise is
(a) PCM (b) PAM (c) PPM (d) PAM
87. the characteristic impedance of a certain transmission line section is 75 oh
ms. if the length of the line is doubled,
the characteristic impedance would
(a) reduce to half (b) double too
(c) increase four times (d) characteristic impedance is independent of length of
line.
88. one of the following is a tracking radar
(a) monostatic radar (b) bistatic radar
(c) monopulse radar (d) secondary surveillance radar
89.the radar that has a higher range resolution and that makes use of matched fi
lter design is
(a) pulse compression radar (b) MTI
(c) pulse Doppler radar (d) monopulse radar
90. in the radar guidance of missiles where the missile has its own radar and it
extracts the tracking data from the
target reflected energy, the technique is known as
(a) command guidance (b) beam rider guidance
(c)homming guidance (d) none of these

ans;1.C
2.A
3.A

4.C
5.B
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.B
10.D
11.D
12.B
13.B
14.B
15.C
16.B
17.B
18.B
26.B
27.B
28.B
29.C
30.C
31.A
32.C
33.C
34.B
35.A
36.A
37.A
38.B
39.A
40.D
41.A
42.B
43.C
51.B
52.A
53.C
54.A
55.C
56.C
57.B
58.B
59.A
60.B
61.C
62.B
63.C
64.C
65.A
66.B
67.C
68.A
76.A
77.C
78.B
79.C
80.B
81.B
82.A
83.A
84.D

85.B
86.A
87.D
88.C
89.A
90.C