Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MM : 720
TOPICS COVERED
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY :
BIOLOGY
Diversity in Living World: What is living? ; Biodiversity; Need for classification; Three domains
of life; Taxonomy and Systematics; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial
nomenclature; Tools for study of Taxonomy Museums, Zoos, Herbaria, Botanical gardens,
keys, Five kingdom classification; salient features and classification of Monera, Protista and
Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and Viroids, Salient Features and classification of
animals nonchordate up to phyla level and Chordates up to classes level
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1.
2.
3.
1/34
5.
6.
7.
8.
If x
V0
1 e at . Find the dimensions of V0 and a (X is displacement)
a
Percentage errors in measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be the
maximum error in the estimation of KE obtained by measuring mass and speed?
(1) 5%
(2) 1%
(3) 8%
(4) 11%
2/34
10. Given that y = a sint + bt + ct2 cost. Find the expression having same unit as of abc (Y = displacement)
(1) y
(2)
y
t
y
(3)
t
y
(4)
t
11. If E, M, J, G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant, then EJ2/M5G2 has dimensions
of
(1) Time
(2) Angle
(3) Mass
(4) Length
1
2
2
12. An experiment measures quantities a, b and c, then X is calculated as X a 3b . If percentage errors in a, b
c
and c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, then the percentage error in X can be
(1) 12.5%
(2) 7%
(3) 1%
(4) 4%
13. The position x of a particle varies with (t) as x = at2 bt3. The acceleration at time t of the particle will be zero,
then t is equal to
(1)
2a
3b
(2)
a
b
(3)
a
3b
(4)
a
b
3/34
14. A body covers one third of distance with velocity v1 , the second one third distance with velocity v2 and remaining
distance with a velocity v3. Find the average velocity
(1)
v1 v 2 v 3
3
3v1v 2v 3
(2) v v v v v v
1 2
2 3
1 3
(3)
v1v 2 v 2v 3 v1v 3
3
(4)
v1v 2v 3
3
9x
2
4/34
19. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t. Find the acceleration
of the particle at 5 s
(1) Zero
(2) 8 ms2
(3) 20 ms2
(4) 40 ms2
20. For motion of an object along X-axis, the velocity v depends on displacement x as v = 3x2 2x, then what is
the acceleration at x = 2 m?
(1) 48 ms2
(2) 80 ms2
(3) 18 ms2
(4) 10 ms2
21. A ball is thrown upwards with speed v from top of a tower and it reaches the ground with speed 3v. What is
height of tower?
(1)
v2
g
(2)
2v 2
g
(3)
4v 2
g
(4)
8v 2
g
22. A body travels 200 cm in first 2 s and 220 cm in next 4 s with constant deceleration. Find the velocity of body
at end of 7th s
(1) 5 cm s1
(2) 10 cm s1
(3) 15 cm s1
(4) 20 cm s1
23. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h. It takes time T to reach the ground. What is the position
T
?
(from the ground) of ball after time
3
(1)
h
m
9
(2)
7h
m
9
(3)
8h
m
9
(4)
17h
m
18
5/34
6/34
30. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with certain velocity. While moving upwards it reaches a point A at t1 second
and then reaches the ground at t1 + t2 second. Find the height of point A above point of projection
(1)
1
g t12 t 22
2
(2)
1
g t1 t 2
2
(3) gt1t2
(4)
1
2
g t 2 t1
2
31. A particle moves according to equation t x 3 , when the particle comes to rest for the first time
(1) 3 s
(2) 2.5 s
(3) 3.5 s
(4) None of these
32. A point traversed half the distance with velocity v0. The remaining part of distance was covered with velocity
v1 for half the time and with velocity v2, for the other half of the time. The mean velocity of the point averaged
over the whole time of motion is
(1)
v 0 v1 v 2
v 0v1v 2
(2)
2 v 0 v 1 v 2
2 v 0 v1 v 2
(3)
v 0 v1 v 2
v 0 v1 v 2
(4)
3v 0 2v1 2v 2
3v 0 2v1 2v 2
33. A car has speed v1 for first one metre and v2 for next one metre. What is minimum possible value of average
velocity?
