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01a. Aircraft Materials - 4.

Tempering steel
Ferrous. gives.
7. The purpose of case
1. When drilling Option A. greater hardening is to.
stainless steel, use brittleness.
a. Option A. produce a
Option B. greater hard case over a tough
Option A. drill ground to hardness. core.
120 , slow cutting
speed. Option C. relief of Option B. reduce the
internal stress after carbon in the steel.
Option B. drill ground to hardening.
90 , fast cutting Option C. introduce
speed. Correct Answer is. relief carbon into the steel.
of internal stress after
Option C. drill ground to hardening. Correct Answer is.
90 , slow cutting produce a hard case over a
speed. tough core.

Correct Answer is. drill 5. The addition of


ground to 120 , slow cutting chromium to steel will
speed. produce. 8. At normal
temperatures HC steel is
Option A. harder because.
toughness.
2. How is a material Option A. it has more
galvanised?. Option B. austenite.
hardness.
Option A. Sprayed with Option B. of the % of
nickel solution. Option C. ductility. carbon in the granules.

Option B. Packed in a Correct Answer is. Option C. it has less


drum containing zinc dust hardness. austenite.
and heated.
Explanation. Chromium is Correct Answer is. of the
Option C. Dipped in a alloyed with steel to make it % of carbon in the
bath of molten zinc. harder. granules.

Correct Answer is.


Dipped in a bath of molten
zinc. 6. Chromium added to 9. Nitriding
plain carbon is.
steel.
Option A.
3. What temperature Option A. increases it's tempering.
would steel be tempered resistance to corrosion.
at?. Option B.
Option B. turns it into a anodising.
Option A. At the non-ferrous alloy.
annealing temperature. Option C. case
Option C. makes the hardening.
Option B. Above the metal softer.
annealing temperature. Correct Answer is. case
Correct Answer is. hardening.
Option C. Below the increases it's resistance to
annealing temperature. corrosion.

Correct Answer is. Below Explanation. Chromium, 10. Medium carbon


the annealing when added to steel steels have a carbon
temperature. increases its hardness and content of.
corrosion resistance (hence
CRS). Option A. 0.3 - 0.5
%.
Option B. 0.5 - 0.8 Option C. relieves Option B. Wax
%. internal stress suffered after crayon.
engineering processes.
Option C. 0.8 - 1.05 Option C. Copper
%. Correct Answer is. sulphate.
relieves internal stress
Correct Answer is. 0.3 - suffered after engineering Correct Answer is.
0.5 %. processes. Copper sulphate.

11. A ferrous metal 14. Cobalt steel tested 17. Phosphating of


contains. on the Brinell test would steels is carried out by
have a BHN number immersing the steel in to a
Option A. aluminium. between. solution of.

Option B. iron. Option A. 100 to Option A. phosphoric


175. acid and metal
Option C. phosphates.
magnesium. Option B. 300 to
400. Option B. nitric acid and
Correct Answer is. sulphur.
iron. Option C. 600 to
700. Option C. metal
phosphates and sulphuric
Correct Answer is. 600 to acid.
12. With respect to 700.
ferrous metals which of the Correct Answer is.
following is phosphoric acid and metal
true?. phosphates.
15. If a material is found
Option A. Iron is not any to be in the tertiary phase of
element of ferrous creep the following
metals. procedure should be
implemented:.
Option B. Iron is a main 18. Tempering
element and most ferrous Option A. The entails.
metal are magnetic. component should under go
dye penetrant process and Option A. heating under
Option C. Iron is a main condition monitored. the UCP and slow
element and ferrous metals cooling.
are not magnetic. Option B. The crack
should be stop drill, Option B. heating over
Correct Answer is. Iron is condition monitoring should the UCP and fast
a main element and most be applied. cooling.
ferrous metal are magnetic.
Option C. The Option C. heating over
component should be the UCP and slow
replaced immediately. cooling.
13. The annealing
process on steel is required Correct Answer is. The Correct Answer is.
sometimes as it. component should be heating under the UCP and
replaced immediately. slow cooling.
Option A. provides a
corrosion resistant layer that
prevents oxidation.
16. What is used for 19. Austenitic stainless
Option B. allows the marking out steels?. steels are.
material a greater stress per
unit area. Option A. Engineers Option A.
blue. magnetic.
Option B. non- Correct Answer is. Option B. left to cool in
magnetic. formation of room temperature.
cementite.
Option C. hardened by Option C. cooled slowly.
heat treatment.
Correct Answer is. left to
Correct Answer is. non- 23. The difference cool in room
magnetic. between annealing and temperature.
normalizing is.

Option A. both are


20. The formation of heated above the UCT, cool 26. Cast iron
steel depends slowly to anneal, cool in air is.
upon. to normalize.
Option A. very
Option A. the formation Option B. both are malleable.
of pearlite into heated below the UCT, cool
austenite. in air to anneal, cool slowly Option B. tough.
to normalize.
Option B. the formation Option C. heavy and
of austenite into Option C. both are brittle.
pearlite. heated above the UCT, cool
in air to anneal, cool slowly Correct Answer is. heavy
Option C. the presence to normalize. and brittle.
of pearlite in the
structure. Correct Answer is. both
are heated above the UCT,
Correct Answer is. the 27. Case hardening can
cool slowly to anneal, cool
formation of austenite into be carried out
in air to normalize.
pearlite. on.
(in the furnace) to anneal,
Option A. titanium.
cool in air to
normalize. Option B. any ferrous
21. How is residual
magnetism removed after metal.
an NDT
examination?. Option C.
24. Normalizing of steel
duralumin.
is done to.
Option A. EMI.
Correct Answer is. any
Option A. remove
Option B. EMC. ferrous metal.
residual stress of the
manufacturing process.
Option C.
Degaussing. Option B. make steel 28. Exhaust systems are
softer. usually made from stainless
Correct Answer is.
Degaussing. steel which is susceptible
Option C. restore the
to.
fatigue life of steel.
Option A. surface
Correct Answer is.
22. The hardness of corrosion.
remove residual stress of
steel depends the manufacturing process.
upon. Option B. filiform
corrosion.
Option A. formation of
pearlite into austenite. Option C. intergranular
25. When normalising,
corrosion.
the material is.
Option B. formation of
cementite. Correct Answer is.
Option A. quenched
intergranular
immediately.
Option C. the iron corrosion.
austenite grain
structure.
29. When metal is first Option B. flame or Option C. significantly
heated slightly above its induction hardening. reduce the brittleness
critical temperature and without suffering a major
then cooled rapidly it is Option C. pack or gas drop in its strength.
common that the metal will carburising.
increase in. Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. pack significantly reduce the
Option A. or gas carburising. brittleness without suffering
brittleness. a major drop in its
strength.
Option B. both of the
above. 33. After a product has
been manufactured and all
Option C. heat treatment has been 36. High speed steel
hardness. carried out the stress relies heavily on the
remaining if any is termed following metallic element
Correct Answer is. both as. for its ability to cut other
of the above. metals, even when it is
Option A. residual heated to a dull red
stress. colour.
30. Steel is Option B. working Option A.
tempered. stress. Tungsten.
Option A. after Option C. applied Option B. Nickel.
hardening. stress.
Option C. Vanadium.
Option B. before Correct Answer is.
hardening. residual stress. Correct Answer is.
Tungsten.
Option C. to increase
hardening.
34. Annealing
Correct Answer is. after steels. 37. When a low carbon
hardening. . steel bolt is stretched
Option A. toughens the beyond its elastic limit
metal. without breaking, it
will.
31. If a steel component Option B. makes the
is operated below the metal malleable. Option A. deform
fatigue limit. The fatigue life temporarily.
is. Option C. makes the
metal brittle. Option B. become more
Option A. finite. ductile.
Correct Answer is.
Option B. makes the metal Option C. deform
infinite. malleable. permanently.
Option C. depend on its Correct Answer is.
proof stress. deform permanently.
35. Tempering of
Correct Answer is. hardened steel is carried out
infinite. to.
38. 1% Nickel, 1%
Option A. retain surface Carbon, steel is widely used
hardness, but soften the for.
32. A low carbon steel core.
would normally be case Option A. exhaust
hardened using. Option B. retain core valves.
hardness, but soften the
Option A. the nitriding surface. Option B. ball and roller
process. bearings.
Option C. high tensile 42. Austenitic steel is Option A. The
steel bolts. produced when the material percentage of impurities in
is heated to. the alloy.
Correct Answer is. ball
and roller bearings. Option A. above the Option B. The alloy has
Upper Critical Point. not been modified.

Option B. above the Option C. The alloy has


39. Fatigue failure may Lower Critical Point. been modified.
be defined as.
Option C. below the Correct Answer is. The
Option A. failure caused Upper Critical Point. alloy has not been
by stress in excess of the modified.
material U.T.S. Correct Answer is. above
the Upper Critical
Option B. failure due to Point.
impact. 46. In most aircraft
hydraulic systems, two-
Option C. reduction in piece tube connectors
strength due to alternating 43. Steel is produced by consisting of a sleeve and a
loads. refining pig iron where nut are used when a tubing
air/oxygen is blown through flare is required. The use of
Correct Answer is. the molten material to this type of connector
reduction in strength due to remove. eliminates.
alternating loads.
Option A. Option A. the flaring
carbon. operation prior to
assembly.
. 40. Normalising Option B. oxides.
steels. Option B. the possibility
Option C. of reducing the flare
Option A. increases sulphur. thickness by wiping or
toughness. ironing during the tightening
Correct Answer is. process.
Option B. increases the carbon.
hardness. Option C. wrench
damage to the tubing during
Option C. relieves the
the tightening process.
stresses. 44. During a Rockwell
Hardness test, what Correct Answer is. the
Correct Answer is. dimension is possibility of reducing the
relieves the stresses. measured?. flare thickness by wiping or
ironing during the tightening
Option A. The diameter
process.
of the indent.
Question Number.
41. Cast iron 01b. Aircraft Materials -
Option B. The depth of
is. Ferrous.
the indent.

Option A. tough. Option C. The diameter


and depth of the 1. In the tensile
Option B. heavy and indent.
brittle. strength test.
Correct Answer is. The Option A. the material is
Option C. very depth of the indent.
malleable. pulled to limit of
elasticity.
Correct Answer is. heavy
and brittle. Option B. the material is
. 45. What does the
pulled to until it
0 in 2024-T3
breaks.
mean?.
Option C. the material Option B. Tensile
is pulled until it reaches its Testing.
UTS. 5. The Charpy test
measures. Option C. Fatigue
Correct Answer is. the Testing.
material is pulled to until it Option A. strain.
breaks. Correct Answer is.
Option B. impact Hardness Testing.
energy.

2. Impact resistance Option C. Young's


measures the. modulus. 9. What type of test
involves using a weighted
Option A. material Correct Answer is. pendulum to strike a
toughness. impact energy. material until
fracture?.
Option B. material
hardness. Option A. Hardness
6. The 'Fatigue limit' for Test.
Option C. material steel is generally in the
ductility. region of, compared to the Option B. Impact
static U.T.S. Resistance Test.
Correct Answer is.
material toughness. Option A. 40%-60%. Option C. Fatigue
Testing.
Option B. 60%-
80%. Correct Answer is.
3. Specified time of Impact Resistance
contact between the Option C. 20%- Test.
indentor and test piece in a 40%.
vickers or brinell hardness
test is. Correct Answer is. 20%-
40%. 10. Which of the
Option A. 20 folllowing are all hardness
seconds. testing machines?.

Option B. 10 7. The ability of mild Option A. Rockwell,


seconds. steel to accept more load Brinell and Izod.
after the yield point is
Option C. 15 reached is due Option B. Rockwell,
seconds. to. Vickers and Izod.

Correct Answer is. 15 Option A. Option C. Rockwell,


seconds. necking. Brinell and Vickers.

Option B. strain Correct Answer is.


hardening. Rockwell, Brinell and
. 4. In an Izod Vickers.
impact test the striking Option C.
energy of the striker is plasticisation.
approximately.
Correct Answer is. strain 02a. Aircraft Materials -
Option A. 150 J. hardening. Non-Ferrous.

Option B. 163 J.

Option C. 300 J. 8. What is a Rockwell 1. The most suitable


tester used for?. mixture for a salt bath
Correct Answer is. 163 operation is.
J. Option A. Hardness
Testing. Option A. 20% nitrate of
Explanation. CAIPs soda and 80% sodium
BL/10-3 6.2. nitrate.
Option B. 90% nitrate of Option A. Low stress, Option B. Do not bend
soda and 10% sodium low temperature. at sharp angles.
nitrate.
Option B. Low stress, Option C. Do not
Option C. 70% sodium high temperature. remove the surface of the
chlorate and 30% sodium sheet metal.
nitrate. Option C. High stress,
low temperature. Correct Answer is. Do
Correct Answer is. 90% not scratch or make nicks in
nitrate of soda and 10% Correct Answer is. Low it.
sodium nitrate. stress, low temperature.

8. Composition of
2. How many times can 5. What is the effect of silver solder is.
clad alloy be heat precipitation heat treatment
treated?. on aluminium?. Option A. tin and lead.

Option A. Once Option A. It speeds up Option B. tin, lead and


only. age hardening process. silver.

Option B. 3 Option B. It delays the Option C. tin, lead,


times. age hardening process. silver and antimony.

Option C. as many Option C. It softens the Correct Answer is. tin,


times as required. material to allow it to be lead, silver and antimony.
worked.
Correct Answer is. 3
times. Correct Answer is. It
speeds up age hardening 9. If aluminium alloy is
process. not quenched within the
minimum time allowed after
3. The symbol 'W' on a heat treatment is it will
material be.
indicates. 6. Aluminium
exposed to air Option A. subject to
Option A. it is for use on will. corrosion.
aircraft mainplanes
only. Option A. oxidise and Option B.
become weaker. malleable.
Option B. it has been
solution treated and will Option B. oxidise and Option C. brittle.
respond effectively to become electrically
precipitation treatment. insulated. Correct Answer is.
brittle.
Option C. it is for Option C. oxidise and
workshop use only. become stronger.

Correct Answer is. it has Correct Answer is. 10. Anodizing protects
been solution treated and oxidise and become alloy metal from corrosion
will respond effectively to electrically insulated. . and does what
precipitation treatment. else?.

Option A. Seals the


7. What care should surface from moisture.
4. For a particular you take with 2024-
metal material, what T3?. Option B. Makes a
conditions are best to good surface for paint to
minimise creep?. Option A. Do not adhere to.
scratch or make nicks in
it. Option C. Makes the
surface alkaline.
Correct Answer is. Option B. less strong Correct Answer is. letter
Makes a good surface for and hard. code
paint to adhere to.
Option C. harder,
stronger and less
ductile. 18. Non heat treatable
11. If caustic soda turns materials.
a material black what is Correct Answer is.
it?. harder, stronger and less Option A. cannot be
ductile. hardened.
Option A. Aluminium
alloy. Explanation. NIL. Option B. can be
hardened by strain
Option B. Alclad. hardening or cold
working.
Option C. Aluminium. . 15. A material has
the code 2024-TH6 on it. Option C. can be
Correct Answer is. Which part of the code hardened by
Aluminium alloy. indicates the percentage of annealing.
the alloying
element?. Correct Answer is. can
be hardened by strain
12. What chemical is Option A. H. hardening or cold
used to identify aluminium working.
alloys?. Option B. 20.

Option A. Caustic Option C. 6.


soda. . 19. Which of the
Correct Answer is. following metals is an
Option B. Copper 20. aluminium silicon alloy used
sulphate. mainly for
casting?.
Option C. Nitric acid.
16. Aluminium alloyed Option A. Alclad.
Correct Answer is. primarily with magnesium is
Caustic soda. numbered. Option B. Aldrey.

Option A. 2025. Option C. Alpax.


13. Pure aluminium Option B. 5025. Correct Answer is. Alpax.
is.
Option C. 1025.
Option A. highly
resistant to corrosion. Correct Answer is. 20. Aircraft skin is
5025. joggled to.
Option B. not resistant
to corrosion. Option A. provide
smooth airflow at faying
Option C. reasonably 17. Heat treatment is surfaces.
resistant to corrosion. shown on a British
aluminium alloy by a. Option B. make a frame
Correct Answer is. highly lighter but stronger.
resistant to corrosion.
Option A. letter and Option C. conform to
number code. the aircraft contour.
14. Precipitation treating Option B. number Correct Answer is.
makes the code. provide smooth airflow at
metal. faying surfaces.
Option C. letter
Option A. Precipitation code
treating makes the
metal.
21. The British system Option B. HTS
of heat treatment codes tube.
is. 24. Sheet metal should
be stored. Option C. high pressure
Option A. a series of seamless copper tube.
letters. Option A. above 25
degrees centigrade. Correct Answer is. high
Option B. numbers and pressure seamless copper
letters. Option B. on its edge in tube.
racks to prevent
Option C. a series of scratching.
numbers.
Option C. stacked flat to 28. Why is nickel
Correct Answer is. a prevent bending of chromium used in many
series of letters. sheets. exhaust
systems?.
Correct Answer is. on its
edge in racks to prevent Option A. Corrosion
22. In a sheet metal scratching. resistant and high heat
store the following is conductivity.
marked on a sheet of
aluminium alloy: L162 Option B. Lightweight
(sheet 1). , On a different and flexible.
sheet the following marking
is found: L172 (sheet 2). 25. Clad aluminium alloy Option C. Corrosion
The following is (alclad) has a pure resistant and low expansion
true: aluminium coating coefficient.
of.
Option A. Sheet one Correct Answer is.
has a shinier surface than Option A. 0.002. Corrosion resistant and low
sheet 2. expansion coefficient.
Option B. 1% of alloy
Option B. Sheet one is thickness.
more ductile than sheet
2. Option C. 5% of alloy 29. Titanium
thickness. alloys.
Option C. Sheet two is
of a thicker gauge than Correct Answer is. 5% of Option A. are cheap to
sheet 1. alloy thickness. manufacture.

Correct Answer is. Sheet Option B. have a high


one is more ductile than strength to weight ratio.
26. The main metal in
sheet 2.
monel is. Option C. are corrosion
resistant but heavy.
Option A. aluminium.
23. Cold working of a Correct Answer is. have
Option B. nickel. a high strength to weight
material is used to
reduce. ratio.
Option C. stainless
steel. .
Option A. material
hardness. Correct Answer is.
nickel. .
Option B.
fatigue. . 30. Which part of
the 2017-T36 aluminium
Option C. wear of alloy designation indicates
27. A tube complying to the primary alloying agent
manufacturing tools. BS T51 is. used in its
Correct Answer is. wear manufacture?.
Option A.
of manufacturing tools. tungum. Option A. 20.
Option B. 2. Option B. 2
times.
Option C. 17. . 37. Why is clad
Option C. 3 alloy preferred to pure
Correct Answer is. times. Aluminium?.
2.
Correct Answer is. 2 Option A. Less brittle.
times.
Option B. More
. 31. Clad aluminium ductile.
alloys are used in aircraft
because they. 34. Following solution Option C.
treatment aluminium alloy Tougher.
Option A. are harder can be placed into
wearing than unclad service. Correct Answer is.
aluminium alloys. Tougher.
Option A. after 5
Option B. are less days.
subject to corrosion than
uncoated aluminium Option B. straight 38. Why are aluminium
alloys. away. alloys used on aircraft,
instead of pure
Option C. are stronger Option C. after 24 aluminium?.
than unclad aluminium hours.
alloys. Option A. Stronger.
Correct Answer is. after 5
Correct Answer is. are days. . Option B. Corrosion
less subject to corrosion resistant.
than uncoated aluminium
alloys. Option C. Lighter.
35. The time between
removal from heat treatment Correct Answer is.
furnace and quenching must Stronger.
. 32. Non heat be not more
treatable aluminium than.
alloys.
Option A. 3 39. The magnesium
Option A. can be seconds. alloys used in aircraft can
hardened by strain be recognized
hardening. Option B. 10 by.
seconds.
Option B. cannot be Option A. shiny surface
softened. Option C. 7 due to chromium plated on
seconds. the surface.
Option C. cannot be
hardened. Correct Answer is. 10 Option B. yellowish
seconds. surface due to protective
Correct Answer is. can treatment.
be hardened by strain
hardening. Option C. silver surface
36. When buffing due to protective
. surface of Aluminium Alloy, coating.
what material are you
removing?. Correct Answer is.
yellowish surface due to
33. Solution treatment Option A. Oxide layer. protective treatment.
after manufacturers have
performed it once can be Option B. Aluminium.
carried out a
further. Option C. Alloy. . 40. Age hardening
of aluminium
Option A. 1 time. Correct Answer is. Oxide is.
layer.
Option A. never carried Option C. Correct Answer is.
out. electroplating. alocrom treatment.

