Electrical

ELECTROLYSIS
1. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity".
The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss's law
Ans: c
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as ______ constant
(a) time
(b) Faraday's
(c) Boltzman
Ans: b
3. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
4. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
5. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c
8. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
9. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
10. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
11. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
Ans: c
12. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
13. Cells are connected in series in order to
(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
Ans: a
14. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.
The output voltage is
(a) 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
15. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
Ans: c
16. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
17. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing
Ans: c
18. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Ans: d
19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as______materials.
(a) passive
(b) active
(c) redundant
(d) inert
Ans: b
22. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
23. It is noticed that durum charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
25. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
26. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between
(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
27. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
28. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
29. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of the lead-acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
32. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
33. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
34. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide
(c) lead
(d) zinc powder
Ans: a
35. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Ans: d
36. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
37. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Ans: a
38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
39. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Ans: b
44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
45. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
46. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
47. Internal short circuits are caused by
(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
Ans: c
48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: a
49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
50. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are called ______ materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
51. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
Ans: b
52. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
53. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d
54. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Ans: a
57. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
58. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
59. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Ans: d
60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
61. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
62. Cell short circuit results in
(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Ans: d
63. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
64. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Ans: a
65. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
66. Sulphated cells are indicated by
(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge
(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of acid to water to get
mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
68. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
71. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen
(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
74. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
75. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
76. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
Ans: b
78. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
Ans: a
79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates
(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
80. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
81 _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
82. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
83. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
86. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _____ Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____ hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
88. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.95
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.21
Ans: d
90. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state to fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
93. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
95. Weston standard cell at 20C has voltage of ____ volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
96. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
97. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
99. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container. This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta's should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
104. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
105. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
106. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?
(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
107. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
108. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
109. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
111. A typical output of a solar cell is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
113. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
114. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
115. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
116. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an automobile battery ?
(a) Brake light
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
Ans: d
118. Cells are connected in parallel to
(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
119. A constant-voltage generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
120. Satellite power requirement is provided through
(a) solar cells
(b) dry cells
(c) nickel-cadmium cells
(d) lead-acid batteries
Ans: a
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. The S.I. unit of power is
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
(c) watt
(d) watt-hour
Ans: c
2. Electric pressure is also called
(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) voltage
(d) energy
Ans: c
3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Ans: d
4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Copper
(c) Carbon
(d) Tungsten
Ans: b
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
Ans: d
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
Ans: c
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
(a) length
(6) area of cross-section
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Ans: b
9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is
around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m
(d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m
Ans: c
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 15 ohms
(d) 55 ohms
Ans:
13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Ans: d
14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the
resistor is
(a) 33 V
(b) 66 v
(c) 80 V
(d) 132 V
Ans: b
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light bulb is
(a) 400 Q
(b) 600 Q
(c) 800 Q
(d) 1000 Q
Ans: c
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms,
what is the resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 Q
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q
(d) 64 Q
Ans: b
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when connected in parallel give a
resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be
(a) 1 Q
(b) 2 Q
(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q
Ans: d
18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms
respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A
(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A
(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A
(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans: b
19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
(b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few ^.s/m
(d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans: c
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin
(b) Porcelain
(c) Carbon
(d) Copper
Ans: a
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you
would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Ans: b
22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans: a
23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Ans: d
24. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum
(c) Carbon
(d) Brass
Ans: c
25. Ohm's law is not applicable to
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits
(d) circuits with low current densities
Ans: a
26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: b
27. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance
(b) Charge
(c) Power
(d) Energy
Ans: b
28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) (amperes) ohm
(b) joules/sec.
(c) amperes x volts
(d) amperes/volt
Ans: d
29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans: c
30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans: a
31. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans: b
32. Insulating materials have the function of
(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans: b
33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in
(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans: d
34. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero
Ans: b
35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans: d
36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans: c
37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 8 watts
Ans: c
38. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
Ans: c
39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: a
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
(b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans: c
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans: a
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans: d
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a battery across them, which of the following statement is
true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the voltage source where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be
across
(a) Rl
(b) Ri
(c) either Rl or Ri
(d) none of them
Ans: a
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 2
0
V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans:
46. A closed switch has a resistance of
(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans: a
47. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the
filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans: c
48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans:
49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current
(b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factors
(d) none of above factors
Ans: c
50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
Ans: a
51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans: b
52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output
Will be
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Ans: b
53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply main
s
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
Ans: a
54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans: d
55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans: c
57. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: c
58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
63. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the orbit
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
68. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This suggests that the type of
supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Ans: b
70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
Ans: a
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Ans: b
75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without change in volume, the new
resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged
Ans: c
76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion of it, the power of the
heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
77. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
79. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm's law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
(c) 4 Q
(d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
93. Ohm's law is not applicable to
(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Ans: a
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If
the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire
required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/C
(b) mhos/ohmC
(e) ohms/ohmC
(d) mhos/C
Ans: c
97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
99. The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
Ans: a
100. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Ans: b
102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical cross-section, for the same
electrical resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 100%
(d) 150%
Ans: a
103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much greater than that of
typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
105. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal
(b) silicon carbide
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
107. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
Ans: b
108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840
(b) 1840
(c) 30
(d) 4
Ans: a
109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power supplied by the voltage source
equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
111. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law heat produced will be
proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro ampere current to flow through it. The conductance
of
the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?
(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
116. Conductance : mho ::
(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
117. 1 angstrom is equal to
(a) 10-8 mm
(6) 10"6 cm
(c) 10"10 m
(d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
118. One newton meter is same as
(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTOR
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have

(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited
(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
3. In capacitor start single-phase motors
(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage
(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running winding
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting and running winding can be nearly
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 90
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor
(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a centrifugal switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is
(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist of
(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and carries only induced current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running winding
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect 'starting winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then which of the following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor
(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch
(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be ground. Most probable location of t
he
ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to supply with its capacitor replaced by an inductor of
equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?
(a) Split motor
(b) Shaded-pole motor
(c) Reluctance motor
(d) None of these
Ans: b
21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is determined by
(a) interchanging the supply leads
(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of windings is due to
(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
24. Short-circuiter is used in
(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is
(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
26. In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor is replaced by a resistance
(a) torque will increase
(b) the motor will consume less power
(c) motor will run in reverse direction
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction
Ans: d
27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually
(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading
Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for
(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss
(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred ?
(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
32. The motor used on small lathes is usually
(a) universal motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) single-phase capacitor run motor
(d) 3-phase synchronous motor
Ans: c
33. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders ?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
34. A single-phase induction motor is
(a) inherently self-starting with high torque
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque
(c) inherently non-self-starting with low torque
(d) inherently non-self-starting with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on
(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on
(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on
(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
(b) 0.8 power factor lagging
(c) 0.8 power factor leading
(d) unity power factor
Ans: a
39. In split-phase motor auxiliary winding is of
(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oil filled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C. supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is employed to
(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes
Ans: c
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally used in time phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of
(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?
(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Non-reversing, no-load start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using
(a) gear trains
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by reversing the flow of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
Ans: c
57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations therefore these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor
(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation
Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of
(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) chrome steel
(d) copper
Ans: c
63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
(a) capacitor run motor
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at starting is
(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of
(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the" slots
Ans: c
68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when
(a) brush axis is at 45 electrical to the field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is at 90 electrical to the field axis
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of synchronous speed of motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor
(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is same as that of
(a) A.C. motor
(c) D.C. series motor
Ans: c
75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion motor is to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor
(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
77. The motor used for the compressors is
(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when
(a) brush axis is 45 electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90 electrical to field axis
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at about ____ percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is disconnected from the circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(c) Capacitor-run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where frequent reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rushing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to open then
(a) motor will not come up to speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush sparking is
(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding"
(d) high commutator mica
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either
(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings
(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings
Ans: d
90. Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is similar to shaded pole motor
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it is running we should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to supply with reversed connection of main or
auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply with reversed connections of the main windi
ng
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after motor comes to rest then connect auxiliary wind
ing
to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and immediately connect it to supply
Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it cannot maintain synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess
(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor is incorrect ?
