Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.
o (a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
o (b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
o (c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
4. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.
o (a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (c) The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (d) The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge
pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic
bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
o (c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
o (d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge
suction valves.
8. Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated
centrifugal pump under manual supervision?
10. Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
o (a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
11. Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
(a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
o (c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
12. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the forepeak and aft peak tanks?
13. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the double-bottom ballast tanks?
(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
o (b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
o (c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
o (d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.
14. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "ballasting"?
o (a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
o (b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
o (d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
15. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "deballasting"?
o (a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
o (c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
o (d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
16. With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term
"segregated" ballast?
o (a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from engine room bilge systems.
(b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from cargo or fuel oil systems.
o (c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems.
o (d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from clean bilge systems.
17. Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water
treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the
ballast water management regulations?
o (a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
o (b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
o (c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from
any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
18. What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as
applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?
(a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
o (b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
o (c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
o (d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.
21. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor
mechanical unloading system will __________.
(a) fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no
difficulty
o (b) still function normally at start-up
o (c) fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be
overloaded
o (d) Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor
23. The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be
expected to be __________.
o (a) Sliding
o (b) Rotary
(c) Reed
o (d) Poppet
25. In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners,
which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors?
o (a) Barrel
o (b) Valve-in-head
(c) Trunk
o (d) Differential
26. Which of the following compressors would be used for a cold-ship start-up of a ship's
service diesel generator on a motor ship?
27. Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at
approximately 100 psig?
28. If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement
concerning operation is true?
(a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
o (b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
o (c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
o (d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
29. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should
__________.
30. If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.
31. The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When
mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.
(a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
o (b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
o (c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
o (d) allow for crank web deflection
32. After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet
and discharge valves is to use __________.
o (a) gasoline
(b) diesel oil
o (c) naphtha
o (d) ammonia
33. How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture
and emulsions?
o (a) Quarterly
o (b) Weekly
(c) Daily
o (d) Monthly
34. When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under
what conditions should the oil level be checked?
35. As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned,
what statement is true?
o (a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
o (b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
(c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with
a clean filter.
o (d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with
a clean filter.
36. Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for
adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose
station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.
(a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate
or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
o (b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate
or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
o (c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
o (d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
37. Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a
filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?
o (a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
o (b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
(c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
o (d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.
38. In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is
the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated
with moisture?
o (a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
o (b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
o (c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
(d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.
39. Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________.
40. A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure
reciprocating air compressor will __________.
41. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.
42. Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?
43. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
__________.
44. Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven
reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?
45. If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its
design parameters, what would be the effect?
(a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
o (b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
o (c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
o (d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
46. If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design
displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?
47. If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to
properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?
o (a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
o (b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
o (c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
49. Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous
analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be
understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control.
o (a) Pneumatic
(b) Digital
o (c) Electric/electronic
o (d) Direct connected
62. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear
bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
63. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine
exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?
64. What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses
two-point control?
o (a) Gain
(b) Feedback
o (c) Instability
o (d) Dead band
66. In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it
relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?
o (a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
o (b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
(c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
o (d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
67. In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function
of the error detector within the controller?
o (a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the
desired value (set point).
o (b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
(c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled
variable and the desired value (set point).
o (d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
68. What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for
measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?
69. Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?
70. Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the
liquid level in a pressure vessel such a water-tube boiler steam drum?
71. Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic
lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational
speed?
o (a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
o (c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
o (d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
72. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing
which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?
73. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which
substitutes fluid friction for sliding friction?
74. Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load
applications?
75. What statement is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings?
(a) An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at any
shaft speed.
o (b) An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is
present only at operational speed.
o (c) An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present only at
operational speed.
o (d) An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at
any shaft speed.
77. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________.
78. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or
wheel puller with a________.
o (a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in
the bearing
(b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
o (c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
o (d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape
80. A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?
81. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
82. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
83. A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What
thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?
84. Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is
the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?
85. What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in
terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?
86. Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?
90. To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-
osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?
o (a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water
inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
o (b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the freshwater
leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various freshwater storage tanks.
(c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from
becoming resident in the reverse-osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
o (d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the freshwater leaving the unit prior to distribution to the
various freshwater storage tanks.
91. Regarding the operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what
statement is true?
o (a) External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing salt through the semi-
permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration.
o (b) External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing salt through the semi-
permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration.
o (c) External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing freshwater through the
semi-permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration.
(d) External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing freshwater through the
semi-permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration.
o (a) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-
stage rotary pump.
o (b) The high-pressure pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-
stage centrifugal pump.
(c) The high-pressure pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a
multi-stage centrifugal pump.
o (d) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage
centrifugal pump.
93. For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high
pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?
o (a) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.
o (b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
(c) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.
o (d) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).
94. If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged
through erosion, the __________.
o (a) salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second
stage
o (b) evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first stage
o (c) distillate produced in the second stage would flow towards the first stage
(d) evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the second
stage
95. If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the
second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.
98. On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more
likely to find soft scale formation?
99. Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.
o (a) condensers
(b) demisters
o (c) splash baffles
o (d) spray pipes
101. Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-tube heat
exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser
with the __________.
104. When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.
105. Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale
removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?
111. For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting
of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this
regulator is true?
(a) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (b) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (c) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (d) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.
112. If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated
with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?
113. What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-
osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?
115. What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?
o (a) A lower than normal feed pressure.
o (b) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(c) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
o (d) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.
117. What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer
semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?
(a) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
o (c) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with
freshwater.
123. Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat?
124. Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it
to run under a substantially positive pressure?
125. In which of the following freshwater generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?
126. Which of the freshwater generators listed below requires a source of heat and
evaporates sea water at a location other than a heat exchanger surface?
127. Other than taking a scale thickness through a zinc plug opening of the water box of a
feed water heater of a flash evaporator, what would be the BEST indication for a need to remove
scale build-up?
o (a) A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
o (b) A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
o (c) A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
(d) A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
128. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued
presence of scale?
o (a) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (c) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
129. When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?
o (a) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain
distillate production capacity.
(b) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.
o (c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
o (d) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.
130. What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating
surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?
o (a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
o (b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
(c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
o (d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.
131. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of
the scale?
o (a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
137. What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
o (a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
o (c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
o (d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
138. What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide
residual disinfectant in the potable water?
o (a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
o (b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
(c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
o (d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
139. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?
140. Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water
system is true?
(a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks.
o (d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located below the potable water storage tanks.
141. On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?
o (a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.
o (b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
o (c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.
142. What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water
pumps supporting a typical potable water system?
(a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high.
o (b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low
demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high.
o (c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead
pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high.
o (d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system
demand changes.