(1)
(2)
(3)
2v 1v 2
v1 v 2
v 1 v2
2
v 1 v2
2
(4) Zero
7/34
34. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for a distance x and with a uniform velocity
v2 for next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by
(1) v
v1 v 2
2
(2) v v1v 2
2 1 1
(3) v v v
1
2
1 1 1
(4) v v v
1
2
35. A particle is released from rest from a tower of height 3h. The ratio of times to fall equal heights h i.e. t1 : t2 :
t3 is
(1)
3 : 2 :1
(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 : 1
(4) 1: 2 1: 3 2
36. A radius vector of point A relative to origin varies with time as r = ati bt2j. Find the equation of trajectory
(1) y
(2) y
b2 2
x
a2
(3) y
(4) y
b 2
x
a2
2b 2
x
a2
2b 2
x
a2
37. A particle is moving in straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration f. If sum of distance travelled
in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds in cm/s, is
(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 80
8/34
38. Two trains each 50 m long are travelling in opposite directions with velocities 10 ms1 and 15 ms1. Find the
time after which they will cross each other
(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 2 3 s
(4) 4 3 s
39. A man swims to and fro along the bank of a river with velocity v relative to water. If velocity of flow is u, find
the average speed of man
(1) 0
(2)
uv
(3)
u v
2
(4)
v 2 u2
v
40. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration and its velocity after n seconds is v. The displacement of
the body in last two seconds is
(1)
v n 1
n
(2)
2v n 1
n
(3)
2v n 1
n
(4)
v n 1
n
41. In a car race, car A takes t0 time less to finish than car B and passes the finishing point with a velocity v0 more
v0
than car B. The cars start from rest and travel with constant accelerations a1 and a2. Then ratio t is equal to
0
a12
(1)
a2
(2)
a1 a2
2
(3)
a1 a2
(4)
a22
a1
9/34
42. The velocity of a particle is V = v0 + gt + ft2. If its position is x = 0, at t = 0, then its displacement after unit
time (t = 1) is
(1) v0 + g/2 + f/3
(2) v0 + g + f
(3) v0 + g/2 + f
(4) v0 + 2g + 3f
43. If velocity of a particle v = At2 + Bt3, then distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is
(1)
7 A 15B
3
4
(2)
3A
4B
2
(3)
7 A 7B
3
3
(4)
15 A 15B
4
4
44. A body is moving with 3 m/s towards North. After 10 s its velocity becomes 4 m/s towards East. The average
acceleration of body is
(1) 0.7 m/s2
(2) 0.5 m/s2
(3) 0.1 m/s2
(4) 0.8 m/s2
45. The displacement of particle is given by y = a bt + ct2 dt3. Find initial velocity and initial acceleration of particle
respectively
(1) b, 2c
(2) b, 3d
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, 4d
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Number of moles in 1 m3 gas at NTP is
(1) 4.46
(2) 44.6
(3) 446
(4) 4460
10/34
47. The total number of atoms of all elements present in one mole of ammonium dichromate is
(1) 19
(2) 6.023 1023
(3) 114.473 1023
(4) 84.322 1023
48. For a reaction A + 2B C, the amount of C formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of A and
8 moles of B is
(1) 5 moles
(2) 8 moles
(3) 16 moles
(4) 4 moles
49. A 100% pure sample of a divalent metal carbonate weighing 2g on complete thermal decomposition releases
448 cc of carbon dioxide at STP. The equivalent mass of metal is
(1) 40
(2) 20
(3) 28
(4) 12
50. Identify the orbital
(1) 2p
(2) 3p
(3) 4p
(4) 5p
51. d orbital is also called
(1) Degenerate
(2) Dumbbell
(3) Derived
(4) Diffused
52. The energy of electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is 13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited
state(s) for electron in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are)
(1) 3.4 eV
(2) 4.2 eV
(3) 1.5 eV
(4) Both (1) & (3)
11/34
53. In the Bohrs orbit, what is the ratio of total kinetic energy and the total energy of the electron?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) +1
(4) +2
54. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents
the correct description?
