Tripti Agrawal Classes

[Head Office : 105, Zone - II, M.P.Nagar, Bhopal, Ph.: 0755- 4064999,8818883926]
INDIAN NATIONAL JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD
PHYSICS
Unit & Dimension, Error (Time is plotted along the horizontal axis in all class)
1. Which one of the following expressions has the same
units as power ?
(1) Force x distance (2) Work x time
(3) Force x acceleration (4) Force x velocity
2. If length is increased by 20% and width is decrease
by 20 % then, which of the following is correct :
Perimeter Area
(1) Cannot say increases by 4 %
(2) Increases by 4 % Cannot say
(3) Increases by 4 % Decreases by 4 %
(4) Cannot say Decreases by 4 %
3. force (F), velocity (v), time (T) and temperature ( )
are chosen and fundamental quantities. Obtain
dimensions of specific latent heat. (1) A (2) B
(1) [v 2 1] (2) [v 2] (3) C (4) D
(3) [FvT-1 1] (4) [FvT1] 7. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Ignore air
Motion in straigh line resistance. Take the upward motion as positive.
4. A ball is dropped from a height h on a floor and suffers Which one of the following graphs represents the
multiple perfectly elastic bounces. The velocity vs t velocity of the ball as a function of time? (Time is
graph is as shown. Here time T depicts the time plotted along the horizontal axis in all cases)
required to complete one cycle.

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
8. A graph given, shows the variation of velocity and
time of two bodies A and B. Choose an alternative
for their average velocities.

5. A ball of mass 10 kg, moving at 50 ms1 in N-E direction

is forced to move at10ms1 in S-E direction in 10 sec
by an application of a constant force. Find the force
vector (magnitude and angle with respect to east). (1) Average velocities of both are same since they
6. Which of the given velocity : time graphs have same initial and final velocities

Match the given acceleration : time graph which you (2) Average velocities of both are same since both
see at the right ? vover equal distance in equal interval of time
(3) Average velocity of A is greater than that of B
(1)
 since it covers more distance than B in 10 sec.
(4) Nothing can be said since their accelerations are
not given
9. Two identical balls are released simultaneously from
on equal heights h. Ball A is thrown horizontally with
velocity v and the ball B is just released. Choose the
alternative that best represents the motion of A and
B respect to an observer whose moves with velocity
v/2 with respect to the ground as shown in the figure.
10. A tortoise is crawling eastward with velocity 3 km/
hr and a lazy rabbit is stravelling southward with
velocity 1km/hr. With the help of a Diagram, find the
magnitude and direction of the velocity of the tortoise
as observed by the rabbit. Show your working clearly.
11. Velocity time graph of four athletes for a given interval
of time are as given below. Who has travelled maximum
distance ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
12. There are two tracks A and B as shown in the figure.
(2)
The direction of gravity is also shown in the figure.
If two similar balls begin to move at same uniform
velocity at the same time which of the two balls will
reach the end of the track faster?
(1) Ball on track A
(2) Ball on track B
(3) They will reach on the same time
(4) Cannot decide by the data given
13. A bus leaves a stop and accelerates at a constant
rate for 5.0 seconds. During this time the bus travels
25 meters. After this the bus travels at a constant
speed for 15 seconds. Then the driver notices a red
light 18 meters ahead and applies brakes with
acceleration ab Assume that the bus decelerates at
a constant rate and comes to a stop sometime later
just at the light.
i. What was the initial acceleration of the bus
ii. What was the velocity of the bus after 5 seconds
iii. Calculate ab
iv. How long did does the bus brake
14. Two athletes usha and shiney are playing athletic
games. Usha is running at a constatn velocity
towards shiney who is sationary.When Usha is 12
met ers away f rom Shiney, Shi ney starts to
accelerate at a constant rate of 1.5 ms2.
(1) What is the minimum velocity with which Usha
needs to run in order to just catch up with
Shiney ?
(2) How long does Usha take to catch up with
Shiney
15. Three observers A,B, and C measure te speed of light
in vacuum from a source to be V A, VB and V C
respectively. The observer A moves towards the source
and observer C moves away from the source at the
same speed. the observer B stays stationary. Consider
the following expressions.
I. VA > VB > VC
II. VA = VB = VC
III. VB > (VA + VC )/2
IV. VB = V AVC
The correct expressions are :
(1) I only (2) I and III only
(3) I, and IV only (4) II, III, and IV only
16. A 100 m sprinter increases her speed from rest
uniformly at the rate of 1 m/s2 upto 40 m and covers
the remaining distance with uniform speed. The sprinter
covers the first half of the run in t1 s and the second
half in t2 s, Then:
 (1) t1 > t2 (2) t1 < t2 22. In a very heavy lorry moving on the road with slightly
(3) t1 = t2 flattened tyres.
(4) information given is incomplete. (1) Only rolling friction is involved
17. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 1.7 m/s. A girl (2) Both rolling and kinetic friction are involved
is walking with speed of 1.0 m/s in the NE
(north-east) direction. To shield herself she holds her (3) Only kinetic friction is involved
umbrella making an approximate angle with the (4) The type of friction depends on the speed of the
vertical in a certain direction. Then: lorry.
(1) = 60 in N - E direction. 23. A block of mass 5 kg is to be dragged along a rough
(2) = 30 in N - E direction. horizontal surface having s = 0.5 and k = 0.3.
The horizontal force applied for dragging it is 20 N.
(3) = 60 in S - W direction. Acceleration of the block in m/s2 and frictional force
(4) = 30 in S - W,direction. acting on the block in N are respectively :