143. What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?
144. Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such
as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose
of such an arrangement?
o (a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated
primary heat source, whether in port or underway.
o (b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
o (c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port
or underway.
(d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.
145. What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro
pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?
o (a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
o (b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
o (d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.
146. Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45
psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting
for the "lag" potable water pump?
(a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
147. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
149. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?
o (a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
o (b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
o (c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.
o (a) If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
(b) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
o (c) If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load
changes.
o (d) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load.
151. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?
152. Which term represents the how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a
corrective action as the result of a load change?
o (a) Sensitivity
o (b) Power
(c) Promptness
o (d) Dead band
153. What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?
(a) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by the
governor.
o (b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
o (c) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as
the result of a load change.
o (d) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of
governor power.
154. What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
o (a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack
of governor power.
(b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action
as the result of a load change.
o (c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed to over control by the
governor.
o (d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
155. What is statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime
mover speed control governors?
o (a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.
(a) In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
o (b) In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in the same direction.
o (c) In a parallel-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
o (d) In a cross-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
158. With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat
exchangers, what statement is true?
o (a) In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends.
o (b) In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends.
o (c) In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end.
(d) In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end.
159. If a heat exchanger is designed to cool lubricating oil using sea water as a cooling
medium, what statement is true?
o (a) The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat.
(b) The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The lubricating oil loses latent heat, and the sea water gains latent heat.
o (d) The lubricating oil gains sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat.
160. If a heat exchanger is designed to heat heavy fuel oil using steam as a heating
medium, what statement is true?
(a) The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses latent heat.
o (b) The heavy fuel oil loses sensible heat, and the steam gains latent heat.
o (c) The heavy fuel oil gains latent heat, and the steam loses sensible heat.
o (d) The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses sensible heat.
161. If a heat exchanger is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket
water as an evaporating medium, what statement is true?
o (a) The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat.
o (b) The sea water loses latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The sea water gains sensible heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat.
(d) The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses sensible heat.
162. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling
fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
o (a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
(b) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
o (d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.
163. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil
heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
165. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a
diesel engine are seawater cooled, what statement is true?
o (a) Seawater flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (b) Seawater flows through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-
water cooler.
(c) Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (d) Seawater flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the lube-
oil cooler.
166. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat
exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end?
167. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat
exchangers has a tube arrangement featuring a "tube-within-a-tube"?
168. In a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which of the following tube types would be LEAST
susceptible to tube-side fouling?
169. For a given shell diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which
tube pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes?
170. For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would feature "see-
through" lanes and would most easily allow external mechanical cleaning of the tubes?
o (a) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the shell.
o (b) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the tubes.
(c) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the shell.
o (d) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the tubes.
.
172. For marine-type shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common
arrangement for baffles?
(a) Segmental
o (b) Disc
o (c) Doughnut
o (d) Solid
173. What prevents the two fluids in a plate type heat exchanger from coming into direct
contact with each other and mixing?
o (a) The chevrons and corrugations between the individual heat transfer plates.
o (b) The metal-to-metal seal between the individual heat transfer plates.
o (c) The metal-to-metal seal between the covers (pressure plates).
(d) The gasket to groove seals between the individual heat transfer plates.
174. With regard to the flow patterns associated with plate type heat exchangers, which
flow pattern is able to achieve counter-flow on opposite sides of each heat exchange plate?
o (a) The flow pattern where one fluid makes a single pass and the other makes multiple passes
through the heat exchanger.
o (b) The flow pattern where each fluid makes multiple passes through the heat exchanger.
(c) The flow pattern where each fluid makes a single pass through the heat exchanger.
o (d) It is not possible for each heat exchanger plate to achieve counter flow on opposite sides.
175. What is the most common arrangement for a compact heat exchanger such as that
used on an air conditioning cooling coil located in a ventilation supply duct?
176. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as
a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?
o (a) Introduce the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids
immediately to avoid thermal shock.
o (b) Introduce both the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal
shock.
o (c) Introduce the steam first, then gradually introduce the heavy fuel oil until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
(d) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually introduce the steam until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
177. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as
a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to prevent water hammer what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?
o (a) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the
condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry steam. Finally, introduce
the heavy fuel oil.
o (b) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining
condensate.
o (c) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the
condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining condensate. Finally, introduce
the heavy fuel oil.
(d) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry
steam.
178. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a
bayonet-tube type heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?
o (a) Secure both the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and immediately to avoid thermal
shock.
o (b) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually secure the steam to avoid thermal shock.
o (c) Secure the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock.
(d) Gradually secure the steam first, then secure the heavy fuel oil to avoid thermal shock.
179. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a
bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?
o (a) Open wide the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam. Finally, secure the heavy fuel oil.
o (b) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam.
(c) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate. Finally, secure the heavy fuel
oil.
o (d) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate.
180. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle
such as a lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?
o (a) Introduce the cooling water first, then gradually introduce the lube oil until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
o (b) Introduce the lubricating oil first, then gradually introduce the cooling water until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
(c) Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid
thermal shock.
o (d) Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously establishing full flow of
both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock.
181. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger such as a jacket water cooler into
service, to insure optimal heat transfer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?
(a) Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed.
o (b) Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed.
o (c) Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed.
o (d) Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed.
182. When securing a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended
period of time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure?
o (a) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained, then flushed with freshwater and
left completely filled with freshwater.
o (b) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain closed while draining.
o (c) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be left completely filled with seawater.
(d) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain open while draining.
183. When shifting heat exchangers such as main engine lube-oil coolers, what statement
represents the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine operation?
o (a) First, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going cooler.
Next, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler.
o (b) First, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going
cooler.
(c) First, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going
cooler.
o (d) First, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going cooler.
Next, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler.
184. Suppose a diesel engine is fitted with seawater-cooled lube oil and jacket water
coolers. What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures?
o (a) The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
o (b) The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
o (c) The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
(d) The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket
water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the
lube oil cooler.
o (a) A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
o (b) A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
o (c) An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
(d) An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an
increased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
186. For soft scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?
188. For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil
cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?
189. What would be the most likely indication that a plate type jacket water cooler had an
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?
o (a) Rising level and overflowing of the jacket water expansion tank.
o (b) Drop in concentration of corrosion inhibitor package of jacket water.
o (c) Excessive scale build-up on the various cylinder jacket surfaces.
(d) Dropping level and frequent need to top off jacket water expansion tank.
191. Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be the
LEAST likely to become air-bound on the seawater side?
192. How may a suspected tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be
located?
