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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

ANATOMY C. Azygous, inferior thyroid and right gastric
veins
1. All of the following are derived from ectoderm
except D. Superior thyroid, inferior thyroid veins,
azygous and hemi-azygous veins
A. Hair follicles

B. Erector pilae
6. The most common variant in the blood supply of
C. Sebaceous glands colon is

D. Mammary glands A. Absent right colic artery

B. Absent middle colic artery

2. Which of the following muscles is not a derivative C. Absent left colic artery
of mesoderm?
D. Absent superior rectal artery
A. Skeletal muscles

B. Smooth muscles
7. All of the following are part of mesorectal fascia
C. Cardiac myocyte except

D. Dilators of pupil A. Superior rectal vein

B. Inferior rectal vein

3. Buccopharyngeal membrane develops from: C. Para rectal nodes
A. Ectoderm + Mesoderm D. Inferior mesenteric plexus
B. Ectoderm + Endoderm

C. Mesoderm+ Endoderm 8. Which of the following is not true about blood

test is barrier?
D. Ectoderm + Mesoderm+ Endoderm
A. It is formed by Sertoli cells

B. It is formed before primary spermatogenesis

4. Epithelioid cells include which of the following?
C. Any rupture of barrier can cause immune
A. Islet cells of pancreas
response to germ cells

B. Theca lutein cells

D. Germ cells are not necessary for formation of
the barrier
C. Cells of Brunners gland

D. Interstitial cells of Leydig

9. Which of the following is not true about dura
matter?
5. Venous drainage of esophagus is into the
A. It is the outermost of the cranial meninges
A. Azygous and inferior thyroid veins
B. It has two layers-periosteal and meningeal
B. Azygous, inferior thyroid and left gastric veins
C. Dural venous sinuses lie below the meningeal
layer
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

D. It is supplied by a branch of the V nerve A. Lacrimal gland

B. Parotid gland

10. Which of the following structures is seen in the C. Submandibular gland

cavernous sinus?
D. Nasal glands
A. 1st part of V nerve

B. 2nd part of V nerve

PHYSIOLOGY
C. ICA
15. In an encephale isole preparation, the transaction
D. 4 nerve
th
is done at:

A. First cervical spinal segment

11. The medulla receives its blood supply from all of B. Level of medulla
the following arteries except
C. Midpontine level
A. Anterior spinal
D. Midcollicular level
B. Posterior inferior cerebellar

C. Vertebral
16. If a supramaximal stimulus is applied to an
D. Superior cerebellar excitable tissue like a nerve or a muscle and it
elicits a response, then the tissue is said to be in

A. Absolute refractory period

12. Which of the following is not supplied by
ipsilateral nerve nucleus? B. Relative refractory period

A. Superior rectus C. Latent period

B. Inferior rectus D. After-depolarization

C. Medial rectus

D. Inferior oblique 17. Nuclear bag fibres are related to

A. Force

13. Trigeminal nerve supplies all of the following B. Length

muscles except
C. Tone
A. Stylohyoid
D. Length and velocity
B. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid
18. True about Golgi tendon organ is
D. Tensor veli palatine
A. Sense the dynamic length of the muscle

B. Are involved in reciprocal innervations

14. Facial nerve gives out secretomotor fibres to all of
the following except C. Are stimulated by alpha motor neuron
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

D. Sense muscle tension mm Hg. Each resistance in the circuit is of 5 mm
Hg/mL/min. Calculate the flow across the circuit

A. 45 mL
19. The mechanostretch receptors in joints and
ligaments are B. 90 mL

A. Fast adapting C. 3.6 mL

B. Slow adapting D. 135 mL

C. Non adapting

D. Adapt differentially for different stresses 24. Which of the following defines the pressure in the
vascular system in the absence of blood flow?

A. Pulse pressure
20. During hip replacement, loss of joint and
ligament receptors leads to B. Critical closing pressure

A. No loss of sensation C. Mean circulatory pressure

B. Loss of all sensations D. Perfusion pressure

C. Joint sensation lost in stable position

D. Decrease in movements and decrease in 25. Which of the following defines the pressure in the
sensation vascular system in the absence of blood flow?

A. Pulse pressure

21. Fast fatigue fibres are recruited during walking B. Critical closing pressure

A. In the beginning C. Mean circulatory pressure

B. In the end D. Perfusion pressure

C. Throughout the walking process

D. When small neurons are excited 26. Which of the following is true about measurement
of blood pressure?

A. The length of the bladder in the blood pressure

22. Which of the following can cause a shift of the cuff should cover more than 80% of the arm
oxygen- hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left? area

A. pH B. The person should be comfortably sitting and

blood pressure cuff should be at higher level
B. Temperature than the heart

C. 2,3-BPG C. Caffeine intake induces decrease in blood

pressure
D. pCO2
D. Blood pressure increases during sleep.

23. In the given circuit, the inward flow pressure is

100 mm Hg and the outward flow pressure is 10 27. The left atrial v wave is larger than a wave in
comparison to right atrium because
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

A. Left side is high pressure system D. Nerve palsies

B. Left atrium is more compliant BIOCHEMISTRY

C. Left atrium is compressed posteriorly by 32. Not an intermediate product of citric acid cycle is
pulmonary veins
A. Acyl CoA
D. Right atrial pressure is transmitted into the
pulmonary circulation B. Succinyl CoA