(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole synchronous-induction motor
(d) Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical magnetic construction in order to vary reluctance path between stator an
d
rotor
Ans: a
97. A universal motor is one which
(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately the same speed and output
(b) can be marketed internationally
(c) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with
(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor motors have no
(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it will
(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is disconnected from supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start induction motor is incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other mechanical devices
(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
Ans: c
103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor has
(a) smaller brush width
(b) less number of field turns
(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is
(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by
(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable auto-transformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
106. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record players and tape-recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of up to 1 W output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
107. Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is in incorrect ?
(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost instantaneously
Ans: a
23.108. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motoris correct ?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d
109. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
110. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using
(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
AC FUNDAMENTAL
1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is _______ radian/second.
(a) 100 n
(b) 50 jt
(c) 25 JT
(d) 5 n
Ans: a
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is increased to 100
Hz, reactance becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans: c
3. The period of a wave is
(a) the same as frequency
(6) time required to complete one cycle
(c) expressed in amperes
Ans: b
4. The form factor is the ratio of
(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
Ans: b
5. The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds.
Its frequency is
(a) 20 Hz
(b) 30 Hz
(c) 40 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to
(a) average voltage
(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
Ans: b
7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase angles are subtracted, the resultant is
(a) a sinusoid of the same frequency
(b) a sinusoid of half the original frequency
(c) a sinusoid of double the frequency
(d) not a sinusoid
Ans: a
8. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value is
(a) 127.4 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 282.8 V
(d)200V
Ans: a
9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of JT radians, then
(a) both will reach their minimum values at the same instant
(b) both will reach their maximum values at the same instant
(c) when one wave reaches its maximum value, the other will reach its minimum value
Ans: c
10. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Ans: a
11. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the phase angle between them is
(a) 360
(b) 180
(c) 90
(d) 0
Ans: b
12. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference between the current and
voltage is
(a) 180"
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 0
Ans: b
13. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Ans: c
14. For the same peak value which of the following wave will 'have the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Ans: a
15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the least mean value ?
(a) half wave rectified sine wave
(b) triangular wave
(c) sine wave
(d) square wave
Ans: a
16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is
(a) 0.5 Imax
(b) 0.707
(c) 0.9
(d) 1.414 Lmax
Ans: b
17. Form Factor is the ratio of
(a) average value/r.m.s. value
(b) average value/peak value
(e) r.m.s. value/average value
(d) r.m.s. value/peak value
Ans: c
18. Form factor for a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 0.707
(c) 1.11
(d) 0.637
Ans: c
19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the average value is
(a) 0.636 Emax
(b) 0.707 Emax
(c) 0.434 EWc
(d) lAUEmax
Ans: a
20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.005 s
(c) 0.0005 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: b
21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through a circuit element is given as 30. The essential
condition is that
(a) both waves must have same frequency
(b) both waves must have identical peak values
(c) both waves must have zero value at the same time
Ans: a
22. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to its value at an angle of______degrees.
(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
Ans: c
23. Capacitive reactance is more when
(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
Ans: a
24. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
Ans: a
25. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to
(a) R/Z
(b) cosine of phase angle difference be-tween current and voltage
(c) kW/kVA
(d) ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I
(e) all above
Ans: e
26. The best place to install a capacitor is
(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where
Ans: b
27. Poor power factor
(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above
Ans: e
28. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kV
(d) kVAR
Ans: d
29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Ans: d
30. Pure inductive circuit
(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during other part of the cycle
Ans: c
31. Inductance affects the direct current flow
(a) only at the time of turning off
(b) only at the time of turning on
(c) at the time of turning on and off
(d) at all the time of operation
Ans: c
32. Inductance of a coil Varies
(a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)
Ans: e
33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit containing
(a) capacitance only
(b) inductance only
(c) resistance only
(d) all above
Ans: c
34. Time constant of an inductive circuit
(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
(c) increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Ans: a
35. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
Ans: a
36. In a highly capacitive circuit the
(a) apparent power is equal to the actual power
(b) reactive power is more than the apparent power
(c) reactive power is more than the actual power
(d) actual power is more than its reactive power
Ans: c
37. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
Ans: d
38. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity
(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
Ans: c
39. Power factor of the system is kept high
(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons
Ans: d
40. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the time during which voltage
(a) falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
(b) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
(c) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
Ans: c
41. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is
(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non-oscillating
Ans: c
42. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by steady (D.C.) current which when flowing through a given circuit for
a
given time produces
(a) the more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(b) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(c) the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing through the same circuit
Ans: b
43. The square waveform of current has following relation between r.m.s. value and average value.
(a) r.m.s. value is equal to average value
(b) r.m.s. value of current is greater than average value
(c) r.m.s. value of current is less than average value
Ans: a
44. The double energy transient occur in the
(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R-L circuit
(c) R-C circuit
(d) R-L-C circuit
Ans: d
45. The transient currents are associated with the
(a) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
(b) impedance of the circuit
(c) applied voltage to the circuit
(d) resistance of the circuit
Ans: a
46. The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel circuit is
(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average value must always be taken over
(a) unsymmetrical part of the wave form
(b) the quarter cycle
(c) the half cycle
(d) the whole cycle
Ans: d
48. In a pure resistive circuit
(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90
(b) current leads the voltage by 90
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Ans: d
49. In a pure inductive circuit
(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90
Ans: b
50. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Ans: c
51. Inductance of coil
(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
Ans: c
52. In any A.C. circuit always
(a) apparent power is more than actual power
(b) reactive power is more than apparent power
(c) actual power is more than reactive power
(d) reactive power is more than actual power
Ans: a
53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in the circuit voltage ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Conductance
(d) Resistance
Ans:
54. In a purely inductive circuit
(a) actual power is zero
(b) reactive power is zero
(c) apparent power is zero
(d) none of above is zero
Ans: a
55. Power factor of electric bulb is
(a) zero
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
56. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. line when
(a) applied voltage decreases but current increases
(b) applied voltage increases but current decreases
(c) both applied voltage and current increase
(d) both applied voltage and current decrease
Ans: a
57. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after the application of voltage to each
(a) 25% of maximum value
(b) 50% of maximum value
(c) 63% of maximum value
(d) 90% of the maximum value
Ans: c
58. Time constant of an inductive circuit
(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Ans: a
59. Time constant of a capacitive circuit
(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
Ans: d
60. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Ans: a
61. In a R-L-C circuit
(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
(e) all above are correct
Ans: e
62. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency can be changed by changing the value of
(a) R only
(b) L only
(c)C only
(d)LorC
(e) R,LorC
Ans: d
63. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the
(a) current is maximum
(b) current is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum
(d) voltage across C is minimum
Ans: a
64. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by
(a) R/C
(b) RC2
(c) RC
(d) R2C
Ans: c
65. If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a R-L series circuit, then time constant of this circuit will be
(a) 0.001 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 100 s
Ans: b
66. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Ans: c
67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A r.m.s. current which of the following equation represents this
wave ?
(a) 42.42 sin 3141
(b) 60 sin 25 t
(c) 30 sin 50 t
(d) 84.84 sin 25 t
Ans: a
68. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more than 3 second is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 9 mA
(c) 15 mA
(d) 25 mA
Ans: b
69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W.
This consumption can be attributed to
(a) the big size of the inductor
(b) the reactance of the inductor
(c) the current flowing in the inductor
(d) the statement given is false
Ans: d
70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 40 kVA
The power drawn by the circuit is
(a) 12 kW
(b) 22 kW
(c) 32 kW
(d) 64 kW
Ans: c
71. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on ordinary supply frequency is more than its true resistance
because of
(a) iron loss in core
(b) skin effect
(c) increase in temperature
(d) capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns
Ans: a
72. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
Ans: b
73. In AC. circuits, laminated iron is invariably used in order to
(a) reduce eddy current loss
(b) increase heat radiation
(c) make assembly cheap and easier
(d) reduce circuit permeability
Ans: a
74. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as factor.