18. A vehicle is moving on a road. Ink drops are falling, (1) 0, 20 (2) 30,15
one at a time, on the road from the vehicle. After the (3) 30,25 (4) 0, 154
vehicle has moved away, what one observes is shown
Work Power Energy
(qualitatively) in the figure given below. From the figure
we can conclude about the vehicle to be moving 24. A load is to be moved using a wheelbarrow. The total
mass of the load and wheelbarrow is 60 kg. The
magnitude of gravitational acceleration is 10 ms2.
What is the work done if the handle is raised by
50 cm ?

(1) from left to right with increasing speed

(2) from left to right with decreasing speed
(3) from right to left with increasing speed
(4) from right to lef t with decreasing speed
Newtons law
19. A monkey is holding onto one end of a light rope which
passes over a frictionless pulley and at the other end
there is a plane mirror which has a mass equal to the
mass of the monkey. At equilibrium the monkey is able
to see her image in the mirror. Consider three situations: (1) 35 .0 J (2) 17.5 J
I. The monkey climbs up the rope. (3) 175 J (4) 350 J
II. The monkey tries to push the rope down. 25. The diagram shown a lift system in which the elevator
III. The monkey lets go of the rope. (mass m1) is partly counterbalanced by a heavy
weight (mass m2)
Under which of the above conditions does the monkey
continue to see her image?
(1) I only. (2) II only.
(3) III only. (4) I, II and III.
20. A force F varies with time according to F = 4 +12t,
where F is in newton and t in seconds. Teh force
acts on a block of mass m = 2.00kg, which is initially
at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. F makes
an angle of 300 with the horizontal. When will the
force lift the body from the surface ? What will the
velocity of the body be at that instant ?
21. Had newton and einstein shaken their hands, which
fundamental force they would have exerted on each At what rate does the motor provide energy to the
other (During shaking their hands) system when the elevator is rising at a steady speed
v?
(1) Frictional (2) Electromagnetic
(3) Gravitational (4) Mechanical (1) (m1 + m2)gv (2) (m1 + m2)gv

Friction (3) (m1m2)gv (m1 + m2) (4) (m1 m2)gv

26. A trolley runs from point P to Q along a track, as

(3)
 shown in the figure. at point Q, its potential energy
is 50 kJ less than at point P. At point P, the trolley
has kinetic energy 5 kJ. Between P and Q, the work
done against friction is 10 kJ. What is the kinetic
energy at point Q ?
bounces of the wall with same initial and final speed,
but stays in contact with the wall for only 0.125 sec.
What is the maximum force exerted by the wall on
this ball ?

(1) 35 kJ (2) 45 kJ
32. Two identical balls (1 and 2) collide on a frictionless
(3) 55 kJ (4) 65 kJ
surface. Collision may or may not be elastic. Which
27. In a housing society, a water pump of efficiency 80 of the views physically impossible situation.
% is used to lift water upto the overhead tank. It lifts
3600 kg water in 10 minutes. The pump is run on
an electric motor having efficiency 75 %. Calculate
horse power of the motor. Water tank is 30 m above
the basement tank level.
(1) 4 HP (2) 240 HP
(3) 3.2 HP (4) 2.4 HP
28. In a specially designed device, force varies linearly
from zero to a max. value of 10 N, over a distance
of 8m. The force remains constant for next 4 m and
then reduces linearly to zero over another distance
of 2m. Draw a F vs. x (distance) graph and hence
calculate work done by the force over this distance
of 2m. Use the attached graph sheet at the end of
the answer booklet. 33. A steel ball is dropped from a height of 1 m on to a
horizontal non-conducting surface. Every time it
29. In a specially designed device, force varies linearly bounces, it reaches 80% of its previous height. Nearly
from zero to a max. value of 10 N, over a distance of by how much will the temperature of the ball rise after
8m. The force remains constant for next 4m and then 4 bounces? Specific heat capacity of the ball
reduces linearly to zero over another distance of 2m. (steel) =0.1 cal/g-C. Neglect loss in heat to the
Draw a F vs. x (distance) graph and hence calculate surroundings and the floor.
work dime by the force over this distance of 2m. Use
the attached graph sheet at the end of the answer (1) 0.014 C (2) 0.059 C
booklet. (3) 0.59C (4)1.4C
30. In a housing society, a water pump of efficiency 80 % 34. A 2. 00 kg ball and a 1.00 kg ball collide with each
is used to lift water upto the overhead tank. It lifts 3600 other. The data from their collision is shown on the
kg water in 10 minutes. The pump is run on an electric table given below :
motor having efficiency 75 %. Calculate horse power
of the motor. Water tank is 30 m above the basement
tank level.
(1) 4 HP (2) 240 HP
(3) 3.2 HP (4) 2.4 HP
Collision
31. A ball of mass 0.250 kg moves on frictionless Here Px and Py and x any y components respectively
horizontal floor and hits a vertical wall with speed of linear momentum. The angle between the balls after
5.0m/sec. The ball rebounds with speed 40 m/sec. collision is :
If the ball was in contact with the wall for 0.150 sec,
find the average force that acted on the ball. If the (1) 1500 (2) 1200
force is assumed to very with time as shown in the (3) 900 (4) 600
figure, deduce the maximum force that acted on the
35. A ball is released from rest above a horizontal surface.
ball.
The graph shows the variation with time of its velocity
A second harer ball of identical mass to the first also (not to scale) The scale on this graph is change at
(4)
 every impact. AB,C,D and E represent areas. Which
of the following are correct? (3) 7 g (4) 2.7 m