C. Citrate

28. The right atrium chronic overload is indicated by D. - ketoglutarate

a P wave of more than

A. 2.5 mm
33. The enzyme common to both glycogenolysis and
B. 3.5 mm glycogenesis is

C. 4.5 mm A. Glycogen phosphorylase

D. 5.5 mm B. Glycogen synthase

C. Glucotransferase

29. The cells of the human body most sensitive to D. Carboxykinase

ischemia are

A. Neurons
34. In the entire human genome, coding DNA
B. Nephrons constitutes

C. Cardiac myocyte A. 0.02

D. Hepatocytes B. 0.1

C. 0.25

30. The most important hormone that increases D. 0.4

gallbladder contraction after a fatty meal is

A. Gastrin
35. Methylation of cytosine leads to
B. Secretin
A. Increased expression of gene
C. CCK
B. Decreased expression of gene
D. GIP
C. No effect on gene expression

D. Mutation
31. The most serious complication of prolonged
sitting position is

36. 2,3- BPG binds to ---- sites of hemoglobin and

A. Venous air embolism
------the affinity for oxygen
B. Dysrhythmias
A. 4, decreases
C. Hypotension
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

B. 1, decreases A. Dobutamine

C. 4, increases B. Fenoldopam

D. 1, increases C. Epinephrine

37. The last receiver of electrons in electron transport D. Phenylephrine

system is

A. Coenzyme Q
42. Peripheral vasospasm is observed with which of
B. FADH2 the following anti-Parkinsonian drugs?

C. O2 A. Ropinirole

D. Cytochrome b B. Levodopa

PHARMACOLOGY C. Bromocriptine

38. Which of the following is not converted into an D. Entacapone

active metabolite?

A. Lisinopril
43. Peripheral vasospasm is observed with which of
B. Fluoxetine the following anti-Parkinsonian drugs?

C. Cyclophosphamide A. Ropinirole

D. Diazepam B. Levodopa

C. Bromocriptine

39. Methacholine is a D. Entacapone

A. M1 receptor agonist

B. M2 receptor agonist 44. Lithium potentiates the action of non-

depolarizing muscle relaxants. How many days
C. M3 receptor agonist before administration of the muscle relaxant
should lithium be stopped?
D. M4 receptor agonist
A. 1 day

B. 2 days
40. 2 agonists cause all of the following except
C. 3 days
A. Analgesia
D. 4 days
B. Hyperalgesia

C. Sedation
45. True statement regarding methadone are all except
D. Anxiolysis
A. It is a long acting receptor agonist

B. It is rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal

41. Which of the following is a mixed alpha and beta tract and is detected in plasma 30 minutes after
agonist?
oral administration
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

C. The primary use of methadone is relief of D. Lamivudine
chronic pain

D. The onset of analgesia is 30-60 minutes after

parenteral administration and 1-2 hours after 50. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is
oral administration. associated with hypothyroidism?

A. Rifampicin

46. The site of action of the loop diuretic furosemide B. PZA

is
C. Etionamide
A. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Streptomycin
B. Descending limb of loop of Henle

C. Proximal tubule
51. The most common side effect of cancer
D. Distal tubule chemotherapy is nausea with or without vomiting.
The anticancer drugs vary in their ability to cause
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following anti-
cancer drugs is least likely to cause nausea and
47. Which of the following pairs of drug and its vomiting?
indication is matched incorrectly?
A. Chlorambucil
A. Carbamazepine
B. Cisplatin
B. Octreotide- treatment of diarrhea associated
with vasoactive intestinal peptide tumours C. Doxorubicin

C. Desmopressin- treatment of diabetes insipidus D. Daunorubicin

D. hCG- treatment of infertility in men and

women
52. Which of the following medications is essential
for ameliorating the toxicity of pemetrexed?

48. Time dependent killing and prolonged post- A. Folinic acid and vitamin B6
antibiotic effect is seen with
B. Folic acid and vitamin B12
A. Fluoroquinolones
C. Vitamin B6 and vitamin B12
B. Beta lactam antibiotics
D. Folic acid and dexamethasone
C. Clindamycin

D. Erythromycin
53. Which of the following drugs is useful for the
treatment of advanced prostate cancer?

49. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors A. Ganirelix

(NNRTIs) include all of the following except
B. Cetrorelix
A. Nevirapine
C. Abarelix
B. Delavirdine
D. Goserelin
C. Etavirine
PATHOLOGY
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

54. A 50-year old patient presents with weakness and D. Bloom syndrome
bleeding episodes. His hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dL.
His leukocyte count was 48*109 cells/L and platelet
count was 50*109 cells/L. There was dysplasia of
58. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)
neutrophilia with a differential count showing
is seen in
76% neutrophils, 8% blast cells, 12% myelocytes
and metamyelocytes and 4% other cells. Bone
A. Wegeners granulomatosis
marrow examination showed 14% blasts.
Cytogenetics showed t(8,21). The most likely B. Diabetes mellitus
diagnosis is
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
A. Acute myeloid leukemia

B. Chronic myeloid leukemia

59. ARDS is due to a defect in
C. Chronic lymphoid leukemia
A. Type 1 pneumocytes
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome
B. Type 2 pneumocytes

C. Clara cells
55. Which of the following regarding cellular events
in acute inflammation is not correct? D. Endothelial cells

A. PECAM/CD31 is responsible for neutrophil

activation
60. A 50- year old male presents with large bowel
B. Components of complement can assist in type diarrhea and rectal bleeding. On
chemotaxis sigmoidoscopy, a cauliflower like growth is seen
in the rectum. Colectomy specimen on
C. Neutrophil margination is assisted by selectins histopathology shows adenocarcinoma. Which of
the following prognostic investigations is not
D. ICAM-1/VCAM-1 is responsible for neutrophil required?
adhesion
A. Microsatellite instability

B. c-myc mutations
56. Which of the following factors in morphogenic as
well as mitogenic? C. EGFR mutations

A. Fibroblast growth factor D. k-RAS mutations

B. Platelet derived growth factor

C. Bone morphogenetic protein 61. Verocay bodies are seen in

D. Insulin-like growth factor A. Meningioma

B. Hemangioma

57. Which of the following is not an example of a C. Glioma

syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
D. Schwannoma
A. Prader-Willi syndrome