(a) demand
(b) load
(c) power
(d) form
Ans: c
75. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Ans: a
76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Ans: b
77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal frequency, when one wave attains maximum
value the other is at zero value ?
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
78. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: b
79. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in
(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only
Ans: a
80. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always______the applied voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
Ans: b
81. At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely
(a) resistive
(b) inductive
(c) capacitive
Ans: c
82. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at_____ frequencies.
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) high
Ans: d
83. At ______ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive.
(a) low
(b) very low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: d
84. In a sine wave the slope is constant
(a) between 0 and 90
(b) between 90 and 180
(c) between 180 and 270
(d) no where
Ans: d
85. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of
(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Ans: a
86. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of
(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuit's ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuit's ability to resist the flow of current
Ans: c
87. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only ?
(a) can dissipate considerable amount of power
(6) can act as energy storage devices
(c) connecting them in parallel increases the total value
(d) oppose sudden changes in voltage
Ans: a
88. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit ?
(a) The current through each element is same
(b) The voltage across element is in proportion to it's resistance value
(c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
(d) The current through any one element is less than the source current
Ans: d
89. Aphasoris
(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an alternating quantity
(b) a line representing the magnitude and direction of an alternating quantity
(c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different phases of a 3-phase supply
(d) an instrument used for measuring phases of an unbalanced 3-phase load
Ans: a
89. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will
(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Ans: b
90. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies because they
(a) create more electrical noise
(b) are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat
(c) consume more power
(d) exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects
Ans: d
91. The inductance of a coil can be increased by
(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability
Ans: d
92. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Ans: c
93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor ?
(a) Square wave
(b) Sine wave
(c) Half wave rectified sine wave
(d) Triangular wave
Ans: c
94. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: a
96. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is
(a) 0.5 of peak value
(b) 0.707 of peak value
(c) same as peak value
(d) zero
Ans: b
97. Ohm is unit of all of the following except
(a) inductive reactance
(b) capacitive reactance
(c) resistance
(d) capacitance
Ans: d
98. The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit' differs in that
(a) series resistance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in current
(b) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp increase in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp increase in impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in line current
Ans: a
99. The phosphors for which of the following pair are 180 out of phase for VL, VC and VR?
(a) Vc and VR
(b) VL and VR
(c) Vc and VL
Ans: c
100. The frequency of an alternating current is
(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second
(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
Ans: c
101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage consumed 50 W. This is due to
(a) the capacitive reactance in ohms
(b) the current flowing in capacitor
(c) the size of the capacitor being quite big
(d) the statement is incorrect
Ans: d
102. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always
(a) less than unity
(b) unity
(c) greater than unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
103. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and current is
(a) true power
(b) reactive power
(c) volt-amperes
(d) instantaneous power
Ans: a
104. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having r.m.s. value of 60 A is
(a) 60 sin 25 t
(b) 60 sin 50 t
(c) 84.84 sin 3141
(d) 42.42 sin 314 t
Ans: c
105. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure inductance of impedance of
3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
Ans: c
106. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: b
107. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: a
108. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the electrical power converted into heat is
(a) apparent power
(b) true power
(c) reactive power
Ans: b
109. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced.
Which of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Ans: a
SWITCHGEAR PROTECTION
1. The main function of a fuse is to
(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
2. On which of the following routine tests are conducted ?
(a) Oil circuit breakers
(b) Air blast circuit breakers
(c) Minimum oil circuit breakers
Ans: d
3. SF6 gas
(a) is yellow in colour
(b) is lighter than air
(c) is nontoxic
(d) has pungent small
Ans: c
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of
(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminium alloy
Ans: a
5. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Ans: c
6. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation ?
(a) Inverse time trip
(b) Time-delay trip
(c) Shunt trip
(e) All of the above
Ans: c
7. Fault diverters are basically
(a) fuses
(b) relays
(c) fast switches
(d) circuit breakers
Ans: c
8. A thermal protection switch can protect against
(a) short-circuit
(b) temperature
(c) overload
(d) over voltage
Ans: c
9. Arc in a circuit behaves as
(a) a capackive reactance
(b) an inductive reactance
(c) a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
(d) a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
Ans: d
10. Thermal circuit breaker has
(a) delayed trip action
(b) instantaneous trip action
(c) both of the above
Ans: a
11. Relays can be designed to respond to changes in
(a) resistance, reactance or impedance
(b) voltage and current
(c) light intensity
(d) temperature
(e) all above
Ans: e
12. Overload relays are of...... type.
(a) induction
(b) solid state
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
(e) all above
Ans: e
13. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current due to
(a) short-circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
Ans: b
14. Magnetic circuit breaker has ______ trip action.
(a) delayed
(b) instantaneous
(c) both of the above
Ans: b
15. D.C. shunt relays are made of
(a) few turns of thin wire
(b) few turns of thick wire
(c) many turns of thin wire
(d) many turns of thick wire
Ans: c
16. The relay operating speed depends upon
(a) the spring tension
(b) the rate of flux built up
(c) armature core air gap
Ans: d
17. In order that current should flow without causing excessive heating or voltage drop, the relay contacts should
(a) have low contact resistance
(b) be clean and smooth
(c) be of sufficient size and proper shape
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
18. Circuit breakers usually operate under
(a) transient state of short-circuit current
(b) sub-transient state of short-circuit current
(c) steady state of short-circuit current
(d) after D.C. component has ceased
Ans: a
19. Circuit breakers are essentially
(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes
(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is achieved by
(a) lengthening of the gap
(b) cooling and blast effect
(d) deionizing the oil with forced air
Ans: c
21. Air blast circuit breaker is used for
(a) over currents
(b) short duty
(c) intermittant duty
(d) repeated duty
Ans: d
22. An efficient and a well designed protective relaying should have
(a) good selectivity and reliability
(b) economy and simplicity
(c) high speed and selectivity
Ans: d
23. Burden of a protective relay is the power
(a) required to operate the circuit breaker
(b) absorbed by the circuit of relay
(c) developed by the relay circuit
Ans: b
24. Directional relays are based on flow of
(a) power
(b) current
(c) voltage wave
Ans: a
25. A differential relay measures the vector difference between
(a) two currents
(b) two voltages
(c) two or more similar electrical quantities
Ans: c
26. A transmission line is protected by
(a) inrush protection
(b) distance protection
(c) time graded and current graded over current protection
Ans: d
27. Large internal faults are protected by
(a) merz price percentage differential protection
(b) mho and ohm relays
(c) horn gaps and temperature relays
(d) earth fault and positive sequence relays
Ans: a
28. When a transmission line is energized, the wave that propagates on it is
(a) current wave only
(b) voltage wave only
(d) power factor wave only
Ans: c
29. Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal conditions in electrical circuits by measuring
(a) current during abnormal condition
(b) voltage during abnormal condition
(c) constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and abnormal conditions
Ans: c
30. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
Ans: a
31. Ionization in circuit breaker is facilitated by
(a) high temperature
(b) increase of mean free path
(c) increasing field strength
Ans: d
32. In a circuit breaker the basic problem is to
(a) maintain the arc
(b) extinguish the arc
(c) transmit large power
(d) emit the ionizing electrons
Ans: c
33. Overheating of relay contacts or contact born out is due to
(a) slow making and breaking of load circuit contacts
(b) foreign matter on the contact surface
(c) too low contact pressure
Ans: d
34. Interruption of large currents by relay requires
(a) arc suppressing blow out coils
(b) wide separation of the opened contacts
(c) high speed opening of contacts
Ans: d
35. Shunt capacitance is neglected while considering
(a) short transmission line
(b) medium transmission line
(c) long transmission line
(d) medium and long transmission lines
Ans: a
36. The arc voltage produced in A.C. circuit breaker is always
(a) in phase with the arc current
(b) lagging the arc current by 90"
(c) leading the arc current by 90
Ans: a
37. The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breakers is
(a) 0.003 sec
(b) 0.001 sec
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.10 sec
Ans: a
38. Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is more than
(a) 1 mega ohms
(b) 10 mega ohms
(c) 100 mega ohms
(d) 500 mega ohms
Ans: c
39. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against
(a) overload
(b) reverse current
(c) open-circuits
(d) short-circuits
Ans: d
40. The ground wire should not be smaller than No ______ copper.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Ans: d