40. Two solid cylinders 1 and 2 mass M1 > M2 and radius

R1 > R2) roll down from the rest on an inclined plane
such that there is no loss of energy due to friction.
Which of the spheres will reach at the bottom first :
(1) Cylinder 1 (2) Cylinder 2
(3) Cylinder with greater moment of inertia
(4) Both will reach at same time]
41. A rod rests on a friction less surface. Two forces each
(1) A = B & B = C (2) A = C & C = E of magnitude F are applied in the opposite direction
on the edges of the rod as shown in the figure below.
(3) B = C & D = E (4) all of the above
Which of the following quantities are non- zero and
36. Momentum of a ball is changed to 3 times its initial constant :
value by an application of a force causing it to deflect (i) angular momentum (ii) angular acceleration
by 90. Calculate the angle between the direction of (iii) Total force (iv) total torque
force and the initial momentum.
(v) total linear momentum (vi) total kinetic energy
Rotation
(vii) moment of inertia
37. Let there be a rigid wheel rolling withoutsliding on a
(viii) translation kinetic energy
horizontal surface.

(1) i, iii, iii, v, vi (2) ii, iv and vii

The path of point A as seen by an observer on the (3) ii, iii, iv, vii, viii (4) i, iii, v, vi, viii
ground, when the wheel is moving along x axis :
Gravitational
42. If Me is mass of earth and Re is the radius of Earth
acceleration due to gravity, g (= 9.8 m/s2) is given
by the equation g = GMe/Re2. Now, if R is the radius
of a star of mamm M, which of the following four
gives the correct equation for the escape velocity
from the star such that it is equal to the speed of light
c?

2GM 2GM
(1) R2 = 2 (2) R =
c c

2GM 2GM
(3) R 2 (4) R =
38. A space station is made to spin about an axis such c c2
that the astronauts inside feel their normal weight W
against the outermost wall. When they are at a level at 43. A satellite orbits the earth in a circle of radius 8000
half the distance from the axis of rotation as the km. At that distance from the earth, g = 6.2 m/s2.
outermost wall, they will feel the weight as The velocity of the satellite is :
(1) W (2) W (1) 0.90 km/s (2) 8.9 km/s
(3) W (4) 4W (3) 7.0 km/s
39. Four masses are located as shown in the figure. (4) impossible to find without knowing the satellites
Acceleration due to gravity is same everywhere. mass
What is the position of centre of gravity for the
44. Astronomers have discovered a planet orbiting a
system ?
nearby star. It is estimated that the mass of this planet
is 16 times that of our earth and its density is one-
fourth of the earths density. Assume that planets are
spheres of uniform density. If your weight on the earth
is 1000 N, then your weight on this planet would be
(1) 2m (2) 2.5 m (1) 5000 N (2) 1000 N
(5) (3) 2000N (4) 4000 N
SHM
45. A pendulum moves back and forth under the
influence of gravity from x = -A to + A with time
period T, as shown in figure. At time t = 0, it is at x
= + A ; when T = 0.75T, then,

(1) i, ii, and iv (2) only ii

(1) it is at x = 0 and travelling towards x = + A
(3) only iii (4) ii and iii
(2) it is at x = 0 and travelling towards x = -A 49. A ripple is created in water. The amplitude at a distance
(3) it is at x = + A and is at rest of 5 cm from the point where the ripple was created is
(4) it is between x - 0 and + A and is travelling 4 cm. Ignoring damping, what will be the amplitude at
the distance of 10 cm.
towards x = - A
Waves (1) (16) cm (2) (8) cm
46. The natural voices of men, women and children are
different and can be distinguished. A student makes (3) ( 4) cm (4) ( 2) cm
three hypotheses
50. A cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) is a device which
I. The amplitudes of sounds emitted by them are converts electrical signals into an active graphical
different. representation on a fluorescent screen. The x axis is
II. The vocal cords are of different sizes. always time axis, where the 1 cm is equal to a preset
III.The vocal cords vibrate with different frequencies. time scale called time base. A sound wave is displayed
on the screen of a cathode-ray oscilloscope. The time
The correct option is base of the CRO is set at 2.5 ms / cm.
(1) I only, (2) II only.
(3) III only. (4) I and III only.
47. On a hot, dry summer day a boy is standing between
plane parallel vertical cliffs separated by 75 m. He is
30 m away from one of the cliffs. Consider speed of
sound in air on that hot day to be 360 m/s. The boy
claps loudly and hears its successive echoes. The
time in seconds at which he hears the first four echoes
are respectively:

1 1 5 5 1 1 7 2 What is the frequency of the sound wave?