Option B. a gradual Correct Answer is.


hardening over a period of cladding.
time. 47. What is generally
true for titanium
Option C. not alloy?.
necessary. . 44. Titanium can be
identified by placing it on a Option A. It is stronger
Correct Answer is. never grinding wheel and looking than the aluminium.
carried out. for.
Option B. It is stronger
Option A. Red than the steel.
Sparks.
41. Alclad Option C. It has lower
is. Option B. Yellow density than
Sparks. magnesium.
Option A. aluminium
with duralumin cladding. Option C. White Correct Answer is. It is
Sparks. stronger than the
Option B. duralumin aluminium.
with aluminium coating. Correct Answer is. White
Sparks. .
Option C. duralumin
with magnesium cladding. Question Number.
48. Malleable materials
Correct Answer is. 45. The critical process are.
duralumin with aluminium of heat treatment
coating. is. Option A. easy to
forge.
Option A. temperature,
method of heating and Option B. easy to
42. The oxide film on the cooling. cast.
surface of aluminium
is. Option B. temperature Option C. highly ductile.
and method of heating
Option A. hard and only. Correct Answer is. easy
porous. to forge.
Option C. method of
Option B. heating only.
porous.
Correct Answer is. 49. If a material has to
Option C. non temperature, method of undergo deep cold forming
porous. heating and cooling. operation. The essential
property would
Correct Answer is. non be.
porous.
. 46. Re-treatment of Option A. ductility.
aluminium alloys can be
performed by. Option B.
43. The process of malleability.
forming a pure layer of Option A. alocrom
aluminium over an treatment. Option C.
aluminium alloy is. elasticity.
Option B. brushing on
phosphate treatment Correct Answer is.
Option A. followed by paint. malleability.
metalizing.
Option C. selenious
Option B. acid treatment.
cladding.
. 50. The metal Option A. also highly the ultimate tensile load is
which must not be heated in ductile. known as.
a salt bath is.
Option B. easy to Option A. creep.
Option A. magnesium cast.
alloy. Option B. fatigue
Option C. easily failure.
Option B. forged.
duralumin. Option C. stress
Correct Answer is. easily reversal.
Option C. rivets made forged.
of alclad. Correct Answer is.
fatigue failure.
Correct Answer is.
magnesium alloy. . 54. The common
bonding material for
Tungsten Carbide 57. A piece of duralumin
is. has been annealed and
. 51. The colour bent into shape prior to
code on sheet metal Option A. Invar. fitting to an aircraft. Which
indicates. of the following is correct? It
Option B. must be.
Option A. only the Cobalt.
specification of the material. Option A. fitted to the
Option C. aircraft within 24 hours.
Option B. the spec and Silicon.
gauge of the material. Option B. solution
Correct Answer is. treated, precipitation treated
Option C. that the Cobalt. and fitted to the aircraft
material is from an within 2 hours.
approved source.
Option C. solution
Correct Answer is. that 55. Grain size will effect treated prior to fitting to an
the material is from an the mechanical properties of aircraft.
approved source. OR only metal. Which of the
the specification of the following is true?. Correct Answer is.
material. solution treated,
Option A. Large grain precipitation treated and
size is attributed to slow fitted to the aircraft within 2
cooling rates and will give hours. OR solution treated
52. When two or more less tensile strength. prior to fitting to an aircraft.
metallic materials are fused
together, the combination is Option B. Materials with
known as. large grain size are more
prone to creep. 58. A sheet of metal is
Option A. a composite designated 2024-T4. The
material. Option C. Small grain code tells us that the
size is normally attributed to material is a copper based
Option B. a rapid cooling rates and will aluminium
thermosetting compound. give less tensile strength. alloy.
Option C. an Correct Answer is. Large Option A. annealed and
alloy. grain size is attributed to Naturally aged.
slow cooling rates and will
Correct Answer is. an give less tensile Option B. solution
alloy. strength. treated and naturally aged.

. Option C. solution
treated and artificially aged.
. 53. Malleable 56. The cracking of
materials are structural members under
normally. repeated stress lower than
Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. To stop the
solution treated and 62. Silver solder is crack from propagating.
naturally aged. composed of the
materials. Option C. To increase
the stress concentration at
Option A. Copper, Tin the crack end.
59. A metal is coded and Silver.
1285 using the IADS coding Correct Answer is. To
method. This means the Option B. Zinc, Lead stop the crack from
metal is. and Silver. propagating.

Option A. 85% pure Option C. Copper, Zinc Explanation. NIL.


aluminium. and Silver.

Option B. 99.85% pure Correct Answer is.


aluminium. Copper, Zinc and . 66. Annealing of
Silver. aluminium.
Option C. a copper
based aluminium alloy i.e. Option A. increases the
duralumin. tensile strength.
63. The ease with which
Correct Answer is. a material can be forged, Option B. makes the
99.85% pure rolled and extruded without material brittle.
aluminium. fracture is an indication of a
material's. Option C. removes
stresses caused by
Option A. malleability. forming.
60. A material containing
approximately 66% nickel Option B. ductility. Correct Answer is.
and 33% copper is known removes stresses caused
as. Option C. by forming.
brittleness.
Option A. Nimonic.
Correct Answer is.
Option B. Monel malleability. 02b. Aircraft Materials -
metal. Non-Ferrous.

Option C. Invar Question Number.


Question Number is 1. In the Brinell
Correct Answer is. Monel fatigue?. hardness test, you would
metal. measure the
Option A. Cyclic indentation's.
stressing of a part.
Option A. depth.
. 61. Monel metal Option B. Failure of a
consists of component due to Option B. area.
approximately. corrosion.
Option C.
Option A. 66% Option C. Constant diameter.
Chromium and 33% stressing of a part.
Copper. Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. Cyclic diameter.
Option B. 66% Copper stressing of a part.
and 33% Nickel.

Option C. 66% Nickel 2. The impact testing


and 33% Copper. 65. Why is stop drilling technique is used on a
carried out at the end of a material to test
Correct Answer is. 66% crack?. for.
Chromium and 33%
Copper. Option A. To change the Option A.
direction of the crack. hardness.
Option B. Option B. P.S.I.
toughness.
6. The proof stress of a Option C. no
Option C. shear material is the stress at units.
strain. which.
Correct Answer is. no
Correct Answer is. Option A. the material units.
toughness. yields.

Option B. small amount


of permanent set takes 10. The value of stress
3. An S-N curve is place. for a given material can be
useful in the design derived by.
evaluation process for Option C. necking of
testing. the material begins. Option A. Cross
sectional area / Load.
Option A. fatigue life. Correct Answer is. small
amount of permanent set Option B. Load * Cross
Option B. shear takes place. sectional area.
force.
Option C. Load / Cross
Option C. sectional area.
tension. 7. Young's Modulus is
a measure of. Correct Answer is. Load /
Correct Answer is. Cross sectional area.
fatigue life. Option A. strain.

Option B. stress.
11. A material's yield
4. What is a fusible Option C. strength is the ability
material?. stiffness. to.

Option A. The ability of Correct Answer is. Option A. withstand a


two dissimilar metals to melt stiffness. crushing force.
together.
Option B. resist side
Option B. The ability of loads.
a metal to melt. . 8. Hooke's law
states that, within the elastic Option C. resist
Option C. The ability of region, elastic strain deformation.
a metal to be welded. is.
Correct Answer is. resist
Correct Answer is. The Option A. indirectly deformation.
ability of a metal to melt. proportional to stress.

Option B. directly
proportional to 12. What type of a test
5. Brittleness stress. involves stretching material
is. until it breaks?.
Option C. directly
Option A. the property opposite to stress. Option A. Fatigue
to resist wear. Testing.
Correct Answer is.
Option B. the property directly proportional to Option B. Hardness
to not deform before stress. Testing.
cracking.
Option C. Tensile
Option C. the property Testing.
to resist deformation. 9. The S.I. unit for
strain is. Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. the Tensile Testing.
property to not deform Option A. Nmm.
before cracking.
03.1a. Aircraft Materials - Correct Answer is. Option A. An alloy of
Composite and Non- mechanical and aluminium.
Metallic other than wood specific.
and fabric. Option B. Aluminium
ore.

. 4. What material Option C. A ceramic


1. Adhesives would be used where a high oxide of aluminium.
containing phenol- temperature application is
formaldehyde, to cure, required, e.g. a Correct Answer is. A
requires. firewall?. ceramic oxide of
aluminium. .
Option A. room Option A. Aramid
temperature. (Kevlar) fibres.

Option B. high Option B. 8. Which of these core


temperature. Carbon/graphite materials will be used in the
fibres. making of a composite
Option C. low material flat panel?.
temperature. Option C. Ceramic
fibres. Option A. Hexagonal
Correct Answer is. high core.
temperature. Correct Answer is.
Ceramic fibres. Option B. Rectangular
Explanation. NIL. core.
.
Option C. Flexible
5. Over extended core.
2. Two parts of the honeycomb can bend in
adhesive process which direction?. Correct Answer is.
are. Hexagonal core.
Option A. In all
Option A. wetting and directions.
gripping.
Option B. Across the . 9. Which of the
Option B. spreading ribbon. following could best be
and setting. manufactured from Perspex
Option C. Along the panel?.
Option C. wetting and ribbon.
setting. Option A. A passenger
Correct Answer is. Along window.
Correct Answer is. the ribbon.
wetting and setting. Option B. A radome.

Explanation. NIL. Option C. A cockpit


6. Fibre weave windscreen.
strength is greatest in the
direction of the. Correct Answer is. A
Question Number. passenger window.
3. Types of adhesive Option A. weft.
joints are.
Option B. warp.
Option A. mechanical 10. Kevlar and Nomex
and cemented. Option C. bias. are types of.

Option B. cemented Correct Answer is. Option A. glass fibre


and specific. warp. composite.

Option C. mechanical Option B. advanced


and specific. composite.
7. What is
Alumina?. Option C. aluminium
alloy.
Correct Answer is. Option A. fibres Correct Answer is.
advanced composite. uniformly distributed at 45 thermoplastic group.
degrees to each other.
.
Option B. unidirectional
11. Strength of fibres. . 18. Sandwich
fibreglass is. panels made of metal
Option C. chopped honeycomb construction are
Option A. either strand mat. used on modern aircraft
direction. because this type of
Correct Answer is. construction.
Option B. along the unidirectional fibres.
fibre. Option A. may be
repaired by gluing
Option C. across the replacement skin to the
fibre. 15. Polyester resin and inner core material with
glass fibre cloth, thermoplastic resin.
Correct Answer is. along becomes.
the fibre. Option B. is lighter than
Option A. PTFE. single sheet skin of the
same strength and is more
Option B. PVC. corrosion resistant.
. 12. A composite
flap panel has structural Option C. GRP. Option C. has a high
damage. What NDT method strength to weight ratio.
will you use to Correct Answer is.
detect?. GRP. Correct Answer is. is
lighter than single sheet skin
Option A. High voltage of the same strength and is
x-ray. more corrosion
16. A thermoplastic can
be. resistant.
Option B. Low voltage
x-ray.
Option A. heated and
Option C. Coin tap formed only once.
19. A category of plastic
test. material that is capable of
Option B. is not affected
by even low softening or flowing when
Correct Answer is. Coin
temperatures. reheated is described as
tap test.
a.
Option C. can be
reheated and reformed Option A.
13. Sound is best more than once. thermoset.
absorbed by a material
Correct Answer is. can Option B.
which is.
be reheated and reformed thermoplastic.
Option A. dense. more than once.
Option C.
Option B. soft and thermocure.
porous.
17. An impact adhesive Correct Answer is.
Option C. hard. is part of the. thermoplastic. .

Correct Answer is. soft Option A. thermoplastic 20. The classification of


and porous. group. high tensile strength
fibreglass used in aircraft
Option B. thermoset structures is.
group.
14. The maximum Option A. G-
tensile strength of fibre Option C. Anaerobic glass.
reinforced plastic is resin group.
achieved using. Option B. E-
glass.
Option C. S- .24. Which of the Option B. Once
glass. following are generally moulded into shape they
characteristic of aramid fibre become set and cannot
Correct Answer is. S- (Kevlar) subsequently be softened
glass. composites?. by reheating.

Option A. High tensile Option C. They become


strength and flexibility. plastic when heat is
21. Which is the applied.
identifying characteristic of Option B. Flexibility,
acrylic plastics?. stiffness and corrosive effect Correct Answer is. Once
in contact with moulded into shape they
Option A. Acetone will aluminium. become set and cannot
soften the plastic, but will subsequently be softened
not change its colour. Option C. High tensile by reheating.
strength, stiffness and ability
Option B. Has a to conduct electricity.
yellowish tint when viewed
from the edge. Correct Answer is. High 03.1b. Aircraft Materials -
tensile strength, stiffness Composite and Non-
Option C. Zinc chloride and ability to conduct Metallic other than wood
will have no effect. electricity. OR High tensile and fabric.
strength and flexibility.
Correct Answer is. Zinc
chloride will have no
effect. 1. Which of the
25. Which of the following is susceptible to
following are generally the ingress of
characteristic of moisture?.
. 22. The carbon/graphite fibre
classification for fibreglass composites?. Option A. Glass
reinforcement material that fibre.
is high resistivity and the Option A. Flexibility,
most common High compressive strength Option B. Carbon
is. and ability to conduct fibre.
electricity.
Option A. E- Option C. Kevlar.
glass. Option B. Flexibility and
high compressive Correct Answer is.
Option B. S- strength. Kevlar.
glass.
Option C. Stiffness,
Option C. G- high compressive strength
glass. and corrosive effect in 2. What tests are done
contact with on adhesive
Correct Answer is. E- joints?.
aluminium.
glass.
Correct Answer is. Option A. Shear and
Stiffness, high compressive peel.

. 23. Composite strength and corrosive effect


Option B. Impact and
fabric material is considered in contact with
peel.
to be the strongest in what aluminium.
direction?. Option C. Impact and
shear.
Option A. Warp.
. 26. Which of the
Correct Answer is. Shear
Option B. Bias. following statements is true
and peel.
about thermosetting
Option C. Weft. plastics?.

Correct Answer is. Option A. They are also . 3. When using a


Warp. known as Teflon. hot bonder to effect a
composite repair, you Option A. the material Option B. 2.54
use. will become stronger. mm.

Option A. inorganic Option B. the material Option C. 2.54


resin adhesives. will become weaker. cm.

Option B. organic resin Option C. the pot life Correct Answer is. 2.54
adhesives. will be decreased. cm.

Option C. synthetic Correct Answer is. the


resin adhesives. pot life will be decreased.
10. An air driven router
Correct Answer is. is used to remove
synthetic resin honeycomb material for
adhesives. Question Number. repairs.
7. What two
components of a three part Option A. when one
polyester resin are outer skin is damaged.
4. In a composite dangerous to mix together
repair lay-up, how much directly?. Option B. to stainless
should each layer extend steel honeycomb only.
beyond the layer below Option A. Accelerator
it?. and free catalyst. Option C. when both
outer skins are damaged.
Option A. 3-4 Option B. Catalyst and
inches. resin. Correct Answer is. when
one outer skin is
Option B. 1-2 Option C. Accelerator damaged.
inches. and resin.

Option C. 2-3 Correct Answer is.


inches. Accelerator and free . 11. Where would
catalyst. you use a
Correct Answer is. 1-2 Templestick?.
inches.
Option A. For the
8. What is the effect of boundary marking of a
adding too much hardener composite repair.
5. What is the effect of to a resin?.
heat on a cold cure Option B. To indicate
resin?. Option A. No effect. temperature when a
repaired composite item is
Option A. No effect on Option B. Makes the cured with heat lamps.
pot life. repair more brittle.
Option C. As a
Option B. Decrease pot Option C. The resin will temporary repair in a glass
life. not harden. fibre internal.

Option C. Increase pot Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. To


life. Makes the repair more indicate temperature when a
brittle. repaired composite item is
Correct Answer is. cured with heat lamps.
Decrease pot life.

9. What is the largest


hole in honeycomb . 12. The vacuum
repairable with connections on a fibreglass
microballoons?. repair must be placed onto
6. If you increase the the.
amount of catalyst in a resin Option A. 2.54
mixture,. inches. Option A. top layer of
glass fabric directly.
Option B. breather Option B.
mat. cellophane.
19. Stepped curing
Option C. peel Option C. breather has.
ply. cloth.
Option A. 2 or more
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. arrest points.
breather mat. cellophane.
Option B. no arrest
point.

. 13. What do you do 16. Heater mats should Option C. 1 arrest


if you forget to add hardener overlap the repair point.
to a composite by.
repair?. Correct Answer is. 2 or
Option A. 4 more arrest points.
Option A. Add hardener inches.
at the edges and it will
cure. Option B. 6
inches. 20. Maximum repair
Option B. It will cure dimensions for use of
eventually anyway. Option C. 2 microballoons is.
inches.
Option C. Remove all Option A. 10mm.
resin and start again. Correct Answer is. 2
inches. Option B. 20mm.
Correct Answer is.
Remove all resin and start Option C. 30mm.
again.
17. A thermoplastic fibre Correct Answer is.
Explanation. NIL. reinforced composite is 10mm.
prepared by.

Option A. a solvent
14. Why would you use wipe. . 21. In an autoclave
microballoons as a what pressure would the
filler?. Option B. corona vacuum alarm be set
method. at?.
Option A. It is the
lightest filler material. Option C. Option A. Operating
etching. pressure.
Option B. It is the
cheapest filler Correct Answer is. Option B. Higher than
material. corona method. operating pressure.

Option C. It cross-links Option C. Lower than


with the panel. operating pressure.
18. During vacuum bag
Correct Answer is. It is lay-up the vacuum gauge is Correct Answer is. Lower
the lightest filler placed where?. than operating
material. pressure.
Option A. Next to the
. vacuum port.

Option B. Opposite side 22. In an autoclave what


to the vacuum port. would you cover the repair
15. When using a in?.
backing former on a Option C. Over the
composite repair you need repair. Option A. High temp
to use. nylon.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. a vacuum Opposite side to the Option B.
bag. vacuum port. Polypropelene.
Option C. 26. Honeycomb for Option B.
Polythene. repair can be removed increase.
with.
Correct Answer is. High Option C. remain
temp nylon. Option A. a drill. unchanged.

Option B. locally Correct Answer is.


manufactured concave increase.
23. When mixing resin it knife.
is dangerous to
add. Option C. a
router. 30. What is used as the
Option A. accelerator base covering on a
and catalyst before resin. Correct Answer is. a honeycomb repair?.
router.
Option B. catalyst and Option A. Glass cloth or
resin before accelerator. thin aluminium sheet.

Option C. resin and 27. The pot life of a cold Option B. Thick
accelerator before catalyst. cured resin. aluminium sheet.

Correct Answer is. Option A. is not reliant Option C.


accelerator and catalyst upon temperature Plywood.
before resin. fluctuations.
Correct Answer is. Glass
. Option B. decreases cloth or thin aluminium
with an increase in sheet.
. 24. In an autoclave, temperature.
to apply
pressure. Option C. increases
with increase of 31. When drilling a
Option A. a vacuum bag temperature. carbon fibre reinforced
is used. plastic use.
Correct Answer is.
Option B. weights are decreases with an increase Option A. a steel drill
used. in temperature. and carbarundum
powder.
Option C. clamps are
used. Option B. a tungsten
28. Thermosetting drill with a pointed tip.
Correct Answer is. a adhesive, during their curing
vacuum bag is used. cycle give off. Option C. a tungsten
carbide drill.
Option A. static
radiation. Correct Answer is. a
25. What does MSDS tungsten carbide drill.
stand for?. Option B. heat.

Option A. Metal Surface Option C. carbon


Dimension Sector. monoxide. . 32. When laying up
a glass fibre repair, the extra
Option B. Material Correct Answer is. layer of fibre
Safety Data Sheet. heat. is.

Option C. Maximum 29. The effect of a lower Option A. a sacrificial


Structural Design System. temperature than ambient layer for sanding.
during the curing period of a
Correct Answer is. resin, will cause the curing Option B. for extra
Material Safety Data time to. strength.
Sheet.
Option A. Option C. for
. decrease. shrinkage.
Correct Answer is. for 36. Slight waviness on a 39. Hot bond composite
extra strength. fibre composite pane has a crack. When it
structure. reaches the ribbon it
will.
Option A. may cause
33. Bubbles are fatigue crack eventually. Option A. carry on
removed from a wet along the ribbon.
composite lay-up Option B. may be
by. tolerable if lightly loaded. Option B. have no
effect on its direction.
Option A. application of Option C. could be
pressure. reinforce with additional Option C. stop.
plies over the weakened
Option B. use of a area. Correct Answer is.
roller. stop.
Correct Answer is. may
Option C. application of be tolerable if lightly Explanation. NIL.
vacuum. loaded.
40. In an autoclave the
Correct Answer is. use of . air is removed
a roller. by.
. 37. The maximum
length of time a component Option A.
is held in stores is known as pressure.
. 34. Use of the.
excessive hardener in Option B. roller.
polyester resin leads Option A. package
to. life. Option C.
vacuum.
Option A. a less stiff Option B. storage
joint. life. Correct Answer is.
vacuum.
Option B. reduced pot Option C. shelf
life. life.

Option C. stiffer joint. Correct Answer is. shelf 41. What is the
life. separation of an aramid
Correct Answer is. panel layers described
reduced pot life. as?.

38. On a pre-preg Option A.


composite. Delamination.
35. When the
temperature increases on a Option A. life can be Option B. Debonding.
hot bond repair is paused it extended by 12 months if
is known as. stored below 10 C. Option C.
Detachment.
Option A. arrest Option B. life can be
point. extended by 12 months if Correct Answer is.
stored above 40 C. Delamination.
Option B. ramping
down. Option C. no life
extension is allowed, it must
Option C. ramping be used immediately. 42. Tap testing a
up. sandwich panel
Correct Answer is. life construction.
Correct Answer is. arrest can be extended by 12
point. months if stored above 40 Option A. is not an
C. approved method of
testing.

Option B. will not give


very reliable results.
Option C. is crude, but transformation and creates Option B. the grain is
works remarkably well. an insoluble substance. parallel to the skin.

Correct Answer is. is Option C. the grain is


crude, but works remarkably perpendicular to the skin.
well. . 46. Metal fasteners
used with carbon/graphite Correct Answer is. the
composite grain is perpendicular to the
structures. skin.
43. Which product is a
serious health hazard when Option A. must be
handling?. made of materials such as
titanium or corrosion 49. When repairing
Option A. resistant steel. puncture-type damage of a
Ceramic. metal faced laminated
Option B. must be honeycomb panel, the
Option B. made of high strength edges of the doubler should
Asbestos. aluminium alloy. be tapered to.