41. The delay fuses are used for the protection of ________ .
(a) motors
(b) power outlet circuits
(c) fluorescent lamps
(d) light circuits
Ans: a
42. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
43. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between
(a) 33kVto66kV
(b) HkVto33kV
(c) 3.3kVandllkV
Ans: c
44. The contacts of high voltage switches used in power system are submerged in oil. The main purpose of the oil is to
(a) lubricate the contacts
(b) insulate the contacts from switch body
(c) extinguish the arc
Ans: c
45. In Railway applications ______ circuit breaker is used.
(a) SFe
(b) bulk oil
(c) minimum oil
(d) air break
Ans:
46. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power, the types of relays used are
(a) thermocouple
(b) electronic and bimetallic
Ans: c
47. Wave trap is used to trap waves of
(a) power frequencies
(b) higher frequencies entering generator or transformer units
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
48. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended because of system
(a) insulation being overstressed due to over voltages
(b) insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase to phase faults
(c) being inadequately protected against ground fault
Ans: d
49. The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited end of a transmission line.
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) unity
Ans: c
50. For the protection of power station buildings against direct strokes the requirements are
(a) interception
(b) interception and conduction
(c) interception, conduction and dissipation
(d) interception, conduction, dissipation and reflection
Ans: c
51. The line insulation is the insulation level of the station equipment.
(a) less than
(b) same as
(c) more than
(d) proportional to
(e) not directly related with
Ans: e
52. The interaction between a transmission line and communication line is minimized by
(a) transposing transmission as well as communication lines
(b) increasing the height of the trans-mission line tower
(c) increasing the distance between the two lines
Ans: d
53. When a wave propagates on a transmission line, it suffers reflection several times at
(a) tapping
(b) load end
(c) sending end
(d) sending and other end
Ans: d
54. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Station batteries are used to operate relay only
(b) The lightning arresters are basically surge diverters
(c) An impedance relay has maximum fault current when fault occurs near the relay
(d) A high speed relay has an operation of 1 to 2 cycles
Ans: a
55. Discrimination between main and back up protection is provided by the use of relays which are
(a) fact
(b) sensitive
(c) slow
Ans: c
56. Induction cup relay is operated due to changes in
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: d
57. A.C. network analyser is used to solve problems of
(a) load flow
(b) load flow and short-circuit
(c) load flow and stability
(d) load flow, short-circuit and stability
Ans: d
58. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Lightning arrestors are used before the switchgear
(b) Shunt reactors are used as compensation reactors
(c) The peak short current is (1.8 xV2) times the A.C. component
(d) The MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided by per unit equivalent fault reactance
Ans: a
59. Short-circuit currents are due to
(a) single phase to ground faults
(b) phase to phase faults
(c) two phase to ground faults
(d) three phase faults
(e) any of these
Ans: e
60. To reduce short circuit fault currents are used.
(a) reactors
(b) resistors
(c) capacitors
Ans: a
61. Bus coupler is very essential in arrangement
(a) single bus
(b) double bus, double breaker
(c) main and transfer bus
Ans: c
62. For cost and safety, the outdoor substations are installed for voltages above
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 60kV
(d) 110kV
Ans: b
63. The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is the result of
(a) mechanical vibration
(b) insulation failure
(c) loose connection
(d) impulse voltage
Ans: d
64 relays are used for phase faults on long line.
(a) Impedance
(b) Reactance
(c) Either of the above
Ans: a
65. For which of the following protection from negative sequence currents is provided ?
(a) Generators
(b) Motors
(c) Transmission line
(d) Transformers
Ans: a
66 relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line.
(a) Induction type
(b) Reactance
(c) Impedance
Ans: b
67. Distance relays are generally
(a) split-phase relays
(b) reactance relays
(c) impedance relays
Ans: d
68. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential protection is recommended ?
(a) above 30 kVA.
(b) equal to and above 5 MVA
(c) equal to and above 25 MVA
Ans: b
69. A _______ is used to measure the stator % winding temperature of the generator.
(a) thermocouple
(b) pyrometer
(c) resistance thermometer
(d) thermometer
Ans: c
70. The under voltage relay can be used for
(a) generators
(b) busbars
(c) transformers
(d) motors
Ans: e
71. The relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within
(a) 1.5 sec
(b) 5 to 10 sec
(c) 5 to 20 sec
(d) 20 to 30 sec
Ans: b
72. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Ans: d
73. Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first travelling on the transmission line ?
(a) Lightning arresters
(b) Relays
(c) Step-down transformer
(d) Switchgear
Ans: a
74. Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short line ?3/9/2017
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(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Resistance
(d) Reactance
Ans: b
75. Series reactors should have
(a) low resistance
(b) high resistance
(c) low impedance
(d) high impedance
Ans: a
76. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimum maintenance ?
(a) Air blast circuit breakers
(b) Circuit breaker with SF6 gas
(c) Vacuum circuit breakers
(d) Oil circuit breakers
Ans: b
77. Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at
(a) zero current
(b) maximum current
(c) minimum voltage
(d) maximum voltage
Ans: a
78 transmission line has reflection coefficient as one.
(a) Open circuit
(b) Short-circuit
(e) Long
Ans: a
79. What will be the reflection co-efficient of the wave of load connected to transmission line if surge impedance of the
line is equal to load ?
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
Ans: a
80. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current and earth fault protection of transformer against
(a) heavy loads
(b) internal short-circuits
(c) external short-circuits
Ans: b
81. Over voltage protection is recommended for
(a) hydro-electric generators
(b) steam turbine generators
(c) gas turbine generators
Ans: d
82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed to operate in
(a) 100 microsecond
(b) 50 millisecond
(c) 0.5 sec
(d) 0.1 sec
Ans: b
83. Overfluxing protection is recommended for
(a) distribution transformer
(b) generator transformer of the power plant
(c) auto-transformer of the power plant
(d) station transformer of the power plant
Ans: b
84. Series capacitors are used to
(a) compensate for line inductive reactance
(b) compensate for line capacitive reactance
(c) improve line voltage
Ans: a
85. Admittance relay is _______ relay.
(a) impedance
(b) directional
(c) non-directional
Ans: b
86. The material used for fuse must have
(a) low melting point and high specific resistance
(b) low melting point and -low specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point and any specific resistance
Ans: a
87. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the VII ratio will be
(a) constant for all distances
(b) lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
(c) higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
Ans: b
88. The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole structure) is
(a) inversely proportional to the current
(b) inversely proportional to the square of the current
(c) proportional to the current
(d) proportional to square of the current
Ans: b
89. The steady state stability of the power system can be increased by
(a) connecting lines in parallel
(b) connecting lines in series
(e) using machines of high impedance
(d) reducing the excitation of machines
Ans: a
90. The inductive interference between power and communication line can be minimized by
(a) transposition of the power line
(b) transposition of the communication line
(d) increasing the distance between the conductors
Ans: c
91. The power loss is an important factor for the design of
(a) transmission line
(b) motor
(c) generator
(d) feeder
Ans: a
92. A fuse is connected
(a) in series with circuit
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
Ans: a
93. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has
(a) no ageing effect
(b) high speed of operation
(c) high rupturing capacity
Ans: d
94. The fuse rating is expressed in terms of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) VAR
(d) kVA
Ans: a
95. The fuse blows off by
(a) burning
(b) arcing
(c) melting
Ans: c
96. On which of the following effects of electric current a fuse operates ?
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Electrostatic effect
(c) Heating effect
(d) Magnetic effect
Ans: c
97. An isolator is installed
(a) to operate the relay of circuit breaker
(b) as a substitute for circuit breaker
(c) always independent of the position of circuit breaker
(d) generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
Ans: d
98. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against
(a) overload
(b) short-circuit and overload
(c) open circuit, short-circuit and overload
Ans: b
99. Protection by fuses is generally not used beyond
(a) 20 A
(b) 50 A
(c) 100 A
(d) 200 A
Ans: c
100. A fuse is never inserted in
(a) neutral wire
(b) negative of D.C. circuit
(c) positive of D.C. circuit
(d) phase dine
Ans: a
101. Oil switches are employed for
(a) low currents circuits
(b) low voltages circuits
(c) high voltages and large currents circuits
(d) all circuits
Ans: c
102. A switchgear is device used for
(a) interrupting an electrical circuit
(b) switching an electrical circuit 111.