(1) , , , (2) , , ,
6 4 12 12 6 4 12 3 (1) 50 (2) 100 (3) 200 Hz (4) 400 Hz

1 1 5 2 1 1 1 5 Fluid
(3) , , , (4) , , ,
4 3 12 3 6 4 3 12 51. The atmospheric pressure on the earths surface is Pa
N/m2. A table of area 2 m2 is tilted at 45 to the
48. A vibrator is generating a wave on the surface of water.
horizontal. The force on the top surface of the table
An object x is floating on the surface. Which of the
due to the atmosphere is (in newtons):
following graphs, of the floating object is/are correct?
(1) 2 Pa (2) 2 Pa

(3) 2 2 Pa (4) Pa / 2
52. A perfectly spherical elastic balloon of 0.2 meter
diameter was filled with hydrogen gas at sea level.
What will be its volume at an altitude where pressure
is 0.65 atm. What will be the diameter of the balloon
?
(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.23 m (3) 0.10 m (4) 0.32 m

(6)
53. A man of mass 100 kg stands on a wood plank of
area 4 m2.What is the pressure exerted on the floor
? Assume the area of a human foot to be 200 cm2
(1) 500 N (2) 25 N
(3) 50000 N (4) 250 N
54. A gallon of water and a gallon of antifreeze solution
weigh, respectively 8.4 and 9.2 Ib. The anti freeze
solution has a relative density of :
(1) 0.095 (2) 0.80
(3) 0.91 (4) 1.1
55. A ball whose density is 0.4 103 kg /m3 falls into
water from a height of 9 cm. To what depth does the
ball sink ? (Hint : only consider buoyancy and ignore
retardation due to viscosity)
(1) 9 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) 4.5 cm (4) 2.25 cm
56. Books A and B are made from paper of the same roll.
The dimensions of book B are double those of book
A. Both the books are kept with their largest area fiat
on a horizontal table. Select the correct statement.
(1) Volume of book B is 6 times that of book A.
(2) Pressure exerted by book B on the table is 4 times
that by book A.
(3) Weight of book B is 4 times that of book A.
(4) None of the statements above is correct.
57. A large water tank is filled at a constant rate of 10
litres/min. It has an outlet of maximum flow of 10
litres/min at the bottom of the tank, but the output is
proportional to the water present in the tank at any
given time. How will the v, volume of water content
in the tank, change with time ?
58. Answer question numbers 56 and 57 based on the
following passage.
(7)
A cubical box of height h and mass m floats upright in
a liquid of density p in position
(1) as depicted in the figure. When a downward force
of magnitude F is applied on the top of the block, the
block moves down through a distance y with some
part of the block being still above the liquid in position
(2) as shown in the figure. Force F is now suddenly
removed so that the block start moving up. Neglect the
effect of A viscosity throughout the motion.
59. Consider following statements.
I. At position (1), the vertical distance from surface of
the liquid to the bottom of the block is m/h2 .
II. After removal of force F, the upward velocity of the
block continuously increases until it reaches position
(1).
III. During upward motion, after crossing position (1),
the velocity of the block goes on decreasing.
IV. During upward motion, from position (2), the velocity
of the block increases linearly till it reaches position
(1).
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II, III and IV. (2) I, II and III only.
(3) I and III only. (4) I and II only.
60. Let W be the weight of the block. Upthrust (U)
experienced by the block is plotted against upward
distance (d) travelled by the block from position (2)
until it reaches position (1). Select the option showing
correct nature of the graph.
61. A diver releases bubbles of gas from the bottom of a
lake. The bubbles increase to 10 times of their original
volume when they reach the surface. Assuming that
the pressure exerted by a column of water of 5m height
is double the atmospheric pressure, the depth of the
lake is :
(1) 45 m (2) 90 m
(3) 80 m (4) 22.5 m
62. A submarine is floating on water, half submerged
(position A). It is then lowered to position B where it
sits for a while. Later the submarine is taken to position
C and submarine waits there before it is finally taken
to the rest position at the bottom of the sea, which is
position D. Assume that density of water and value of
 g is same everywhere. (4) Its external diameter increases and internal diameter
is unchanged.
Colorimetry
66. Ice exists at -200C up to height h = 10 m in a uniform
cylindrical vessel (with no air gaps) . Water at
temperature x0C is filled in another identical vessel up
to the same height h = 10 cm. Now, water from second
vessel is pourd into first vessel and it is found that
level of upper surface Neglecting the thermal capacity
of vessels, change in density of water due to change
in temperatue and loss of heat due to radiation,
Which of the following is correct for bouyancy force at calculate the initial temperature x0C of water.
the 4 places. Use density of ice as 0.8 g/cc.
(1) FA < FB = FC = FD (2) FA < FB < FC < FD
67. When 20 kJ of heat is removed from 1.2 kgof ice
(3) FA < FB = FC < FD (4) FA = FB = FC = FD originally at - 150 C, its new temperature is :
Fluid (1) - 180C (2) - 230C
63. A is a tank filled to its 75 % with water, B is a weighing (3) -260C (4) -350C
balance and C is a stone hung from a stand. If figure.
1 is correct, what do you expect to be the position of 68. 10 g of ice at - 10C is added to 10 g of water at 85C.
needle in figure 2. What is the final temperature and amountof ice left in
the system ? (System is kept inside an ideal insulator).
(1) 0C, 0 g (2) 0C, 2 g
(3) 37.5C, 0 g (4) 37.5C, 5 g
69. The temperature of a substance of mass m (in g) and
of specific heat capacity c (in j g1 K1) increases
by t0C. hat is the heat change in J ?
(1) mct (2) mc (t +273)