B. Angelman syndrome
62. Histopathologically, rosettes are not seen in
C. Russell-Silver syndrome
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

A. Retinoblastoma B. A gram negative bacillus

B. Neurocysticercosis C. A catalase-positive gram positive coccus that

grows in clusters
C. PNET
D. A single-stranded positive sense RNA virus
D. Medulloblastoma

MICROBIOLOGY
67. The hematoxylin and eosin staining of a lung
63. Which of the following is correct regarding section during autopsy of a patient suffering from
staining of microbes? AIDS shows desquamation of type 1 pneumocytes
with prominent intranuclear basophilic inclusion
A. Gram positive bacteria stain black bodies surrounded by a clear halo. The CD4 count
was less than 100/mm3 before demise. The most
B. Gram negative bacteria stain red
likely diagnosis causing these features is
C. Gomorris methenamine silver stains fungi
A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
green

B. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

D. Calcoflour white stains acanthamoeba red
C. CMV pneumonia

64. Both DNA and RNA are present in D. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

pneumonia
A. Bacteria

B. Prions
68. Giemsa stained smear of epithelial cells obtained
C. Virioids from a newborn with hepatosplenomegaly is
shown below. What is the most likely cause of this
D. Plasmid congenital infection?

A. CMV

65. Which of the following is not true regarding IgE B. Rubella

antibodies
C. HIV
A. It mediates release of histamine and other
chemical mediators D. Ebstein-Barr virus

B. It is the primary antibody involved in allergic

reactions
69. An elderly male presents 2 months after renal
C. It is involved in anti-parasitic immune transplantation with nephropathy. Which of the
responses following can be a viral etiological agent?

D. May cross the placenta and fix complement A. Polyoma virus BK

B. Human herpes virus type 6

66. A 10- year old child presented with severe sore C. Hepatitis C
throat and a grey pseudomembrane over pharynx
and tonsils. The organism causing this infection is
D. Human papilloma virus, high risk types
most likely

A. A gram positive bacillus

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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

70. The causative organism for AIDS was identified C. Root resorption
in the year
D. Paradentosis
A. 1983

B. 1976
75. A person of eonism derives pleasure from
C. 1994
A. Wearing clothes of opposite sex
D. 1969
B. Fondling female body parts

C. Rubbing genitalia against body of other person

71. The term recrudescence in malaria refers to
D. Seeing the opposite partner nude
A. Same as relapse in P. vivax and p. ovale malaria

B. Resistance to antimalarial drugs

76. Cannabis is the most commonly used illicit drug
C. Recurrence of sexual parasitemia after in India. Which of the following is not derived
completion of treatment from cannabis?

D. Reinfection with the same species A. Bhang

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY B. Charas

72. The legal responsibilities of an intoxicated person C. Ganja

is given in section -----IPC
D. Afeem
A. 82

B. 83
77. The characteristic burnt rope odour is caused by
C. 84 toxin of

D. 85 A. Cannabis

B. Tobacco

73. A person is liable for punishment for perjury C. Strychnine

which is defined under?
D. Chloral hydrate
A. Section 190 IPC

B. Section 191 IPC

78. The active principle of white oleander is
C. Section 192 IPC
A. Nicotine
D. Section 193 IPC
B. Nerin

C. Abrine
74. The most important sign of age determination as
per Gustafsons method is D. Pilocarpine

A. Root transparency

B. Root attrition 79. A doctor is treating a patient with viper snake

bite. He should not forget that viper venom is
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

A. Histotoxic 83. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a
complication observed with which of the
B. Vasculotoxic following vaccines?

C. Musculotoxic A. MMR

D. Neurotoxic B. HiB conjugate polysaccharide vaccine

PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE C. Typhoid Vi polysaccharide vaccine

80. The prospectively evaluated, double-blinded, D. Influenza vaccine
randomized clinical trial represents the gold
standard for providing evidence for therapeutic
decision making. This was first proposed by the
father of evidence-based medicine: 84. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a
complication observed with which of the
A. Tolstoy following vaccines?

B. Sackett A. MMR

C. Hippocrates B. Hib conjugate polysaccharide vaccine

D. da Vinci C. Typhoid Vi polysaccharide vaccine

D. Influenza vaccine

81. True statements regarding the calculation of HDI

are all of the following except
85. Chemoprophylaxis is indicated for all of the
A. The minimum value for combined gross following except
enrolment ratio is fixed at 0%
A. Cholera
B. The minimum value for adult literacy rate is
fixed at 0 B. Measles

C. The maximum value of life expectancy at birth C. Meningococcal meningitis

is taken as 100
D. Conjunctivitis
D. The maximum value for per capita income is
fixed at 40,000

86. All of the following statements regarding INH

chemoprophylaxis are correct except
82. Regarding education in HDI, true statement is
A. It is cheap
A. In gross enrolment, only secondary educationis
considered, not primary education
B. It is not feasible to apply on a large scale

B. 1/3rd weightage is given to adult literacy C. It has risk of drug-induced hepatitis

C. 2/3rd weightage is given to gross enrolment D. It is not highly clinically effective

D. Countrys achievement is computed on the

basis of adult literacy
87. Positive predictive value is a function of
sensitivity, specificity and