(1) O2, O2
2
Both diamagnetic
(2) O+, O2
2
Both paramagnetic
O+2,
O2
Both paramagnetic
(4) O, O2
2
Both paramagnetic
(3)
55. How many hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) are associated with CuSO45H2O?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
56. The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (At. No. 26) is not equal to that of
(1) p- electrons in Ne (At. No. = 10)
(2) s - electrons in Mg (At. No. = 12)
(3) d - electrons in Fe atom
(4) p - electons in Cl ion (At. No. = 17)
57. For principal quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 9
58. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) The kinetic energy of an electron is directly proportional to accelerating potential
(2) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle is inversely proportional to its mass.
(3) The wavelength associated with an electron is directly proportional to square root of accelerating potential
(4) de-Brogile wavelength is inversely proportional to the velocity of electron
59. How many electrons of s
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2
12/34
1
are present in sodium ion?
2
60. The ratio of sigma bonds present in cation and anion in ionic PCl5 is
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
61. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Bond angle in PH+4 islower than that of pH3
(2) Covalency of N in N2O5 is 5
(3) Oxidation state of nitrogen cannot be equal to + 5 in N2O5
(4) There is a coordinate covalent bond formed between NH3 and BF3
62. Which of the following transition in Be3+ gives same frequency, given by n = 4 to n = 2 in He+?
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 6 to n = 3
(3) n = 8 to n = 4
(4) n = 3 to n = 2
63. Which one of the following sets of quantum number is possible ?
(1) n = 3, l = 3, m = 3, s = +
1
2
(2) n = 2, l = 1, m = 2, s =
1
2
(3) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
1
2
(4) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s = +
1
2
64. The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by
(1) Paulis exclusion principle
(2) Hunds rule
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) Uncertainty principle
65. Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds like H2O, HF and NH3. The correct decreasing order of boiling
points of these compounds is
(1) HF > H2O > NH3
(2) H2O > HF > NH3
(3) NH3 > HF > H2O
(4) NH3 > H2O > HF
13/34
66. Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N, the correct order of their chemical reactivity in terms of oxidising
property is
(1) F > Cl > O > N
(2) F > O > Cl > N
(3) Cl > F > O > N
(4) O > F > N > Cl
67. If q1 is the specific charge (e/m) of cathode rays and q2 is that of alpha rays then
(1) q1 = q2
(2) q1 < q2
(3) q1 > q2
(4) None of these
68. Negative electronic energy (negative sign for all values of energy) for hydrogen atom means
(1) The energy of an electron in the atom is lower than the energy of a free electron at infinity which is taken
as zero
(2) When the electron is free from the influence of nucleus it has a negative value which becomes more negative
(3) When the electron is attracted by the nucleus the energy is absorbed which means a negative value
(4) Energy is released by hydrogen atom in ground state
69. If 0 is the threshold wavelength of a metal and is the wavelength of the incident radiation the maximum
velocity of the ejected electrons from the metal would be
1
hc 0 2
(1)
m 0
2hc 0 2
(2)
m 0
(3)
h
0
m
1
2
2
2h
(4)
0
m
70. Which of the following is correct, if for the same element three separate radii 105 nm, 100 nm and
90 nm are reported?
(1) These are van der Waals, metallic and covalent radii respectively
(2) These are metallic, covalent and van der Waals radii respectively
(3) These are covalent, metallic and van der Waals radii respectively
(4) These are metallic, van der Waals and covalent radii respectively
14/34
71. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment?