Option C. Glass Option C. may be made Option A. whatever is


fibre. of any of the metals desired for a neat clean
commonly used in aircraft appearance.
Correct Answer is. fasteners.
Asbestos. Option B. two times the
Correct Answer is. must thickness of the metal.
be made of materials such
as titanium or corrosion Option C. 100 times the
44. Aircraft transparent resistant steel. thickness of the metal.
plastics are cleaned
using. Correct Answer is. 100
times the thickness of the
Option A. warm soapy . 47. Which methods metal.
water, rinsed and dried. can be used to inspect
fibreglass/honeycomb
Option B. paraffin and structures for entrapped
soft cotton pad. water?. 50. One of the best
ways to assure that a
Option C. clean dry soft Option A. Acoustic properly prepared batch of
leather. emission and X-ray. matrix resin has been
achieved is to.
Correct Answer is. warm Option B. X-ray and
soapy water, rinsed and back-lighting. Option A. test the
dried. viscosity of the resin
Option C. Acoustic immediately after
emission and back-lighting. mixing.
45. A thermosetting Correct Answer is. X-ray Option B. have mixed
adhesive. and back-lighting. enough for a test sample.
Option A. will be Option C. perform a
resistant to heat. chemical composition
. 48. When balsa analysis.
Option B. can be re- wood is used to replace a
formed when hot. damaged honeycomb core, Correct Answer is. have
the plug should be cut so mixed enough for a test
Option C. undergoes a
that. sample.
chemical transformation and
creates an insoluble Option A. it is about 1/8
substance. inch undersize to allow
sufficient bonding material . 51. Composite
Correct Answer is. inspections by means of
to be applied.
undergoes a chemical
acoustic emissions Option B. service 56. Superficial scars,
monitoring. life. scratches, surface abrasion,
or rain erosion on fibreglass
Option A. analyse Option C. pot laminates can generally be
ultrasonic signals life. repaired by
transmitted into the parts applying.
being inspected. Correct Answer is. pot
life. Option A. one or more
Option B. create coats of suitable resin
sonogram pictures of the (room-temperature
areas being inspected. catalyzed) to the surface.
54. One method of
Option C. pick up the inspecting a laminated Option B. a sheet of
'noise' of corrosion or other fibreglass structure that has polyethylene over the
deterioration taking place. been subjected to damage abraded surface and one or
is. more coats of resin cured
Correct Answer is. create with infrared heat lamps.
sonogram pictures of the Option A. strip the
areas being inspected. OR damaged area of all paint Option C. a piece of
pick up the 'noise' of and shine a strong light resin-impregnated glass
corrosion or other through the structure. fabric facing.
deterioration taking
place. Option B. use an eddy Correct Answer is. a
current probe on both sides sheet of polyethylene over
. of the damaged area. the abraded surface and
one or more coats of resin
Option C. use dye- cured with infrared heat
penetrant inspection lamps. OR one or more
52. Which of the procedures, exposing the coats of suitable resin
following are advantages of entire damaged area to the (room-temperature
using microballoons in penetrant solution. catalyzed) to the surface.
repairs to laminate
honeycomb sandwich Correct Answer is. strip
panels?. the damaged area of all
paint and shine a strong 57. A potted compound
Option A. Greater light through the structure. repair on honeycomb can
concentrations of resin in usually be made on
edges and corners, damages less
improved strength to weight than.
ratio, less density, lower . 55. When
stress concentrations. inspecting a composite Option A. 4 inches in
panel using the ring diameter.
Option B. Less density, test/tapping method, a dull
lower stress thud may indicate. Option B. 2 inches in
concentrations. diameter.
Option A. an area of too
Option C. Improved much matrix between the Option C. 1 inch in
strength to weight ratio, less fibres. diameter.
density, lower stress.
Option B. less than full Correct Answer is. 1 inch
Correct Answer is. Less strength curing of the in diameter.
density, lower stress matrix.
concentrations. 58. What reference tool
Option C. separation of is used to determine how
the laminates. the fibre is to be oriented for
a particular ply or
53. The length and time Correct Answer is. fabric?.
that a catalyzed resin will separation of the
remain in a workable state laminates. Option A. Bias
is called the. clock.

Option A. shelf life. Option B. Weft clock.


Option C. Warp Option C. Option A. may be filled
clock. Release. with resin to eliminate
dangerous stress
Correct Answer is. Warp Correct Answer is. concentrations.
clock. Bleeder.
Option B. must be
. repaired.

59. The strength and 62. When necessary, Option C. may be filled
stiffness of a properly what type of cutting fluid is with putty which is
constructed composite lay- usually acceptable for compatible with the resin.
up depends primarily machining composite
on. laminates?. Correct Answer is. must
be repaired.
Option A. the ability of Option A. Water soluble
the fibres to transfer stress oil.
to the matrix.
Option B. Water only. 65. Fibreglass laminate
Option B. a 60% matrix damage that extends
to 40% fibre ratio. Option C. Water completely through one
displacing oil. facing and into the
Option C. the core.
orientation of the plies to the Correct Answer is. Water
load direction. only. Option A. can be
repaired by using a typical
Correct Answer is. the . facing patch.
orientation of the plies to the
load direction. 63. Fibreglass laminate Option B. requires
damage not exceeding the replacement of the
first layer or ply can be damaged core and
repaired by. facing.
60. Which fibre to resin
(%) ratio for advanced Option A. filling with Option C. cannot be
composite wet lay-ups is putty consisting of repaired.
generally considered the compatible resin and clean,
best?. short glass fibres. Correct Answer is.
requires replacement of the
Option A. 60:40. Option B. sanding the damaged core and
damaged are until facing.
Option B. 50:50. aerodynamically
smooth. .
Option C. 40:60.
Option C. trimming the
Correct Answer is. rough adges and sealing
40:60. with paint. 66. Which of the
following, when added to
Explanation. Correct Answer is. wet resins, provide strength
NIL. sanding the damaged are for the repair of damaged
until aerodynamically fastener holes in composite
smooth. OR filling with putty panels?.
consisting of compatible
61. What is the material resin and clean, short glass Option A.
layer used within the fibres. microballoons, cotton flock
vacuum bag pressure and chopped fibres.
system to absorb excess
resin during curing Option B. Cotton flock
called?. 64. Fibreglass damage and chopped fibres.
that extends completely
Option A. through a laminated Option C. Microballoons
Breather. sandwich and chopped fibres.
structure.
Option B.
Bleeder.
Correct Answer is. Option B. remember to elapsing between the
Cotton flock and chopped close the autoclave door application of the adhesive
fibres. during curing. and the assembly of the
joint components.
67. The part of a Option C. use
replacement honeycomb disposable gloves or barrier
core that must line up with cream.
the adjacent original is 3. The defects not
the. Correct Answer is. allowed at all on wooden
remember to close the structures are.
Option A. cell autoclave door during
edge. curing. OR use disposable Option A. mineral
gloves or barrier cream. streaks.
Option B. cell
side. 03.2. Aircraft Materials Option B. pitch
-Wooden Structures. pockets.
Option C. ribbon
direction. Option C. checks,
shakes and splits.
Correct Answer is. ribbon 1. With what would you
direction. check the bonded joints of a Correct Answer is.
wooden aircraft checks, shakes and
structure?. splits.

68. Which of the Option A. A feeler


following is the definition of gauge.
cure time?. 4. The basic structure
Option B. A plastic strip. of an aircraft made of wood
Option A. The period can be.
after which the surface of Option C. A
the compound no longer screwdriver. Option A.
exhibits adhesive monocoque.
properties. Correct Answer is. A
feeler gauge. Option B. non-
Option B. The time monocoque.
required for the mixed
compound to reach an initial Option C. non-
rubbery state. 2. What is an open monocoque, monocoque,
assembly time?. semi-monocoque.
Option C. The time
taken for the mixed Option A. The time Correct Answer is. non-
compound to reach a final elapsing between the monocoque, monocoque,
rubbery state. application of the adhesive semi-monocoque.
and the assembly of the
Correct Answer is. The joint components.
time required for the mixed
compound to reach an initial Option B. The time 5. When a full
rubbery state. OR The between the adhesive being inspection for corosion is to
period after which the applied to the joint surfaces be carried out on a wooden
surface of the compound no and their assembly. aircraft you would.
longer exhibits adhesive
Option C. The time Option A. Bring the
properties. .
elapsed from the adhesive aircraft into the hangar for 2
being applied to the joint to 3 days prior to the
surfaces to them being inspection.
69. In order to prevent clamped.
dermatitis caused due to Option B. Jack and
contact with polymer resin, Correct Answer is. The trestle the aircraft to the
one should. time between the adhesive rigging position.
being applied to the joint
Option A. avoid inhaling surfaces and their
fumes. assembly. OR The time
Option C. Remove all Option A. helping to
the fabric/cloth prior to prevent wood cracking.
inspection. 9. Except where
specified by the Option B. improving
Correct Answer is. manufacturer, a wooden aerodynamic efficiency.
Remove all the fabric/cloth spar may be spliced.
prior to inspection. Option C. reducing the
requirement for
Option A. at no sanding.
point.
6. For fungus to cause Correct Answer is.
wood decay in a wood Option B. at any point helping to prevent wood
structure, the moisture except under the wing cracking.
content in the wood must be attachment fittings.
at least.
Option C. at any
Option A. 20%. point. 13. To determine
whether an aircraft wooden
Option B. 85%. Correct Answer is. at any structure surface is
point except under the wing compound curvature, you
Option C. 5%. attachment fittings. would use.

Correct Answer is. Option A. a curvature


20%. gauge.
10. Replacement of a
7. The normal moisture wooden spar is. Option B. a sheet of
content in the wood of a paper.
wooden aircraft structure Option A. only permitted
is. by the manufacturer. Option C. a
trammel.
Option A. 10- Option B. a minor
12%. repair. Correct Answer is. a
sheet of paper.
Option B. 20- Option C. a major
30%. repair. 14. To assist the
bending of plywood, a
Option C. 0-2%. Correct Answer is. a heated bending former must
major repair. be heated to a temperature
Correct Answer is. 10- of.
12%.
Option A. 300
11. A crack is found in a C.
wooden spar,
8. How is the moisture you. Option B. 150
content within the wood of a C.
wood aircraft structure Option A. must replace
determined?. the spar section. Option C. 100
C.
Option A. By inserting Option B. might be able
the probe of a moisture to repair the spar. Correct Answer is. 150
meter. C.
Option C. must replace
Option B. By measuring the entire spar.
the size of the water stains
at joints. Correct Answer is. might 15. A splayed patch
be able to repair the repair may be used on
Option C. By weighing spar. plywood damage which
the wood structure before does not exceed.
and after drying it.
Option A. 20 times the
Correct Answer is. By 12. Wood sealants used skin thickness.
inserting the probe of a on wooden aircraft
moisture meter. structures are for.
Option B. 15 times the Option B. douglas fir.
skin thickness.
19. The doubler used to Option C. pine.
Option C. 10 times the support a scarfed patch
skin thickness. plywood repair should be Correct Answer is.
made from plywood of a spruce.
Correct Answer is. 15 minimum.
times the skin thickness.
Option A. 1/4 inch thick.
23. Hard knots in wood
Option B. 1/8 inch thick. are acceptable.
16. A surface patch to a
plywood structure may be a Option C. 3/8 inch thick. Option A. in certain
large as. locations.
Correct Answer is. 1/4
Option A. 50 sq.inch inch thick. Option B. never.
area.
Option C. up to 3/8 inch
Option B. 50 inch diameter in any
perimeter. 20. An aircraft wooden location.
structure must be surface
Option C. 50 inch finished and Correct Answer is. in
diameter. sealed. certain locations.

Correct Answer is. 50 Option A. on both the


inch perimeter. outer and inner surfaces.
24. A 'shake' in a piece
Option B. on the inner of wood is a
surfaces only. crack.
17. The steepest slope
permitted on the scarf of a Option C. on the outer Option A. across annual
scarfed plywood repair surfaces only. rings.
is.
Correct Answer is. on Option B. induced by
Option A. 1 in both the outer and inner artificial stress.
20. surfaces.
Option C. between two
Option B. 1 in 4. annual rings.

Option C. 1 in 21. Pine wood has a Correct Answer is.


12. strength, compared to that between two annual
of spruce. rings.
Correct Answer is. 1 in
12. Option A. less
than.
25. Wood with checks,
Option B. shakes or splits.
18. The maximum size exceeding.
damage to plywood skin Option A. can be used
that may be repaired with a Option C. the same providing the damage is
fabric patch is. as. repaired by gluing and
clamping.
Option A. 3.0 inch Correct Answer is. less
diameter. than. Option B. can be used
for certain secondary
Option B. 0.5 inch structure.
diameter.
22. The standard wood Option C. must be
Option C. 1.0 inch type for aircraft wood rejected.
diameter. structures is.
Correct Answer is. must
Correct Answer is. 1.0 Option A. spruce. be rejected.
inch diameter.
. Option C. least across 33. Small (up-to 3/8 inch
the fibres. diameter) hard-knots are
26. Compression allowed in a wooden
wood. Correct Answer is. least spar.
along the fibres.
Option A. is a hard- Option A. in the middle
wood. Explanation. AC43 Para 1- 1/3 portion.
2.
Option B. should be Option B.
rejected. nowhere.

Option C. is preferred 30. Shrinkage of wood Option C. in the outer


because of its superior is. 1/3 portions.
strength qualities.
Option A. greatest in Correct Answer is. in the
Correct Answer is. the longitudinal direction. middle 1/3 portion.
should be rejected.
Option B. negligible in .
. the longitudinal
direction. 34. If metal fasteners
27. Red heart and are removed from an
purple heart. Option C. negligible in aircraft's wood structure,
the radial direction. and are found to have
Option A. are types of corrosion on them, this can
hard-wood. Correct Answer is. indicate.
negligible in the longitudinal
Option B. are forms of direction. Option A. acidity of the
decay in wood. adjoining wood
structure.
Option C. are harmless
natural defects in wood. 31. The maximum Option B. deterioration
permissible grain deviation of the fastener.
Correct Answer is. are in wood is.
forms of decay in wood. Option C. decay of the
Option A. 1:8. adjoining wood
- structure.
Option B. 1:20.
28. The greatest amount Correct Answer is. decay
of shrinkage in wood is in Option C. 1:15. of the adjoining wood
which direction?. structure.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. Tangential. 1:15. .
Option B. Radial. 35. Bolt holes through
wooden structures should
Option C. The 32. Nails used on wood
be.
shrinkage is equal in structures should
tangential and radial be. Option A. sealed, and
directions. the sealant allowed to dry
Option A. 50 mm
before fitting the bolt.
Correct Answer is. apart.
Tangential. Option B. left unsealed
Option B. 12 mm
and unvarnished inside the
apart.
hole.
29. Shrinkage of wood Option C. 25 mm
Option C. sealed with
is. apart.
varnish and wet-assembled
Option A. equal along Correct Answer is. 25 with the bolt before the
and across the fibres. mm apart. varnish has dried.

Option B. least along Correct Answer is.


the fibres. sealed, and the sealant
allowed to dry before fitting Option A. shear Option B. at right-
the bolt. failure. angles to the growth
rings.
. 36. Wood end- Option B. decay.
grain. Option C. at right
Option C. compression angles to the grain.
Option A. has the same failure.
susceptibility to moisture Correct Answer is. at
ingress as the side of the Correct Answer is. right angles to the grain.
grain. compression failure.
03.3. Aircraft Materials -
Option B. is less 39. The I-beam wooden Fabric Covering.
susceptible to moisture spar is routed
ingress as the side of the to. 1. Fabrics may be fitted
grain. to airframe structures
Option A. obtain by.
Option C. is more uniform strength.
susceptible to moisture Option A. always
ingress as the side of the Option B. decrease riveting.
grain. weight.
Option B. wood
Correct Answer is. is Option C. increase nails.
more susceptible to strength.
moisture ingress as the side Option C. tying on with
of the grain. Correct Answer is. string.
decrease weight.
. Correct Answer is. tying
on with string.
37. In cases of
elongated boltholes in a . 40. Pin knot
wood spar or cracks in the clusters are permitted in
vicinity of the wood aircraft structure 2. Aircraft fabric
boltholes. provided. covering is made
from.
Option A. it is Option A. they have no
permissible to ream the mineral streaks. Option A. silk.
hole, plug with hardwood
Option B. no pitch Option B.
and re-drill.
pockets are within 12 polyester.
Option B. a new section inches.
Option C. nylon.
of spar should be spliced in
Option C. they produce
or the spar entirely Correct Answer is.
a small effect of grain
replaced. polyester.
direction.
Option C. the spar may
Correct Answer is. they
be reinforced by using
produce a small effect of
hardwood reinforcing 3. At manufacture,
grain direction.
plates. aircraft fabric is.
Correct Answer is. a new Option A.
section of spar should be 41. Compression shrunk.
spliced in or the spar failures in wood aircraft
entirely replaced. structures are characterised Option B. doped.
by buckling of the fibres that
appear as streaks on the Option C.
surface. stretched.
38. A faint line running
across the grain of a wood Correct Answer is.
Option A. parallel to the
spar generally stretched.
grain.
indicates.
4. Recovering or Option B. spanwise to Correct Answer is. 10
repairing of an aircraft with a the line of flight. stitch intervals.
fabric other than the original
fabric type is. Option C. oblique to the
line of flight.
Option A. a major 11. Fabric to be hand
modification and requires Correct Answer is. sewn must be doubled
approval. parallel to the line of flight. under at the edge to a
minimum distance
Option B. . of.
prohibited.
8. Single stitched Option A. 1/2 inch.
Option C. a minor machine sewn seams are
modification, providing the permissible. Option B. 3/8
fabric is the same strength inch.
as the original. Option A. at all
locations on the aircraft. Option C. 1/4
Correct Answer is. a inch.
major modification and Option B. never.
requires approval. Correct Answer is. 3/8
Option C. only when inch.
positioned over a
structure. .
. 5. Reinforcing
tape used on aircraft fabric Correct Answer is. only 12. Holes are cut in
covering must have a when positioned over a fabric for inspection panels,
minimum strength structure. spar fittings, drain grommets
of. etc.

Option A. 80 lb. Option A. after doping.


9. The minimum pitch
Option B. 40 lb. of hand-sewn stitch Option B. before
is. doping.
Option C. 120 lb.
Option A. 1/4 Option C. before
Correct Answer is. 40 inch. attaching the fabric to the
lb. structure.
Option B. equal to 10
times the thread Correct Answer is. after
thickness. doping.
. 6. Lacing cord
used on aircraft fabric Option C. 4 13. Aircraft fabric lacing
covering must have a inches. cord is reinforced
minimum breaking strength with.
of. Correct Answer is. 1/4
inch. Option A. epoxy.
Option A. 120 lb.
Option B. wax.
Option B. 80 lb.
10. Hand sewn stitch Option C.
Option C. 40 lb. must be locked at a lanolin.
minimum of.
Correct Answer is. 40 Correct Answer is.
lb. Option A. the end of the wax.
stitch only.

Option B. 20 stitch
7. Fabric seams are intervals. 14. The dope applied to
preferable. an aircraft's fabric covering
Option C. 10 stitch causes shrinkage.
Option A. parallel to the intervals.
line of flight. Option A. on the last
coat only.
Option B. on the first Correct Answer is. Option B. Relative
coat only. Nitrate. humidity 50 - 75%,
temperature range 65 to
Option C. on all 75 F.
coats.
18. Which of the Option C. Relative
Correct Answer is. on all following is true regarding humidity 20 - 60%,
coats. aircraft dope temperature range 65 to
type?. 75 F.

Option A. Nitrate dope Correct Answer is.


15. The two preferred may be applied over the top Relative humidity 20 - 60%,
types of dope used on of butyrate dope. temperature range 65 to
aircraft fabric covering 75 F.
is. Option B. Butyrate dope
may be applied over the top
Option A. cellulose and of nitrate dope.
polyester. 21. Applying dope to
Option C. Either type of a fabric covered aircraft
Option B. cellulose and dope may be applied over should be done
butyrate. the top of any type of by.
dope.
Option C. nitrate and Option A. spraying all
butyrate. Correct Answer is. coats to avoid brush
Butyrate dope may be marks.
Correct Answer is. nitrate applied over the top of
and butyrate. nitrate dope. Option B. spray all
coats except the first three.

Option C. brushing all


16. Aircraft dope, 19. What type of shoes coats to ensure it is
during storage in adverse should be worn by the absorbed into the fabric.
conditions in a store-room, technician applying a dope
will become. finish to a fabric covered Correct Answer is. spray
aircraft?. all coats except the first
Option A. acidic. three.
Option A. Rubber
Option B. discoloured. soled.
Option C. Option B. Leather
alkaline. soled.
Question Number.
Correct Answer is. Option C. Plastic 22. Regarding the
acidic. uppers. thinning of aircraft
dope.
Explanation. AC43 Para 2- Correct Answer is.
20 b. Leather soled. Option A. underthinning
is preferred to
. 17. What type of
overthinning.
dope is preferred for use on
natural fiber aircraft 20. What are the limits Option B. dope should
covering?. of the environmental be thinned with automotive
conditions for applying dope thinners.
Option A. to a fabric covered
Nitrate. aircraft?. Option C. overthinning
is preferred to
Option B. Any type of Option A. Relative underthinning.
dope is suitable. humidity 50 - 70%,
temperature range 40 to Correct Answer is.
Option C.
60 F. overthinning is preferred to
Butyrate.
underthinning.
Option B. applying 29. Aircraft sheet
finishing tapes, reinforcing plywood skins
23. A retarder is added patches, inspection ports are.
to aircraft dope etc.
to. Option A. sealed and
Option C. laying the varnished or painted.
Option A. to extend the fabric out on the floor and
shelf life. cutting it to size prior to Option B. sealed and
fitting to the aircraft. doped.
Option B. produce a
smoother finish. Correct Answer is. Option C. covered in
applying finishing tapes, fabric.
Option C. to retard the reinforcing patches,
application time. inspection ports etc. Correct Answer is.
covered in fabric.
Correct Answer is.
produce a smoother
finish. 27. Coats of clear dope
are applied to an aircraft's 30. Blushing' of a doped
fabric. fabric surface is an
indication of.
24. Doped Option A. before coats
fabric. of aluminium pigmented Option A. moisture
dope are applied. enterring into the
Option A. is not to be wood/fabric structure during
treated after application. Option B. before or service.
after coats of aluminium
Option B. is treated with pigmented dope are Option B. moisture
varnish. applied, it does not matter. condensing on the surface
during drying of the
Option C. is treated with Option C. after coats of dope.
wax compound. aluminium pigmented dope
are applied. Option C. oil
Correct Answer is. is contamination of the doped
treated with wax Correct Answer is. before fabric.
compound. or after coats of aluminium
pigmented dope are Correct Answer is.
applied, it does not matter. moisture condensing on the
surface during drying of the
25. Dope should be dope.
applied to an aircraft's fabric
coating in a relative humidity 28. What is the reason
not exceeding. for using aluminium-
pigmented dope on a fabric 31. Orange peeling of a
Option A. 50%. doped surface may be
covered
aircraft?. caused by.
Option B. 85%.
Option A. To provide an Option A. dope viscosity
Option C. 65%. too low.
aluminium colour to the
Correct Answer is. aircraft.
Option B. dope
65%. viscosity too high.
Option B. To block UV
radiation.
Option C. air
Option C. To provide temperature too low.
. 26. Dressing out' of
a fabric covering refers strength.
Correct Answer is. dope
to. viscosity too high.
Correct Answer is. To
Option A. the trimming block UV radiation.
of excess fabric after
fitting.
32. Orange peeling of a Option A. the fabric can Option A. When the
doped surface may be be treated with a repair extends over a wing
caused by. rejuvenator. rib.