A. Absolute risk
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014
B. Relative risk
C. Incidence
D. Prevalence
88. All of the following are correct regarding the
period of isolation in the following disease except
A. Chicken pox- 6 days after the onset of rash
B. Measles- 3 days after the onset of rash
C. German measles- 7 days after the onset of rash
D. Herpes zoster- 6 days after the onset of rash
89. Which of the following regarding oral polio
vaccine (OPV) is not true?
A. Useful in epidemics
B. Excretion of virus in stools may cause disease
to the unimmunized
C. Rapid antibody response
D. Protective even in the presence of maternal
antibodies
90. HIV sentinel surveillance provides data
A. To monitor disease trends
B. To identify high risk population
C. To estimate disease incidence
D. To assess the quality of related services
91. A boy complained of unprovoked bite by a local
dog in the community. The dog was alter caught
by the local animal authorities and appeared to be
healthy. The most appropriate course of action
would be
A. Give post-exposure prophylaxis to the bitten
person with cell-culture derived vaccine
B. Withhold vaccination, keep the dog under
observation for ten days for signs of rabies
C. Test the dog for rabies antibodies
D. Immediately carry out euthanasia of the dog
92. Evidence of decreased risk of cardiovascular
disease is associated with all of the following
except
A. Vitamin E supplementation
B. Low to moderate daily alcohol consumption
C. Regular physical activity
D. Potassium
93. Under the school vision screening programme,
vision screening in schools is done by
A. Ophthalmologist
B. Optometrist
C. NGO worker
D. Teacher
94. Under the National Rural Health Mission, an
ASHA will receive financial remuneration for all
of the following except
A. Institutional deliveries
B. Measuring the birth weight of neonates
C. 1st dose of DPT and OPV
D. Registration of births
95. The provisions under Janani Shishu Suraksha
Karyakram (JSSK) include all of the following
except?
A. Free food to the mother in the hospital
B. Cash incentive for institutional deliveries
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

C. Free transport to the mother and baby to/from visible severe wasting or presence of
hospital nutritional edema

D. Free treatment of the neonate and infant in all B. Very low weight for age (below -3 Z scores of
public health facilities. the mean WHO standards for growth) only

C. Visible severe wasting, or presence of

96. Calculate the neonatal mortality rate for a
population according to the data of 2012. Number
of neonatal deaths: 450. Number of still births:
212. Total number of live births 12,450
A. 36
nutritional edema
D. Very low weight for height (below -3 Z scores
of the mean WHO standards for growth), by
visible severe wasting, or presence of
nutritional edema.

B. 15
100. The most sensitive indicator of
C. 90 environmental iodine deficiency is

D. 56 A. Serum T4 levels

B. Serum T3 levels

97. Infant mortality rate includes all of the following C. Urine iodine excretion
except
D. Neonatal hypothyroidism
A. Early neonatal deaths

B. Late neonatal deaths

101. All of the following can cause epidemic
C. Post neonatal deaths in post-disaster period except

D. Still births A. Leishmaniasis

B. Leptospirosis

98. A girl is having white hair. 40% of her classmates C. Rickettsiosis

are also suffering from the same problem. None of
the other people from the same village have white D. Acute respiratory infections
hair. Her brother who is staying with an aunt in
the neighbouring village is also normal and does
not have white hair. Which of the following
102. The hemoglobin levels of pregnant
explains the probable cause of her white hair?
females in a community was found to have a
A. Environmental mean of 10.6 g/dL and a standard deviation of 2
g/dL. What is the minimum hemoglobin level
B. Genetic below which 5% of the pregnant females will
have their hemoglobin levels?
C. Nutritional
A. 7.32

B. 8.64
99. Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) in India is
defined as C. 6.68

A. Very low weight for age (below-3 Z scores of D. 8.96

the mean WHO standards for growth), by
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

103. Universal Health coverage in India was A. Refraction with near add
recommended by which of the following
committees? B. Refraction under atropine

A. Multipurpose worker committee C. Radial keratotomy

B. Health development and planning committee D. Cataract surgery

C. High level expert committee

D. Medical education committee 108. Which organismal infection is highly

virulent and may cause corneal ulcer perforation
within 48 hours?

104. All of the following provisions are A. Herpes simplex

included in the primary health care according to
the Alma Ata declaration except B. Pseudomonas

A. Adequate supply of safe drinking water C. Staphylococci

B. Provision of food supply D. Aspergillus

C. Provision of free medicines

D. Basic sanitation 109. Circumcorneal vascularization is

observed in deficiency of
OPHTHALMOLOGY
A. Vitamin D
105. The critical angle of cornea-air interface
is B. Thiamine

A. 36 C. Riboflavin

B. 46 D. Biotine

C. 56

D. 66 110. A patient gives a history of chuna falling

into his eyes. All of the following would be a part
of his immediate management except

106. Which diagnostic procedure is not done A. Irrigation of both eyes with copious amounts of
in a dilated pupil? normal saline

A. Gonioscopy B. Frequent sodium citrate drops

B. Laser inferometry C. Thorough slit-lamp examination on

presentation
C. Fundus examination
D. Removal of chuna particles by double eversion
D. Electroretinography of upper eyelids

107. A 59- year old male presents with 111. Which of the following drugs acts on
dimness of near vision. On examination, the trabecular meshwork and affects the aqueous
media was clear in both the eyes. What would be outflow?
the next step?
A. Timolol
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

B. Pilocarpine B. Inquire about the use of steroids

C. Brimonidine C. Ask for history of trauma in the other eye

D. Brinzolamide

116. A 28- week baby suffered from

respiratory distress syndrome at birth. On day 14
112. Ex-press glaucoma implant is made up of of life, he developed sepsis. No other morbidity
was seen. He should be evaluated for retinopathy
A. Silicone of prematurity at what post natal age?