CH 3
(1)
H
CH3
C=C
H
A molecule of the type AX5 has square pyramidal shape. Hence, number of lone pairs on A is
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
15/34
77. The cyanide ion CN and the nitrogen molecule (N2) are isoelectronic. However, in contrast to CN, N2 is
chemically inert due to
(1) Unsymmetrical electron distribution
(2) Low bond energy
(3) Absence of bond polarity
(4) Presence of greater number of electons in bonding
78. Which of the following statements is correct for CsBr3?
(1) It is covalent compound
(2) It contains Cs3+ and Br
(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3
(4) It contains Cs+, Br and lattice Br2 molecule
79. Which has maximum dipole moment?
Cl
(1)
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
(2)
Cl
Cl
Cl
(3)
Cl
Cl
(4)
Cl
80. Central O atom in O3 is______hybridized
(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) dsp2
81. Which of the following species contain at least one atom that violates the octet rule?
(1) ClO2
(2) F Xe F
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) CCl4
16/34
82. Polarising action of Cd2+ on anions is stronger than that of Ca2+ because
(1) The charges of the ions are same
(2) Their radii are same (Ca2+ = 0.104 nm; Cd2+ = 0.099 nm)
(3) The Ca2+ ion has a noble gas electron configuration, and the Cd2+ ion, has 18 electron configuration of its
outer shell (Fazan rule)
(4) All of these are correct
83. What is the shape of NH3, N(CH3)3 and N[Si(CH3)3] molecules?
(1) Trigonal planar, trigonal pyramidal, square planar respectively
(2) Trigonal pyramidal, trigonal pyramidal, trigonal planar respectively
(3) Tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal, trigonal pyramidal
(4) Trigonal pyramidal, trigonal planar, octahedral
84. The bond order of the NO bonds in NO3 ion is
(1) 0.33
(2) 1.00
(3) 1.33
(4) 1.50
85. If Aufbau rule is not used, 19th electron in Sc (Z = 21) will have
(1) n = 3, l = 0
(2) n = 3, l = 1
(3) n = 3, l = 2
(4) n = 4, l = 0
86. Number of electrons that F(Z = 9) has in p-orbitals is equal to
(1) Number of electons in s-orbitals in Na
(2) Number of electons in d-orbitals in Fe3+
(3) Number of electons in d-orbitals in Mn
(4) All of these
87. If the carbon atom had electronic configuration 1s6, it would have energy lower than that of normal ground state
configuration 1s2 2s2 2p2, because electrons would be closer to nucleus, yet 1s6 is not observed because it
violates
(1) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
(2) Hunds rule
(3) Paulis exclusion principle
(4) de-Broglie principle
88. Which pair is different from the others?
(1) Li - Mg
(2) Na - K
(3) Ca - Mg
(4) B - Al
17/34
89. Fluorine does not form any polyhalide as other halogens because
(1) It has maximum ionic character
(2) It has low F - F bond energy (38.5 kcal mol1)
(3) Of the absence of d-orbitals in the valence shell of fluorine
(4) It can form H-bonding
90. Most electronegative element out of following is
(1) Tl
(2) In
(3) Ga
(4) Al
[ BIOLOGY]
91. Consider the following three statements (A-C) and select the correct option stating true (T) and false (F).
(A) In animals, growth is seen only upto a certain age and lost cells are not replaced.
(B) Filamentous algae easily multiply by fragmentation.
(C) Reproduction can be an all inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms
A
(1) T
(2) F
(3) F
(4) F
92. Scientific name of wheat is based on agreed principles and criteria which are mentioned in
(1) ICBN
(2) ICZN
(3) ICNB
(4) More than one option is correct
93. Given below are two statements :
Statement-A : The production of progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.
Statement-B : The ability to sense their surroundings or environment and respond to these environmental stimuli.
Which of the following statement explains the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living
organisms?
(1) Statement A only
(2) Statement B only
(3) Both statements A and B
(4) Neither statement A nor B
18/34
Column II
a. Convolvulaceae
b. Polymoniales
c.
Mammalia
d. Chordata
19/34
(b)
(iii) Order
(ii)
(a)
Dicotyledonae
(c)
Choose the option which correctly fills up the given blanks (a) , (b) and (c) .