Option A. Orange Option B. the fabric can Option B. When the


peeling of a doped surface be treated with additional repair extends over three
may be caused by. coats of the approved type adjacent wing ribs.
of dope.
Option B. air Option C. When the
temperature too low. Option C. the fabric repair extends over two
must be replaced. adjacent wing ribs.
Option C. spray gun
pressure too low. Correct Answer is. the Correct Answer is. When
fabric can be treated with the repair extends over
Correct Answer is. spray additional coats of the three adjacent wing ribs. OR
gun pressure too low. approved type of dope. OR When the repair extends
the fabric must be over two adjacent wing
replaced. ribs
33. Butyrate dope
burns.
. 36. When repairing 38. Where the edge of a
Option A. slower than a section of aircraft fabric new fabric section will be
nitrate dope. with a new fabric located within 1 inch of a
patch. structural member to which
Option B. faster than the fabric is attached by rib
nitrate dope. Option A. all the dope lacing or other methods, the
must be removed from the new fabric section
Option C. the same rate parent fabric faying surface should.
as nitrate dope. before the patch is
applied. Option A. be extended
Correct Answer is.
3 inches past the structural
slower than nitrate Option B. the patch can member.
dope. be applied to the parent
fabric without preparation. Option B. be extended
to meet the structural
Option C. all the member.
34. Fabric coated with
aluminium-pigmented dope
nitrate dope can be
layers must be removed Option C. be
differentiated from fabric
from the parent fabric faying designated a major repair.
coated in butyrate dope
surface before the patch is
by. Correct Answer is. be
applied.
extended 3 inches past the
Option A. carrying out a
Correct Answer is. the structural member.
burn test.
patch can be applied to the
Option B. smelling the parent fabric without
fabric. preparation. OR all the
aluminium-pigmented dope . 39. What width of
layers must be removed finishing tape should be
Option C. observing the
from the parent fabric faying used on a tear in a fabric
colour.
surface before the patch is cover which is 10 inches
Correct Answer is. applied. long?.
carrying out a burn
Option A. 2
test.
inches.
37. When does an
aircraft fabric covering Option B. 6
35. If the fabric on a repair become a major inches.
wood/fabric aircraft has lost repair?.
Option C. 4
its strength.
inches.
Correct Answer is. 4 43. The threads per inch 46. How many fabric
inches. of Grade 'A' aircraft fabric thicknesses will be found in
is. a French-fell
seam?.
Option A. 60-64.
40. What width of Option A. Five.
finishing tape should be Option B. 80-84.
used on a tear in a fabric Option B. Three.
cover which is 20 inches Option C. 110-
long?. 115. Option C. Four.

Option A. 6 Correct Answer is. 80- Correct Answer is.


inches. 84. Four.

Option B. 2
inches.
44. When and how is 47. Finishing tape
Option C. 4 finishing tape applied on (surface tape) is used for
inches. fabric covered what purpose?.
aircraft?.
Correct Answer is. 6 Option A. To prevent
inches. Option A. Doped on 'ripple formation' in covering
immediately prior to the fabric.
c finish coat.
Option B. To provide
41. Lines of stitching of Option B. Sewed or additional wear resistance
a fabric repair is locked at laced on before dope is over the edges of fabric
the end with. applied. forming structures.

Option A. a hitch knot. Option C. Doped on Option C. To provide


after the first or second coat additional anti-tear
Option B. a half hitch of dope. resistance under
knot. reinforcement tape.
Correct Answer is.
Option C. a double half Doped on after the first or Correct Answer is. To
hitch knot. second coat of dope. provide additional wear
resistance over the edges of
Correct Answer is. a fabric forming structures.
double half hitch knot.
45. The determining
factor in the selection of the
correct weight of textile . 48. Moisture,
42. Wrinkles in a fabric fabric to be used in covering mildew, chemicals and acids
covering of a wood/fabric any type of aircraft is have no effect on.
aircraft are. the.
Option A. glass
Option A. not permitted. Option A. maximum fabric.
wing loading.
Option B. a minor Option B. linen fabric.
aerodynamic Option B. speed of the
detriment. aircraft. Option C. Dacron
fabric.
Option C. permitted Option C. speed of the
only if they are temporary aircraft and the maximum Correct Answer is.
due to damp/wet weather wing loading. Dacron fabric.
conditions.
Correct Answer is. speed
Correct Answer is. of the aircraft and the
permitted only if they are maximum wing 49. The strength
temporary due to damp/wet loading. classification of fabric used
weather conditions. in aircraft covering is based
upon.
Option A. bearing . . 2. Intergrannular
strength. corrosion is caused
52. What is used to slow by.
Option B. shear the drying time of some
strength. dope finishes to prevent Option A. improperly
blush?. assembled components.
Option C. tensile
strength. Option A. Option B. improper heat
Rejuvenator. treatment.
Correct Answer is.
tensile strength. Option B. Option C. dissimilar
Reducer. metal contact.

Option C. Correct Answer is.


. 50. Fabric Retarder. improper heat
rejuvenator. treatment.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. penetrates Retarder.
the fabric and restores
fungicidal resistance. 3. Corrosion caused by
electrolytic action is the
Option B. restores 53. Aluminium-pigment result of.
fabric strength and tautness in dope is used primarily
to at least the minimum to. Option A. contact
acceptable level. between two unlike
Option A. exclude metals.
Option C. restores the sunlight from the fabric.
condition of the dope Option B. excessive
coatings. Option B. provide a anodization.
silver colour.
Correct Answer is. Option C. the wrong
restores fabric strength and Option C. aid in sealing quenching agent.
tautness to at least the out moisture from the
minimum acceptable level. fabric. Correct Answer is.
OR restores the condition of contact between two unlike
the dope coatings. Correct Answer is. metals.
exclude sunlight from the
. fabric.

51. When testing the . 4. Corrosion may be


strength of Grade A cotton regarded as the destruction
fabric covering an aircraft 04a. Corrosion. of metal by.
that requires only
intermediate grade, the Option A.
minimum acceptable electrochemical
1. From the following action.
strength the fabric must
list of metals, which is most
have is.
cathodic?. Option B. hydroelectric
Option A. 56 pounds action.
Option A. Nickel.
per inch warp and weft.
Option C.
Option B. electromechanical
Option B. 70% of its
Magnesium. action.
original strength.
Option C. Stainless Correct Answer is.
Option C. 70% of the
steel. electrochemical
original strength for
intermediate fabric. action.
Correct Answer is.
Stainless steel.
Correct Answer is. 70%
of the original strength for
intermediate fabric. 5. Exfoliation corrosion
is sometimes referred to
as.
Option A. layer Option A. Water in fuel. Option C. filiform
corrosion. corrosion.
Option B. Spilled
Option B. filiform battery acid. Correct Answer is.
corrosion. cathodic & anodic changes
Option C. Untreated in the material.
Option C. sub-surface metal.
corrosion.
Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. layer Spilled battery acid. 12. Galvanic corrosion is
corrosion. caused by.

Option A. incorrect heat


. 9. What is stress treatments or incorrect
6. When dissimilar corrosion?. alloying.
metals are brought together,
or the same metal in Option A. Corrosion in Option B. cyclic
different states, one metal an area under cyclic stressing and a decrease in
forms the anode and the loading. cross sectional area.
other the cathode. Which
will suffer from Option B. Corrosion Option C. the joining of
corrosion?. due to fretting. 2 dissimilar metals.

Option A. Both will Option C. Corrosion in Correct Answer is. the


corrode equally. an area under continuous joining of 2 dissimilar
loading. metals.
Option B. The
cathode. Correct Answer is.
Corrosion in an area under
Option C. The continuous loading. 13. In the galvanic
anode. series, the most noble metal
will, if joined to another
Correct Answer is. The metal.
anode. 10. Electrochemical
reaction is caused by the Option A. always be at
contact of. the top of the table.

7. In corrosion, the Option A. Option B. corrode


electrode that loses bonding. before the less noble
electrons is. metal.
Option B. moisture on
Option A. the the surface of the metal. Option C. allow the less
cathode. noble metal to corrode
Option C. dissimilar first.
Option B. either the metals.
cathode or the anode Correct Answer is. allow
depending upon the Correct Answer is. the less noble metal to
electrolyte. moisture on the surface of corrode first.
the metal.
Option C. the 14. Stress corrosion is
anode. associated with.

Correct Answer is. either 11. Chemical attack is a Option A. cyclic loading
the cathode or the anode direct result of. and a corrosion pit.
depending upon the
electrolyte. Option A. intergranular Option B. a corrosion
corrosion. pit in a member under a
compressive load.
Option B. cathodic &
. 8. Which of these anodic changes in the Option C. a corrosion
is a common cause of material. pit in a member under
corrosion?. stress.
Correct Answer is. a Option C. Form
corrosion pit in a member internally to produce surface
under stress. corrosion. . 21. Aluminium
is.
Correct Answer is.
Radiate from the corner or Option A. not resistant
15. Corrosion will sharp edges. to corrosion.
spread more rapidly when
metals are exposed Option B. highly
to. resistant to corrosion.
18. Some metals are
Option A. cold inherently stable. What does Option C. reasonably
climates. this suggest?. resistant to corrosion.

Option B. high Option A. They strongly Correct Answer is. highly


temperatures. resist corrosion. resistant to corrosion.

Option C. dry Option B. They are


climates. highly prone to corrosion.
22. When galvanic
Correct Answer is. high Option C. They try to corrosion takes place, which
temperatures. revert to their natural part corrodes?.
state.
Option A. Anode.
Correct Answer is. They
16. Which is the strongly resist Option B. Oxide film
following correct corrosion. coating.
statement?.
Option C.
Option A. Selenious Cathode.
acid is used for the re- 19. The oxide film
protection of aluminium formed on the surface of Correct Answer is.
alloys. aluminium is. Anode.

Option B. The chemical Option A. non- .


test for bronze is nitric acid porous.
which produces a white . 23. Corrosion
precipitate. Option B. caused by galvanic action is
porous. the result of.
Option C. All corrosion
is a chemical action. Option C. hard and Option A. contact
porous. between two unlike
Correct Answer is. The metals.
chemical test for bronze is Correct Answer is. non-
nitric acid which produces a porous. Option B. excessive
white precipitate. OR All anodization.
corrosion is a chemical
Option C. excessive
action.
20. Corrosion control etching.
begins at the.
Correct Answer is.
17. In a poorly produced Option A. production contact between two unlike
repair to skin structure, stage. metals.
where would stress
Option B. 04b. Corrosion.
corrosion start?.
manufacturing stage.
Option A. Radiate from
the corner or sharp Option C. design
stage. . 1. What sort of
edges. corrosion would a magneto
Correct Answer is. be likely to encounter if
Option B. Along the
design stage. completely
edges of repair.
enclosed?.
Option A. None, Option B. the strip has Option C. To make the
providing the magneto is become anodic. components easier to
completely enclosed. disassemble.
Option C. paint has
Option B. Direct been removed. Correct Answer is. To
chemical attack. prevent dissimilar metal
Correct Answer is. the corrosion.
Option C. Pitting. strip has become anodic.

Correct Answer is. Direct .


chemical attack. 8. Galvanic action
5. Intergranular caused by dissimilar metal
corrosion. contact may best be
prevented by.
. 2. What are the Option A. can be
signs of fretting recognized by a grey Option A. applying a
corrosion?. powder deposit. non-porous dielectric
material between the
Option A. Black powder Option B. may have no surfaces.
or cocoa staining. visual surface
indication. Option B. Special
Option B. Intergranular precautions are not required
cracking. Option C. can be if they are properly
recognized by its flaking and bonded.
Option C. lifting of the material
Flaking. layers. Option C. priming both
the surfaces with a light coat
Correct Answer is. Black Correct Answer is. may of zinc chromate primer.
powder or cocoa have no visual surface
staining. indication. Correct Answer is.
Special precautions are not
required if they are properly
bonded. OR applying a non-
. 3. Black streaks . 6. Active flux does porous dielectric material
back from a rivet hole what?. between the surfaces.
signify.
Option A.
Option A. galvanic Protects.
corrosion. 9. After welding,
Option B. stainless steel is susceptible
Option B. intergrannular Cleans. to a corrosion known
corrosion.
as.
Option C. Both cleans
Option C. fretting. and protects. Option A. weld
Correct Answer is. deterioration.
Correct Answer is.
fretting. Cleans. Option B. weld
Explanation. Fretting decay.
corrosion is identified by
Option C. weld
black / grey streaks. BL/4-1 . 7. Jointing
rot.
3.1.5. compound is used for what
reason?. Correct Answer is. weld
decay.
Option A. To prevent
. 4. When a steel dissimilar metal
part is welded, corrosion corrosion.
occurs . 10. The lifting or
because. Option B. To bond the flaking of the metal at the
components together. surface due to delamination
Option A. it is affected
of grain boundaries caused
by spatter.
by the pressure of corrosion Option B. Rubber liners from heat-treated sheet
is. are installed in the aluminium.
tank.
Option A. exfoliation. Option B. may be
Option C. A biocidal detected by the white,
Option B. additive is used in the powdery deposit formed on
electrolysis. fuel. the surface of the
metal.
Option C. Correct Answer is. A
transgranulation. biocidal additive is used in Option C. cannot
the fuel. always be detected by
Correct Answer is. surface indications.
electrolysis.
Correct Answer is. may
14. What type of be detected by the white,
corrosion attacks grain powdery deposit formed on
11. The electrolytic boundaries of aluminium the surface of the metal.
process that forms an oxide alloys which are improperly OR cannot always be
film on the surface of or inadequately heat detected by surface
aluminium alloys is known treated?. indications.
as.
Option A. Stress
Option A. corrosion.
galvanizing.
Option B. Intergranular
Option B. anodizing. corrosion. Question Number.
17. Corrosion will
Option C. Option C. Surface spread more rapidly when
electroplating. corrosion. metals are exposed
to.
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.
anodizing. Intergranular Option A. dry
corrosion. climates.

Option B. cold
12. What is the
climates.
indication of fretting 15. The artificial
corrosion on aluminium production of a film of oxide Option C. high
alloy?. on the surface of aluminium temperatures.
or any of its alloys is
Option A. Black powder. commonly called. Correct Answer is. high
temperatures.
Option B. Brown Option A. alodizing.
powder. Explanation. Higher
Option B. parco temperatures always
Option C. White lubrizing. accelerate corrosion. AC43
powder.
6-3.
Option C.
Correct Answer is. Black anodizing.
powder.
Correct Answer is. 18. Magnesium alloy
. anodizing. components are protected
. 13. What action is by.
taken to protect integral
Option A. an electro
tanks from corrosion due to 16. Intergrannular process.
micro-biological corrosion in structural
growth?. aluminium alloy Option B. a chemical
parts. process.
Option A. The inside of
the tank is coated with Option A. are not likely Option C. a painted
yellow chromate. to occur in parts fabricated process.
Correct Answer is. a Option B. chromating Option B. a shorter life
chemical process. process. due to hardening.

Option C. coslettising Option C. a pure


process. coating of aluminium oxide
19. Corrosion products on the surface.
should be removed from Correct Answer is.
magnesium alloys by the chromating process. Correct Answer is. a pure
use of. coating of aluminium oxide
on the surface.
Option A. a solution of
10% by weight of chromic 22. Heavy corrosion .
acid in distilled water with deposits on clad aluminium
0.1% by volume of sulphuric alloys should be 25. Corrosion at the
acid. removed. grain boundaries is
called.
Option B. a solution of Option A. mechanically
10% by volume of chromic using a pneumatic Option A.
acid in distilled water with vibrator. intergrannular.
1% phosphoric acid.
Option B. chemically by Option B. fretting.
Option C. aluminium use of
wool. trichloroethylene. Option C. filiform.

Correct Answer is. a Option C. chemically by Correct Answer is.


solution of 10% by volume use of phosphoric intergrannular.
of chromic acid in distilled acid.
water with 1% phosphoric Explanation. NIL.
acid. OR a solution of 10% Correct Answer is.
by weight of chromic acid in chemically by use of
distilled water with 0.1% by phosphoric acid.
volume of sulphuric acid.
Question Number.
23. What action should 26. Fretting corrosion
be taken on finding occurs where.
20. If it is necessary to
remove corrosion from a intergrannular
corrosion?. Option A. two material
steel component in-situ, the are subject to very slight
base of a suitable solution movement between the
for this purpose is. Option A. Replace
complete component two.
Option A. chromic part.
Option B. a deep
acid. scratch increases to
Option B. De-corrode
and reprotect. become fretting
Option B. phosphoric
corrosion.
acid.
Option C. Renew
corroded area by Option C. pitting
Option C. nitric
patching. corrosion is allowed to
acid.
become more
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. pronounced.
phosphoric acid. Replace complete
component part. Correct Answer is. two
. material are subject to very
slight movement between
21. A type of protection the two.
which is applicable to 24. Anodic treatment of
magnesium alloys is aluminium alloy Explanation. Fretting is
the. gives. corrosion combined with
small relative movement.
Option A. phosphate Option A. a purple
process. finish.
. 27. What is used to Explanation. CAIPs BL/7- 32. Intercrystalline
remove corrosion from 1 Para.4. BL/7-1 4.1. corrosion.
magnesium?.
Option A. is detectable
Option A. Phosphate by x-rays.
acid solution. 30. What are the signs
of fretting corrosion on Option B. is the same
Option B. Chromic acid steel?. as exfoliation corrosion.
solution.
Option A. Dark staining Option C. always
Option C. Sulphuric around area. appears as small surface
acid solution. cracks.
Option B. Surface
Correct Answer is. cracking as corrosion Correct Answer is. is
Chromic acid breaks through to surface of detectable by x-rays.
solution. component.

Explanation. Chromic acid Option C. Rust on


solution is used to remove surface. 33. The usual
corrosion from magnesium manufacturers anti-
alloys. AC43 6-31. Correct Answer is. corrosion process to be
Surface cracking as applied to Fe aircraft parts
corrosion breaks through to is.
surface of component. OR
28. Surface corrosion on Dark staining around area. Option A. cadmium
stainless steel is identified plating.
by. Explanation. Fretting
corrosion is caused when Option B.
Option A. red there is some relative anodising.
rust. movement between parts,
causing a fine dark powdery Option C. metal
Option B. white film. paste of corrosion products. spraying.
BL/4-1 Para.3.1.5.
Option C. black pitting. Correct Answer is.
cadmium plating.
Correct Answer is. black
pitting. 31. Spilled mercury on
aluminium.
Explanation. Surface 34. Chromate
corrosion on stainless steel Option A. increases treatment is applied
is a black pitting. AC43 6-5. susceptibility to hydrogen to.
embrittlement
Option A. Al alloys.
Option B. may cause
29. Hooks, wires and impaired corrosion Option B. Fe
other suspension devices resistance if left in alloys.
used in an anodic bath prolonged contact.
should be made Option C. magnesium
of. Option C. causes rapid alloys.
and severe corrosion in
Option A. brass or Correct Answer is.
prolonged contact.
copper. magnesium alloys.
Correct Answer is. may
Option B. aluminium or cause impaired corrosion
titanium. resistance if left in 35. Anti-corrosion
prolonged contact. OR treatment used on
Option C. steel or
causes rapid and severe Magnesium is.
copper.
corrosion in prolonged
Correct Answer is. contact. Option A.
aluminium or chromating.
titanium.
Option B. electro- Option C. crevice 42. The artificial
plating. corrosion. production of a film of oxide
on the surface of aluminium
Option C. Correct Answer is. or any of its alloys is
phosphating. crevice corrosion. commonly called.

Correct Answer is. Option A. anodizing.


chromating.
39. To check the interior Option B. parco
of tubular members for lubrizing.
corrosion
36. Fretting corrosion attack. Option C. alodizing.
occurs with.
Option A. any form of Correct Answer is.
Option A. water trapped test is acceptable. anodizing.
between moving parts.
Option B. ultra sonic
Option B. vibration in testing is necessary.
bolted parts. 43. Alodizing protects
Option C. dye penetrant alloy metal from corrosion
Option C. improper heat testing should be and does what
treatment. used. else?.

Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. ultra Option A. Makes a good
vibration in bolted sonic testing is surface for paint to adhere
parts. necessary. to.