mct mc(t 273)

(3) (4)
1000 1000
70. mixture of 50 g of ice and 50 g of water, both at 0C,
is kept in a calorimeter of water equivalent 22 g. 30 g
64. In the figure shown below, there are two tanks I and II of steam is slowly and uniformly passed through this
with cross sectional area A1 and A2, respectively. The mixture. Neglecting exchange of heat to the
rate of flow of water between I and II will depend on: surrounding (except for the steam), final temperature
(i) h2 h3 (ii) h1 h2 (i) A2/A1 of the mixture and mass of of the contents (water) in
the calorimeter is
(1) 100C, 130 g. (2) 0C, 130 g.
(3) 100C, 126 g. (4) 66.7C, 120 g.
71. A block of ice weighing 20 gm, at -100C is mixed with
100 gm water at 100C, in an insulated flask. What
is the amount of water, in the flask, when equilibrium
is reached ?
72. A block of ice weighing 20 gm, at -100C is mixed with
100 gm water at 100C, in an insulated flask. What
Which of the above options are correct is the amount of water, in the flask, when equilibrium
is reached ?
(1) ii and iii (2) only ii
Kinetic theroy of gas
(3) only i (4) i and iii
73. Consider a gas enclosed in a cylinder with frictionless
Thermal expansion piston. When the gas is compressed at constant
65. A circular metal washer is uniformly heated. Select temperature by the piston, the pressure of the gas
the correct statement. increases. Consider the following statements.
(1) Both its external and internal diameters increase. i. The average speed of the molecules increases.
(2) Its external diameter increases and internal ii. The rate at which the molecules collide with the piston
diameter decreases. increases.
(3) Its external diameter is unchanged and internal
diameter decreases.