(1) Solanaceae
Division
Poales
(2) Poaceae
Class
Polymoniales
Class
Sapindales
Sapindales
100. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on
similarities and dissimilarities.
(1) It is based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair
(2) It represents the choice made between two opposite options
(3) This is not generally analytical in nature
(4) Each character of the statement in this taxonomic aid is called a lead
101. In which of the following, growth and reproduction are linked and mutually exclusive events?
(1) Amoeba
(2) Triticum
(3) Bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct
102. Given below are some criteria for classification :
Development process, Cell structure, External structure, Ecological information, Base sequencing
How many criteria are considered by modern taxonomist for classification?
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Five
103. All of the following protists prepare their food from CO2 and water by utilising sunlight with the help of
photosynthetic pigments, except
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglena
(4) Paramoecium
20/34
104. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
(1) Kingdom
(2) Family
(3) Phylum
(4) Division
105. Which of the following taxonomic aid is related to ex-situ conservation strategies of organisms?
(1) Botanical garden
(2) Museum
(3) Zoological parks
(4) More than one option is correct
106. Choose the incorrect match :
(1) Monograph Information of any one taxon
(2) Flora
(3) Catalogue
(4) Manual
21/34
109. Match the column w.r.t. virus and their genetic material.
Column I
Column II
a. Influenza virus
(i) dsRNA
(ii) ssDNA
c.
Reo virus
(iii) ssRNA
d. 174 phage
(iv) dsDNA
Bacillus subtilis
Clostridium
Halobacterium
22/34
23/34
119. All of the following are holophytic protists with heterokont flagella, except.
(1) Euglena
(2) Diatoms
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Noctiluca
120. The unicellular organisms which are believed to be primitive relatives of animals possess / have
(1) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) Silica shell in most forms
(3) Anaerobic respiration in all members
(4) Only flagella for locomotion
121. Which of the following forms a connecting link with plants, animals and fungi?
(1) Protistan fungi
(2) Euglena
(3) Club fungi
(4) Sac fungi
122. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. saprophytic protists
(1) The spore possess true walls
(2) Spores are dispersed by air currents
(3) During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies
(4) Their body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing inorganic material
123. Which of the following does not form the basis for the division of the kingdom fungi into various classes?
(1) Mode of spore formation
(2) Fruiting bodies
(3) Morphology of mycelium
(4) Mode of nutrition
124. Which of the following fungus belongs to the same class to which the fungal partner in case of ectomycorrhiza
belongs?
(1) Rhizopus
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Ustilago
(4) Colletotrichum
24/34
25/34
Fungus
Characters
Exception
Trichoderma
Septate mycelium
Mucor
Edible fungus
Morels
Zoospore
Basidiospore
(4) Aspergillus
135. Which of the following undergoes rapid multiplication that they make the sea appear red?
(1) Diatoms
(2) Entamoeba
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Alternaria
26/34
(2) Chordata
(3) Porifera
(4) Mollusca
Column II
a. Ambystoma
b. Cnidaria
c.
Scypha
d. Antedon
e. Polychaeta
27/34
141. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic
feature?
Animals
Features
Bilateral symmetry
Metameric segmentation
Deuterostomic condition
Schizocoelom
Sea water
(2) Gorgonia
Sea water
Fresh water
Sea water
28/34
29/34
30/34
31/34
32/34
Uromastix
(2) Draco
Tree lizard
Heloderma
Ophiosaurus
173. Syndactyly, prehensile tail, bifid tongue and viviparity are the unique features of
(1) Chameleon
(2) Macropus
(3) Spider monkey
(4) Rhesus monkey
174. In singing birds, the sound is produced by the
(1) Lungs
(2) Syrinx
(3) Air sacs
(4) Larynx
175. Which of the following characters is exclusive to mammals?
(1) Presence of a four-chambered heart
(2) Presence of diaphragm and mammary gland
(3) Presence of dicondylic skull
(4) Presence of 12 pairs cranial nerves
176. Which character is incorrect regarding prototherian?
(1) Mammals with single opening called cloaca
(2) No external ear pinna
(3) Testis extra abdominal
(4) Uterus absent
33/34
34/34
ONLINE TEST 1
ANSWERS
1.