B. Titanium A. 2 weeks
C. Gold B. 4 weeks
D. Stainless steel C. 6 weeks

D. 8 weeks
113. Ascorbate and -tocopherol are
maintained in a reduced state in the lens by
117. A person is diagnosed to be a diabetic on
A. Glucose his 45th birthday. You will recommend a dilated
fundoscopic examination
B. Glycoprotein
A. Immediately
C. Glutathione
B. Before his 50th birthday
D. Fatty acid
C. When he turns 50 years of age

114. A 7-year old male child presents with

normal vision 6/6 in the right eye and hand
movement perception close to the face in the left
eye. On fundoscopy, his right eye was normal and
left eye showed retinal detachment, subretinal
yellowish exudates and telangiectatic vessels. The
most likely diagnosis is
D. When he complains of dimness of vision
118. Microaneurysms are the earliest
manifestation of diabetic retinopathy. Which of
the following layer is involved in diabetic
retinopathy?

A. Coats disease A. Outer plexiform layer

B. Sympathetic ophthalmitis B. Inner nuclear layer

C. Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy C. Layer of rods and cones

D. Retinopathy of prematurity D. Retinal pigment epithelium

115. A young male presents with central 119. Pneumoretinopexy is an outpatient

scotoma in left eye. His right vision showed 6/6
vision. On examination, in the left eye, there was
focal foveal detachment. What would be the next
step?
A. Examine retrolental cells
procedure in which retinal detachment is sealed
with air insufflations. Which of the following gas
is used in pneumoretinopexy?
A. Sulfur hexafluoride
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

B. Carbon dioxide 124. The wave V in BERA represents activity
in which of the following?
C. Nitrous oxide
A. Lateral lemniscus
D. Oxygen
B. Superior olivary complex

C. Cochlear nerve
120. Cells affected in glaucomatous optic
neuropathy are D. Cochlear nucleus

A. Amacrine cells

B. Bipolar cells 125. Which of the following is not resected in

stapedotomy?
C. Ganglion cells
A. Anterior crus of stapes
D. Rods and cones
B. Posterior crus of stapes

C. Stapedial ligament
121. Lipogranulomatous inflammation is seen
in D. Lenticular process of incus

A. Fungal infection

B. Tuberculosis 126. Which of the following part of cochlear

implant is implanted during surgery?
C. Chalazion
A. Receiver stimulator
D. Viral infection
B. Transmitting coil
EAR, NOSE AND THROAT
C. Microphone
122. Which of the following does not show
negative Rinne test in the right ear? D. Speech processor

A. Sensorineural hearing loss of 45 dB in left ear

and normal right ear
127. A 75-year old diabetic patient presents
B. Profound hearing loss with severe ear pain and granulation tissue at
external auditory canal with facial nerve
C. Conductive hearing loss of 40 dB in both ears involvement. The most likely diagnosis is :

D. Conductive hearing loss of 40 dB in right ear A. Skull base osteomyelitis

and left ear normal

123. The screening investigation of high risk

neonates in ICU for suspected hearing loss is 128. A 14-year old boy presents with nasal
bleeding. His Hb was found to be 6.4 g/dL and
A. Otoacoustic emissions peripheral smear showed normocytic
hypochromic anemia. The most probable
B. Free field audiometry diagnosis is

C. Stapedial reflex testing A. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

D. Pure tone audiometry B. Hemangioma
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014
C. Antrochonal polyp
D. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
129. A patient presents withantrochoanal
polyp arising from the medial wall of the maxilla.
Which of the following would be the best
management for the patient?
A. FESS with polypectomy
B. Medial maxillectomy (TEMM)
C. Caldwell-Luc procedure
D. Intranasal polypectomy
130. An elderly male presents with T3 No
laryngeal carcinoma. What would be the
management?
A. Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy followed by
radiotherapy
B. Concurrent chemoradiotherpay
C. Radical radiotherapy followed by
chemotherapy
D. Radical radiotherapy without chemotherapy
MEDICINE
131. Which of the following is not a
characteristic feature of multiple myeloma?
A. Increased Ig levels in serum
B. Positive ANA
C. Plasmacytosis
D. M spike on electrophoresis
132. A 60 year old obese male with a history
of chronic smoking since childhood presents in
CU with pelvic fracture due to fall from height.
On the 4 day of the ICU stay, he developed
th
sudden tachypnoea, fall in SpO2 and
hypotension. On 2D echo, there was a dilation of
right ventricle and tricuspid regurgitation. What
would be the next immediate step?
A. D-dimer assay
B. Administration of heparin
C. Pericardiocentesis
D. Systemic thrombolysis
133. A 4-year old girl presents with severe
vomiting after a viral fever of 5 days. She is
hospitalized and develops cerebral edema. Liver
biopsy is most likely to demonstrate which of the
following?
A. Centrizonal hemorrhagic necrosis
B. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
C. Ring granulomas
D. Marked microvesicular steatosis
134. A 40-year old obese female presents with
fullness of right upper quadrant of abdomen. Her
medical history is significant for Type 2 DM and
hyperlipidemia. Liver biopsy is most likely
suggestive of which of the following diagnoses?
A. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
B. Peliosis hepatis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Primary biliary sclerosis
135. A young female patient presents with
jaundice and elevated liver enzymes. She has a
history of 2 similar episodes in the past. Her
serum ANA was 1:40 and IgG was 2400 IU. His
serum copper levels were normal and viral
markers were negative. A liver biopsy was carried
out and based on the pathology report, you treated
her with immunosuppressants and the patients
condition improved. What was the most likely
finding on pathology report to suggest the
treatment?
A. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
B. Hemosiderosis
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

C. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Nystagmus

D. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Paralysis of soft palate

136. Laxative abuse is associated with 140. Two persons A and B were told to draw a
square from the blank and filled circle,
A. Hypokalemia respecitively. The square drawn by A is irregular.
What could be the possible cause?
B. Hypomagnesemia
A. Lesion in basal ganglia
C. Hypoglycemia
B. Lesion in subthalamic nucleus
D. Colonic spasticity
C. Lesion in cerebellum