. Option B. Makes the


surface alkaline.
37. Intergranular 40. Anodising is a form
corrosion is also known as of. Option C. Seals the
what?. surface from moisture.
Option A. artificial
Option A. Stress protection. Correct Answer is.
corrosion. Makes a good surface for
Option B. metallic paint to adhere to.
Option B. Exfoliation. coating.

Option C. Option C. sacrificial


Galvanic. protection. . 44. When cleaning
aircraft faying surfaces, a
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. cause for concern
Exfoliation. artificial protection. is.
Explanation. BL/4-1 2.3.3 . Option A. corrosion
'[exfoliation is] A less acting on the end faces of
harmful form of intergranular . 41. The Alocrom panels.
attack'. 1200 process was designed
to treat. Option B. sharp corners
etc trapping corrosive
Option A. chromium chemicals.
38. During construction, plating.
sharp internal corners and Option C. leaks into the
inaccessible places should Option B. small fuselage.
be avoided to surfaces.
reduce. Correct Answer is.
Option C. surfaces too corrosion acting on the end
Option A. filiform large for dip treatment. faces of panels.
corrosion.
Correct Answer is. small
Option B. fretting surfaces.
corrosion.
. 45. The form of Option A. red/brown Option B. the dye mark
corrosion most likely to rust. has no importance.
cause stress concentration
is. Option B. black powder. Option C. the dye mark
will rub off.
Option A. Surface Option C. green
Corrosion. discolouration. Correct Answer is. the
dye mark will not rub off.
Option B. Fretting Correct Answer is. green
Corrosion. discolouration. .

Option C. Pitting
Corrosion.
49. A composite flap
Correct Answer is. Pitting panel has corrosion. What
Corrosion. NDT method will you use to 52. Aluminium alloy
detect?. parts are often protected by
the.
Option A. Low voltage
x-ray. Option A. Alocrom
plating.
46. Lead acid battery Option B. Coin tap
fluid has been found to be test. Option B. chromium
leaking on the surface of the plating process.
aircraft structure. What Option C. High voltage
substance would you use to x-ray. Option C. Alocrom 1200
neutralise the process.
acid?. Correct Answer is. Low
voltage x-ray. Correct Answer is.
Option A. Sulphur and Alocrom 1200
Lime. process.

Option B. Hot distilled . 50. When examining


water. a piece of metal through a
magnifying glass, hair line 53. Corrosion is always
Option C. Sodium cracks would completely
bicarbonate of soda. indicate. removed.

Correct Answer is. Option A. crevice Option A. to prevent


Sodium bicarbonate of corrosion. further damage.
soda.
Option B. intergrannular Option B. to fit new
corrosion. parts.

. 47. What colour is Option C. surface Option C. to permit the


the corrosion found on the corrosion. extent of damage to be
surface of aluminium assessed.
alloys?. Correct Answer is.
intergrannular Correct Answer is. to
Option A. White/Grey. corrosion. permit the extent of damage
to be assessed.
Option B.
Green/Blue.

Option C. Black. . 54. Corrosion on a


51. In the anodic film copper alloy can be
Correct Answer is. inspection and sealing test, recognised by.
White/Grey. if a good seal has been
accomplished. Option A. blue/green
deposit.
Option A. the dye mark
48. Corrosion on copper will not rub off. Option B. white deposit.
is identified by.
Option C. grey Option C. black pits Option C. dissimilar
deposit. going into brown rust. metal contact.

Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.


blue/green deposit. greyish powder, fuzzy improper heat
deposit or whiskery growth. treatment.
Explanation. NIL.

58. A non-electrolytic
55. Which of the chemical treatment for
following is a temporary aluminium alloys to increase 61. Which of these
protective corrosion resistance and materials is the most
measure?. paint bonding qualities is anodic?.
called.
Option A. Sacrificial Option A.
protection. Option A. alodizing. Magnesium.

Option B. Option B. anodizing. Option B. Cadmium.


Chromating.
Option C. Option C. 7075-T6
Option C. Paint dichromating. aluminium alloy.
finish.
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. alodizing. Magnesium.
Chromating. .
Explanation. Alodizing is a
(non-electrolytic) deposition
of oxide film. . 62. Which of these
56. Which anti- materials is the most
corrosion chemical cathodic?.
treatment is normally
applied to aluminium 59. Which of the Option A. 2024
alloys?. following are acceptable to aluminium alloy.
use in cleaning anodized
Option A. Pure surfaces?. Option B. Zinc.
aluminium.
Option A. Steel wool, Option C. Stainless
Option B. Anodising. aluminium wool, fibre bristle steel.
brush.
Option C. Correct Answer is.
Cadmium. Option B. Aluminium Stainless steel.
wool, fibre bristle brush.
Correct Answer is.
Anodising. Option C. Brass wire
brush, stainless steel wire 63. Galvanic corrosion is
Explanation. Alclad is not brush. most likely to be most rapid
considered a chemical and severe
treatment. Correct Answer is. when.
Aluminium wool, fibre bristle
brush. Option A. the surface
area of the anodic metal is
. 57. Spilled mercury smaller than the surface
on aluminium area of the cathodic
causes. . 60. A primary material.
cause of intergranular
Option A. greyish corrosion is. Option B. the surface
powder, fuzzy deposit or area of the cathodic metal
whiskery growth. Option A. improper heat and the anodic material are
treatment. approximately the
Option B. yellowish same.
stains on surface of the Option B. improper
metal. application of primer.
Option C. the surface Option C. slightly Option C. 1/2 the
area of the cathodic metal is smaller than the hole. pitch.
smaller than the surface
area of the anodic Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 1*
material. supplied in a fitting kit. the pitch.

Correct Answer is. the Explanation. Lead = pitch


surface area of the cathodic * starts.
metal and the anodic 4. Multi-start
material are approximately threads.
the same. OR the surface
area of the anodic metal is Option A. increase the 7. Colour identification
smaller than the surface lead and decrease the of an aluminium rivet
area of the cathodic pitch. is.
material.
Option B. increase the Option A. black.
lead without increasing the
pitch. Option B. violet.
05.1. Fasteners - Screw
Option C. increase the Option C. green.
Threads.
lead and the pitch.
Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. black.
1. The pitch of a screw increase the lead without
increasing the pitch. Explanation. A pure
thread is.
aluminium rivet is black
Option A. crest to Explanation. Lead = pitch anodized. BL/6-27 Table 1.
root. * starts.

Option B. 2 * crest to
root.
. 8. For a wire
Option C. crest to
Question Number. insert thread repair, the hole
crest.
5. Buttress threads are is tapped using.
Correct Answer is. crest used.
Option A. the same
to root.
Option A. to transmit size.
Explanation. Pitch is crest power in both directions.
Option B. a special tap
to crest. BL/3-2 3.
Option B. to transmit supplied with the kit.
2. A single start thread power on one direction.
Option C. the next size
the lead is.
Option C. on nuts and up.
Option A. 2 * pitch. bolts.
Correct Answer is. a
Option B. 1 * pitch. Correct Answer is. to special tap supplied with the
transmit power on one kit.
Option C. * pitch. direction.

Correct Answer is. 1* Explanation. Buttress


pitch. threads are used to transmit . 9. Most commonly
power in one direction (like used thread form in aviation
some vice lead screws). is.

3. A wire thread insert Option A. V thread.


tap is.
6. The lead on a single Option B. round thread.
Option A. supplied in a start thread is.
fitting kit. Option C.
Option A. 1 * the pitch. buttress.
Option B. slightly larger
than the hole. Option B. 2 * the pitch.
Correct Answer is. V Option B. is removed 16. Which of the
thread. with a hammer and a following thread
punch. designations is most fatigue
Explanation. V thread is resistant?.
the most commonly used Option C. must be
thread form. removed. Option A. UNF.

Correct Answer is. may Option B. UNC.


left it in the insert after
10. Pitch of a screw installation. Option C. UNJF.
thread is defined as.
Correct Answer is. UNJF.
Option A. distance from
the centre of one crest to 13. A thread insert may
the next. be removed by.
17. Which thread type
Option B. difference Option A. a blade has a 55 angle?.
between major diameter removal tool.
and minor diameter. Option A. Metric.
Option B. a hammer
Option C. distance and punch. Option B. Whitworth.
between the crest and the
root of the thread. Option C. a pre-wind Option C. UNF.
insertion tool.
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.
distance from the centre of Correct Answer is. a Whitworth.
one crest to the next. blade removal tool.

Explanation. Pitch is crest


05.2. Fasteners - Bolts,
to crest.
14. A metric screw studs and screws.
thread angle
is.

Option A. 7 .
Question Number.
Option B. 57 . 1. When fitting a
11. The angle of a screw
hyloks.
thread is.
Option C. 60 .
Option A. they should
Option A. half the
Correct Answer is. 60 be lubricated.
inclusive angle of the thread
sides. .
Option B. each hylock
. should be torqued, the
Option B. the inclusive
torque calculated for each
angle of the thread
15. Which thread type time.
sides.
has the better vibration
resistance?. Option C. the hole
Option C. the distance
should be drilled so it is an
the thread moves in one
Option A. A fine thread. interference fit.
turn.
Option B. A course Correct Answer is. each
Correct Answer is. the
thread. hylock should be torqued,
inclusive angle of the thread
the torque calculated for
sides.
Option C. Courseness each time. OR the hole
or fineness of thread has no should be drilled so it is an
bearing on the vibration interference fit.
12. The tang of a thread resistance.
insert. Explanation. Hiloks are
Correct Answer is. A fine pre-lubricated. Hole is
Option A. may left it in thread. drilled 0.0015 inch
the insert after interference. Hi-lok/Hi-tique
installation. installation guide can be
download from Tutorial Explanation. 120 C or Correct Answer is. An
Support Section. 250 F. 'x'.

2. What sort of surface 5. What is the nominal 8. A British close


treatment would you find on screw length?. tolerance bolt is identified
a magnesium by.
casting?. Option A. The overall
length of a countersunk Option A. a raised ring
Option A. Anodizing. screw and the non-threaded on the head.
portion of a bolt.
Option B. Option B. an 'X' on the
Phosphating. Option B. The overall head.
length of a bolt (from under
Option C. the head) and the overall Option C. a dropped
Chromating. length of a screw (including collar under the head.
the head).
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a
Chromating. Option C. The length of raised ring on the head.
thread for a bolt, overall
length for a countersunk Explanation. A British
screw. close tolerance bolt is
3. What is the nominal identified with a raised ring
length of a UNF Correct Answer is. The on the head.
bolt?. overall length of a
countersunk screw and the
Option A. Under head non-threaded portion of a
to end of the threads. bolt. 9. A blind fastener
described as external
Option B. Under head . sleeve and internally
to screw threads (i.e. plain threaded would be.
shank). 6. A unified thread is
identified by.
Option C. The length of Option A. a cherry
the threads. Option A. an 'X' on the lock.
head.
Correct Answer is. Under Option B. a
head to screw threads (i.e. Option B. a raise ring rivnut.
plain shank). on the head.
Option C. a jo
Explanation. Nominal Option C. 2 or 3 rings bolt.
length from head to thread. on the head.
Correct Answer is. a jo
Correct Answer is. 2 or 3 bolt.
rings on the head.
4. Where should you Explanation. A jo-bolt is
not use a nyloc Explanation. Contiguous externally sleeved and
nut?. rings. internally threaded. BL/6-28.

Option A. Temperatures
above 120 C.
. 7. An AN steel . 10. Studs which
Option B. Temperatures bolt is identified by what have a size larger thread at
above 200 C. marking on the one end are called.
head?.
Option C. Temperatures Option A. stepped
above 250 C. Option A. A studs.
dash.
Correct Answer is. Option B. shouldered
Temperatures above 120 Option B. 14E. studs.
C.
Option C. An 'x'.
Option C. plain Correct Answer is. quick
studs. release fasteners at
inspection panels. 16. A bolt part number
Correct Answer is. AN25C15 when compared
stepped studs. Explanation. Dzus to a bolt part number AN25-
fasteners are quick release 15 has.
Explanation. Stepped fasteners.
studs have a size larger at Option A. a less
one end. expensive design and
product costs.
. 14. The initials
U.N.C when related to Option B. a higher
11. A bolt with a raised aircraft bolts stands resistance to
dash is. for. corrosion.

Option A. AN standard. Option A. United Option C. a higher pitch


National thread.
Option B. close Countersunk.
tolerance. Correct Answer is. a
Option B. Unified higher resistance to
Option C. Corrosion National Coarse. corrosion.
Resistant Steel.
Option C. Unified Explanation. 2= clevis
Correct Answer is. National Centred. bolt, 5 = diameter in 16ths
Corrosion Resistant (5/16ths in), C = Corrosion
Steel. Correct Answer is. resistant steel, 15 = length
Unified National in 8ths (15/8 = 1 7/8 in.).
Coarse. BL/6-27 3.1.2.
12. A dowel will take Explanation. UNC =
what loads?. Unified National Course.
UNF = Unified National 17. The head marking
Option A. shear. Fine. on a close tolerance BSF
bolt is.
Option B. tensile.
Option A. a series of
Option C.
dots on the head face.
torsion.
15. Capped nuts are Option B. a raised disk
Correct Answer is. used so. on the head face.
shear.
Option A. to prevent Option C. a lowered
Explanation. A dowel leaks from pipe ends. ring under the hexagon.
takes shear loads.
Option B. the part is not Correct Answer is. a
over torqued as the bolt raised disk on the head
touches the captive part face.
first.
13. Dzuz Fasteners
Option C. to ensure that
provide.
it is dry bolted. 18. In the drawing, what
Option A. for easy letter represents the
Correct Answer is. the nominal length of a BSF
hammering into position.
part is not over torqued as bolt?.
Option B. a close the bolt touches the captive
tolerance fit. part first. OR to ensure that
it is dry bolted.
Option C. quick release
fasteners at inspection Explanation. Capped nuts
panels. provide an air/fluid tight
seal.
Option B. X on head.

Option C. plain . 25. Capped nuts


bolt. are used.

Correct Answer is. X on Option A. prevent


head. overtightening due to the
threaded portion being
restricted by the cap.

. 22. Rivnuts were Option B. to provide a


originally used dry torque joint.
Option A. A. for.
Option C. to stop
Option B. B. Option A. securing leaks.
structural parts.
Option C. C. Correct Answer is. to
Option B. securing stop leaks.
Correct Answer is. A. rubber de-icing boots.

Option C. securing
cabin floorings. 26. A pin in a fork end
19. An aluminium alloy fitting is subjected to what
bolt may be identified Correct Answer is. loading?.
by. securing rubber de-icing
boots. Option A. Shear.
Option A. its colour
(dyed black). Explanation. BL/6-28 5.4. Option B.
Tensile.
Option B. the letter A 23. Fork end fittings on
stamped on the head. control rod ends should Option C.
have. Torsion.
Option C. its colour
(dyed green). Option A. anti vibration Correct Answer is.
compound. Shear.
Correct Answer is. its
colour (dyed green). Option B. 0.002 inch 27.
axial movement. Hylocks.
Explanation. BL/2-3 2.2.
Option C. bolt heads Option A. require
fitted upwards. lubrication of the screw part
only.
20. A (British) 3/8 inch Correct Answer is. bolt
dia. UNF bolt will have the heads fitted upwards. Option B. are pre-
diameter code lubricated.
letter.
Option C. do not require
Option A. N. 24. The AN526 truss- lubrication.
head screw.
Option B. G. Correct Answer is. are
Option A. provides a pre-lubricated.
Option C. J. good clamping force.

Correct Answer is. Option B. is a widely


J. used recesses head . 28. UNF
machine screw. means.

Option C. is a pan-head Option A. unified fine.


21. An AN steel bolt is screw.
identified by. Option B. union national
Correct Answer is. is a fine.
Option A. on pan-head screw.
head.
Option C. united grooves, and the tension Correct Answer is.
nations fine. lockbolt has five grooves. hundredths of an
inch.
Correct Answer is.
unified fine.
32. One of the main
advantages of the Hi-Lok 35. Threaded rivets
type fasteners over earlier (Rivnuts) are commonly
29. A clevis bolt in a generations is used to.
control cable fork end would that.
be loaded in. Option A. join two or
Option A. they can be more pieces of sheet metal
Option A. shear. installed with ordinary hand- where shear strength is
tools. desired.
Option B.
tension. Option B. they can be Option B. attach parts
removed and reused or components with screws
Option C. both tension again. to sheet metal.
and shear.
Option C. the squeezed Option C. join two or
Correct Answer is. on collar installation more pieces of sheet metal
shear. provides a more secure, where bearing strength is
tighter fit. desired.

Correct Answer is. they Correct Answer is. attach


30. Capped nuts are can be installed with parts or components with
used. ordinary hand-tools. screws to sheet metal.
Option A. to provide dry
bolting of the joints.
33. The markings on the 36. Aircraft bolts with a
Option B. to lock the nut head of a Dzus fastener cross or asterisk marked on
to the bolt. identify the. the bolt-head are.
Option C. to stop leaks Option A. body Option A. made of
due to metal caps fitted on diameter, type of head and aluminium alloy.
the heads. length of the fastener.
Option B. a standard
Correct Answer is. to Option B. body type, steel bolts.
stop leaks due to metal head diameter and type of
caps fitted on the heads. material. Option C. close
tolerance bolts.
31. A main difference Option C. manufacturer
between Lockbolt/Hucbolt and type of material. Correct Answer is. a
tension and shear fasteners standard steel bolts.
(other than their application)
is in the.
34. The Dzus turnlock
Option A. shape of the fastener consists of a stud, 37. A bolt with a single
head. grommet, and receptacle. dash on the head is
The stud length is measured classified as an.
Option B. method of in.
installation. Option A. NAS standard
Option A. sixteenths of aircraft bolt.
Option C. number of an inch.
locking collar grooves. Option B. AN corrosion
Option B. tenths of an resistant steel bolt.
Correct Answer is. inch.
number of locking collar Option C. NAS close
grooves. Option C. hundredths of tolerance bolt.
an inch.
Explanation. shear
lockbolt has two locking
Correct Answer is. AN Option B. steel. around the component to be
corrosion resistant steel locked.
bolt. Option C. phosphor
bronze. Option B. once, then
discarded.
Correct Answer is.
. 38. A bolt with an brass. Option C. 3 times, then
'X' inside a triangle on the discarded.
head is classified as
an. Correct Answer is.
42. Instrument Mounting indefinitely providing it is a
Option A. NAS standard nuts are. good fit around the
aircraft bolt. component to be locked.
Option A. soldered in
Option B. NAS close place during
tolerance bolt. manufacture.
2. The taper of a
Option C. AN corrosion Option B. prevented standard taper pin
resistant steel bolt. from dropping behind the is.
instrument panel by
Correct Answer is. NAS magnetism. Option A. 1 in
close tolerance bolt. 48.
Option C. non-
magnetic. Option B. 1 in
36.
39. Aircraft bolts are Correct Answer is.
usually manufactured with prevented from dropping Option C. 1 in
a. behind the instrument panel 20.
by magnetism. OR non-
Option A. class 1 fit for magnetic. Correct Answer is. 1 in
the threads. 48.

Option B. class 2 fit for


the threads. 43. The length of a
clevis bolt. 3. When using a spring
Option C. class 3 fit for washer, the plain washer
the threads. Option A. includes the would be fitted.
head and the thread.
Correct Answer is. class Option A. between
3 fit for the threads. Option B. is the plain spring and part.
shank portion only.
Option B. between
Option C. includes the head and spring.
40. The cage of an threads but not the
Instrument Mounting nut is head. Option C. under the
made from. nut.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. steel. includes the threads but not Correct Answer is.
the head. between spring and
Option B. brass. part.

Option C. phosphor Explanation. The plain


bronze. 05.3. Fasteners - Locking washer is to protect the
devices. surface of the part from the
Correct Answer is. edge of the spring washer.
phosphor bronze. BL/6-13 3.
. 41. The speed nut 1. How many times can
of an Instrument Mounting a locking plate be
nut is made used?. . 4. How many
from. times can you use a locking
Option A. indefinitely plate?.
Option A. brass. providing it is a good fit
Option A. Until all the Option B. only once, 10. A press fit
tabs have been broken because the legs are spread requires.
off. and bent.
Option A. the hole to be
Option B. As long as it Option C. with a spring expanded by heat.
remains serviceable. washer and a stiff nut.
Option B. some sort of
Option C. Once Correct Answer is. only driving force.
only. once, because the legs are
spread and bent. Option C. the shaft to
Correct Answer is. As be shrunk by cooling.
long as it remains Explanation. Split pins can
serviceable. only be used once. Correct Answer is. some
sort of driving force.

Explanation. A press fit


. 5. Wire locking requires some form of
approach angles should not driving force.
be less than. Question Number.
8. A pre-load indicating
Option A. 45 . washer is correctly loaded
when. 11. A non metallic
Option B. 90 . locknut is.
Option A. the inner ring
Option C. 10 . rotates. Option A. never used
over 250 F.
Correct Answer is. 45 Option B. the inner ring
. is gripped. Option B. never
torqued.
Option C. the outer ring
is gripped. Option C. never re-
. 6. A spring type used.
washer when used on an Correct Answer is. the
aluminium component must outer ring is gripped. Correct Answer is. never
be used. used over 250 F.
Explanation. A preload
Option A. with a plain washer is correctly loaded Explanation. 250 F (120
washer. when the outer ring is C) is the maximum
gripped. AL/7-8. temperature for nylon or
Option B. by itself. fibre insert nuts.