(1)
37.
(3)
73.
(4)
109. (3)
145. (4)
2.
(3)
38.
(2)
74.
(4)
110. (1)
146 (2)
3.
(4)
39.
(4)
75.
(1)
111. (2)
147. (1)
4.
(3)
40.
(3)
76.
(4)
112. (4)
148. (2)
5.
(4)
41.
(3)
77.
(3)
113. (3)
149. (1)
6.
(4)
42.
(1)
78.
(3)
114. (1)
150. (4)
7.
(1)
43.
(1)
79.
(1)
115. (3)
151. (4)
8.
(1)
44.
(2)
80.
(2)
116. (4)
152. (4)
9.
(3)
45.
(1)
81.
(3)
117. (3)
153. (4)
10.
(4)
46.
(2)
82.
(3)
118. (3)
154. (3)
11.
(2)
47.
(3)
83.
(2)
119. (2)
155. (3)
12.
(1)
48.
(4)
84.
(3)
120. (1)
156. (3)
13.
(3)
49.
(2)
85.
(3)
121. (1)
157. (2)
14.
(2)
50.
(2)
86.
(4)
122. (4)
158. (3)
15.
(1)
51.
(4)
87.
(3)
123. (4)
159. (1)
16.
(1)
52.
(4)
88.
(1)
124. (3)
160. (3)
17.
(1)
53.
(1)
89.
(3)
125. (3)
161. (2)
18.
(2)
54.
(3)
90.
(1)
126. (2)
162. (2)
19.
(2)
55.
(1)
91.
(4)
127. (3)
163. (1)
20.
(2)
56.
(4)
92.
(1)
128. (3)
164. (1)
21.
(3)
57.
(2)
93.
(2)
129. (2)
165. (3)
22.
(2)
58.
(3)
94.
(2)
130. (4)
166. (1)
23.
(3)
59.
(1)
95.
(1)
131. (2)
167. (2)
24.
(2)
60.
(3)
96.
(4)
132. (4)
168. (2)
25.
(1)
61.
(4)
97.
(2)
133. (4)
169. (4)
26.
(4)
62.
(3)
98.
(3)
134. (1)
170. (4)
27.
(3)
63.
(3)
99.
(4)
135. (3)
171. (3)
28.
(1)
64.
(2)
100. (3)
136. (4)
172. (2)
29.
(1)
65.
(2)
101. (2)
137. (3)
173. (1)
30.
(2)
66.
(2)
102. (3)
138. (4)
174. (2)
31.
(1)
67.
(3)
103. (4)
139. (1)
175. (2)
32.
(2)
68.
(1)
104. (4)
140. (2)
176. (3)
33.
(4)
69.
(2)
105. (4)
141. (2)
177. (4)
34.
(3)
70.
(1)
106. (4)
142. (3)
178. (4)
35.
(4)
71.
(2)
107. (3)
143. (3)
179. (2)
36.
(1)
72.
(4)
108. (4)
144. (3)
180. (1)
1/19
Answer (1)
Millikan oil drop experiment is for determination of charge.
2.
Answer (3)
Lightning was discovered by Franklin.
3.
Answer (4)
Range of nuclear force is for order 1016 m
4.
Answer (3)
T
5.
F E
J
2
l
A m
Answer (4)
Rate of change of velocity is acceleration which is vector quantity while others are scalars.
6.
Answer (4)
7.
F / A MLT 2
= ML1T2
L2
Answer (1)
0.00701 = 7.01 103
10 103 = 102
8.
Answer (1)
0
x v 0 M LT
L
1
a
9.