(a) Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the water box
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at each of the tube ends.
o (b) Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Pressurize the seawater side
with compressed air. Visually inspect the jacket water expansion tank for bubbles.
o (c) Isolate, drain, and dry both the salt water and jacket water sides of the heat exchanger.
Remove the water box inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at
each of the tube ends.
o (d) Isolate, drain, and dry the jacket water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the shell
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tubes along the tube lengths for seepage.
193. What would be the most likely indication that a shell-and-tube lube oil cooler had in
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?
(a) Dropping level and frequent need to add make-up oil to engine sump.
o (b) Corrosion of engine internal parts in contact with lube oil.
o (c) Rising level in engine lube oil sump.
o (d) Drop in viscosity of engine lube oil.
194. Besides a visual inspection upon disassembly, what method can be used to check for
suspected leakage through a heat transfer plate of a plate type heat exchanger?
o (a) One side of the plate is cleaned and coated with a water-seeking paste, and the other side is
sprayed with water.
o (b) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an infra-red heat source.
(c) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ultra-violet light.
o (d) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ordinary flashlight.
195. If a fluorescent dye penetrant and ultra-violet light are used for leak detection on a
heat exchanger, what would be the indication of a confirmed leak?
197. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic
oil's viscosity?
o (a) Vacuum
(b) Pressure
o (c) Cloud point
o (d) Pour point
(a) increases
o (b) contracts
o (c) remains constant if pressure decreases
o (d) remains the same
199. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.
204. For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the
inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside
diameter less __________.
208. A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system and has
developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________.
(a) shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when
tightening
o (b) replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
o (c) keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
o (d) stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut
211. An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help
reduce the possibility of __________.
214. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?
o (a) V-ring
o (b) U-ring
(c) Quad ring
o (d) Cup seal
o (a) produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used
o (b) supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements
were to fail
(c) develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the
second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage
o (d) establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system
218. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston
pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.
o (a) pump shaft and central valve
(b) floating ring and cylinder body
o (c) floating ring and pump shaft
o (d) pump shaft and horizontal ports
219. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following
would have to be done?
(a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
o (b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
o (c) Double the casing thickness.
o (d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
220. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.
222. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during
retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.
227. Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to __________.
228. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional
control valve?
230. Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.
231. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to __________.
232. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to
temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?
233. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of
one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?
236. For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
o (a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting
without lifting the relief valve.
(b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
o (c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
o (d) All of the above.
237. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic
ram is correct?
o (a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
(b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
o (c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
o (d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.
238. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of
hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.
o (a) ram
o (b) pump
(c) accumulator
o (d) piping
239. Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be
temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?
(a) Accumulator
o (b) Modulator
o (c) Pressure compensator valve
o (d) Sump actuator
241. Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a
hydraulic system?
242. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.
o (a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
o (b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
o (c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
(d) all of the above
243. A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil.
Another function is to __________.
245. In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from
the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.
246. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled
heat exchanger, the fan should __________.
(a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
o (b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
o (c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190F (87.8C)
o (d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32.2C)
247. In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be
necessary?
248. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you
will __________.
o (a) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system
o (b) cause the system to vibrate
(c) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened
o (d) be successful every time
o (a) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's
design pressure
o (b) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure
(c) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator
preload pressure
o (d) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the
air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached
250. How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on
hydraulic systems?
o (a) Place drip pans under leaky fittings.
o (b) Coat all threads with graphite oil.
(c) Clean the fittings before they are disconnected.
o (d) Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex.
251. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.
o (a) the system has been idle for a long period of time
o (b) adding small amounts of oil to the system
o (c) the system has been overheated
(d) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil
253. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased
by using __________.
o (a) alcohol
o (b) carbon tetrachloride
o (c) a water-based detergent
(d) a special petroleum solvent
254. In which lubrication application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used?
255. What is the operating principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil
with its unique properties?
(a) Detergent and dispersant additives are able to hold solids in suspension.
o (b) Detergent and dispersant additives chemically dissolve the solids.
o (c) Detergent and dispersant additives convert the solids into a soap-like substance.
o (d) Detergent and dispersant additives cause the solids to settle out.
256. With respect to lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and
viscosity index?
(a) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's internal resistance to flow and viscosity index is a measure
of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
o (b) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's resistance to emulsification and viscosity is a measure of an
oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
o (c) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's lubricity and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's ability to
resist change in lubricity as the pressure changes.
o (d) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's ability to resist oxidation and viscosity index is a measure of
an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
257. Which statement is true concerning alkaline reserve as it applies to a lubricating oil?
o (a) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an alkaline condition.
o (b) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize bases as they are formed.
o (c) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an acidic condition.
(d) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize acids as they are formed.
258. In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely
to be used?
259. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be
serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?
260. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the
bearing maintained?
o (a) The bearing is maintained at a level where the shaft is half-submerged in oil.
o (b) The bearing is maintained at any level that guarantees that the shaft is partially submerged in
oil.
o (c) The bearing is maintained in a flooded state where the shaft is completely submerged in oil.
(d) The bearing is maintained at a level below the shaft, but high enough so that the ring dips into
the oil.
261. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the
bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?
o (a) Annually
o (b) Every round
o (c) Daily
(d) Bimonthly
262. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true?
o (a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
o (b) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
(d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.
263. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure feed lubricating oil
system, which statement is true?
o (a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (b) The lube oil sump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.
(c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
264. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?
o (a) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the points of
lubrication.
o (b) The lube oil gravity tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump
is above the points of lubrication.
(c) The lube oil gravity tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is
below the points of lubrication.
o (d) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of
lubrication.
265. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse
conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?
o (a) Weekly
o (b) Monthly
(c) Annually
o (d) Quarterly
266. Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter?
o (a) Gravity-feed
o (b) Pressure-feed
(c) Static-feed
o (d) Force-feed
267. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?
o (a) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(b) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (c) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (d) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
268. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?
o (a) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be delivered by
the pump.
(b) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (c) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
o (d) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
269. Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating
systems because they __________.
270. The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent
filters __________.
271. Which of the following statements best describes the straining ability of a fine mesh
metal lube oil strainer?
o (a) A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen.
(b) A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh
screen.
o (c) A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through.
o (d) A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen.
272. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with
today's high detergent additive type oils?
273. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to replace or clean the element
while leaving the system on the line?
o (a) Simplex
o (b) Bypass
o (c) Canister
(d) Duplex
274. Which of the following types of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration schemes must be
equipped with a bypass relief valve to insure that the engine bearings are not starved of oil if the
filter element should become severely restricted or blocked?
275. Which of the following types of lubricating oil filters is not fitted with a replaceable
filter element and is serviced by cleaning?
276. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of
the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold of the engine?
277. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the
output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via a fine filter?