(8)
 iii. The molecules collide with each other more often. 80. In a heating experiment in which heat is supplied at a
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? steady rate it was noted that temperature of the liquid
in a beaker rose at 4 K/minute just before it began to
(1) i only (2) iii only boil and 40 minutes later all the liquid had boiled away.
(3) ii & iii only (4) all three are correct Numerical ratio of specific heat capacity to specific
latent heat (in same system of units) for this liquid is
74. Sumit evacuated a cylinder and filled in 4g of gas A at
temperature 25C. Pressure was found to be 1 atm. (1) 1/10 (2) 1/40
his friend Vineet, filled another 8g of gas B in the (3) 1/160 (4) 1/640
cylinder at the same temperature. The final pressure
was found to be 1.5 atm. The ratio of molecular masses 81. A rise e ocean level is expected on account of the
of A and B (assuming ideal gas behaviour ) is : melting of icebergs due to global warming. The iceberg
R- 15 broke off the Ross Ice-Shelf in Antarctica and
(1) 1: 1 (2) 1 : 2 plunged into the ocean in 2000. We estim rise in oce
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 due to this event. The iceberg was made of fresh
water and shaped as a cuboid of cross sectional area
75. A balloon initially contains 7g of Nitrogen, and then
A = 10000 km2 and height h = 0.4 km. The total ocean
14g of Nitrogen is added to the balloon to expand its
volume to 12 litre at the same temperature and surface area is 3.61 108 km2 and ocean water has
pressure. Find the initial volume of the balloon. density 0 = 1024 kg.m3 .
(1) 8 litre (2) 7 litre i. What is the rise in the ocean level due to plungng of
(3) 5.6 litre (4) 4 litre iceberg in the ocean?
76. If at the top of a mountain the temperature is 00C and ii. The iceberg R - 15 subsequently melted. What is
the pressure is 0.934 atm and at the bottom of the the additional rise or fall if any in the ocean level due
mountain, the temperature is 300C and the pressure to the melting ? Ignore thermal expansion.
is 1 atm. The ratio of density (considering the ideal iii. Estimate the percentage of the earth surface which
gas situation) of air at the top, to that at the bottom of is covered by ocean water.
the mountain is :
Heat
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1.4
82. Green leaf is placed in a dark room is illuminated by
(3) 1.04 : 1 (4) 1.5 :1
red light. The leaf will appear to be :
77. A fixed mass of an ideal gas has a volume of 800
cm3 under certain conditions. The pressure (in kPa) (1) Green (2) Red
and temperature (in K) are both doubled. what is the (3) Yellow (4) Black
volume of the gas after these changes with other
conditions remaining the same ? 83. A sealed container at a certain temperature is half
full of water. The temperature of the container is
(1) 200 cm3 (2) 800 cm3 increased and maintained till equilibrium is re-
established. Which statement is correct when the
equilibrium is re-established at the hiher temperature
(3) 1600 cm3 (4) 3200 cm3 ?
78. The volume occupied by 1.6 g of oxygen under NTP (1) The rate of vaporization is grather than the rate
conditions is : of condensation
(2) The amount of water vapour is greather than the
(1) 1.12 dm3 (2) 5.60 dm3
amount of liquid water
(3) 11.20 dm3 (4) 22.4 dm3 (3) The amount of water vapour is greather than
Thermodynamics what it was at the lower temperature
79. In a room there are four objects - a wooden dish, (4) The rate of condesation is greater than the rate
steel dish, glass dish and a copper dish. IF a fire is of vaporization
lit in the room so that it burns at 300 degrees 84. Hot solid at temperature t1 is placed in a cool liquid at
centigrade, and is equidistant from all the four dishes, temperature t2 . Both acquire a common temperature
then after a long time the dishes can be listed in the t0, Then:
increasing order of temperature. W hich is the (1) t0 = (t1 + t2)/2 always.
correct order of temperature of dishes ?
(2) t0 > (t1 + t2)/2 if mass of solid is greater than the
(1) Wooden dish > steel dish > glass dish > copper mass of the liquid.
dish
(3) t0 > (t1 + t2)/2 if specific heat capacity of solid is
(2) Steel dish > copper dish > glass dish > wooden greater then the specific heat capacity of the liquid.
dish (4) Information provided is insufficient to draw any of
(3) Copper dish > steel dish > glass dish > wooden the above con-clusion.
dish Answer question numbers 83 and 84 based on the
(4) None of the above following information.
Solar surface radiates energy uniformly at a rate of 4
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 X 1026 W. This energy spreads or distributes uniformly
and normally outwards.
85. Considering earth and the sun to be spherical object,
the amount of radiant energy received by the earth
per second is nearly
(1) 1360 W. (2) 1.75 X 1017 W.
(3) 3.5 X 1017 W. (4) 7 X 10 17 W.
86. A solar cooker used for heating water has solar panel
of effective area 1 m 2. Only 10% of the energy
received by the solar panel is utilized for heating the
contents. Time taken by this solar cooker to heat 1
litre of water from 30C to 80C is nearly
(1) 10 minutes (2) 15 minutes
(3) 25 minutes (40 40 minutes
Electrostatics
87. Point charges q1 = +1 C and q2 whose magnitude
is 64/27 C are fixed 5 m apart along a vertical line
with q1 being at lower position. These two charges
together are able to hold an oil drop of mass 1 g
(1) 1.4 x108 m/s (2) 3.0 x 108 m/s
and charge Q stationary when it is 3 m away from q1
and 4 m away from q2. The sign of the charge q2 and (3) 2.5 x108 m/s (4) 2.1 x108 m/s
the value of Q are respectively: 90. In the process of electrostatic induction.
(1) q2 is positive, Q = 6.25 pC. (1) a conductor is rubbed with an insulator
(2) q2 is positive, Q = 6 pC. (2) a charge is produced by friction
(3) q2 is negative, Q = 6.25 pC. (3) negative and positive charges are separated.
(4) q2 is negative, Q = 6 pC. (4) electrons are sprayed on the obejct
88. There are two conducting plates A and B kept at a Current
distance of 3 mm. Plate A is at + 2 volts and plate
B is grounded (0 volts). An electron begins to move 91. Suppose you are given three resistances of values
from plate A with an initial velocity of v. Find velocity 2,4,6 ohms. Which of the following value is not
v such that the electron travels up to plate B and possible to get by arranging resistances in various
when it reaches plate B its velocity is zero. combinations?
89. A potential difference vs distance graph is given. (1) Less than 2 (2) Equal to 4,4
Choose the correct option for the electric field vs.
distance graph from the given options : (3) Equal to 7.33 (4) Equal to 6.75
92. The coil of the heater is cut into two equal halves and
only one of them is used in the heater. The ratio of
the heat produced by the original coil to the halved
coil is :
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 :1 (4) 1 : 4
93. A 230 V, 1 - kW electric oven is mistakenly
connected to 115V power line that also has 15-A
fuse. The oven will
(1) Give off less than 1 kW of heat
Which of the following graph correctly shows the
comulative distance vs time ? (2) Give off 1 kW of heat
(3) Give of more than 1 kW of heat
(4) Blow the fuse
94. In the circuit shown, the total current supplied by the
battery is :
(1) 1A (2) 2A
(3) 3A (4) 6A