Answer (3)
KE =
1
mv2
2
k
m
v
100
100 2
100 = 2 + 2 3 = 8%
k
m
v
y
t
c=
y
t2
abc =
2/19
y3
y
=
3
t
t
ML2T 2 ML2T 1
E J2
= M0L0T0
1 3 2 2
5
M 5 G2
M M LT
12. Answer (1)
X=
a y2 b2
c3
1 a
b
c
X
100 2
100 3
100
100 =
2 a
b
c
X
1
1+23+32
2
= 12.5%
13. Answer (3)
x = at2 bt3
dx
= 2at2 3bt2
dt
d 2x
= 2a 6bt = 0
dt 2
t=
a
3b
Vav =
3v1 v 2 v 3
s
s
s
s v1 v 2 v 2v 3 v1v 3
3 3 3
v1 v 2 v 2
2v
dv
18 x
dx
a= v
dv
9x
dx
3/19
2.75 ms2
t
10
a=
In (10 s) s1 = 0 10 +
1
2.75 102 = 137.5 m
2
In (20 s) s2 = 0 20 +
1
2.75 202 = 550 m
2
t=5s
19. Answer (2)
ax =
d 2x
= 8,
dt 2
a=
ay =
d 2y
=0
dt 2
dv
= 6x 2
dx
a=v
dv
= (3x2 2x) (6x 2)
dx
4v 2
g
1
a4
2
u a = 100
200 + 220 = u (2 + 4)
u 3a = 70
...(i)
1
(2 + 4)2 a
2
...(ii)
u = 115 cm s1, a = 15 cm s2
v = u at = 115 5 7 = 10 cm s1
4/19
1 2
gT
2
h=
1 T
h 8h
= h g h
2 3
9
9
dv
a cost
dt
a=
s = ut +
1 2
at = 9 m
2
1 2
1
gt =
10 22 = 20 m
2
2
in next 2 s h2 = h1 = 20 m
height after next 2 s
= (H 20) 20 = H 40
27. Answer (3)
h=
1 2
1
gt , h 20 = g (t 1)2
2
2
Relative distance
300
=
= 30 s
10
Relative speed
u
=1s
g
u = 10
u2
H=
=5m
2g
5/19
1 2
gt1
2
2u
= t1 + t2
g
u=
1
g(t + t2)
2 1
h=
1
1
1
g t12 t1 t 2 gt12 g t1 t 2
2
2
2
t=
x=t3
x = t2 6t + 9
v = 2t 6 = 0
t=3s
32. Answer (2)
x
t
t
t1 = 2v , x1 = v1 2 , x2 = v2 2
2
2
0
x1 + x2 = (v1+ v2)
t2
2
t
x
v1 v 2 2
2
2
x
t2 = v v
1
2
vmean =
2v v v 2
x
x
0 1
x
x
t
2v 0 v1 v 2
2v 0 v1 v 2
2x
x x
v1 v 2
2 1
1
v v1 v 2
6/19
1 1
=0
t
1 2
g t1
2
1
2
2h = g t1 t 2
2
1
2
3h = g t1 t 2 t3
2
2h
g
t1 =
4h
g
t1 + t2 =
6h
g
t1 + t2 + t3 =
t2 2 1
t3 3 2
t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : 2 1 : 3 2
36. Answer (1)
r = at i bt2 j
x = at t =
x
a
2
y=
bt2
b 2
x
= b 2 x
a
a
a
a
(2t 1) + u + (2(t + 1) 1) = 100
2
2
2u + 2ft = 100
v = u + ft = 50 cm/s
38. Answer (2)
Total length = 50 + 50 = 100 m
Relative velocity = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s
Time taken =
100
=4s
25
7/19
d
d
v u v u
t=
2dv
v u2
2
vav =
2d
2d
v 2 u2
t
v
2dv
2
v u2
a=
v
n
1 2
1
2
1
2v n 1
2
2
s(n) s(n 2) = 0 an 0 a n 2 = a n n 2
2
2
2
n
t0
a2
a1
2 a1 s 2 a2 s
a1 a2
a1a2
1
1
a2
a1
v0
t0
dx vdt
x = v0 t
gt 2 ft 3
2
3
at t = 1
x = v0
g f
2 3
A t3 B t4
3
4
x (1) =
A B
3 4
x (2) =
8A
4B
3
x(2) x(1) =
8/19
7 A 15 B
3
4
3 2 4 2 0 5m/s
a=
v
5
0.5 m/s2
t
10
dy
b 2ct 3dt 2
dt
u = b
a = 2c 6dt
a(t = 0) = 2c
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Answer (2)
1 m3 = 1000 L
Number of moles of a gas =
Vol L at NTP
= 44.6 moles
22.4
448 ml
If 448 ml of CO2 is produced from 2 g of MCO3 then 224400 ml of CO2 is produced from
2
22400 = 100 g
448
40
{ Metal is divalent}