Option C. with a tab


washer. 9. The advantage of
circlips is. . 12. Which can be
Correct Answer is. with a re-used?.
plain washer. Option A. it can be used
for both inner and external Option A. Locking plate,
Explanation. A spring applications. circlip, spring washer.
washer must always be
used with a plain washer. Option B. Both a and b. Option B. Shake proof
washer, spring washer,
Option C. it is locking plate.
cheap.
. 7. Nickel alloy Option C. Tab washer,
steel split pins can be Correct Answer is. Both circlip, locking plate.
used. a and b.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. repeatedly Explanation. Circlips are Locking plate, circlip, spring
provided they remain a cheap and can be used for washer.
good fit. internal and external
applications.
13. A tab washer has Option C. both A and B Option C. retain a ball
been removed after fitment are left hand threads. bearing on a shaft.
for a short time from a non
essential system, the tab Correct Answer is. both A Correct Answer is. retain
washer may and B are right hand a ball bearing in a
be. threads. housing.

Option A. re- Explanation. The wire


used. locking is maintaining
tightness clockwise in both 19. A washer having
Option B. re-used if a A and B. AC34. both twisted teeth and
spare is not available. spring actions is.
16. A turnbuckle locknut
Option C. not re- is a. Option A. AN970 large-
used. area flat washer.
Option A. stiff nut.
Correct Answer is. not Option B. AN936
re-used. Option B. slotted shake-proof lock
nut. washer.
Explanation. used unless
it is multi-tab and there are Option C. castle Option C. AN935 split-
unused tabs - old tabs to be nut. ring lock washer.
broken off. BL/6-13 3.5.3.
Correct Answer is. stiff Correct Answer is.
nut. AN936 shake-proof lock
washer.
14. Taper pins are
subject to what
loads?. 17. A spring
washer. . 20. Split
Option A. pins.
Tensile. Option A. may be used
a second time provided it is Option A. may be used
Option B. fitted the reverse way only once.
Compressive. round.
Option B. can be used
Option C. Shear. Option B. maybe used more than once but
more than once provided it depends on the material of
Correct Answer is. continues to provide an the split pin.
Shear. efficient lock.
Option C. may be used
Explanation. Taper pins Option C. must not be more than once.
can only take shear loads. used more than once.
AC43 7-101. Correct Answer is. may
Correct Answer is. be used only once.
15. In the drawing, both maybe used more than
bolts are correctly wire once provided it continues
locked when. to provide an efficient
lock. 21. How is the locking
feature of the fibre-type
locknut
obtained?.
. 18. An internal
circlip can be used Option A. By a fibre
to. insert held firmly in place at
Option A. both A and B the base of the load carrying
are right hand threads. Option A. retain a ball section.
bearing in a housing.
Option B. A is a right Option B. By the use of
hand thread and B is a left Option B. to do both of an unthreaded fibre locking
hand thread. the above. insert.
Option C. By making , or removed from the colour and
the threads in the fibre freezer in time, marking?.
insert slightly smaller than they.
those in the load carrying Option A. Black anodic
section. Option A. must be with an 'A'.
discarded.
Correct Answer is. By the Option B. Natural
use of an unthreaded fibre Option B. must be re- anodic with no marking.
locking insert. heat treated before use.
Option C. Green anodic
Option C. can be re- with an 'X'.
heat treated once then
22. Split pins are made discarded. Correct Answer is. Black
from. anodic with an 'A'.
Correct Answer is. must
Option A. brass or Low be re-heat treated before Explanation. An L36 rivet
carbon steel - cadmium use. is anodised black.
plated,.

Option B. brass or
stainless steel. 3. A joggle in a 6. What do the letters
removed rivet is indication and numbers on a British
Option C. Low carbon of what type of partial rivet mean?.
steel - cadmium plated, or failure?.
stainless steel. Option A. Material
Option A. specification only.
Correct Answer is. Low Bearing.
carbon steel - cadmium Option B. Material and
plated, or stainless Option B. Shear. finish.
steel.
Option C. Option C. Head shape,
Compression. material and finish.

05.4. Fasteners - Aircraft Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Head
rivets. Shear. shape, material and
finish.

1. Forming a solution 4. How is a British


treated rivet gives it 75% of aluminium rivet 7. A natural finish
its hardness. What gives it identified?. aluminium alloy rivet with a
the other 25%?. D on it is.
Option A. Black anodic
Option A. Leave at finish. Option A. hiduminium
room temperature for four L86.
hours. Option B. Natural
anodised finish. Option B. aluminium
Option B. Precipitation L36.
treat the component when Option C. Violet anodic
forming is complete. finish. Option C. duralumin
L37.
Option C. Put them in a Correct Answer is. Black
refrigerator. anodic finish. Correct Answer is.
duralumin L37.
Correct Answer is. Leave Explanation. A British
at room temperature for four aluminium rivet is black Explanation. L37 is
hours. anodised. aluminium alloy with a D.
BL/6-27.

. 2. If D or DD 5. A BS rivet made
rivets are not formed in time from L36 would be what
8. A 5% magnesium Correct Answer is. Monel Explanation. Refrigeration
rivet is identified metal. retards age hardening.
by.

Option A. violet anodise


with 'S' on it. 11. An aluminium alloy 14. What do you do to
L37 rivet identification 2017 and 2024 rivets after
Option B. green is. heat treatment?.
anodise with 'X' or an '8' on
it. Option A. X Option A. Leave for a
embossed. minimum of 2 hours before
Option C. black anodise using.
with 'A' on it. Option B. O
embossed. Option B. refrigerate for
Correct Answer is. green a minimum of 2 hours
anodise with 'X' or an '8' on Option C. D before using.
it. embossed.
Option C. Use
Explanation. 5% Correct Answer is. D immediately or
magnesium is green embossed. refrigerate.
anodised with an 'X' or an
'8'. Explanation. An aluminium Correct Answer is. Use
alloy L37 (Duralumin) rivet immediately or
is identified with an 'D'. refrigerate.

9. What metal is Explanation. NIL.


suitable for riveting
magnesium 12. Rivet allowance
alloy?. is.
15. An American rivet
Option A. Monel metal. Option A. 1.5d. with a cross on the head
is.
Option B. 5056 Option B. 1d plus the
aluminium alloy. thickness of the material. Option A. 2124
aluminium alloy.
Option C. 1100 Option C. 1.5d plus the
aluminium alloy. thickness of the Option B. 2117
material. aluminium alloy.
Correct Answer is. 5056
aluminium alloy. Correct Answer is. Option C. 5056
1.5d. aluminium alloy.
Explanation. BL/6-27 5.1
and AC43 7-1 para.d. Explanation. Rivet Correct Answer is. 5056
allowance is 1.5 * diameter. aluminium alloy.

Explanation. A cross on
the head of a rivet indicates
13. D and DD rivets are it is 5056 al.alloy.
Question Number. refrigerated to.
10. What metal is
suitable for riveting alloy Option A. precipitation
steel?. harden. 16. A countersunk rivet
of the SP series has a
Option A. Aluminium Option B. increase age head style of.
alloy. hardening.
Option A. 20 .
Option B. Monel Option C. retard age
metal. hardening. Option B. 90 .

Option C. Mild Correct Answer is. retard Option C. 100 .


steel. age hardening.
Correct Answer is. 100
.
Explanation. SP series Correct Answer is. shear Option C. A pop rivet.
rivets are 100 degree csk. failure.
BL/6-27 3.3. Correct Answer is. A
hylok.
17. The coding of a
British rivet 20. A rivet that has 5% Explanation. Pop rivets
indicates. magnesium is identified and blind rivets cannot be
as. used in place of solid rivets.
Option A. length and Jeppesen A&P Airframe
diameter. Option A. anodic violet Handbook Pg.155.
and has an X.
Option B. head type
and colour. Option B. anodic green
and has an X. 23. Alloy rivets are heat
Option C. material and treated by.
head type. Option C. natural and
has an m. Option A. solution
Correct Answer is. treating.
material and head Correct Answer is.
type. anodic green and has an Option B.
X. annealing.
Explanation. Coding such
as SP80 means al.alloy and Explanation. 5% Option C.
snap head. BL/6-27 8. magnesium rivets are green anodising.
anodized. BL/6-27 Table 1.
Correct Answer is.
solution treating.
. 18. A factor which
determines the minimum 21. Identification of Explanation. Al.Alloy rivets
space between rivets is British aluminium alloy rivets are solution heat treated.
the. is with.

Option A. thickness of Option A. a part number


the material being on the head. 24. When a solid rivet is
riveted. formed it only holds 75% of
Option B. a letter and its shear strength, the other
Option B. diameter of number code. 25% comes from.
the rivets being used.
Option C. a colour and Option A. leaving
Option C. length of the number stamped on the assembly for 4 days to age
rivets being used. head. harden.

Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a Option B. heating the


diameter of the rivets being colour and number stamped completed assembly.
used. on the head.
Option C. cooling
Explanation. Rivet spacing Explanation. Aluminium completed assembly.
(single row) is 4 * diameter. alloy rivets are colour coded
AC43 4-16. with a number or letter on Correct Answer is.
the head. leaving assembly for 4 days
to age harden.

19. Joggles in removed


rivet shanks would indicate 22. If you can only gain
partial. limited access to both sides 25. A rivet with no
of a structure, what would marking has the material
Option A. torsion failure. you use to repair the code.
structure?.
Option B. shear Option A. AD.
failure. Option A. A hylok.
Option B. A.
Option C. bearing Option B. A blind rivet.
failure. Option C. D.
Correct Answer is. A. markings are given, AS 162- Option B. 7/8
408?. inch.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. inch dia, Option C. 1 inch.
26. Rivet MS20426 has inch length.
what head Correct Answer is.
type?. Option B. inch dia, 1 inch.
inch length.
Option A. CSK. Explanation. 1/2 inch
Option C. 1/8 inch dia, stroke.
Option B. inch length.
Universal.
Correct Answer is. 1/8
Option C. inch dia, inch length.
Round.
. 33. If a sheet of
Correct Answer is. aluminium alloy of 0.032
CSK. 30. What would the and 0.064 is to be joined
marking .5 indicate after the together the rivet should
normal part number of a be.
solid rivet?.
27. What is meant by Option A. 0.032 plus
the term Pitch Option A. The rivet 2D.
Ratio?. length in graduations of 1/8
inch. Option B. 0.096 plus
Option A. The area of 1.5 D.
contact between the two Option B. The diameter
sheets of metal when joining of the rivet is half an Option C. 0.064 plus
by rivets. inch. 1D.

Option B. The distance Option C. Indicates Correct Answer is. 0.096


between the hole and the close tolerance rivet. plus 1.5 D.
edge of the material.
Correct Answer is. Explanation. Rivet
Option C. The distance Indicates close tolerance allowance is 1.5D. Sheet
between two holes. rivet. thickness is 0.032 + 0.064
inches.
Correct Answer is. The
distance between two
holes. 31. What is the pressure
range for the Avdel Riveter 34. Where would a pop
type F?. rivet with a break stem
mandrel be
28. The length of solid Option A. 60 to 80 psi. used?.
rivets is in graduations
of. Option B. 20 to 60 Option A. In a closed
psi. structure.
Option A. 1/16 inch.
Option C. 40 to 60 Option B. Where the
Option B. 1/8 psi. head can be retrieved.
inch.
Correct Answer is. 60 to Option C. Any situation
Option C. 1/4 inch. 80 psi. calling for a pop rivet.

Correct Answer is. 1/16 Correct Answer is. In a


inch. closed structure.
32. What is the length of
the operation stroke of the Explanation. A pop rivet is
Avdel Riveter type not a truly blind rivet
29. What would be the F?. because the tail falls away
diameter and length of a and has to be retrieved.
solid rivet if the following Option A. However, the break-stem
inch. pop rivet has a head which
stays with the rivet after there are 3 countersink Option A. Pop
breaking. angles (90, 100, 120) c is rivet.
closest. BL/6-27 3.2.
Option B. Hi-loc rivet.

35. A chobert rivet gun Option C. Blind rivet.


may be used. 38. On a CHERRY MAX
rivet, after the riveting Correct Answer is. Blind
Option A. until the end process the mandrel section rivet.
has worn 0.002 inch below or stem is.
nominal diameter. Explanation. By
Option A. is ground elimination, no such thing as
Option B. indefinately. down flush to rivet head. a hi-loc rivet, and pop rivets
may cause a FOD problem
Option C. once Option B. due to the stem falling out.
only. discarded. BL/6-28 Para.2.

Correct Answer is. until Option C. remains in


the end has worn 0.002 inch the rivet sleeve to provide
below nominal diameter. mechanical strength. . 41. What material
is suitable for riveting
Explanation. 0.002 inch is Correct Answer is. steel?.
the wear limit on a chobert remains in the rivet sleeve
rivet gun. BL/6-29 8.2.1. to provide mechanical Option A. Aluminium
strength. alloy.

Explanation. The stem Option B. Monel.


. 36. Avdel rivets are remains in the rivet after it is
closed by. broken off. A collar holds it Option C.
in place AC43 4-57, 4-24. Copper.
Option A. a tapered
mandrel. Correct Answer is.
Monel.
Option B. 39. A 'HUCK' rivet is
broaching. similar in design to Explanation. BL/6-27 5.1.
a. Really mild steel should be
Option C. used (see AC43 7-1 para.e)
squeezing. Option A. blind rivet. but that is not an answer
given.
Correct Answer is. Option B. dome head
broaching. rivet.

Option C. cherry 42. Cadmium plated


rivet. rivets should not be used
37. Countersunk rivets where the temperature may
have two angles of Correct Answer is. cherry exceed.
countersink, these rivet.
are. Option A. 120
Explanation. The Huck C.
Option A. 100 - 115 rivet is similar in design to
degrees. the cherry rivet. But both are Option B. 250
blind rivets. AC43 4-24. C.
Option B. 125 - 135
degrees. Option C. 200
C.
Option C. 100 -160 40. On a structural
degrees. repair, what type of rivet Correct Answer is. 250
would you use when the C.
Correct Answer is. 100 - back side cannot be
115 degrees. accessed?. 43. What rivets should
be used with nickel alloy
Explanation. None of steel?.
these are correct, but since
Option A. Aluminium Option A. tensile Correct Answer is.
Alloy. loads. Solution Treatment.

Option B. Mild Steel. Option B. shear


loads.
Option C. Monel. 50. The general rule for
Option C. finding the proper rivet
Correct Answer is. torsion. diameter is.
Monel.
Correct Answer is. shear Option A. three times
Explanation. AC43 Page loads. the thickness of the thickest
7-2 Para.g. sheet.

Option B. three times


47. A plate 10 inches by the thickness of the material
. 44. What is an 5 inches is to be riveted with to be joined.
advantage of a double flare 3 rows of rivets, with the
on aluminium normal 4D rivet spacing and Option C. two times the
tubing?. 2 D edge distance. The rivet length.
rivets are AN460AD4-6.
Option A. Ease of How many rivets are Correct Answer is. three
construction. required?. times the thickness of the
material to be joined. OR
Option B. It is more Option A. 60. three times the thickness of
resistant to the shearing the thickest sheet.
effect of torque. Option B. 52.

Option C. It is less Option C. 56.


resistant to the shearing 51. Cherrymax and
effect of torque. Correct Answer is. Olympic-Lok rivets.
60.
Correct Answer is. It is Option A. utilize a
more resistant to the pulling tool for installation.
shearing effect of torque.
48. A new rivet made of Option B. may be
Explanation. NIL. aluminium alloy installed with ordinary hand
is. tools.

Option A. anodised with Option C. utilize a rivet


's'. gun, special rivet set, and
bucking bar for installation.
Question Number. Option B. anodised with
45. What type loads 'x'. Correct Answer is. utilize
cause the most rivet a rivet gun, special rivet set,
failures?. Option C. anodised with and bucking bar for
'd'. installation.
Option A.
Bearing. Correct Answer is.
anodised with 'x'.
Option B. Shear. 52. Hole filling fasteners
Question Number. (for example, MS20470
Option C. Head. 49. What type of heat rivets) should not be used in
treatment can be used on composite structures
Correct Answer is. DD rivets?. primarily because of
Head.
the.
Option A.
Annealing. Option A. increased
46. Rivet's main possibility of fretting
Option B. corrosion in the fastener.
strength quality is to Precipitation.
resist.
Option C. Solution
Treatment.
Option B. difficulty in Option C. smooth Correct Answer is.
forming a proper shop heads without SE.
head. markings.

Option C. possibility of Correct Answer is.


causing delamination. dimples. 59. The NE rivet
quadrant gives information
Correct Answer is. on.
possibility of causing
delamination. 56. MS20426AD-6-5 Option A. diameter and
indicates a countersunk manufactured head
rivet which has. location.

53. The dimensions of Option A. a shank Option B. fastener


an MS20430AD-4-8 rivets length of 5/16 inch identity.
are. (excluding head).
Option C. head
Option A. 1/8 inch in Option B. an overall data.
diameter and 1/2 inch length of 5/16 inch.
long. Correct Answer is.
Option C. a shank diameter and manufactured
Option B. 4/16 inch in length of 5/32 inch head location.
diameter and 8/32 inch (excluding head).
long.
Correct Answer is. an
Option C. 1/8 inch in overall length of 5/16 60. A square around the
diameter and 1/4 inch inch. NW digit in the quadrant of
long. a fastner would
indicate.
Correct Answer is. 1/8
inch in diameter and 1/4 57. Which rivet may be Option A. interference
inch long. used as received without fit fastener.
further
treatment?. Option B. hi-lock to be
used.
54. The primary alloying Option A. 2017-
agent of 2024-T36 rivets is T3. Option C. fluid tight
indicated by the fastner.
number. Option B. 2117-
T3. Correct Answer is. fluid
Option A. 20. tight fastner.
Option C. 2024-
Option B. 2. T4.

Option C. 24. Correct Answer is. 2117- 61. The four quadrants
T3. on a quadrant rivet code
Correct Answer is. system are
2. Explanation. 2117 is an designated.
'AD' rivet.
Option A. N, S, E, W.

. 55. Most rivets Option B. top-left, top-


used in aircraft construction 58. The information on right, bottom-left, bottom-
have. rivet grip length is in which right.
rivet code
Option A. a raised quadrant?. Option C. NW, NE, SE,
dot. SW.
Option A. NW.
Option B. Correct Answer is. NW,
dimples. Option B. SE. NE, SE, SW.

Option C. NE.
06a. Pipes and Unions. 4. How would you test 7. A pipe carrying
a hydraulic lubricant would be identified
hose?. by the colour.

1. When replacing a Option A. Pressure test Option A. white.


hydraulic pipe, where would 2.0 * working pressure.
you find the correct Option B. yellow.
replacement Option B. Pressure test
part?. 1.5 * working pressure. Option C. white and
yellow.
Option A. Parts Option C. Pressure test
catalogue. 1.0 * working pressure. Correct Answer is.
yellow.
Option B. Maintenance Correct Answer is.
schedule. Pressure test 1.5 * working
pressure.
Option C. Maintenance 8. Which material is a
manual. . hydraulic fluid hose made
from?.
Correct Answer is. Parts . 5. To prevent
catalogue. damage to seals on fitment Option A. Rubber.
you would.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. Butyl.
Option A. compress and
stretch them. Option C. Teflon.

2. How are flexible Option B. use a Correct Answer is.


hoses categorised?. cardboard protector over the Teflon.
threaded portions.
Option A. By maximum
pressure. Option C. use
grease. 9. Hydraulic pipes are
Option B. By diameter. made from.
Correct Answer is. use a
Option C. By length. cardboard protector over the Option A. 1100 or 2020
threaded portions. H14.
Correct Answer is. By
maximum pressure. Explanation. Use Option B. annealed
cardboard protection to steel.
prevent damage to seals
Option C. 5056 or
when fitting them. AC43 9-
3. What are the rigid 7075.
15.
pipes on gas turbine
engines made Correct Answer is.
from?. annealed steel.
6. Flexible pipes are
Option A. Stainless identified by.
steel.
10. The continuous
Option A. length.
Option B. Aluminium coloured line on a hose
alloy. Option B. assembly.
diameter.
Option C. Option A. identifies
Copper. Option C. hose material.
material.
Correct Answer is. Option B. will assist in
Stainless steel. Correct Answer is. detection of any twist in an
material. installed hose.
Explanation. Stainless
steel has a high resistance Option C. identifies fluid
to heat. BL/6-15 3.3.1. compatibility of hose.
Correct Answer is. will Correct Answer is. 17. An aircraft pipe has
assist in detection of any ensure adequate clearance a number stamped on it. It is
twist in an installed between the hose and the the.
hose. aircraft structure.
Option A. fluid it is
Explanation. The 'lay line' carrying.
will indicate twist in the
hose. 14. MIL-H-5606 Option B. aircraft
hydraulic fluid O-rings are system.
identified with a.
Option C. serial
11. The storage life of a Option A. blue number.
flexible hose can be up to dot.
but not exceeding. Correct Answer is. serial
Option B. yellow dot. number.
Option A. 5
years. Option C. yellow and
white dot.
Option B. 2 18. The length of a
years. Correct Answer is. blue straight hose assembly is
dot. measured.
Option C. 4
years. Option A. between the
outer faces of the union
Correct Answer is. 5 15. What type of nuts.
years. material would hydraulic
pipes on an undercarriage Option B. between the
. leg or bay be made extremities of the two
from?. nipples.
. 12. The markings
on a flexible hose must Option A. Stainless Option C. along the
include the. steel, annealed, 14H. coloured line.

Option A. internal bore Option B. 7075, Correct Answer is.


size. H14. between the extremities of
the two nipples.
Option B. Option C. 1100, 2024,
manufacturers name. in half hard state.