(c) switching and controlling an electrical circuit
(d) switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and equipment
Ans: d
103. The fuse wire, in D.C. circuits, is inserted in
(a) negative circuit only
(b) positive circuit only
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: c
104. By which of the following methods major portion of the heat generated in a H.R.C. fuse is dissipated ?
(a) Radiation
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
Ans: c
105. A short-circuit is identified by
(a) no current flow
(b) heavy current flow
(c) voltage drop
(d) voltage rise
Ans: b
106. The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is provided by
(a) relay
(b) rewirable fuse
(c) H.R.C. only
Ans: a
107. To limit short-circuit current in a power system are used.
(a) earth wires
(b) isolators
(c) H.R.C. fuses
(d) reactors
Ans: d
108. A balanced 3-phase system consists of
(a) zero sequence currents only
(b) positive sequence currents only
(c) negative and zero sequence currents
(d) zero, negative and positive sequence currents
Ans: b
109. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shut down when
(a) fault occurs on the bus itself
(b) fault occurs on neutral line
(c) two or more faults occur simultaneously
(d) fault occurs with respect to earthing
Ans: a
CONTROL SYSTEM
1. In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
Ans: a
2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
Ans: b
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
(a) Field controlled D.C. motor
(b) Ward leonard control
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
7. In open loop system
(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
8 has tendency to oscillate.
(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
9. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
Ans: c
11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called
(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
Ans: c
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
16 is a part of the human temperature control system.
(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
18 is a closed loop system.
(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(6) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter
(d) Electric switch
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
21 increases the steady state accuracy.
(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
22. A.C. servomotor resembles
(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease ?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(e) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
26 is an open loop control system.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from
(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
28. Zero initial condition for a system means
(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ?
(a) The order of the system
(b) The time constant
(c) The output for any given input
(d) The steady state gain
Ans: c
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.
(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Ans: c
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes and
load disturbances depend ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
Ans: d
32. The transient response, with feedback system,
(a) rises slowly
(b) rises quickly
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
(a) The time constant of the system
(b) Damping of the system
(c) The gain of the system
(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?
(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value
(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to
zero ?
(a) The system is relatively stable
(b) The system is highly stable
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be avoided ?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
Ans: a
40. A controller, essentially, is a
(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?
(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans:
42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.
(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) non-linear
(d) discontinuous
Ans:
43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to
(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
Ans: a
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to
(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate
Ans: d
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
Ans: a
47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
Ans: b
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to
(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
Ans: d
50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance
Ans: c
51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to
(a) inertia forces
(b) internal forces
(c) stored energy
(d) friction
Ans: c
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is known as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?
(a) Linear and time-in variant systems
(b) Linear and time-variant systems
(c) Linear systems
(d) Non-linear systems
Ans: a
55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?
(a) Signal flow graph
(b) Analogous table
(c) Output-input ratio
(d) Standard block system
Ans: a
56 is the reference input minus the primary feedback.
(a) Manipulated variable
(b) Zero sequence
(c) Actuating signal
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c
57. The term backlash is associated with
(a) servomotors
(b) induction relays
(c) gear trains
Ans:
58. With feedback _____ increases.
(a) system stability
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
(d) effects of disturbing signals
Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
60. In a system zero initial condition means that
(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
Ans: a
61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates
(a) reduced velocity lag error
(b) increased velocity lag error
(c) increased speed of response
(d) reduced time constant of the system
Ans: a
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of
(a) amplidyneset
(b) resistance-capacitance parallel circuit
(c) motor-generator set
Ans:
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to
(a) capacitance
(b) reciprocal of capacitance
(c) current
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(b) Laplace Transform
(c) Fourier Integral
(d) Either (b) or (c)
Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
(a) smaller damping ratio
(b) larger damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
Ans: a
66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems for
specified ________ input signal.
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
Ans: d
67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
(a) low frequencies
(b) reduced values of open loop gain
(c) increased values of open loop gain
Ans: b
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: a
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: c
(a) no net pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: d
71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are
(a) constant, constant
(b) constant, infinity
(c) zero, constant
(d) zero, zero
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit _______ function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is
(a) unity
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) 10
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain level for all the time, the
system is
(a) not necessarily stable
(b) stable
(c) unstable
(d) always unstable
Ans: a
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ?
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot
Ans: a
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
(a) Frequency response
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Relative stability
(d) Time response
Ans: c
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?
(a) Lead-compensation
(b) Lag-compensation
(c) Lead-lag compensation
Ans: b
78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?
(a) Nyquist Criterion
(b) Quasi linearization
(c) Functional analysis
(d) Phase-plane representation
Ans: a
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used ?
(a) Phase-lead
(b) Phase-lag
(d) Either (a) and (b)
Ans: a
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
(a) is independent of frequency
(b) is inverseh'proportional to frequency
(c) increases linearly with frequency
(d) decreases linearly with frequency
Ans: c
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
(a) Low-level oscillations
(b) High-level oscillations
(c) Conditional stability
(d) Overdamping
Ans:
82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tachogenerator ?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Speed and acceleration
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
83 is not a final control element.
(a) Control valve
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Electropneumatic converter
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?
(a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
(b) The range of measured variables from set value
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from maximum to minimum
Ans: c
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
Ans: b
86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?
(a) Differential bellows and straingauge
(b) Selsyn
(c) Strain gauge
(d) Strain gauge and potentiometer
Ans: a
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?
(a) Microsyn
(b) Selsyn
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
Ans: c
88. The effect of error damping is to
(a) provide larger settling lime
(b) delay the response
(c) reduce steady state error
Ans: c
89 technique gives quick transient and stability response
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode
(c) Nyquist
(d) Nichols
Ans: a
90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
(a) lag at all frequencies
(b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
Ans: c
91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?
(a) Static friction
(b) Backlash
(c) Saturation
Ans: c
92 can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?
(a) Bode-Nyquist stability methods
(b) Transfer functions
(c) Root locus design
(d) State model representatives
Ans: d
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device ?
(a) Induction relay
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
Ans: c
95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it
(a) reduces damping
(b) reduces the gain margin
(c) increases input noise
(d) increases error
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a) oscillatory
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) underdamped
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
Ans: b
98. With feed back _____ reduces.
(a) system stability
(6) system gain
(c) system stability and gain
Ans: b
99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Constant current
(b) Constant voltage
(c) Constant current as well as constant voltage
(d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
Ans: d
100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?
(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
101 directly converts temperature into voltage.
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Gear train
(d) LVDT
Ans: a
102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following
conditions ?
(a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities
(b) Systems having stability problems
(c) Systems having multiple input disturbances
Ans: d
103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?
(a) Alternating current
(b) Direct current
(c) A.C. voltage
(d) D.C. voltage
Ans: d
104. A.C. servomotor is basically a
(a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
(c) two phase induction motor
(d) three phase induction motor
Ans: c
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
(a) small bandwidth
(b) negative time constant
(c) large negative transfer function pole
Ans: c
106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?
(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
(b) The bandwidth of the system
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(d) The frequency response of a system
Ans: a
POLYPHASE INDUCTION MOTOR
1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?