2
9/19
RH Z2
n2
1
mv2; PE = mv2
2
Energy =
1
mv2
2
2+
O H
H O
Cu
H O
H
O H
10/19
O
S
O
But
h
h
mv
mp
...(i)
1
mv2 = KE
2
v=
2KE
m
...(ii)
But KE = eV
Where V is potential applied
h
2meV
...(iii)
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Number of bonds =
i.e.,
Cl
Cl
4
(c)
O
O
F
NH3
(d)
11/19
h1 =
...(i)
As 1 = 2
Putting value of 2 in eqaution (i)
1
1
3
= (4)2 n2 n2
2
1
4
1
1
3
= n2 n2
1
2
64
n1 = 4
n2 = 8
He+
Z=2
h2 =
R 1
1
2
2 2
HZ n1 n2
1
1
2 = (2)2 2
2
2
4
12 3
1 1
16 4
2 = 4 = 4
=
4 16
64
16 4
1
1
and
2
2
12/19
0
1
mv2 = hc
2
0
v2 =
2hc 0
m 0
2hc
v=
m 0
CH 3 C C CH 3
= 0 (Symmetrical molecule).
72. Answer (4)
According to stoichiometry, 3 moles of H2 are produced from 6 moles of HCl. Hence, 11.2 L of H2 at STP are
produced from 1 mole of HCl consumed.
73. Answer (4)
N
O
Paramagnetic
NO2 forms dimer hence of one odd electron.
74. Answer (4)
AX5 has square bipyramidal geometry
x
A
x
Square pyramidal
13/19
1
[V + M C + A]
2
H=
For CH22+
1
[4 + 2 2]
2
H=
= 2 ; sp
76. Answer (4)
Lone pair of N-atom is in resonance.
77. Answer (3)
C N
NN
and
Polar
Non-polar
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
(1)
Cl
(2)
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
(3)
(4)
Cl
Cl
O
O
(1)
-d
Cl pd
(2)
Xe
14/19
O
O
N
O
4
= 1.33
3
15/19
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (4)
In animals, lost cells are replaced.
92. Answer (1)
93. Answer (2)
Consciousness is the most obvious and technically complicated feature of living organisms.
94. Answer (2)
Canis, Felis and Homo belong to class mammalia of phylum chordata.
95. Answer (1)
96. Answer (4)
Lower taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
97. Answer (2)
Classification is not a single step process.
98. Answer (3)
99. Answer (4)
a - Anacardiaceae, b - Class, c - Sapindales
100. Answer (3)
Key are generally analytical in nature.
101. Answer (2)
In higher plants and animals, growth and reproduction linked and are mutually exclusive events.
102. Answer (3)
Base sequencing is not considered by modern taxonomists for classification.
103. Answer (4)
104. Answer (4)
105. Answer (4)
106. Answer (4)
Manual gives complete listing and description of the plant growing in a particular area.
107. Answer (3)
Smallest free living moneran is Mycoplasma.
108. Answer (4)
109. Answer (3)
110. Answer (1)
In two kingdom classification, protozoans were classified under animal kingdom.
111. Answer (2)
Kingdom protista and kingdom plantae.
112. Answer (4)
113. Answer (3)
Bacteria of marshy habitats are methanogens.
16/19
17/19
18/19
19/19