D. Physiological tremors
137. A 27 year old male presents with low
backache, that occurs early in the morning,
associated with stiffness, and persists for more
than 30 minutes. On examination, his chest 141. One of the following drugs is used in
expansion is also restricted. The most probable acute bacterial meningitis
diagnosis is
A. Erythromycin
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Ceftriaxone
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Streptomycin
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
SURGERY

142. The first priority in management of a

138. One of the following is not a diagnostic case of head injury with open fracture of shaft of
criteria for declaring brainstem death femur is

A. Absence of brainstem reflexes A. Neurosurgery consultation

B. A positive apnea test B. Give IV fluids

C. Lack of cerebromotor response to pain in all C. Intubation

extremities
D. Splintage of fracture
D. Absence of stretch reflex from all extremities is
essential

143. Neurogenic shock is characterized by

139. A vascular lesion in the mid-brainstem A. Hypertension and tachycardia

level in the area depicted in the figure can cause
all of the following except
B. Hypertension and bradycardia

A. Deviation of the tongue to the same side C. Hypotension and tachycardia

B. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature D. Hypotension and bradycardia

below the neck
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144. During resuscitation, artefacts of 148. All of the following indicate
fractured ribs most commonly involve superimposed pre-eclampsia in a pregnant female
of chronic hypertension except
A. 2nd-4th ribs
A. New onset proteinuria
B. 3rd-5th ribs
B. Platelet count < 75,000
C. 4th-6th ribs
C. Increase in systolic BP by 30 mm Hg and
D. 5th-7th ribs diastolic by 15 mm Hg

D. Fresh retinal hypertensive changes

145. A 12 year old girl presents with nodular
goiter. Which of the following statements
regarding her evaluation and management 149. All of the following indicate
incorrect? superimposed pre-eclampsia in a pregnant female
of chronic hypertension except
A. 99 m-Tc scan should be performed to
determine whether the nodules are A. New onset proteinuria
hypofunctioning or hyperfunctioning
B. Platelet count < 75,000
B. Functional thyroid nodules are usually benign
C. Increase in systolic BP by 30 mm Hg and
C. All nodules > 4cm should be resected diastolic by 15 mm Hg
irrespective of cytology
D. Fresh retinal hypertensive changes
D. FNAC should be performed for all nodules >
1cm in diameter

150. Which of the following antihypertensives

is not given in pregnancy?
146. Which of the following incisions is taken
for diaphragmatic surgery? A. Enalapril

A. Transverse B. -methyldopa

B. Circumferential C. Labetalol

C. Vertical D. Nifedipine

D. Radial
151. All of the following can be administered
in acute hypertension during labour except
147. Which of the following is not an
etiological factor for pancreatitis? A. IV labetalol

A. Abdominal trauma B. IV nitroprusside

B. Hyperlipidemia C. IV dihydralazine

C. Islet cell hyperplasia D. IV diazoxide

D. Germline mutations in the cationic trypsinogen

gene
152. Which of the following is not a part of
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY HELLP syndrome?
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

A. Hemolysis D. Early ambulation

B. Elevated liver enzyme PAEDIATRICS

C. Thrombocytopenia 157. A 32-wee, 1400 g neonate is born to a

primigravida. The baby did not require
D. Reteroplacental hemorrhage resuscitation and showed stable vitals. The baby
was transferred to the NICU. How will you
manage the feeding of the patient?

153. A Cesarian section was done in the

A. Start total enteral feeding and IV feeding not
previous pregnancy. All of the following would
required
be indications for elective Cesarean section except
B. Start IV feeding with minimal enteral feeding
A. Breech
C. Start IV feeding and introduce feeding on 2nd
B. Macrosomia day of life

C. Polyhydramnios D. Start parenteral feeding and institute oral

feeding on 2nd day of life
D. Post-term

158. Which of the following is not a

154. Which of the following is responsible for
component of Kangaroo mother care (KMC)?
pubertal growth in females?
A. Skin to skin contact
A. Decreased level of adrenal androgens at
puberty B. Supplementary nutrition
B. High level of estrogen at puberty C. Exclusive breast feeding
C. Pulsatile release of GnRH during sleep D. Early discharge and follow-up
D. Increased sensitivity of HPO axis to estrogen

159. A 32 week baby is born to a mother with

eclampsia, who was given IV magnesium
155. One of the following forms the basis for
sulphate. The baby was resuscitated and
sex chromatin testing?
transferred to the NICU. 12 hours later, the baby
A. Barr body showed hypotonia, lethargy, constricted pupils
and two episodes of seizures. The staging of HIE
B. Testosterone receptors is

C. Hormone levels A. 1

D. Phenotypic features B. 2

C. 3

156. Hysteroscopic myomectomy scores over D. There is no HIE

open myomectomy in all of the following except

A. Less recurrence
160. Asymmetric Moros reflex at birth is
B. Less post-operative pain indicative of

C. Less bleeding A. HIE

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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

B. Brain damage A. Nutritional rickets

C. Erbs palsy B. Renal tubular rickets

D. Kernicterus C. Renal glomerular rickets

D. Celiac rickets

161. A very preterm baby on 30 mL/.kg of

enteral feeding developed sudden severe
abdominal distension with visible bowel loops on 165. Bull-neck is seen in severe cases of which
day 6 of life. The baby also showed temperature of the following?
instability and lethargy. X-ray of the abdomen
showed portal venous gas. The staging of NEC is
A. Diphtheria

A. 1b B. Tubercular lymphadenitis

B. 2a C. Mumps

C. 2b D. Goitre

D. 3a
166. In a rural clinic, a 3-year old girl child is
brought by her mother and is emaciated. Her
162. Which of the following babies has the hemoglobin was 5g/dL. The girl also has edema
least risk of developing hypoglycemia? over her knees and ankles with discrete rash on
her knees, ankles and elbows. The most likely
A. A baby born to mother treated with beta worm infestation causing these manifestations is
blockers
A. Hook worm
B. Infant of diabetic mothers
B. Round worm
C. Appropriate for gestational age babies
C. Whip worm
D. IUGR babies
D. Pin worm

163. The most common fungal infection in the

neonates transmitted by caregivers hands is 167. A 6-week baby presents with cough and
cold for the past 3 days. Respiratory rate is 48/min.
A. Candida albicans On examination, patient is febrile with wheezing
but no chest in drawing. Which of the following is
B. Candida glabrata not true?