278. What is the BEST indication that a diesel engine full-flow lubricating oil filter must be
serviced?
279. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.
o (a) elasticity
o (b) ductility
o (c) fusibility
(d) malleability
285. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated
above its critical temperature?
o (a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
o (b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
(c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
o (d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.
286. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides
refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?
287. When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of
casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?
(a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
o (b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
o (c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
o (d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
288. What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on a welding
a joint?
(a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
o (b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
o (c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
o (d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
295. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density
approaching that of water?
296. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-
water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
o (a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
297. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?
298. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water
separator?
(a) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of
the filter housing.
o (b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
o (c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that
sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
o (d) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained
water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to
the top of the filter housing.
o (a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
o (b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
o (d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.
300. What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to
facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?
301. What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity
associated with an oily-water separator?
(a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
o (b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
o (c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
o (d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
302. If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what
statement concerning the plate pack is true?
(a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (a) Blow down is the feature of a valve that allows drainage of condensate away from the disc to
prevent sticking.
o (b) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
popping pressure.
(c) Blow down is the difference between the valve popping pressure and the valve reseating
pressure.
o (d) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
reseating pressure.
(a) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and only reseat
when the pressure has dropped significantly.
o (b) Safety valves are always set to relieve at a pressure exceeding the maximum allowable
working pressure of the system.
o (c) Safety valves are designed to throttle and adjust the flow rate to just keep up with the capacity
of the pressure source.
o (d) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and immediately
reseat when the pressure has dropped by a very small amount.
320. Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper
operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?
(a) No stop isolation valve may be installed between the relief valve and its source of pressure,
and no stop isolation valve may be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (b) It is permissible to install a stop isolation valve between the relief valve and its source of
pressure, but no stop isolation valve may be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (c) It is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed between the relief valve and its source
of pressure, and it is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed in the relief valve
discharge piping.
o (d) No stop isolation valve may be installed between the relief valve and its source of pressure,
but it is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (a) The set point of the sentinel valve is usually above the maximum allowable working pressure
of the system.
o (b) The capacity of a sentinel valve must exceed the capacity of the pressure source.
(c) The sentinel valve's sole purpose is to warn personnel of excessive system pressure.
o (d) The set point of a sentinel valve is normally set below the normal working pressure of the
system.
329. Suppose a steam trap's primary purpose is to insure good heat transfer of a steam-
heated heat exchanger. What statement is true concerning the outcome of a steam trap failure?
o (a) Steam trap failure in a fully open position would result in exceptionally good heat transfer, and
steam trap failure in a full closed position would result in exceptionally poor heat transfer.
(b) Steam trap failure in either a fully open or fully closed position would both result in
exceptionally poor heat transfer.
o (c) Steam trap failure in a fully open position would result in exceptionally poor heat transfer, and
steam trap failure in a full closed position would result in exceptionally good heat transfer.
o (d) Steam trap failure in either a fully open or fully closed position would both result in
exceptionally good heat transfer.
330. What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?
(a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
insure good heat transfer efficiency.
331. What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into
contact with superheated steam?
334. In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what
statement is true regarding its installation?
o (a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
o (b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
o (c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with
insulation.
(d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.
365. In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential
condition must exist?
366. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from
one location to another by fluid in motion?
o (a) Sublimation
(b) Convection
o (c) Radiation
o (d) Conduction
367. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within
a body or between two bodies in direct contact?
o (a) Radiation
(b) Conduction
o (c) Sublimation
o (d) Convection
368. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy
through a transparent medium by means of electro-magnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?
o (a) Conduction
o (b) Sublimation
(c) Radiation
o (d) Convection
369. Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer.
Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the
opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?
o (a) Radiation
o (b) Natural convection
o (c) Forced convection
(d) Conduction
370. What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger
boundary wall by conduction?
o (a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
directly proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
o (b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
o (c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
inversely proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.
371. What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of
natural convection?
(a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be exceed the internal energy taken up by the second body.
o (b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, there is no mathematical relationship
between the internal energy given up by the first body and the internal energy taken up by the
second body.
o (c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be less than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be equal to the internal energy taken up by the second body.
o (a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is uni-directional
from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
o (b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow between the two
bodies is unpredictable.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is uni-directional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body.
o (d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is bi-directional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body and from the relatively cold body to the
relatively hot body.
374. If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal
gases, what statement is true?
o (a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
o (c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
o (d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
375. If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of
ideal gases, what statement is true?
o (a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
o (b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
o (d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
376. What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a
unit mass of a substance one degree?
o (a) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.
o (b) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
(c) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
o (d) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.
378. What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a
substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?
(a) Power
o (b) Kinetic energy
o (c) Mechanical work
o (d) Potential energy
o (a) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.
(b) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
o (c) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
o (d) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.
o (a) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a
substance are in no way related to the temperature of a substance.
o (b) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of
the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a
substance are in no way related to the state of matter of a substance.
(c) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of
the substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the
temperature of the substance.
o (d) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the
substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance.
382. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Kort
nozzle?
383. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith-
Schneider drive?
384. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw
propeller of the conventional design?
385. When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?
386. Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion
shafting rotation?
o (a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Controllable-pitch propeller
o (c) Tandem propellers
o (d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
387. What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?
388. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z-
drive?
389. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?
o (a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
o (b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a
mechanical pull-push rod located within the propeller shaft.
o (c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the
propeller shaft in either case.
(d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller
shaft.
391. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?
392. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is
required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that
the propeller is attached to?
393. What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?
394. What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft
misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?
(a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for
deflection upwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning
bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
o (b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions. o (c)
All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
upwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
o (d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or
conventional non-aligning type bearings.
395. Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing
shells on merchant ships?
396. Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?
o (a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
o (b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by wick action
(c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of
the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
o (d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.
397. What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?
o (a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
o (b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
o (c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
(d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
o (a) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
o (b) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
o (c) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from ahead.
(d) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from astern.
o (a) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
(b) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed
from astern.
o (c) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
o (d) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed
from ahead.
o (a) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
o (b) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwartships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
(c) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwartships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
o (d) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
o (a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of
rotation of the pump.
o (b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch
angle of the pump impeller.
o (c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the pump inlet guide vanes.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the water discharge vectoring ring.
402. With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement
represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?
o (a) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
(b) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump
discharge.
o (c) The vectoring ring is used to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
o (d) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.
(a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
o (b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
o (c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
o (d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.
404. With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
o (a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o (b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o (c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.
405. With respect to a "tractor" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o (b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.
o (c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o (d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
406. By what means is electric current conveyed to the electric drive motor of a podded
propulsor?
o (a) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary brushes, then through a single
rotating slip ring and then on to the motor windings.
o (b) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary slip rings, then through a set of
rotating brushes and then on to the motor windings.