(a) Bearings
(b) Shaft
(c) Statorcore
Ans: c
2. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of
(a) silicon steel
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Ans: b
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made of
(a) stiff
(b) flexible
(c) hollow
Ans: a
4. The shaft of an induction motor is made of
(a) high speed steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) carbon steel
(d) cast iron
Ans: c
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally
(a) less than 1%
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
Ans: a
6. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around
(a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
8. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased
(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Ans: b
9. Slip rings are usually made of
(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly
(a) 60 to 90%
(b) 80 to 90%
(c) 95 to 98%
(d) 99%
Ans: b
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Ans: a
15. A double squirrel-cage induction motor has
(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction
(b) two parallel windings in stator
(c) two parallel windings in rotor
(d) two series windings in stator
Ans: c
16. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of
(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
17. The term 'cogging' is associated with
(a) three phase transformers
(b) compound generators
(c) D.C. series motors
(d) induction motors
Ans: d
18. In case of the induction motors the torque is
(a) inversely proportional to (Vslip)
(b) directly proportional to (slip)2
(c) inversely proportional to slip
(d) directly proportional to slip
Ans: d
19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Ans: b
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
21. An induction motor is identical to
(a) D.C. compound motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) asynchronous motor
Ans: d
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
(a) zero frequency
(b) the same frequency as the slip frequency
(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
Ans: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
(a) low voltage supply
(b) high loads
(c) harmonics develped in the motor
(d) improper design of the machine
Ans: c
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage induction motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage induction motor is constructed the two cages can be
considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator
Ans: b
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the following methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
Ans: b
30. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for
(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
(b) slip ring induction motors only
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
Ans: b
33. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged
(a) the motor will run in reverse direction
(b) the motor will run at reduced speed
(c) the motor will not run
(d) the motor will burn
Ans: a
34. An induction motor is
(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque
(c) self-starting with low torque
(d) non-self starting
Ans: c
35. The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on
(a) frequency
(b) rotor inductive reactance
(c) square of supply voltage
Ans: d
36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors
(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
(c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
38. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to
(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Ans: c
40. The 'crawling" in an induction motor is caused by
(a) high loads
(6) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
42. The 'cogging' of an induction motor can be avoided by
(a) proper ventilation
(b) using DOL starter
(c) auto-transformer starter
(d) having number of rotor slots more or less than the number of stator slots (not equal)
Ans: d
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the normal speed, the phenomenon will
be
termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
44. Slip of an induction motor is negative when
(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
Ans: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motor for the same H.P. will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same
Ans: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to
(a) inadequate motor wiring
(b) poorely regulated power supply
(c) any one of the above
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
Ans: c
50. Slip ring motor is recommended where
(a) speed control is required
(6) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is required
(c) high starting torque is needed
(d) all above features are required
Ans: d
51. As load on an induction motor goes on increasing
(a) its power factor goes on decreasing
(b) its power factor remains constant
(c) its power factor goes on increasing even after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing up to full load and then it falls again
Ans: d
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speedload characteristics of which of the
following machines
(a) D.C. series motor
(c) universal motor
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft ?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
Ans: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage. The pump runs. What will
eventually happen ? It will
(a) stall after sometime
(b) stall immediately
(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged
Ans: d
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the following r.p.m. Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has
(a) double cage rotor
(6) wound rotor
(c) short-circuited rotor
Ans: b
59. The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is
(a) twice the full load torque
(b) 1.5 times the full load torque
(c) equal to full load torque
Ans: b
60. Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) transformation ratio
(d) power scale of circle diagram
Ans: a
61. In a three-phase induction motor
(a) iron losses in stator will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
(6) iron losses in motor will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
(c) iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor
(d) iron losses in stator will be more than that in rotor
Ans: d
62. In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means
(a) pulling the motor directly on line without a starter
(b) locking of rotor due to harmonics
(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
(d) interchanging two supply phases for quick stopping
Ans: d
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed deep in the rotor to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
65. In a three-phase induction motor
(a) power factor at starting is high as compared to that while running
(b) power factor at starting is low as compared to that while running
(c) power factor at starting in the same as that while running
Ans: b
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by
(a) open-circuit test only
(b) short-circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: b
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c
68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is
(a) parabola
(b) hyperbola
(c) rectangular parabola
(d) straigth line
Ans: c
69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Ans: d
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on full load. The machine has 6
poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with the help of data found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
Ans: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
(a) at the unit value of slip
(b) at the zero value of slip
(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the resistance per phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
Ans: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
77. Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to find out
(a) leakage reactance
(b) power factor on short circuit
(c) short-circuit current under rated voltage
Ans: d
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually
(a) graphite
(b) grease
(c) mineral oil
(d) molasses
Ans: b
79. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when
(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
Ans: d
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist ?
(a) Air motor
(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: a
81. The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least depends on
(a) rotor current
(b) rotor power factor
(c) rotor e.m.f.
(d) shaft diameter
Ans: d
82. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased
(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Ans: a
83. In induction motor, percentage slip depends on
(a) supply frequency
(b) supply voltage
(c) copper losses in motor
Ans: c
84. When /?2 is the rotor resistance, .X2 the rotor reactance at supply frequency and s the slip, then the condition for
maximum torque under running conditions will be
(a) sR2X2 = 1
(b) sR2 = X2
(c) R2 = sX2
(d) R2 = s2X2
Ans: c
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
(a) high inductance arid low resistance
(b) low inductance and high resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance
(d) high inductance and high resistance
Ans: a
86. The low power factor of induction motor is due to
(a) rotor leakage reactance
(b) stator reactance
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the magnetic flux
Ans: d
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit
(a) reduces starting torque as well as maximum torque
(b) increases starting torque as well as maximum torque
(c) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque remains unchanged3/9/2017
(d) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque decreases
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop a given torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
(c) any of the above
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor is obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
91. The purpose of using short-circuit gear is
(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings
(b) to short circuit the starting resistances in the starter
(c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor to form star
Ans: a
92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is
(a) dependent on the shaft loading
(b) dependent on the number of slots
(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
Ans: c
93. Less maintenance troubles are experienced in case of
(a) slip ring induction motor
(6) squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: b
94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not selected when
(a) initial cost is the main consideration
(b) maintenance cost is to be kept low
(c) higher starting torque is the main consideration
(d) all above considerations are involved
Ans: c
95. Reduced voltage starter can be used with
(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor
(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
Ans: a
97. In a star-delta starter of an induction motor
(a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator
(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor
(d) applied voltage perl stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage
Ans: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is
(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs at
(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed
Ans: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
Ans: c
101. Insertion of resistance in the stator of an induction motor
(a) increases the load torque
(b) decreases the starting torque
(c) increases the starting torque
Ans: b
POWER PLANT
1. The commercial sources of energy are
(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
Ans: b
3. In India largest thermal power station is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
4. The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is
(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b
5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a
7. The main source of production of biogas is
(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d
8. India's first nuclear power plant was installed at
(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d
11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately
(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c
13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to
(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 per cent
(6) 35 to 45 per cent
(c) 70 to 80 per cent
(d) 90 to 95 per ceut
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an 1 high pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the"nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2
Ans: a
16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
Ans: b
17. Carnot cycle comprises of
(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
Ans: b
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b
19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Ans: a
20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
Ans: b
21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
Ans: a
23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
Ans: c
24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
(a) utilise heat of flue gases
(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat
Ans: b
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d