Option C. date of Correct Answer is. . 19. Metal tubing


manufacture. Stainless steel, annealed, fluid lines are sized by wall
14H. thickness and.
Correct Answer is. date
of manufacture. Option A. outside
diameter and 1/32 inch
16. A metal pipe has a increments.
small indentation. What are
13. When fitting a the limits?. Option B. inside
replacement flexible diameter and 1/16 inch
hose. Option A. 5% internal increments.
diameter.
Option A. use the old Option C. outside
one to apply the 'set', Option B. 10% of diameter and 1/16 inch
external diameter. increments.
Option B. ensure
adequate clearance Option C. No dent on a Correct Answer is.
between the hose and the bend. outside diameter and 1/16
aircraft structure. inch increments.
Correct Answer is. No
Option C. always dent on a bend.
pressure test before
fitting. 20. A certain amount of
slack must be left in a
flexible hose during Option B. inside
installation because, when diameter.
under pressure, . 23. The material
it. specifications for a certain Option C. wall
aircraft require that a thickness.
Option A. expands in replacement oil line be
length and contracts in fabricated from3/4 inch, Correct Answer is. inside
diameter. 0.072 5052-0 aluminium diameter.
alloy tubing. What is the
Option B. contracts in inside dimension of this
length and expands in tubing?.
diameter. 26. Which tubings have
Option A. 0.688 inch. the characteristics (high
Option C. expands in strength, abrasion
length and diameter. Option B. 0.606 resistance) necessary for
inch. use in a high pressure
Correct Answer is. (3,000 PSI) hydraulic
contracts in length and Option C. 0.750 system for operation of
expands in diameter. inch. landing gear and
flaps?.
Correct Answer is. 0.606
inch. Option A. 1100-1/2H or
21. The term 'cold flow' 3003-1/2H aluminium
is generally associated alloy.
with.
24. Excessive stress on Option B. Corrosion
Option A. welding and fluid or pneumatic metal resistant steel annealed
sheet metal. tubing caused by expansion 1/4H.
and contraction due to
Option B. rubber temperature changes can Option C. 2024-T or
hose. best be avoided 5052-0 aluminium alloy.
by.
Option C. vaporizing Correct Answer is.
fuel. Option A. providing Corrosion resistant steel
bends in the tubing. annealed 1/4H.
Correct Answer is.
rubber hose. Option B. using short,
straight sections of tubing
Explanation. deep between fixed parts of the 27. A gas or fluid line
permanent impression left in structure of the aircraft. marked with the letters
a flexible hose by the PHDAN.
pressure of hose clamps Option C. not subjecting
and supports. the aircraft to sudden Option A. is a high
changes in pressure line. The letters
temperature. mean Pressure High,
Discharge at Nacelle.
. 22. Flexible lines Correct Answer is. using
must be fitted with a short, straight sections of Option B. is carrying a
slack. tubing between fixed parts substance which may be
of the structure of the dangerous to
Option A. of 5 - 8 % of aircraft. OR providing bends personnel.
the length. in the tubing.
Option C. is carrying a
Option B. of at least 10 substance which cannot be
- 12 % of the length. made non-toxic.
25. Flexible hose
Option C. to allow used in aircraft systems is Correct Answer is. is
maximum flexing during classified in size according carrying a substance which
operation. to the. may be dangerous to
personnel.
Correct Answer is. of 5 - Option A. outside
8 % of the length. diameter.
Explanation. PHDAN Correct Answer is. AN8-
means PHysically 8852-8.
DANgerous to personnel. 6. A butyl rubber seal is
made from.
28. A 3/8 inch aircraft
high pressure flexible hose . 3. To install a Option A. silicon
compared to a 3/8 inch flareless coupling. rubber.
metal tubing used in the
same system will. Option A. turn until Option B. synthetic
torque is felt plus 3 flats rubber.
Option A. have (half turn).
equivalent flow Option C. latex natural
characteristics. Option B. hand tight rubber.
plus 2 flats.
Option B. have about Correct Answer is.
the same OD. Option C. turn until synthetic rubber.
torque is felt plus 2 flats.
Option C. usually have 7. What is the colour of
interchangeable Correct Answer is. turn an AN steel flared-tube
applications. until torque is felt plus 2 fitting?.
flats.
Correct Answer is. have Option A. Black.
equivalent flow .
characteristics. Option B. Red.
4. A Skydrol hydraulic
06b. Pipes and Unions. seal would be made Option C. Blue.
of.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. butyl rubber, Black.
1. How do you ethelene propylene or Teflon
assemble a banjo Phosphate Ester based. Explanation. Steel AN
hose?. fittings are black, aluminium
Option B. natural rubber AN fittings are blue.
Option A. Put a washer vegetable based.
on the outside of the banjo
only. Option C. synthetic
rubber mineral based. . 8. Which
Option B. Put a washer statement about Military
on the inside of the banjo Correct Answer is. butyl Standard (MS) flareless
only. rubber, ethelene propylene fittings is correct?.
or Teflon Phosphate Ester
Option C. Put washer based.
either side of the banjo. Option A. During
. installation, MS flareless
Correct Answer is. Put fittings are normally
washer either side of the 5. Adapter nipples are tightened by turning the nut
banjo. not required on. a specified amount after the
sleeve and fitting sealing
Option A. pipe to surface have made contact,
externally coned rather than being torqued.
2. A 0.5 in. diameter adapter.
pipe is to be joined using Option B. MS flareless
standard nuts and fittings. Option B. pipe to pipe fittings must be tightened to
What coupling would you coupling. a specific torque.
use?.
Option C. pipe to Option C. MS flareless
Option A. AN8-8852-1. internally coned fittings should not be
adapter. lubricated prior to
Option B. AN8-8852-2. assembly.
Correct Answer is. pipe
Option C. AN8-8852-8. to externally coned Correct Answer is. MS
adapter. flareless fittings must be
tightened to a specific Option A. Bending. Option A. can accept a
torque. OR During small amount of
installation, MS flareless Option B. misalignment.
fittings are normally Tension.
tightened by turning the nut Option B. are
a specified amount after the Option C. susceptible to brinelling.
sleeve and fitting sealing Compressive.
surface have made contact, Option C. are designed
rather than being Correct Answer is. to carry axial loads.
torqued. Bending.
Correct Answer is. are
Explanation. Spring hooks susceptible to brinelling.
are under bending stress.
9. A flexible sealing Explanation. NIL.
element subject to motion is
a.
3. Steel music wire
Option A. gasket. is. . 2. When rotating a
ball bearing by hand, a
Option B. Option A. used for lower regular click
packing. strength springs. indicates.

Option C. Option B. made of high Option A. a cracked


compound. carbon or nickel alloy. ring.

Correct Answer is. Option C. used for high Option B. damage to


packing. strength springs and as the balls.
progressive-rate
07. Springs. springs. Option C. intergranular
corrosion in the outer
1. Coil springs are Correct Answer is. used ring.
made from. for lower strength
springs. Correct Answer is. a
Option A. carbon or cracked ring.
alloy steels with high
working stress.
. 4. A spring should
Option B. low carbon be inspected for 3. A journal load
steels with high working correct. is.
stress.
Option A. length, Option A.
Option C. carbon or strength and compression.
high alloy steels with low squareness.
working stress. Option B. radial.
Option B. width,
Correct Answer is. strength and Option C. axial.
carbon or high alloy steels squareness.
Correct Answer is.
with low working stress.
Option C. width, length radial.
Explanation. Spring steel and strength.
Explanation. NIL.
is hardened (therefore high
carbon) steel or alloy steel Correct Answer is.
and work under low stress length, strength and
so they remain within the squareness.
4. What kind of bearing
elastic region. is used in a landing
system?.
08. Bearings.
Option A. Needle roller
. 2. What load are bearing.
spring hooks subjected
to?. . 1. Needle roller Option B. Tapered roller
bearings. bearing.
Option C. Caged ball Option C. radial and Option B. taper roller
bearing. thrust. bearing.

Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. radial Option C. spherical


Tapered roller and thrust. roller bearing.
bearing.
Explanation. Taper roller Correct Answer is.
bearings can take radial and spherical roller
thrust loads. BL/6-14 2.3.2. bearing.
5. Spherical roller
bearings resist what
loads?.
. 8. A Hardy Spicer 11. Where heat is likely
Option A. Large radial coupling has what type of to be transmitted through a
but no thrust. bearings?. bearing.

Option B. Large radial Option A. Ball Option A. group 2


and moderate thrust. Bearings. bearings are used.

Option C. Large thrust Option B. Needle Option B. group 4


and moderate radial. bearings. bearings are used.

Correct Answer is. Large Option C. Plain Option C. group 3


radial and moderate bearings. bearings are used.
thrust.
Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. group
Explanation. Radial' Needle bearings. 4 bearings are used.
means outward, 'thrust'
means axial. BL/6-14 2.3.3. Explanation. A hardy Explanation. Group 4
splicer is a universal bearings have the greatest
coupling as found on vehicle clearance.
drive shafts and they are
6. Where are needle fitted with needle bearings.
roller bearings
used?. 12. Shielded ball
bearings are inspected
Option A. High speed 9. A self aligning by.
operations. bearing is a.
Option A. running at
Option B. Where is fluid Option A. angular operating speed and
damped bearing used. bearing. listening for signs of wear.

Option C. Where there Option B. precision Option B. dismantling


are space restrictions. bearing. and inspecting.

Correct Answer is. Option C. radial Option C. rotating


Where there are space bearing. slowly by hand.
restrictions.
Correct Answer is. radial Correct Answer is.
Explanation. Needle roller bearing. rotating slowly by
bearings are used where hand.
there are space restrictions. Explanation. A self
aligning bearing is a radial Explanation. A feel test is
bearing. the most likely inspection.
The run test is not done at
7. Loads on tapered operating speed.
roller bearings are.
10. A crankshaft would
Option A. thrust only. be fitted with a.
13. Thrust bearings
Option B. radial only. Option A. cylindrical take.
roller bearing.
Option A. radial Option A. a spigoted fit. Correct Answer is.
loads. intergranular
Option B. an corrosion.
Option B. journal interference fit.
loads. Explanation. Intergranular
Option C. a push corrosion (on some
Option C. fit. stainless steels) looks like a
sideloads. thin line on the surface of
Correct Answer is. an the metal - known as water
Correct Answer is. interference fit. stain.
sideloads.

Explanation. Thrust
bearings take side loads. 17. Inspection of 20. Needle bearings
bearings is normally carried resist.
14. A single row ball out.
bearing is best suited to Option A. radial and
accepting. Option A. in situ. axial load.

Option A. radial loads Option B. when Option B. axial load


only. dismantled. only.

Option B. axial loads Option C. when Option C. radial load


only. removed from an only.
assembly.
Option C. axial and Correct Answer is. radial
radial Loads. Correct Answer is. in load only.
situ.
Correct Answer is. radial
loads only. Explanation. BL/6-14 6.2.
21. When silica gel has
Explanation. A single row absorbed moisture the
ball bearing carries radial colour changes
loads only BL/6-14 2. 18. Damage to the to.
shield of a bearing should
result in. Option A. pink.

15. Taper roller bearings Option A. no action. Option B. white.


are used for which of the
following Option B. replacement Option C. blue.
purposes?. of the shield.
Correct Answer is.
Option A. To transmit Option C. rejection of pink.
radial loads whilst resisting the bearing.
axial movement.
Correct Answer is.
Option B. To transmit rejection of the 22. A thrust bearing is
thrust loads with radial bearing. designed so that.
loads.
19. A watermark on a Option A. it transmits
Option C. To permit bearing indicates. radial loads, therefore
axial movement whilst limiting axial movement.
resisting radial load. Option A. bearing
running dry. Option B. it transmits
Correct Answer is. To axial loads, therefore
transmit thrust loads with Option B. intergranular limiting radial movement.
radial loads. corrosion.
Option C. it transmits
Option C. lack of axial loads, therefore
lubrication. limiting axial movement.
16. The stationary race
of a journal bearing is Correct Answer is. it
normally. transmits axial loads,
therefore limiting axial max formula to check Option A. Stops the
movement. extension. chain coming off if it goes
slack.
Correct Answer is. Apply
a load, measure chain and Option B. Protects
23. Lubrication of roller use 2% max formula to personnel when carrying out
bearings and needle check extension. maintenance.
bearings are.
Option C. Prevents
Option A. at low entry of foreign bodies.
pressure via a tube. 2. How do you store a
chain?. Correct Answer is. Stops
Option B. under the chain coming off if it
pressure. Option A. Oiled and goes slack.
coiled in greaseproof
Option C. by paper.
hand.
Option B. Lay uncoiled 5. Worm drives operate
Correct Answer is. by and flat in greaseproof in shafts which
hand. paper. are.

Explanation. But it Option C. Hanged so Option A. 90 degrees to


depends what type of they do not kink. each other and in a differing
lubricant is used and the plane.
bearing application. Correct Answer is. Oiled
and coiled in greaseproof Option B. 90 degrees to
paper. each other and in the same
plane.
24. Silica gel is used for
moisture control during Option C. parallel to
storage, when serviceable it . 3. Epicyclic gears each other and in the same
is coloured. are used on. plane.

Option A. blue. Option A. shafts rotating Correct Answer is. 90


on axis 90 degrees from degrees to each other and
Option B. white. each other. in a differing plane.
Option C. pink. Option B. shafts
rotating on the same
Correct Answer is. axis. . 6. The pattern of a
blue. gear is the.
Option C. shafts
09. Transmissions. rotating on offset axis. Option A. the path they
take when the gear is
Correct Answer is. shafts rotating.
rotating on the same
1. How do you check a axis. Option B. profile of the
chain for gear teeth.
elongation?. Explanation. A turboprop
reduction gearbox is a good Option C. mark it leaves
Option A. Apply a load, example of an epicyclic gear on a mating gear.
measure chain and use 5% system.
max formula to check Correct Answer is. mark
extension. it leaves on a mating
gear.
Option B. Apply a load, . 4. What is the
measure chain and use 2% purpose of the guard, where
max formula to check a control chain goes around
extension. a sprocket?. 7. How is the change in
direction of a control chain,
Option C. Hang the in two planes,
chain under its own weight, achieved?.
measure chain and use 2%
Option A. By using a Option C. pattern and Option B. Maintenance
pulley. profile. schedule.

Option B. By using bi- Correct Answer is. lash Option C. Maintenance


planer blocks. and pattern. manual.

Option C. By using Correct Answer is.


spring clips. Maintenance
11. The teeth on the schedule.
Correct Answer is. By smaller wheel of a bevel
using bi-planer blocks. gear are called Explanation. Time
the. intervals are only in the
Maintenance Schedule.
Option A. heel.
. 8. How is a non-
reversible chain different Option B. toe.
from a normal 15. A feather key locates
chain?. Option C. foot. a gear on a shaft and
permits.
Option A. By use of a Correct Answer is.
chain guard. toe. . Option A. positive drive
and axial movement.
Option B. Every second 12. The correct meshing
outer plate is extended in of gears is found by Option B. positive drive
one direction. observing the marks made with the gear firmly
during a gear mesh test. On locked.
Option C. Different end what part of the tooth should
fittings. the marks be?. Option C. a positive and
strong drive for
Correct Answer is. Every Option A. Top. transmissions.
second outer plate is
extended in one Option B. Correct Answer is.
direction. Bottom. positive drive and axial
movement.
Option C. Middle.
Explanation. A feather key
9. When not under load Correct Answer is. allows axial movement.
where should a pair of gears Middle.
sit?.
13. What type of
Option A. In the middle. gear would be used on a 16. A worm drive
propeller reduction creates.
Option B. On the gearbox?.
toe. Option A. a drive in 2
Option A. Split epicyclic. planes and transmits both
Option C. On the directions.
heel. Option B. Bevel.
Option B. a drive in 1
Correct Answer is. In the Option C. Epicyclic. plane but transmits both
middle. directions.
Correct Answer is.
Epicyclic. Option C. a drive in 2
planes but transmits 1
10. For a pair of gears to direction only.
operate properly, they must
have. 14. Where would you Correct Answer is. a
find the inspection interval drive in 2 planes but
Option A. lash and for chains?. transmits 1 direction
pattern. only.
Option A. Overhaul
Option B. end play and manual.
thrust.
17. The teeth of a gear 20. On bevel gear teeth, solution to this is
would normally the wear pattern should to.
be. be.
Option A. replace 3
Option A. nitrided. Option A. at the centre segment either side of the
of the tooth. deficiency.
Option B.
tempered. Option B. greatest at Option B. replace the
the heel, least at the toe. whole chain.
Option C. case
hardened. Option C. greatest at Option C. replace the
the toe, tapering off to the particular segment and run
Correct Answer is. case heel. components to check for
hardened. serviceability.
Correct Answer is. at the
Explanation. Hardening centre of the tooth. Correct Answer is.
right through the gear teeth replace the whole
would make them brittle and 21. Bevel gears chain.
tend to break. are.
Explanation. The chain
Option A. all over case cannot be repaired. It must
hardened. be replaced. Leaflet 5-4.
18. If a chain is removed
for routine Option B. heel is
maintenance. hardened.
24. The teeth of a gear
Option A. it must be Option C. toe is would normally
proof checked to full load. hardened. be.

Option B. it must be Correct Answer is. all Option A.


proof checked to max over case hardened. tempered.
load.
Explanation. Bevel gears Option B. case
Option C. it does not are all over case hardened. hardened.
have to be proof checked.
Option C. nitrided.
Correct Answer is. it
does not have to be proof Question Number. Correct Answer is. case
checked. 22. A chain is checked hardened.
for stiff links by.
Explanation. The teeth of
Option A. hanging by a gear are normally case
19. On gear teeth, the hand by measure and hardened by flame cooling
wear pattern should sight. and water spray quenching.
be.
Option B. stretching out
Option A. the middle of and measuring.
the tooth most worn. 25. Non-reversible
Option C. running the chains can.
Option B. even from top chain over a finger by 180
to bottom. degrees. Option A. only be
moved in one direction.
Option C. the top edge Correct Answer is.
most worn. running the chain over a Option B. only be fitted
finger by 180 degrees. in one direction.
Correct Answer is. the
middle of the tooth most Option C. not be fitted
worn. through pressure
. 23. During an bulkheads.
inspection interval one
segment of a long chain is Correct Answer is. only
found to be defective, the be fitted in one
direction.
29. Compared with the Option B. When you
spur gears, spiral gears can see daylight through the
26. The large diameter have. hole.
on a bevel gear is called
the. Option A. have Option C. When a wire
mechanical advantages. of the same diameter as the
Option A. foot. inspection hole can be
Option B. less stress passed through.
Option B. toe. concentration on gears.
Correct Answer is. When
Option C. heel. Option C. more wear a wire of the same diameter
resistance. as the inspection hole can
Correct Answer is. be passed through.
heel. Correct Answer is. less
stress concentration on
Explanation. The large gears.
diameter is the heel, the 2. How do you check a
small diameter is the toe. turnbuckle is in
safety?.
. 30. The clutch
which can overrun the Option A. Use the
. 27. How do you driving member, is known inspection hole or count the
check a chain for as. threads showing.
elongation?.
Option A. overload Option B. Ensure that
Option A. Lay flat on a clutches. the turnbuckle cannot be
table, apply tensile load and turned by hand.
measure. Option B. no-slip
clutches. Option C. Make sure no
Option B. Adjust the threads are showing at
end fittings. Option C. freewheel either end of the
clutches. turnbuckle.
Option C. Hang chain
up, check sight line and Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Use
measure. freewheel clutches. the inspection hole or count
the threads showing.
Correct Answer is. Lay
flat on a table, apply tensile . 3. British aircraft
load and measure. . 31. A gear system, cables are classified by
or gear train, is made up of their.
Explanation. CAAIPs gears that are.
Leaflet 5-4 para 6.3. Option A. breaking load
Option A. driven and in hundredweights.
. 28. Drive planes on driver.
an epicyclic gear Option B. breaking
are. Option B. idler. loads in lbf, where 1 lbf =
4.448N.
Option A. around a Option C. driven, driver
common axis of the plane. and idler. Option C. diameter and
breaking load in
Option B. at different Correct Answer is.
Hundredweights.
angles to the plane. driven, driver and idler.
Correct Answer is.
Option C. at right 10. Control Cables.
breaking load in
angles to the plane.
. 1. When is a hundredweights.
Correct Answer is. turnbuckle not in
4. Cables are preferred
around a common axis of safety?.
to other control systems
the plane.
Option A. When a small because.
diameter wire can be
passed through the
inspection hole.
Option A. single braid weight and adjust Option A. Diameter of
allows for 2 way turnbuckles equally. one wire multiplied by the
directions. number of wires.
Option C. use a cable
Option B. they are run with turnbuckles at least Option B. Overall
strong and light. every eight feet. diameter.

Option C. they maintain Correct Answer is. have Option C. Diameter of


slight mechanical advantage control surface locks in to one wire only.
over push/pull systems. support weight and adjust
turnbuckles equally. Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. they Overall diameter.
are strong and light. .

8. British turnbuckles
are checked for safety 11. 9 * 16 cable
. 5. Turnbuckles, by. is.
depending on type, are
locked by. Option A. attempting to Option A. 9 strands of
pass a hardened pin probe 16 wires.
Option A. stiffnuts. through the inspection
hole. Option B. 9 cables
Option B. locknuts and having 16 turns per inch.
wire. Option B. attempting to
pass locking wire through Option C. cable size
Option C. castleated the hole. 9/16 inch diameter.
nuts and splitpins.
Option C. looking Correct Answer is. 9
Correct Answer is. through the hole and strands of 16 wires.
locknuts and wire. checking for threads
showing.
6. Cable tension is
maintained by. Correct Answer is. 12. Turnbuckles are
attempting to pass a used to.
Option A. a hardened pin probe through
grommet. Option A. join the two
the inspection hole.
ends of the cable.
Option B. a cable 9. Turnbuckles are
tension regulator. Option B. adjust major
correctly fitted
tension on the cable.
when.
Option C. a
fairlead. Option C. adjust minor
Option A. both rods are
tension on the cable.
seen to touch in the
Correct Answer is. a
inspection hole. Correct Answer is. adjust
cable tension regulator.
minor tension on the
Option B. both rods
Explanation. A cable cable.
enter the barrel by the same
tension regulator maintains
amount.
cable tension.
Option C. the inspection 13. A turnbuckle is in
hole is blind or the required safety when.
7. To correctly tension number of threads are
cables it can help showing. Option A. the colour on
to. the threads is showing.
Correct Answer is. the
Option A. take up initial inspection hole is blind or Option B. it is
slack by additional the required number of lockwired.
pulleys. threads are showing.
Option C. the witness
Option B. have control 10. How is the hole is covered or the
surface locks in to support diameter of a cable amount of threads showing
measured?. at the cable end is in
accordance with the Option C. To alloy the Option B. the pulley is
Maintenance Manual. turnbuckle to be wire too large for the cable.
locked.
Correct Answer is. the Option C. the cable is
witness hole is covered or Correct Answer is. To misaligned.
the amount of threads check if correct amount of
showing at the cable end is cable has been inserted Correct Answer is. the
in accordance with the before swaging. cable is misaligned.
Maintenance Manual.
17. When checking the
safety of turnbuckles you
should use . 20. A 7x7 cable has
. 14. A turnbuckle what?. seven strands each
can be safetied of.
by. Option A. Visual
check. Option A. fourteen
Option A. teflon lock wires.
nuts. Option B. Wire the
same diameter as the Option B. seven
Option B. lock nuts and inspection hole. wires.
safety wirelocking.
Option C. Wire smaller Option C. one
Option C. doesn't than inspection hole. wire.
require to be safety
locked. Correct Answer is. Wire Correct Answer is. seven
the same diameter as the wires.
Correct Answer is. lock inspection hole.
nuts and safety 21. Cable stops are
wirelocking. manufactured from.