(c) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary brushes, then through a set of
rotating slip rings and then on to the motor windings.
o (d) Current is conveyed from the source to the stator of a synchronous transmitter, and by
synchro action to the rotor of a synchronous receiver.
407. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?
408. What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when
installed on ships?
409. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?
o (a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
o (b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.
o (d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
410. The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?
411. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?
.
412. What is an example of an epicyclic gear?
413. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
o (b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
o (c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
o (d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
414. Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with
one another?
415. 6) Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the
transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?
416. Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of slip?
(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque.
o (b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed
and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque.
o (c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque.
o (d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque.
(a) A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
o (b) They operate best under negative suction pressure conditions.
o (c) They are particularly well suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
o (d) They operate more efficiently when mounted in a horizontal position.
424. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
425. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?
426. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
o (b) it is unsuitable for high pressure applications
o (c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
o (d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
.
431. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.
432. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
433. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?
o (a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
o (b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
o (c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
434. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?
o (a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
o (c) Block off the sealing water connection.
o (d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
(a) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
o (b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
o (c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
o (d) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
438. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
o (b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
o (c) left in that position
o (d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
439. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.
440. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
o (b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
o (c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
o (d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
441. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?
442. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.
o (a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
o (b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
o (c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
(d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
443. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.
444. If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.
(a) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
o (b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
o (c) produces pressure
o (d) is to develop a pressure differential
446. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?
448. A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to __________.
449. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at
the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.
450. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
o (a) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
o (b) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.
(c) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
o (d) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
452. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
o (a) Bronze.
(b) Carbon.
o (c) Copper and carbon.
o (d) Copper.
o (a) They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of the pump.
(b) They can be economically replaced as they wear out.
o (c) They increase the strength of the shaft.
o (d) They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing.
455. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing
boxes, is to __________.
457. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?
460. If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute
with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of
this pump?
o (a) 58 gpm
(b) 48 gpm
o (c) 38 gpm
o (d) 28 gpm
461. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.
462. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
463. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.
464. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.
o (a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
o (c) 120 apart
o (d) 180 apart
465. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?
466. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
467. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.
468. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.
469. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by __________.
470. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?
472. When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the
cause may be __________.
473. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should
remain open?
474. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.
o (a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
o (b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
o (c) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure
476. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed, is to __________.
o (a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
o (c) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
o (d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
477. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?
o (a) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
o (b) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(c) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an
abnormally low
flow.
o (d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.
478. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.
479. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump, is caused by __________.
480. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed,
the __________.
481. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.
(a) cavitation
o (b) abrasion
o (c) corrosion
o (d) electrolysis
482. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.
(a) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
o (b) variations in the throttle adjustment
o (c) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
o (d) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
483. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?
484. Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam
cylinder of a reciprocating pump?
o (a) Vertical
o (b) Direct-acting
o (c) High-pressure
(d) Diffuser
486. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge
through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?
o (a) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
o (b) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
o (c) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
(d) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water
chest.
487. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.
o (a) injector
(b) diffuser
o (c) compressor
o (d) siphon
491. The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by
__________.
493. Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
o (a) Type I
o (b) Type II
(c) Type III
o (d) Type IV
494. A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many
vessels
by using __________.
497. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what
would be the normal temperature range of the water?
o (a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
o (b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
o (c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet
temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive
series-connected
coil.
504. It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept
free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary
source of air
contamination?
o (a) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.
(b) The introduction of air via the makeup water.
o (c) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
o (d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.
505. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling heating system have over
a
2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system?
o (a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a
2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
o (b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the
amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same
number of zones.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous
heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
o (d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the
amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same
number of zones.
507. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for
shipboard steam heating systems?
(a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater
return.
o (b) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve
on the return.
o (c) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
o (d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.
508. What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air-conditioning systems?
509. What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?
511. Concerning air-conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?
o (a) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, vertically
installed.
o (b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, horizontally
installed.
o (c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible,
horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, vertically
installed.
o (a) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and vertically installed.
o (b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and horizontally installed.
o (d) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and vertically installed.
513. What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic
equipment?
(a) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and horizontally
installed.
o (b) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and vertically
installed.
o (c) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and horizontally
installed.
o (d) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and vertically
installed.
(a) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the
outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
o (b) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from
the outside and
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
o (c) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from
the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
o (d) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from
the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
o (a) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification
chamber.
o (b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification
chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the
humidification chamber.
o (d) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is
condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the
humidification chamber.
519. With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?
(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the
cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air
contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (b) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is
known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-
hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the regeneration
chamber.
o (c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the
heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air
contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (d) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is
known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains
the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.
520. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is
true?
o (a) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10oF
above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o (b) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a
constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10oF
below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o (d) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the
surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
521. To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location
would
the dew point be measured?
o (a) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.
(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
o (c) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
o (d) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.
522. What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo-
hold dehumidification systems?
o (a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture
into the
desiccant.
o (b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of
the desiccant.
o (d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the
moisture out of the
desiccant.
523. What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
524. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?
528. What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream,
with one for cold air and the other for hot air?
538. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
by
an ordinary thermometer?
539. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
with a sling psychrometer?
548. You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled,
with one foot
of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?
549. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters,
analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the
distance a mass travels in a given direction as a result of a part
vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?
550. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters,
analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the rate of
change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic
or oscillatory motion?
552. When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?
o (a) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed at which it will shear due to excessive
torque placed
upon it by the prime mover in driving the load.
o (b) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed of rotation that is out
of harmonic synchronism with
the shaft's natural vibration frequency which produces excessive
vibration.
(c) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed of rotation that is in
harmonic synchronism with the
shaft's natural vibration frequency which produces excessive
vibration.
o (d) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed at which it will fly apart due to
excessive centrifugal
forces associated with excessive speed.
554. If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the
reading is __________.
556. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.
557. To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used
with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?
558. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
__________.
(a) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
o (b) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
o (c) eliminate ratchet movement
o (d) click at each increment of measure
.
559. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible
to
read in increments of __________.
560. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal
to
__________.
o (a) 3 1/8 inches
(b) 2 5/8 inches
o (c) 2 7/16 inches
o (d) 3 9/16 inches
561. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a
bearing
shim, you should use a __________.
(a) micrometer
o (b) feeler gage
o (c) depth gage
o (d) machinists rule
562. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread
__________.
o (a) tap
o (b) chaser
o (c) broach
(d) die
563. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
564. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.
566. The best tool to use to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt is a
__________.
o (a) pair of outside calipers
(b) screw pitch gauge
o (c) micrometer
o (d) tap
567. A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should
only
be used to __________.
570. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.
o (a) micrometer
o (b) calipers
o (c) scribing circle
(d) steel rule
571. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet
metal?
572. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.
575. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with
figure
"B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124? GS-0080
(a) figure F
o (b) figure C
o (c) figure B
o (d) figure G
576. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
GS-
0080
o (a) figure C
o (b) figure G
o (c) figure L
(d) figure D
577. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.
o (a) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
o (b) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the
thread
o (c) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
578. The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch
bolt is
__________.
o (a) 18
(b) 13
o (c) 20
o (d) 16
583. Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for
machine
threads on bolts and nuts?
o (a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the
brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (d) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
.
o (a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically
releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only.
They have no
control over the warping heads.
o (b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping
heads only. They
have no control over the wildcats.
o (c) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping
heads and the
wildcats.
o (d) The clutch control levers are used to either engage and disengage the warping
heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.
o (a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
o (b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
the warping
heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
the wildcats only.
o (d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with
either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.
590. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?
(a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the
hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
o (b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the
wildcat clutches
being disengaged.
o (c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with
hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
o (d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the
hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.
o (a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with
the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
o (b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the
windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by
controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
engaged.
o (c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power
with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by
controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
disengaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the
windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
592. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
o (a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically
releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the
brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
593. Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the
reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?
o (a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and
capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
o (b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear
reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located
on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear
reducer are mounted on the
deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located
on the weather deck.
o (d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed
above.
(a) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking
strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line
breakage.
o (b) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the
breaking strength of the mooring
line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
o (c) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking
strength of the
mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
o (d) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the
breaking strength of the mooring
line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring
line breakage.
.
595. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?
o (a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo
power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake
automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure.
o (d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake
automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo
power hydraulic pressure.
598. As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-
handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
o (a) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and
minimum
outreach limit switches.
o (b) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(c) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
o (d) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or
the slack wire
limit switch.
600. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?
(a) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still
open and only allow
elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.
o (b) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still
closed and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.
o (c) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard
emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
o (d) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard
emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
601. What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?
603. If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what
thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an
emf proportional to the average temperature?
604. Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as
platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?
o (a) Thermistor
o (b) Bimetallic device
(c) Resistance temperature detector
o (d) Thermocouple
o (a) Diaphragm
o (b) Bourdon tube
(c) Bellows
o (d) Spiral or helical coil
612. In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used
with
a pressure measuring instrument?
615. What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from
contact with steam?
o (a) The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge.
o (b) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance
to the gauge.
o (c) The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge.
(d) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to
the gauge.
616. What statement is true concerning the operating principle of a liquid level sensing
and transmitting system of the capacitance type?
(a) The capacitance method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and
works on the
principle of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and
that of the liquid in
the tank.
o (b) The capacitance method is generally used with conductive
liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air
and that of the liquid in the tank.
o (c) The capacitance method is generally used with conductive liquids
and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air
and that of the liquid in the tank.
o (d) The capacitance method is generally used with non-
conductive liquids and works on the
principle of the substantial difference between the specific
gravity of air and that of the liquid in
the tank.
618. What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a
supply of
compressed air?
619. Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for
discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?
620. What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as
opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?
621. With a constriction type, differential head flow meter, which of the following would
be
an example of a primary device?
o (a) Turbine
o (b) Vortex
(c) Venturi tube
o (d) Magnetic
.
623. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
o (a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being
measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of
the fluid flow.
o (b) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured
and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of
the fluid flow.
o (c) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured
and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of
the fluid flow.
(d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is
positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
626. What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
transmitter as used for indicating the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?
627. What statement is true concerning the operation of a distilling plant or boiler feed
water salinometer?
o (a) The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water,
and
temperature correction is unnecessary because conductivity does not change with
changes in
temperature.
o (b) The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity
of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity decreases with a rise
in temperature.
o (c) The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity
of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise
in temperature.
(d) The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity
of the water, and
temperature correction is necessary because conductivity increases
with a rise in temperature.
628. If an oil-in-water content monitor uses a lamp emitting light in the visible spectra in
conjunction with a reference photo-cell and a sampling photocell,
what is the operating principle upon which this oil-in-water content
monitor works?
631. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is
responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is
unattended. How often should these machinery space rounds be
performed by the duty engineer?
632. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is
responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is
unattended. Between machinery space rounds, what is the
responsibility of the duty engineer?
o (a) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space
alarms are the responsibility of the junior engineering
officer onboard.
(b) The duty engineer is on call and should be prepared to acknowledge and
respond to any
machinery space alarms by remaining in range of the remote alarm
stations in his or her cabin or the various public spaces.
o (c) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space
alarms are the responsibility of the Chief Engineer.
o (d) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space alarms are the
responsibility of the First
Assistant Engineer.
633. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must
the
propulsion console be continuously manned?
634. Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may
affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe
operation of the
ship?
o (a) The bridge should be informed after any changes are made, as soon as
practical.
o (b) The bridge need not be informed of any changes being made, as it will soon
be obvious.
(c) The bridge should be informed before any changes are made, if at all possible.
o (d) The bridge should be informed simultaneously as any changes are made, if at
all possible.
635. On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions
for
machinery space sea water cooling systems?
(a) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near
the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (b) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near
the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is
used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
o (d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used
primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
636. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea
suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
637. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
o (a) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.
638. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the
entry
grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
639. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea
chest
of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
640. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest
of
a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?
o (a) The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing anti-freeze
connection, if provided.
o (b) The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if
provided.
(c) The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection,
if provided.
o (d) The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow
connection, if provided.
650. For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?
656. What type of bottom construction is used on most commercial deep-draft vessels
with the exception of tankers?
657. What is the name of an internal passage of watertight construction fitted along the
centerline between the double-bottoms of some ships, usually from the forepeak to
the forward
machinery space bulkhead, used to carry pipe work along the length
of the ship to the various holds or tanks?
660. What is usually contained within the double-bottom tanks associated with the
machinery spaces?
o (a) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with vertical tank boundaries
(b) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with the inner plating (tank tops).
o (c) Hinged hatches associated with the inner plating (tank tops).
o (d) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with the outer plating.
662. While in dry-dock, what means are provided for completely draining the double
bottom tanks in preparation for inspection?
664. What is the name of the opening in a bilge margin bracket that reduces the weight
of
the bracket without materially reducing its strength?
665. What statement concerning the orientation and welds of adjoining shell plates is
true?