26. Binary'vapour cycles are used to
(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine
Ans: b
27. A steam power station requires space
(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
Ans: b
28. Economiser is used to heat
(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b
29. The modern steam turbines are
(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulse-reaction turbines
Ans: c
30. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught
Ans: b
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b
32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold air from outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at the chimney base due to
hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental pressure
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean temperature of chimney gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: b
35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly
(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
Ans: b
36. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan
Ans: d
37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive
Ans: c
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced draught fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
39. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) air fans
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
Ans: d
40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce
(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
Ans: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located
(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible
Ans: a
42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system
(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system
Ans: c
43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately
(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at inlet is approximated by
equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam through a nozzle when
steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a nozzle when
steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
Ans: d
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is approximated by
equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
Ans: a
51. In case of impulse steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
Ans: c
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
Ans: a
53. In De Laval steam turbine
(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in condenser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the condenser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
(d) none from the above
Ans: a
54. Incase of reaction steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
Ans: a
55. Curtis turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
Ans: b
56. Rateau steam turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Ans: c
57. Parson's turbine is
(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans: d
58. For Parson's reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c
59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on
(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
Ans: c
60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from
(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6
Ans: c
61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods
(a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
(c) By-pass governing
Ans: d
62. In steam turbines the reheat factor
(a) increases with the increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with the increase in number of stages
(c) remains same irrespective of number of stages
Ans: a
63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a given pressure and
temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
Ans: a
64. In jet type condensers
(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(c) steam and cooling water mix
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix
Ans: c
65. In a shell and tube surface condenser
(a) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(d) all of the above varying with situation
Ans: b
66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
(a) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(b) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(c) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
(d) rise in temperature of condensed steam
Ans: a
67. The cooling section in the surface condenser
(a) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(b) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
Ans: b
68. Edward's air pump
(a) removes air and also vapour from condenser
(b) removes only air from condenser
(c) removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
(d) removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from condenser
Ans: d
69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
Ans: d
70. In a regenerative surface condenser
(a) there is one pump to remove air and condensate
(b) there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
(d) there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity
Ans: b
71. Evaporative type of condenser has
(a) steam in pipes surrounded by water
(b) water in pipes surrounded by steam
Ans: a
72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of
(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) copper
(d) aluminium
Ans: a
73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one
Ans: c
74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are
(a) condensing type
(b) non-condensing type
Ans: a
75. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations upto
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 90
Ans: a
76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about
(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
(d) 100 metres
Ans: a
77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d
78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: d
79. Load center in a power station is
(a) center of coal fields
(b) center of maximum load of equipments
(c) center of gravity of electrical system
Ans: c
80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d
81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by
(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b
82. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from
(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
(d) 100 to 650 MW
Ans: b
83. Caking coals are those which
(a) burn completely
(b) burn freely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke
Ans: d
84. Primary air is that air which is used to
(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: c
85. Secondary air is the air used to
(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: d
86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove
(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(c) iron particles
(d) sand
Ans: c
87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about
(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
(b) 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
(c) 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
(d) 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
Ans: b
88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
(a) lift trucks
(b) coal accelerators
(c) tower cranes
(d) belt conveyor
Ans: b
89. Bucket elevators are used for
(a) carrying coal in horizontal direction
(b) carrying coal in vertical direction
(c) carrying coal in any direction
Ans: b
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air
Ans: b
91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the various burners
(a) unit
(b) central
Ans: b
92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semibituminous and bituminous
Ans: c
93. Example of overfeed type stoker is
(a) chain grate
(b) spreader
(c) travelling grate
Ans: d
94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any
Ans: b
95. TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of
(a) 5075 kg/m per hour
(b) 75100 kg/m per hour
(c) 100150 kg/m per hour
(d) 150200 kg/m2 per hour
Ans: d
96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process
(a) to reduce the boiler pressure
(b) to increase the steam temperature
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated saline water
Ans: c
97. Deaerative heating is done to
(a) heat the water
(b) heat the air in the water
(c) remove dissolved gases in the water
Ans: c
98. Reheat factor is the ratio of
(a) isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
(b) adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop
Ans: c
99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of
(a) 0.8 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.05
(c) 1.1 to 1.5
(d) above 1.5
Ans: c
100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c
ELECTRICAL MATERIAL
1. The converse of hardness is known as
(a) malleability
(b) toughness
(c) softness
Ans: c
2. On which of the following factors does the resistivity of a material depend ?
(a) Resistance of the conductor
(b) Area of the conductor section
(c) Length of the conductor
Ans: d
3. is a negatively charged particle present in an atom.
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
Ans: c
4. The formula ____ determines the number of electrons that can be accommodated in any level.
(a) 2n2
(6) 4n2
(c) 2n3
(d) 4ns
Ans: a
5. The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small group of atoms is called the
(a) unit cell
(b) space lattice
Ans: a
6. The co-ordination number of a simple cubic structure is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: c
7. The covalent bond is formed by
(a) transfer of electrons between atoms
(b) sharing of electrons between atoms
(e) sharing of variable number of electrons by a variable number of atoms
Ans: b
8. A perfect conductor has
(a) zero conductivity
(b) unity conductivity
(c) infinite conductivity
Ans: c
9. The metal having the lowest temperature coefficient of resistance is
(a) gold
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) kanthal
Ans: a
10. Commonly used conducting materials are
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(d) copper and silver
(e) platinum and gold
Ans: c
11. Which of the following materials is preferred for transmitting electrical energy over long distance ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel reinforced copper
(d) Steel reinforced aluminium
Ans: d
12. The kinetic energy of a bounded electron is
(a) less than that of unbounded electron
(6) greater than that of unbounded electron
(c) equal to that of unbounded electron
(d) infinite
Ans: a
13. A highly conductive material must have
(a) highest conductivity
(b) lowest temperature co-efficient
(c) good mechanical strength
(d) good corrosion resistance
(e) easy solderable and drawable quality
(f) all of the above
Ans: f
14. The conductivity of a conductor can be increased by
(a) decreasing its temperature
(b) increasing its temperature
(c) decreasing its vibration
(d) increasing its vibration
Ans: a
15. Superconductivity is observed for
(a) infrared frequencies
(b) d.c. and low frequency
(c) a.c. and high frequency
(d) frequencies having no effect
Ans: b
16. The superconductivity is due to
(a) the crystal structure having no atomic vibration at 0K
(b) all electrons interact in the super-conducting state
(c) the electrons jump into nucleus at 0K
Ans: a
17. The value of critical field below the transition temperature will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: a
18. In a superconductor the value of critical density depends upon
(a) magnetic field strength
(b) temperature
Ans: d
19. Superconductors are becoming popular for use in
(a) generating very strong magnetic field
(b) manufacture of bubble memories
(c) generating electrostatic field
(d) generating regions free from magnetic field
Ans: a
20. High resistivity materials are used in
(a) precision instruments
(6) heating elements
(c) motor starters
(d) incandescent lamps
Ans: e
21. Mercury as an electric contact material is
(a) a liquid
(b) a metal
(c) a metal liquid
(d) a gas
Ans: c
22. An H.R.C. fuse is
(a) a ceramic body having metal and caps
(b) a wire of platinum
(c) a heavy cross-section of copper or aluminium
(d) a ceramic tube having carbon rod inside it
Ans: a
23. Which of the following resistive materials has the lowest temperature co-efficient of resistance ?
(a) Nichrome
(b) Constantan
(c) Kanthal
(d) Molybdenum
Ans: a
24. The coils of D.C. motor starter are wound with wire of
(a) copper
(b) kanthal
(c) manganin
(d) nichrome
Ans: c
25. The conductors have transport phenomena of electrons due to
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) electromagnetic field
Ans: a
26. The transition temperature of mercury is
(a) 18.0K
(6) 9.22K
(c) 4.12K
(d) 1.14'K
Ans: c
27. By increasing impurity content in the metal alloy the residual resistivity always
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(d) becomes temperature independent
Ans: b
28. The structure sensitive property of a super conductor is
(a) critical magnetic field
(b) transition temperature
(c) critical current density
Ans: c
29. At transition temperature the value of critical field is
(a) zero
(6) negative real value
(c) positive real value
(d) complex value
Ans: a
30. Which of the following variety of copper has the best conductivity ?
(a) Induction hardened copper
(b) Hard drawn copper
(c) Pure annealed copper
(d) Copper containing traces of silicon
Ans: c
31. Constantan contains
(a) silver and tin
(b) copper and tungsten
(c) tungsten and silver
(d) copper and nickel
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of electricity ?