C. Candida tropicalis A. Child has pneumonia

D. Candida parapsilosis B. Antibiotics are not required

C. Wheezing to be treated
164. A child has deficient bone mineralization D. Fever to be treated
with low serum calcium, high serum phosphorus,
with decreased urinary excretion of calcium and
phosphorus and elevated levels of alkaline
phosphatase. The most likely diagnosis is 168. A 10- year old child presents with edema,
oliguria and frothy urine. HE has no past history
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of similar complaints, On examination, his urine 172. A child presents will albinism. He
was positive for 3+ proteinuria, no RBCs/WBCs should be evaluated for
and no casts. His serum albumin was 2.5 g/L and
serum creatinine was 0.5 mg/dL. The most likely A. ENT consultation
diagnosis is
B. Eye consultation
A. IgA nephropathy
C. Electrocardiography
B. Minimal change disease
D. Neurosurgery
C. Acute interstitial nephritis

D. Membraneous nephropathy
173. A 34-week female fetus was born as
shown below. Identify the congenital anomaly

169. A 6-year old girl presents with fever for A. Anencephaly

the past 5 days, generalized erythematous rash,
strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy. B. Iniencephaly
The most likely diagnosis is
C. Anen-iniencephaly
A. Kimura disease
D. Complete craniospinal rachischisis
B. Kawasaki disease

C. Scarlet fever
174. A 7-year old boy presents with a right-
sided hemangioma and left sided focal seizures.
D. Rosie-Dorfman syndrome
The most likely diagnosis is

A. Neurofibromatosis
170. A 6-year old girl presents with fever for
the past 5 days, generalized erythematous rash, B. Incontinetia pigmenti
strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy.
C. Hypermelanosis of Ito
The most likely diagnosis is

D. Sturge-Weber disease
A. Kimura disease

B. Kawasaki disease
175. A 1.5 year old female is brought to the
C. Scarlet fever
clinic with complaints of excessive enlargement of
head, intolerance to feeds and severe
D. Rosie-Dorfman syndrome
malnourishment. MRI imaging was suggestive of
a medulloblastoma causing obstructive
hydrocephalus. Which of the following is an
171. Enzyme replacement therapy is available example of irrational management of the patient?
for
A. Craniotomy and sub-total excision of the
A. Gauchers disease tumour. Surgeon leaves the layer of the tumour
adherent with colliculus
B. Pompe disease
B. First ventriculoperitoneal shunt was done
C. San Philipo disease
C. CCNU and vincristine were given as
D. Fabrys disease chemotherapy
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D. Radiotherapy 35-40 Gy was given to the whole 180. A 60-year old male presents with painful,
craniospinal axis grouped vesicles over erythematous plaques in T3
dermatome region of trunk, which of the
ORTHOPAEDICS following would be the likely causative
organism?
176. In a case of tuberculosis of the thoracic
spine, the earliest sign of cord compression is A. Varicella zoster
A. Bladder dysfunction B. Herpes simplex
B. Extensor plantar C. Pox virus
C. Motor weakness D. Papilloma virus
D. Sensory loss

181. A 19-year old male presents with several

comedones, papules and pustules on face and
177. A 5 year old boy presents with pain and
trunk. The appropriate drug of choice for the
swelling in diaphysis of tibia. He also complains
patient would be
of fever. On examination, his ESR was raised,
which of the following is the likely diagnosis? A. Topical retinoic acid
A. Ewing sarcoma B. Topical retinoic acid + Oral doxycycline
B. Chondrosarcoma C. Topical clindamycin
C. Osteogenic sarcoma D. Topical azithromycin
D. Fibrosarcoma

182. A 37 year female presents with multiple,

linear, itchy wheals, with itching for 30 minutes at
178. The signs of malignant transformation in
the site. The most probable diagnosis is
osteochondroma are all except
A. Dermatographic urticaria
A. Pain
B. Pressure urticaria
B. Weight loss
C. Acute urticaria
C. Increase in size
D. Chronic urticaria
D. Increase in thickness of cartilage cap

DERMATOLOGY
183. A young 8 year old boy presents with
179. Olympian brow and rhagades are seen in
multiple discrete, shiny, pin-head papules on
dorsal aspect of hand, forearms and shaft of penis.
A. CMV inclusion disease
The diagnosis is
B. Ectodermal dysplasia
A. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Congenital syphilis
B. Scabies
D. Hyper IgE syndrome
C. Lichen planus

D. Lichen nitidus
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

A. Neurofibromatosis-1

184. A 30-year old male presents with flaccid B. Neurofibromatosis-2

bullae on an erythematous base and erosions over
the oral mucous membrane. The blisters C. Xeroderma pigmentosum
developed painful erosions on rupture. What
would be the most likely finding on an D. Autosomal dominant inheritance
immunofluorescent examination of the skin
biopsy of this patient?
ANAESTHESIA
A. Linear IgA deposition in dermopeidermal
junction 188. A patient of head injury is intubated and
ventilated. The ideal mode of ventilation in him
B. Linera IgG deposition in dermoepidermal
would be
junction
A. CMV
C. Fish net IgG deposition in epidermis
B. CPAP
D. Granular deposits of IgA in dermal papillae
C. AMV