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95. A certain network consists of two ideal and idential
voltage sources in seris and a large number of ideal
resistors. The power consumed in one of the resistors
is 4W when either of the two sources is active and
other is replaced by a short circuit. The power
consumed by same resistor when both sources are
simultaneously active would be :
(1) 0 or 16 W (2) 4W or 8W
(3) 0 or 8W (4) 8W or 16W
96. When all the resistance in the circuit are 1 each, then
the equivalent resistance acroos points A & B will be :
(1) 5/6 (2) 1/2
(3) 2/3 (4) 1/3
97. The circuit given below is for the operation of an
industrial fan. The resistance of the fan is 3 ohms.
The regulator provided with the fan is a fixed resistor
and a variable resistor in parallel.
Under what value of the variable resistances given
below, power transferred to the fan will be maximum?
The power source of the fan is a dc source with internal
resistance of 6 ohms.
(1) 3 (2) 0
(3) (4) 6
98. In the following circuit, each resistor has a resistance
of 15 , and the battery has an e.m.f. of 12 V with
negligible internal resistance.
When a resistor of resistance R is connected between
D & F, no current flows through the galvanometer (not
shown in the figure) connected between C & F.
Calculate the value of R.
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(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 5 (4) 30
99. In the following circuit, each resistor has a resistance
of 15 , and the battery has an e.m.f. of 12 V with
negligible internal resistance.
When a resistor of resistance R is connected between
D & F, no current flows through the galvanometer (not
shown in the figure) connected between C & F.
Calculate the value of R.
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 5 (4) 30
100. A student connects two lamps in the circuit shown.
The emf of the two batteries is different.
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. When keys 1, 2, 3 and 4 are closed, bulbs A and B
will both glow
ii. When key 2 and 4 are closed bulb A will glow
iii. When 1 and 4 are closed, bulb A will glow
iv. When 2, 3 and 4 are closed, both A and B will glow
(1) only ii (2) only iv
(3) i, ii and iv (4) ii and iii
101. A load that has resistance of 10 is to be connected
to be connected to a constant voltage (120 V) supply.
Desired variation in the current through the load is
from 3 A to 5 A. The resistance and current range of
the rheostat should be:
(1) 0 - 36 , 0 - 5 A (2) 14 - 24 , 0 3 A
(3) 14 - 30 , 0 -5 A (4) 0 - 24 , 3 - 5 A
102. Three identical electric bulbs are connected parallel
to each other. On connecting their combination across
a sourch of emf having stabilized voltage and negligible
resistance, all bulbs glow with full brightness. Suddenly
a bulb fuses. The other bulbs will glow.
(1) brighter (2) dimmer
(3) with same intial intensity
(4) zero, as those will also fuse
103. consider the circuit below : Megnetic material
107. When unequal number of unpaired electrons are aligned
in opposite direction, then the net magnetic moment
is not zero. Such substances are termed as -
(1) Diamagnetic (2) Ferromagnetic
(3) Ferrimagnetic (4) Antiferromagnetic
108. You are given two identical steel pieces A and B and
only one of those is magnetized. In all the following
arrangements, there is attraction between A and B.
Which of the following arrangemetns helps us in
identifying the magnet.
(1) If the bulb A burns out, then bulb C stays lighte,
bulb B burns brightly
(2) If the bulb B burns out, then bulb C goes off and
D stays lighted
(3) If the bulb C burns out, bulbs A and B go off
(4) If the bulb D burns out, then ev ent is
unnoticeable, and bulbs A,B,C stays lighted.
104. Which of the following statement is true regarding
the Kirchoffs laws ?
(1) The junction rule is a statement of conservation
of energy and the loop rule is a statement of
conservation of charge
(2) The junction rule as well as the loop rule are Megnetic field
statements of conservation of charge.
109. A direct current (dc) motor is connected to a battery
(3) The junction rule as well as the loop rule are by means of two leads. The motor moves for slightly
statements of conservation of energy. less than half the cycle and comes to halt. Which of
(4) The junction rule is a statement of conservation the following components is missing?
of charge and the loop rule is a statement of (1) one of the brushes (2) commutator
conservation of energy.
(3) slip ring (4) one of the magnets
105. You have a large supply of light bubls and a batttery.
Ray optics
you start with one light bulb connected to the battery
and notice its brightness. You then add one light bulb 110. The distance v of the real image formed by a convex
at a time, each new bulb being added in series to lens is measured for various object distances u . A
the previous bulbs then: graph is plotted between 1/v and 1/u. Which of the
(1) Brightness of the bulbs will increase following graphs is the correct graph ?
(2) Current through the bulbs will increase
(3) Power transferred from the battery will derease
(4) Lifetime of the battery will decrease
106. Calculate equivalent resistance between points A and
B in the following circuit.