(a) The shell plates (or strakes) run horizontally in a fore and
aft direction and any horizontal
welds are called "seams" and any vertical welds are called
"butts".
o (b) The shell plates (or strakes) run vertically in a gunwales to
keel direction and any horizontal
welds are called "butts" and any vertical welds are called "seams".
o (c) The shell plates (or strakes) run horizontally in a fore and
aft direction and any horizontal
welds are called "butts" and any vertical welds are called
"seams".
o (d) The shell plates (or strakes) run vertically in a gunwales to keel direction and any
horizontal
welds are called "seams" and any vertical welds are called "butts".
666. Even though bilge keels do provide some improvement in longitudinal strength at
the
bilge radius, what is the primary purpose of the bilge keels?
667. In terms of ship construction framing methods, which statement is true concerning
the transverse framing system?
o (a) With transverse framing, transverse frames are horizontal and intercostal
between vertical
girders which are continuous.
o (b) With transverse framing, transverse frames are horizontal and continuous and
vertical
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (c) With transverse framing, transverse frames are vertical and intercostal
between longitudinal
girders which are horizontal and continuous.
(d) With transverse framing, transverse frames are vertical and continuous and
longitudinal
stiffeners are horizontal and intercostal between frames.
668. In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning
the longitudinal framing system?
(a) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are horizontal and continuous
and vertical
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (b) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are horizontal and intercostal
between vertical
girders which are continuous.
o (c) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are vertical and continuous and
horizontal
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (d) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are vertical and intercostal
between horizontal girders which are continuous.
669. What statement is true concerning the plating meeting at the gunwales of a ship?
o (a) The strakes of deck plating nearest to the sides are termed
"sheerstrakes" and the side
plating nearest to the deck are termed "stringer plates". The
sheerstrakes and stringer plates
meet at the gunwales.
(b) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck are termed
"sheerstrakes" and the deck plating
nearest to the side are termed "stringer plates". The sheerstrakes
and stringer plates meet at the
gunwales.
o (c) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck and the deck
plating nearest to the side are
both termed "sheerstrakes". These sheerstrakes meet at the
gunwales.
o (d) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck and the deck
plating nearest to the side are
both termed "stringer plates". These stringer plates meet at the
gunwales.
670. With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double-
bottom
floors and the transverse frames joined?
671. For a typical transverse-framed deep-draft commercial vessel, what is the normal
arrangement for the support of decks?
o (a) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are
longitudinally arranged and the
deck beams are continuous with the exception of hatches and
other openings. The deck girders
are intercostal.
(b) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are
longitudinally arranged and both
are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings.
o (c) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are
longitudinally arranged and the
deck girders are continuous with the exception of hatches and
other openings. The deck beams
are intercostal.
o (d) Deck beams are longitudinally arranged and deck girders are
transversely arranged and both
are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings.
673. What term is used to represent the bulkhead type used for tank boundary
bulkheads?
o (a) Watertight bulkheads
(b) Oil tight bulkheads
o (c) Airtight bulkheads
o (d) Non-watertight bulkheads
674. Which of the following listed bulkhead types has the most rigorous standard for
testing purposes?
(a) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners
are vertical and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.
o (b) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners
are vertical and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.
o (c) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners
are horizontal and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.
o (d) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners
are horizontal and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.
676. What is the name of the structural member that is designed to transfer load from
one
deck to another?
o (a) Girders
o (b) Stiffeners
(c) Pillars
o (d) Beams
677. What statement is true concerning watertight doors fitted below the waterline of a
vessel?
o (a) Watertight doors below the waterline may be of the vertical or horizontal sliding
type or the
swinging hinged type.
(b) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the vertical or horizontal
sliding type.
o (c) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the vertical sliding type
or the swinging
hinged type.
o (d) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the horizontal sliding
type or the
swinging hinged type.
678. What means of emergency escape from a shaft tunnel are provided?
(a) Two means of escape are provided, one which is a sliding watertight door at
the forward end
of the tunnel and the other a ladder and watertight trunk at the aft end of the
tunnel.
o (b) Only one means of escape is provided which is a sliding watertight door at the
aft end of the
tunnel.
o (c) Only one means of escape is provided which is a sliding watertight door at the
forward end of
the tunnel.
o (d) Two means of escape are provided, one which is a sliding
watertight door at the aft end of the
tunnel and the other a ladder and watertight trunk at the forward
end of the tunnel.
679. What statement is true concerning the forward and after bulkheads of a shaft
tunnel?
o (a) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead which is
watertight, and the shaft tunnel
forward bulkhead is the machinery space aft bulkhead which is
non-watertight.
o (b) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead, the shaft
tunnel forward bulkhead is
the machinery space aft bulkhead, and both bulkheads are non-
watertight.
o (c) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead which is
non-watertight, and the shaft
tunnel forward bulkhead is the machinery space aft bulkhead
which is watertight.
(d) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead, the shaft tunnel forward
bulkhead is
the machinery space aft bulkhead, and both bulkheads are watertight.
o (a) The shaft tunnel is situated on the centerline of the vessel with
walkways positioned on either
side of the shaft and any piping runs carried underneath the two
walkways.
o (b) The shaft tunnel is offset from centerline of the vessel with a
walkway positioned on one side
of the shaft any piping runs carried overhead above the shaft.
(c) The shaft tunnel is offset from centerline of the vessel with a
walkway positioned on one side
of the shaft any piping runs carried underneath the walkway.
o (d) The shaft tunnel is situated on the centerline of the vessel with
walkways positioned on either
side of the shaft and any piping runs carried overhead above the
shaft.
681. What is the general arrangement for bilge wells in the machinery spaces?
o (a) Generally a single bilge well is provided on the centerline forward since a
vessel is typically
trimmed by the bow.
o (b) Generally a single bilge well is provided on the centerline aft since a vessel is
typically
trimmed by the stern.
(c) Generally a bilge wells are provided in the port and starboard
aft corners since a vessel is
typically trimmed by the stern and to facilitate pump when the ship
has a list.
o (d) Generally a bilge wells are provided in the port and starboard
forward corners since a vessel
is typically trimmed by the bow and to facilitate pump when the
ship has a list.
682. What provisions are generally made to reduce the noise and vibration emanating
from the propulsion machinery installation, especially on passenger ships?
683. What is the name associated with the dividing bulkheads separating the
accommodation spaces from the engine room of a ship?
684. What is the name associated with the surround and support for the various
uptakes
to ensure the dispersion of exhaust gases to the atmosphere and away from the
ship?
o (a) Uptakes
o (b) Flue
(c) Funnel
o (d) Stack
685. What is the name associated with a minor section of interior deck within a
machinery
space serving as a seat or bed for a particular piece or set of machinery?
686. When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to
avoid weld faults?
o (a) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a
weak joint, may
form the starting points for cracks.
o (b) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in
addition to a weak
joint, may cause plate distortion.