D. SIMV
185. A patient presented with thinning of
nails and onychyloysis. What else finding can be
observed in him?
189. The appropriate size of LMA for an
A. Violaceous papules average adult patient weighing 50 kg is

B. Suprabasal split A. 2.5

C. Basal degeration B. 3.0

D. Acantholysis C. 4.0

D. 5.0
186. A patient presents with focal alopecia
areata. All of the following are associations of
alopecia areata except 190. At supra MAC concentrations,
anaesthetics lead to shift of EEG wave from
A. Nail pitting
A. to waves
B. Atopy
B. to waves
C. Geographical tongue
C. to waves
D. Exclammatory mark
D. to waves

187. A man presents with rashes on face and

also complains of decreased mental function. He 191. The plane of surgical anesthesia during
is also having few macular lesions on his skin. On either anesthesia is defined as
CT scan, intracranial calcification was seen. His
wife is normal. His 10-year old daughter is also A. Loss of consciousness
normal but his 6 year old son is also having
similar skin lesions. What would be the most
B. Loss of consciousness to the onset of
spontaneous respiration
likely diagnosis?
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

C. From onset of regular respiration to cessation
of spontaneous breathing
196. A 7-year old patient presents with severe
D. Absence of reflexes headache, paralysis of upward gaze, loss of light
perception and accommodation, nystagmus and
failure of convergence. CT scan showed
homogenous hyperdense lesion above the sella
192. Which of the following drugs does not
and in the posterior part of the third ventricle.
affect absorption and secretion of cerebrospinal
MRI showed that the lesions were homogenous
fluid?
and isointense on T1 weighted imaging, and
isointense on T2 weighted imaging with intense
A. Halothane
contrast enhancement. The most likely diagnosis
B. Nitrous oxide is:

C. Ketamine A. Teratoma

D. Thiopentone sodium B. Germinoma

C. Dermoid

193. Which of the following intravenous D. Choroid plexus carcinoma

anesthetic agents is contraindicated in epileptic
PSYCHIATRY
patients posted for general anesthesia?

197. All of the following statements are true

A. Ketamine
about blackouts except
B. Thiopentone
A. The person appears confused to the onlookers
C. Propofol
B. Remote memory is relatively intact during the
D. Midazolam blackout

C. It is a discrete episode of anterograde amnesia

194. Midazolam causes all except D. It is associated with alcohol intoxication

A. Anterograde amnesia

B. Retrograde amnesia 198. According to the ICD-10 revision, for

establishing a diagnosis of mania, the symptoms
C. Causes tachyphylaxis during high dose should persist for at least
infusions
A. 1 week
D. Decreased cardiovascular effects as compared
to propofol B. 2 weeks

RADIOLOGY C. 3 weeks

195. Puff of smoke appearance on cerebral D. 4 weeks

angiography is seen in

A. ACA aneurysm
199. The evidence-based psychological
B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis therapy of choice for depression is

C. Moyamoya disease A. Group discussion therapy

D. Vein of Galen malformation B. Counselling

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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

C. Cognitive behavior therapy

D. Psychological psychotherapy

Q. No Ans
1.
B

2.
D

3.
B

4.
D

5.
B

6.
B

7.
B

8.
B

9.
C

10.
C

11.
D

12.
A

13.
A

14.
B

15.
A

16.
B

17.
D

18.
D

19.
B

20.
A

21. B
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

51.
A
22. 52.
A B
23. 53.
B D
24. 54.
B B
25. 55.
B A
26. 56.
A D
27. 57.
A D
28. 58.
A A
29. 59.
A B
30. 60.
C C
31. 61.
A D
32. 62.
A B
33. 63.
C B
34. 64.
A A
35. 65.
B D
36. 66.
B A
37. 67.
C C
38. 68.
A A
39. 69.
B A
40. 70.
B A
41. 71.
C C
42. 72.
C D
43. 73.
C D
44. 74.
B A
45. 75.
D A
46. 76.
A D
47. 77.
A A
48. 78.
C B
49. 79.
D B
50. 80.
C B
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

81. 111.
C B

82. 112.
D D

83. 113.
A C

84. 114.
A A

85. 115.
B B

86. 116.
A B

87. 117.
D A

88. 118.
C A

89. 119.
B A

90. 120.
A C

91. 121.
A C

92. 122.
A A

93. 123.
D A

94. 124.
B A

95. 125.
B D

96. 126.
A A

97. 127.
D A

98. 128.
A A

99. 129.
D A

100. 130.
C B

101. 131.
A B

102. 132.
C D

103. 133.
C D

104. 134.
C A

105. 135.
B C

106. 136.
A A

107. 137.
A D

108. 138.
B D

109. 139.
C A

110. 140.
C C
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AIIMS MEDICAL PG MAY 2014

141. 171.
C A

142. 172.
C B

143. 173.
D D

144. 174.
C D

145. 175.
C D

146. 176.
B B

147. 177.
C A

148. 178.
C B

149. 179.
C C

150. 180.
A A

151. 181.
D B

152. 182.
D A

153. 183.
C D

154. 184.
C C

155. 185.
A C

156. 186.
C C

157. 187.
B D

158. 188.
B A

159. 189.
B C

160. 190.
C B

161. 191.
C C

162. 192.
C B

163. 193.
D A

164. 194.
C B

165. 195.
A C

166. 196.
A B

167. 197.
A A

168. 198.
B A

169. 199.
B C

170.
B