111. A spherical convex lens of diameter 0.1 m and power

3 dioptre is used to produce the image of a candle
(1) 6 (2) 2.5 flame kept at 0.4 m from the lens in two different
methods as shown in the figure. (front view)
(3) 40 (4) None of these
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 Method A : 5 cm diameter of he lens is covered at the (1) White light
centre with dark paper and the periphery of the lens is
(2) Rainbow colours which are converging.
clear.
(3) Rainbow colours which are spreding out
Method B: 5 cm at the centre of the lens is clear and
the periphery is covered with dark paper.while the (4) No light comes out from surface B
distance of the flame (object) is kept same what 115. In dispersive materials,
difference you see in the image formation ?
(1) the angle of refraction for a light ray depends
on the wavelength of light
(2) the angle of refraction for a light ray does not
depend on the wavelength of light
(3) the angle of reflection from the surface of the
material does not depend on the wavelength of
light
(4) Both (a) and (b) hold true
116. A ray of light is incident on the midpoint of a glass
prism surface at an angle of 25.00, with the normal
(1) Method A produces no image and B produces an For the glass, n = 1.55, and the angle of prism is
image 30.00.What is the angle of incidence at the glass -
to-air surace on the side opposite where the ray
(2) Method A produces an image and B produces no
entered the prism ?
image
(3) The image distance in both the methods is the (1) 14.20 (2) 9.80
same (3) 19.20
(4) Image due to A appears at a slightly different (4) Light will come out from the other surface
distance than due to B.
117. Which of the following is correct ?(figures not to be
112. From a distance much greater than 2R )R = Radius of scaled). The focal point of the lens is f and point c
curvature), a real object is brought close a convex is equal to 2f.
mirror. Distance between object and the image.
(1) throughout deceases
(2) throughout increases
(3) decreases upto f
(4) first decreases then increases
113. A flat mirror creates a virtual image of your face.
W hich of the f ollowing optical elements in
combination with the flat mirror can form a real
image ?
(1) convex lens (2) concave lens
(3) concave mirror (4) convex mirror
114. When a ray of white light enters a prism, it begins
to spread out in rainbow colours figure 1.
An inverted prims is brought close to this prism as
shown in the fig 2, Both the prisms are made of
same material. IF a ray of white light is incident on
surface A and d is made zero then output from
surface B will be :

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118. If earth were to stop spinning then your weight on 122. Three plane mirrors are kept mutually perpendicular.
equator will be : From a certain point in front of them, a ray of light is
incident on 1 st mirror in such a way that it is
(1) Heavier by around 0.5 %
successively reflected from 1st, 2nd and 3rd mirror will
(2) eavier by around 5 % be :
(3) Less by around 0.5 % (1) Passing through the same point
(4) Less by around 5 % (2) Perpendicualr to the initial ray
119. A lens is held directly above a pencil lying on a floor (3) Parallel to the initial ray
and forms a:n image of it. After the lens has been (4) Along any direction depending upon initial angle
moved vertically a distance equal to its focal length, it of incidence
forms image of equal size to the previous image. If the
length of the pencil is 8 cm, the length of the image is: 123. The absolute refractive index of medium P is 1.5. When
light is incident on an interface between medium P
(1) 8 cm (2) 12 cm and medium Q at an angle of incidence of 30 in
(3) 16 cm. (4) 24 cm medium P, the angle of refraction is where sin =
120. A microscope is consturcted from an objective of focal 7/20. The speed of light in medium Q is given by
length 1 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. An (1) 1.4 x108 m/s (2) 3.0 x 108 m/s
object is placed 1.5 cm form the object. If the final
image is a virtual image 25 cm from the eyepiece, (3) 2.5 x108 m/s (4) 2.1 x108 m/s
i. Calculate the distance between the first image and 124. A man of heigh h walking away from a lamp post finds
the eyepiece. his shadow to be equal to his height when he is at a
distance x from te lamp post. If the heigh of the lamp
ii. Calculate maximum possible angular possible post is H, then x is :
angular magnification.
(1) H + h (2) H h
iii. Calculate the distance between the two lenses for
this setting. (3) H.h (4) H/h
Leat distance of distinct vision for unalded, normal Modern Physics
human eye is 25 cm. 125. A radioactive nuclide has a half life of 8 hours. Half
121. White light is incident on one of the refracting faces lif e is the time in which 50% of the nuclei
of a prism. Inside the prism, disintegrate. The fraction of the nuclide which will
disintegrate in 32 hours will be :
i. at normal incidence, the blue light slows down more
than red light (1) 0.062 (2) 0.75
ii. at normal incidence, blue light refracts same as red (3) 0.875 (4) 0.938
light 126. The ratio of the size of the atom to the size of the
iii. For oblique incidence, blue light bends more than nucleus is typically:
red light (1) 10 (2) 102
iv. For oblique incidence, blue light slows down more (3) 104 (4) 108
than the red light
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) i & iv (2) i, iii & iv
(3) ii, iii & iv (4) i, ii, iii & iv

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