(c) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in
addition to a weak
joint, may form the starting points for cracks.
o (d) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a
weak joint, may
cause plate distortion.
687. When accomplishing welding repairs with an electric arc welding process, what is
generally the cause of slag inclusion when welding a single-V butt joint?
o (a) The weld was performed with too high a current setting.
o (b) The weld was performed with an improper rod angle.
(c) The weld was performed with inadequate cleaning between passes.
o (d) The weld was performed with too low a current setting.
688. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding
a single-V butt
joint?
o (a) There should be no overlap, but there should be undercut at the toe of the
weld.
o (b) There should be both overlap and undercut at the toe of the weld.
(c) There should be no overlap and no undercut at the toe of the weld.
o (d) There should be overlap, but there should be no undercut at the toe of the
weld.
689. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding
a single-V butt
joint?
690. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding
a single-V butt
joint?
o (a) There should be no penetration at the sides of the weld, and there should be
no penetration
between passes.
o (b) There should be no penetration at the sides of the weld, but there should be
penetration
between passes.
(c) There should be penetration at the sides of the weld, and there should be
penetration between
passes.
o (d) There should be penetration at the sides of the weld, but there should be no
penetration
between passes.
691. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, what is the correct
procedure
for performing an emergency crack stopper?
o (a) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at one end of the crack only, making sure that
none of the
crack extends beyond the hole.
(b) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at each end of the crack, making sure that
none of the crack
extends beyond the two holes.
o (c) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at one end of the crack only, making sure that
approximately
1/2-inch of the crack extends beyond the hole.
o (d) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at each end of the crack, making sure that
1/2-inch of the
crack extends beyond the two holes.
692. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, after drilling a 3/8-inch
hole at
each end of the crack, what is the correct procedure for welding overlays as an
emergency crack
stopper?
693. In order to minimize distortion while performing the electric arc welding process
while
joining two plates with a butt weld, besides using restraint procedures, what
statement is true?
o (a) The greater the number of welding passes the less the
distortion, and welding on only one
side of a joint with a single-V will minimize distortion.
o (b) The greater the number the welding passes the less the
distortion, and symmetrical welding
on either side of a joint with a double-V will minimize distortion.
(c) The fewer the number of welding passes the less the
distortion, and symmetrical welding on
either side of a joint with a double-V will minimize distortion.
o (d) The fewer the number of welding passes the less the distortion, and welding
on only one side
of a joint with a single-V will minimize distortion.
694. For long welding runs, either the "back-step" or the "skip" welding technique is
often
used. For what purpose are these techniques utilized?
697. In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non-
oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?
(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either
in the bilges or
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception
facility.
o (b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-
content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
o (c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
o (d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts
per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and
a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (a) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to
be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to
have a high oil-content bilge
alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15
ppm.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to
be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have
a high oil-content bilge
alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be
equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-
water separator.
o (d) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard
all oily mixtures
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception
facility.
o (a) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required
to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, AND it is required to
have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically
stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (c) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a
slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR
the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than
10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, but it is NOT required
to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically
stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (a) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be
equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a
high oil-
content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water
discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is
required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to
discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
o (c) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is
EITHER required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-
water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped
with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is
required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
701. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or
above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record
Book?
702. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space
operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil
Record Book. This includes
disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has
accumulated in machinery
spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the
Oil Record Book entry for the specific operation?
703. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space
operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than
a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the
listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil
Record Book?
o (a) Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo
holds.
o (b) Taking on ballast water into double-bottom sea water ballast tanks.
o (c) Discharge of ballast from double-bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(d) Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility.
(a) When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a
ship or saving
life at sea.
o (b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per
million.
o (c) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
o (d) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.
o (a) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
o (b) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
o (c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.
707. (In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all
garbage applies to a
vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?
712. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the
term "sewage"?
o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or
untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
714. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type II Marine Sanitation Device"?
o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (b) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (c) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or
untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
715. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?
o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or
untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
o (c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per
100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
716. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the
discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following
methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is
UNACCEPTABLE?
o (a) Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard
discharge in the
closed position.
o (b) Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the
handle.
(c) Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge.
o (d) Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed
position.
717. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the
discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the
device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock
and prevent its opening?
o (a) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all
concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
o (b) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising
all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door
handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
o (d) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all
concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
718. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less
than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
719. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
721. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship
is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the
Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is
controlled as a result?
o (a) CO2
(b) Halon 1301
o (c) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
o (d) Cartridge-operated dry powder
722. Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated
as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances
that Deplete
the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?
(a) R-12
o (b) R-134a
o (c) R-404A
o (d) R-410A
723. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are
required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would
the NOx emission regulations
apply?
724. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulphur
content of any fuel oil used on board ships shall not exceed what percentage by
weight?
o (a) 1.5%
o (b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
o (d) 6.0%
725. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence
of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable
sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in
an emissions control area?
(a) 1.5%
o (b) 3.0%
o (c) 4.5%
o (d) 6.0%
726. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?
727. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?
728. In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-
fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?
o (a) 450oC
o (b) 650oF
(c) 850oF
o (d) 1050oF
731. The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the
__________.
732. Which of the following definitions accurately describes 'tool feed' when referring to
lathe work?
o (a) The distance the work piece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in
one minute.
o (b) The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute.
o (c) The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece.
(d) The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work.
733. If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin
to squeal, you should first __________.
734. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers,
you should use a __________.
736. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
__________.
737. A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the
tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the
tailstock must be moved __________.
738. Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in
position?
739. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good
practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter
__________.
(a) slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
o (b) smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
o (c) small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
o (d) equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill
o (a) Copper
o (b) High carbon steel
(c) Aluminum
o (d) Medium cast iron
741. To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock
should be mounted in a __________.
(a) V-block
o (b) morse sleeve
o (c) clamp
o (d) collet
742. When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping
the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.
o (a) moving the working table
o (b) adjusting the spindle return spring
o (c) gaging chuck motion
(d) using a depth stop
.
743. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to
__________.
744. A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.
745. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be
__________.
746. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?
o (a) Tungsten
o (b) Steel
(c) Brass
o (d) Monel
747. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.
748. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to
__________.
749. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring
the
steering control from the wheelhouse to local control, is to __________.
(a) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging
o (b) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
o (c) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
o (d) always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel
751. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of
the
steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram
movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II.
degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of
helm angle input
o (a) I only
o (b) II only
(c) Both I and II
o (d) Neither I nor II
752. Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram
hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.
o (a) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus
developing immediate
full torque
o (b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling
the flow of oil
and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
(c) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross
pressure flow
o (d) all of the above