18. Cable minimum Option A. stainless


breakage strain for British steel.
. 15. Spring locking and American is measured
clips for turnbuckles can be by. Option B.
used on. copper.
Option A.
Option A. no flying hundredweight for British, Option C. magnesium
control cables. c.s.a. and pounds for alloy.
American.
Option B. all flying Correct Answer is.
control cables. Option B. copper.
hundredweight for British,
Option C. only on trim Explanation. AC43 7-148e
c.s.a. hundredweight for
control cables. P.7-33.
American.
Correct Answer is. all Option C. pounds for
flying control cables. both. . 22. Pulleys are
manufactured
Correct Answer is.
from.
hundredweight for British,
16. What is the small c.s.a. and pounds for
hole on a swaged Option A. brass and
American. phenolic resin.
turnbuckle for?.

Option A. To check for Option B. tungum and


moisture deposits. high tensile steel.
19. If a pulley shows
signs of wear on one Option C. stainless
Option B. To check if side.
correct amount of cable has steel and nylon.
been inserted before Option A. the cable is
swaging. Correct Answer is. brass
too tightly tensed. and phenolic resin.
Explanation. Phenolic Option B. maintain the
resin also known as Micarta necessary tension.
or Tufnol. . 25. Aircraft flying
control cables are normally Option C. relax the
classified by the. tension in cold conditions.

23. In a Teleflex flexible Option A. circumference Correct Answer is.


control system, the Teleflex of the cable and overall maintain the necessary
cable consists of. length. tension.

Option A. multi strand Option B. number of Explanation. Tension is


steel wires and is used strands it contains and the set up by adjustments of the
primarily as a single one number of wires in each turnbuckles and tension
way device operated from a strand. regulators keep tension the
control lever. same over varying
Option C. minimum opperating temperatures.
Option B. a high tensile breaking load or the
steel wire with a right or left diameter in inches.
hand helix wire wound on to
it. The system can operate Correct Answer is. . 28. What is the
in two directions. minimum breaking load or smallest size cable that may
the diameter in inches. be used in aircraft primary
Option C. a flexible control
seven or nineteen strand Explanation. British cables systems?.
steel cable used for the are classified by the
operation of manual flying minimum breaking load - Option A. 5/16 inch.
controls. American cables by
diameter (only). Option B. 1/4
Correct Answer is. a high inch.
tensile steel wire with a right
or left hand helix wire Option C. 1/8
wound on to it. The system 26. 7 * 7 cable has inch.
can operate in two seven stranded wires each
directions. with. Correct Answer is. 1/8
inch.
Option A. 7
wires. Explanation. CFR 23.689.
24. A cable tension
regulator will be installed in Option B. 14 29. How are changes in
a flying control system wires. direction of a control cable
to. accomplished?.
Option C. 49
Option A. automatically wires. Option A. Bellcranks.
compensate for low cable
Correct Answer is. 7 Option B.
tension caused by worn
wires. Fairleads.
cables.
Explanation. 7 strands Option C.
Option B. compensate
make 1 wire. 7 Wires make Pulleys.
for rapid movement of the
controls by taking up the 1 cable.
Correct Answer is.
slack. Pulleys.
Option C. allow for
27. Tension regulators
variations in temperature
on aeroplanes with fully
which will vary the cable 30. A flight control cable
metal bodies are used
tension. is replaced if.
to.
Correct Answer is. allow Option A. single wires
Option A. set up the
for variations in temperature are blended together.
necessary tension.
which will vary the cable
tension.
Option B. the protective Option A. same 6. Plug pins are
fluid coating is thickness as airframe numbered.
missing. cable.
Option A. from the
Option C. a wire is 20% Option B. thicker than outside in - clockwise.
worn. airframe cable.
Option B. from the
Correct Answer is. single Option C. thinner than inside out - clockwise.
wires are blended airframe cable.
together. Option C. from the
Correct Answer is. inside out - anticlockwise.
thinner than airframe
cable. Correct Answer is. from
11. Electrical Cables and the inside out -
Connectors. clockwise.

4. Why is the ground


side of an electrical power
1. A 14 gauge cable conductor usually 7. Equipment
when compared to an 18 connected to a male wire.
gauge cable has. connector?.
Option A. is flexible and
Option A. the same Option A. To make suitable for soldering.
current rating. installation of the connector
easier. Option B. can be used
Option B. higher current for interconnect wiring.
rating. Option B. To reduce the
chance of an accidental Option C. has thicker
Option C. lower current short. insulation than interconnect
rating. wire.
Option C. To reduce the
Correct Answer is. higher chance of corrosion Correct Answer is. is
current rating. affecting the pins. flexible and suitable for
soldering.
Explanation. A 14 gauge Correct Answer is. To
cable is thicker than an 18 reduce the chance of an
gauge cable. accidental short.
8. In the wiring code
2. In a front release 5. Maximum shown, what does the
connector, the pin will temperature of tin coated number 6 (4th number from
be. copper cable is. the left) represent?
1EF6B22 NMS V.
Option A. released from Option A. 200
the front and extracted from C. Option A. Cable
the rear. number.
Option B. 260
Option B. released from C. Option B. Circuit
rear and extracted from the function.
front. Option C. 105
C. Option C. Cable
Option C. released from size.
the front and extracted from Correct Answer is. 105
the front. C. Correct Answer is. Cable
number.
Correct Answer is. Explanation. Normally
released from the front and 130 C. This figure of 105
extracted from the rear. C is for old obsolete
cables. . 9. An aluminium
oxide layer on a conductor
will do what when the
. 3. An interconnect temperature is
cable has what increased?.
insulation?.
Option A. Remain the Option C. Wet arc Option C. it has less
same. tracking. resistance.

Option B. Become Correct Answer is. Wet Correct Answer is. there
thicker. arc tracking. is an electrostatic field
around it which helps to
Option C. Become reduce the electromagnetic
thinner. field.
13. What is the effect of
Correct Answer is. aluminium oxide on Explanation. The shielding
Become thicker. aluminium electrical in a coaxial cable converts
cable?. the electromagnetic field
Explanation. Oxides of into electrical energy.
metals always become Option A.
thicker with elevated Insulates.
temperatures.
Option B. Reduces 16. What is the danger if
resistance. a silver coated connector
comes into contact with
Option C. Provides glycol de icing fluid.
strength.
10. What is a coaxial Option A. Fire
cable?. Correct Answer is. hazard.
Insulates.
Option A. A single Option B.
conductor. Explanation. All metal Corrosion.
oxides are insulators.
Option B. Two or more Option C. Wet arc
conductors. tracking.
Option C. A twisted pair . 14. What Correct Answer is. Fire
of conductors. amperage is an 18 swg hazard.
cable?.
Correct Answer is. Two Explanation. Silver coated
or more conductors. Option A. 1 amp. connectors and glycol
deicing fluid is a fire hazard.
Option B. 10 CAAIPs.
amp.
11. 'X' on an electrical
cable indicates. Option C. 5 amp.
17. When silver coated
Option A. emergency Correct Answer is. 10 connectors are used in
power. amp. unpressurised parts of the
aircraft.
Option B. AC power. Explanation. 18 swg is a
10 amp cable. Option A. wet track
Option C. control
arcing can occur.
system.
Option B. separation of
Correct Answer is. AC 15. A co-axial cable is
the coating can occur.
power. better than a normal cable
because. Option C. corrosion can
Explanation. X' indicates
occur.
AC power. Option A. there is an
electrostatic field around it Correct Answer is.
12. What must you be which helps to reduce the corrosion can occur.
careful with a hot stamped electromagnetic field.
cable?. .
Option B. weight for
Option A. Corrosion. weight it can carry more 18. The conductor in
signal. Tersil cable is.
Option B. Peeling of the
insulation.
Option A. stainless weight (CSA = cross Explanation. Any metal
steel. sectional area). oxide is an insulator. Leaflet
11-5.
Option B. nickel plated
copper. 24. On a rear insert plug
21. Silver plated copper the tool is used
Option C. tinned wire has a maximum to.
copper. working temp of.
Option A. insert the pins
Correct Answer is. nickel Option A. 250 from the front and extracted
plated copper. C. from the rear.

Explanation. The Option B. 300 Option B. insert the pins


conductor in tersil cable is C. from the rear and extract
nickel plated copper. Pallett from the front.
Aircraft Electrical Systems Option C. 200
Page 83. C. Option C. insert the
pins from the rear and
Correct Answer is. 200 extract from the rear.
C.
19. A cable is marked Correct Answer is. insert
NYVIN 22. The 22 the pins from the rear and
represents extract from the rear.
the. 22. For an electrical
cable to be fireproof it must Explanation. All electrical
Option A. current/weight be able to stand 1100 C pins are inserted from the
ratio. for. rear. The difference is how
they are removed.
Option B. cross Option A. 20
sectional area. mins.

Option C. current Option B. 10 25. Nickel coated cables


rating. mins. temperature range
is.
Correct Answer is. cross Option C. 15
sectional area. mins. Option A. 200 to 250
C.
Explanation. The 22 Correct Answer is. 15
represents the cross mins. Option B. 150 to 200
sectional area. EEL/9-3 2. C.
Explanation. Fireproof -15
minutes, fire resistant -5 Option C. 100 to 150
minutes. Leaflet 11-5 5.5. C.
20. Copper is an inferior
conductor to aluminium Correct Answer is. 200 to
when 250 C.
comparing.
Explanation. Tin coated
Option A. weight for 23. Oxide on exposed copper -135 C. Silver
weight. silver plated wires coated copper -200 C.
is. Nickel coated copper -260
Option B. CSA with C. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5
CSA. Option A. non
Para.7.2.
corrosive.
Option C. load for load.
Option B. a
Correct Answer is. conductor.
weight for weight.
Option C. an 26. Aluminium wiring
Explanation. Aluminium is insulator. when flexed will.
better than copper when
you compare weight to Correct Answer is. an
insulator.
Option A. have a higher 29. Interference in Option B.
resistance. ribbon cables can be Increase.
prevented by.
Option B. have no Option C. Stay the
effect. Option A. the use of a same.
common earth return
Option C. work harden between signal wires in the Correct Answer is.
and embrittle. cable. Decrease.

Correct Answer is. work Option B. grounding


harden and embrittle. alternate wires so that
signal wires are never 32. The cross sectional
Explanation. Flexing adjacent. area of a copper crimp
aluminium wire will work barrel is.
harden it. CAAIPs Leaflet 9- Option C. using
3. alternate return wires so Option A. larger than an
that the cable differences aluminium one.
cancel each other out.
Option B. smaller than
27. A foot operated Correct Answer is. an aluminium one.
hydraulic swaging tools is grounding alternate wires so
checked for fluid that signal wires are never Option C. same as an
level. adjacent. aluminium one.

Option A. vertically. Explanation. An 80 wire Correct Answer is.


ribbon cable, 40 of them will smaller than an aluminium
Option B. horizontally. be grounded to the metal one.
connector at each end. The
Option C. only when
connector will be 40 pin.
operating pressure is
reached. . 33. Electrical cable
on aircraft is mainly made
Correct Answer is. 30. H.T. leads from copper
horizontally. are. because.

Explanation. NIL. Option A. multi-strand, Option A. it offers low


single-core, screened. resistance to current
flow.
Option B. single-strand,
28. On a hydraulic Option B. it more
single-core, screened.
swaging tool, the swage is malleable.
formed when. Option C. multi-strand,
multi-core, screened. Option C. it does not
Option A. the bypass oxidise.
valve closes and ram is Correct Answer is. multi-
neutrally loaded. strand, single-core, Correct Answer is. it
screened. offers low resistance to
Option B. the bypass current flow.
valve opens and ram is Explanation. Most HT
neutrally loaded. leads are multi-strand single
core.
Option C. swage . 34. When crimping,
pressure is reached on the what chapter in the ATA
gauge. system should you refer
31. If the cross sectional to?.
Correct Answer is. the area of a cable is increased,
bypass valve opens and what will happen to the Option A. 20.
ram is neutrally loaded. voltage drop?.
Option B. 24.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 Option A.
Para.7.5.7 e (iii). Option C. 12.
Decrease.
Correct Answer is. Option C. 30 Option C.
20. minutes. halved.

Explanation. Chapter 20 is Correct Answer is. 5 Correct Answer is.


'Standard Practices'. minutes. multiplied by the 'K' factor.

. 35. Interconnect 38. When silver coated 41. Which of the


cables. connectors are used in following types of electrical
unpressurised parts of the wire is likely to be used for
Option A. employ aircraft. connection of thermo-
thinner insulation than couples around the jet-pipe
airframe types. Option A. wet track of a turbine
arcing can occur. engine?.
Option B. are used for
equipment wire in the Option B. red plague Option A. Nyvin.
unified system. can occur.
Option B. Tersil.
Option C. are the cable Option C. separation of
through the MEC to the the coating can occur. Option C. Fepsil.
engine.
Correct Answer is. red Correct Answer is.
Correct Answer is. plague can occur. Fepsil.
employ thinner insulation
than airframe types.

36. The first step for the 39. Knuckling is a 42. The main reason
coaxial cable to attach to problem on earlier aircraft why crimped joints are
the end fitting is. cables due to. preferable to soldered joints
is.
Option A. use a tooling Option A. hot stamping
hold between the assembly of cables. Option A. the quality of
and cable. crimped joints will be
Option B. too much flux. constant.
Option B. the outer
covering is cut back to Option C. wires being Option B. no flux is
expose the braided outer pulled through too hard. needed.
conductors.
Correct Answer is. wires Option C. there is no
Option C. back-off the being pulled through too heat required.
insulator and connect with hard.
conductor. Correct Answer is. there
is no heat required.
Correct Answer is. the
outer covering is cut back to
expose the braided outer
. 40. Cable current 43. In the cable
conductors.
ratings are based on a identification '2 P 215 A 28
conductor temperature rise N' the position of the letter P
of 40 C and if the indicates.
37. A fire resistant cable maximum design ambient
must maintain adequate temperature is continuously Option A. that it is a
insulation in a fire exceeded they should Pneumatics system cable.
for. be.
Option B. the circuit
Option A. 10 Option A. multiplied by function.
minutes. the 'K' factor.
Option C. which
Option B. 5 Option B. divide by the segment the cable is
minutes. 'K' factor. in.
Correct Answer is. the prevents HIRF Option B. Mechanical
circuit function. interference. strength, allowable power
loss, resistance of current
Correct Answer is. as the return path through the
fields due to current flow in aircraft structure,
44. Crimping terminals the inner and outer cancel permissible voltage drop.
are colour coded. The each other out.
colour indicates. Option C. Allowable
power loss, resistance of
Option A. the type of current return path through
crimping tool to be used . 47. Direct removal the aircraft structure, current
only. connector pins are fitted carrying capability of the
from the rear. conductor, type of load
Option B. the wire size (continuous or
to be used with that crimp Option A. are fitted from intermittent).
only. the front but removed from
the rear. Correct Answer is.
Option C. both the Mechanical strength,
crimping tool and the size of Option B. and removed allowable power loss,
the wire to be used. from the rear. resistance of current return
path through the aircraft
Correct Answer is. both Option C. and removed
structure, permissible
the crimping tool and the from the front.
voltage drop. OR Allowable
size of the wire to be
Correct Answer is. and power loss, permissible
used.
removed from the rear. voltage drop, current
carrying capability of the
conductor, type of load
45. A 14 SWG electrical (continuous or
cable when compared to a 48. When installing intermittent).
18 SWG cable can coaxial cable, it should be
carry. secured along its entire
length.
Option A. less 50. How should splices
current. Option A. at 2-foot be arranged if several are to
intervals. be located in an electrical
Option B. the same wire bundle?.
current. Option B. at 1-foot
intervals. Option A. Enclosed in a
Option C. more conduit.
current. Option C. wherever the
cable sags. Option B. Grouped
Correct Answer is. more together to facilitate
current. Correct Answer is. at 2- inspection.
foot intervals.
Option C. Staggered
along the length of the
46. Co-axial cables are cable.
used. . 49. Which of the
following factors must be Correct Answer is.
Option A. as they are taken into account when Staggered along the length
able to handle high determining the wire size to of the cable.
current. use for an aircraft
installation?.
Option B. as the fields
due to current flow in the Option A. Allowable 51. When approved,
inner and outer cancel each power loss, permissible splices may be used to
other out. voltage drop, current repair manufactured
carrying capability of the harnesses of installed
Option C. as they conductor, type of load wiring. The maximum
produce an electrostatic (continuous or number of splices permitted
field around them which intermittent).
between any two Option C. current- Option B. combined
connectors is. carrying capacity and resistance and current-
allowable voltage carrying capacity.
Option A. two. drop.
Option C. current-
Option B. one. Correct Answer is. carrying capacity.
current-carrying capacity
Option C. three. and allowable voltage Correct Answer is. cross
drop. sectional area.
Correct Answer is.
one. . 55. How does the 58. Where electrical
routing of coaxial cables cables pass through holes
differ from the routing of in bulkheads, formers, ribs,
electrical firewalls etc., the wires
52. The most common should be protected from
wires?.
method of attaching a pin or chafing by.
socket to an individual wire Option A. Coaxial
in an MS electrical cables are routed at right Option A. wrapping with
connector is by. angles to stringers and electrical tape.
ribs.
Option A. Option B. wrapping with
crimping. Option B. Coaxial plastic.
cables are routed as directly
Option B. Option C. using a
as possible.
soldering. suitable grommet.
Option C. Coaxial
Option C. crimping and Correct Answer is. using
cables are routed parallel
soldering. a suitable grommet.
with stringers and ribs.
Correct Answer is. 12.
Correct Answer is.
crimping.
Coaxial cables are routed
as directly as possible. 1. When carbon is fully
dissolved in iron and
.56. The socket section therefore uniformly
53. The pin section of an distributed in solid solution,
AN/MS connector is of an AN/MS connector is
normally installed the metallurgical structure is
normally installed called.
on. on.

Option A. the power Option A. Ferrite.


Option A. the power
supply side of the circuit. supply side of the circuit.
Option B.
Option B. the ground Austenite.
Option B. either side of
a circuit (makes no side of the circuit.
Option C.
difference). Pearlite.
Option C. either side of
Option C. the ground a circuit (makes no
difference). Correct Answer is.
side of the circuit. Austenite.
Correct Answer is. the Correct Answer is. the
ground side of the circuit. power supply side of the
circuit.
2. When one carbon
54. The primary atom chemically combines
considerations when 57. In the American Wire
Gauge (AWG) system of with 3 iron atoms, the result
selecting electric cable size is called.
are. numbers used to designate
electrical wire sizes, the
Option A.
Option A. the voltage number assigned to a size
Martensite.
and amperage of the load it is related to its.
must carry. Option B.
Option A. cross
Pearlite.
Option B. the system sectional area.
voltage and cable length.
Option C. Cementite or Correct Answer is. Option C. strong but too
Iron Carbide. 0.83%. and hard and brittle.

Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.


Cementite or Iron strong without being
Carbide. 6.The properties of ferritic brittle.
metal are that it is
. both.
9. When heating a
3. Cementite laminated Option A. strong without straight carbon steel, there
with ferrite in alternate being brittle. is a hesitation (slight pause)
layers in the temperature rise
produces. Option B. strong but too
before it increases a further
hard and brittle.
200oC. This hesitation is
Option A. Ferrite/Iron.
Option C. soft and known as the.
Option B. weak.
Option A. Lower Critical
Pearlite.
Correct Answer is. soft Point.
Option C. and weak.
Option B. Upper Critical
Martensite.
Explanation. NIL. Point.
Correct Answer is.
Option C. Eutectic
Pearlite.
Point.
4. Pearlite combines 7. The properties of
cementite metal are that it is Correct Answer is. Lower
the properties of.
both. Critical Point.
Option A. martensite
Option A. soft and 10. Referring to a
and iron carbide.
weak. iron/carbon phase diagram,
Option B. cementite when talking about U.C.P
and Martensite. Option B. strong but too and L.C.P, the point where
hard and brittle. the two meet is known as
Option C. ferrite and the.
cementite. Option C. strong
without being brittle. Option A. eutectic point.
Correct Answer is. ferrite
and cementite. Correct Answer is. strong Option B. hesitation
but too hard and point.
5. The amount of brittle.
carbon necessary to Option C. point of no
produce a totally pearlitic 8. The properties of return.
structure is. pearlitic metal are that it is
both. Correct Answer is.
Option A. 1.0%. eutectic point.
Option A. soft and
Option B. 0.83%. weak.

Option C. 1.83%. Option B. strong without


being brittle.

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