(a) Carbon
(b) Steel
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium
Ans: a
33 ______ has zero temperature co-efficient of resistance.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Carbon
(c) Porcelain
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
34. Piezoelectric materials serve as a source of _____ .
(a) resonant waves
(b) musical waves
(c) microwaves
(d) ultrasonic waves
Ans: d
35. In thermocouples which of the following pairs is commonly used ?
(a) Copper-constantan
(b) Aluminium-tin
(c) Silver-German silver
(d) Iron-steel
Ans: a
36 is viscoelastic.
(a) Cast-iron
(6) Graphite
(c) Rubber
(d) Glass
Ans: c
37. Carbon electrodes are not used in
(a) GLS lamps
(b) electric arc furnace
(c) dry cells
(d) cinema projectors
Ans: a
38. Solder is an alloy of
(a) copper and aluminium
(b) tin and lead
(c) nickel, copper and zinc
(d) silver, copper and lead
Ans: b
39 ______ is most commonly used for making magnetic recording tape
(a) Silver nitrate
(b) Ferric oxide
(c) Small particles of iron
(d) Silicon-iron
Ans: b
40. Overhead telephone wires are made of
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) ACSR conductors
(d) copper
Ans: b
41. ______ is an example of piezoelectric material.
(a) Glass
(b) Quartz
(c) Corrundum
(d) Neoprene
Ans: b
42. _____ is the main constituent of glass
(a) Fe203
(b) Si02
(c) AI2O3
(d) B2O3
Ans: b
43. A good electric contact material should have all of the following properties except
(a) high resistivity
(b) high resistance to corrosion
(c) good thermal conductivity
(d) high melting point
Ans: a
44. Most of the common metals have _____ structure.
(a) linear
(b) hexagonal
(c) orthorhombic
(d) cubic
Ans: d
45. Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity of electrical conductors ?
(a) Composition
(b) Pressure
(c) Size
(d) Temperature
Ans: a
46. Thermonic emission occurs in
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) copper conductors
(c) ferrite cores
(d) transistors
Ans: a
47. _____ is a hard solder.
(a) Tin-lead
(6) Tin-silver-lead
(c) Copper-zinc
Ans: c
48. Addition of 0.3 to 4.5% silicon to iron _____ the electrical resistivity of iron.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
Ans: a
49. Super conductivity can be destroyed by
(a) adding impurities
(b) reducing temperatures
(c) application of magnetic field
Ans: c
50. Non-linear resistors
(a) produce harmonic distortion
(b) follows Ohm's law at low temperatures only
(c) result in non-uniform heating
Ans: a
51. A carbon resistor contains
(a) carbon crystals
(b) solid carbon granules
(c) pulverized coal
(d) finely divided carbon black.
Ans: d
52. Which of the following materials does not have covalent bonds ?
(a) Organic polymers
(b) Silicon
(c) Metals
Ans: c
53. In graphite, bonding is
(a) covalent
(b) metallic
(c) Vander Waals
(d) Vander Waals and covalent
Ans: d
54. Total number of crystal systems is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 12
Ans: c
55. The number of atoms per unit cell in B.C.C. structure is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Ans: b
56. The conductivity of a metal is determined by
(a) the electronic concentration and the mobility of the free electrons
(6) the number of valence electrons per atom
Ans: a
57. The resistivity of a metal is a function of temperature because
(a) the amplitude of vibration of the atoms varies with temperature
(b) the electron density varies with temperature
(c) the electron gas density varies with temperature
Ans: a
58. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined by
(a) the heat content of the crystal
(b) the temperature of the crystal
(c) the stiffness of the bonds it makes with neighbors
Ans: c
59. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium does not corrode in atmosphere ?
(a) Aluminium is a noble metal
(b) Atmospheric oxygen can only diffuse very slowly through the oxide layer which is formed on the surface of
aluminium
(c) No reaction with oxygen occurs ft Any of the above
Ans: b
60. The impurity atoms is semiconductors
(a) inject more charge carriers
(6) reduce the energy gap
(c) increase the kinetic energy of valence electrons
Ans: b
61. Which of the following material is not a semiconductor ?
(a) Silica
(b) Germanium
(c) Selenium
(d) Gallium-arsenide
Ans: a
62. Carbon resistors are used extensively because they are
(a) easy to make
(b) compact
(c) inexpensive
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
63. Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because
(a) carbon rod serves as conductor
(b) carbon can resist the attack of battery acid
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: c
64. Due to which of the following factors the brush wear rate is altered ?
(a) Speed of the machine
(b) Contact pressure
(c) Surface conditions of brush and commutator
(d) Excessive sparking
Ans: e
65. Which of the following are non-conductors of electricity?
(a) Non-metal solids except carbon
(b) Air and most other gases
(c) Pure water and liquids in general except mercury
Ans: d
66. Carbon bearings are used under which of the following conditions ?
(a) Where lubrication is difficult or im-possible
(b) Where corrosive chemical action exists
(c) Where high temperature exists
Ans: d
67. Which of the following high resistance materials has the highest operating temperature ?
(a) Kanthal
(b) Manganin
(c) Nichrome
(d) Eureka
Ans: a
68. Steel wire is used as
(a) overhead telephone wire
(b) earth wire
(c) core wire of ACSR
Ans: d
69. Low resistivity materials are used in
(a) transformer, motor and generator windings
(b) transmission and distribution lines
(c) house wiring
(d) all above applications
Ans: d
70. Platinum is used in
(a) electrical contacts
(b) thermocouple
(c) heating element in high temperature furnace
(d) grids of special purpose vacuum tubes
Ans: e
71. Which of the following is an advantage of stranded conductor over equivalent single conductor ?
(a) Less liability to kink
(b) Greater flexibility
(c) Less liability to break
Ans: d
72. Due to which of the following reasons copper and aluminium are not used for heating elements ?
(a) Both have great tendency for oxidation
(b) Both have low melting point
(c) Very large length of wires will be required
Ans: d
73. Copper, even though costly, finds use in the windings of electrical machines because
(a) copper points offer low contact resistance
(b) copper can be easily soldered and welded
(e) copper windings are less bulky and the machines become compact
Ans: d
74. Which of the following materials is used for making coils of standard resistances ?
(a) Copper
(b) Nichrome
(c) Platinum
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
75. Substances whose specific resistance abruptly decreases at very low temperature are called
(a) insulators
(b) conductors
(c) semiconductors
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
76. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: c
77. is the property of absorbing moisture from atmosphere.
(a) Solubility
(b) Viscosity
(c) Porosity
(d) Hygroscopicity
Ans: d
78. Thermocouples are mainly used for the measurement of
(a) temperature
(b) resistance
(c) eddy currents
(d) coupling co-efficient
Ans: a
79. Due to which of the following fact, in India, aluminium is replacing copper ?
(a) Aluminium is more ductile and malleable than copper
(6) Aluminium is available in plenty, cheaper and lighter than copper
(c) Aluminium has lower resistivity than that of copper
(d) Aluminium has less temperature co-efficient than copper
Ans: b
80. The conduction of electricity, in semiconductors, takes place due to movement of
(a) positive ions only
(b) negative ions only
(c) positive and negative ions
(d) electrons and holes
Ans: d
81. Which of the following is a semiconductor material ?
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Rubber
(c) Silicon
(d) Aluminium
Ans: c
82. Selenium is _____ semiconductor.
(a) extrnisic
(b) intmisic
(c) N-type
(d) P-type
Ans: b
83. ________ has the best damping properties.
(a) Diamond
(b) High speed steel
(c) Mild steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans: d
84. The photo-electric effect occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain critical
(a) intensity
(b) speed
(c) frequency
(d) wave length
Ans: c
85. If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in accordance with Ohm's law it is known as
(a) non-linear conductor
(b) reverse conductor
(c) bad-conductor
(d) non-conductor
Ans: a
86. Spark plug makes use of which of the following materials for insulation ?
(a) Porcelain
(b) Slate
(c) Asbestos
(d) Glass
Ans: a
87. The forbidden gap in an insulator is
(a) large
(b) small
(c) nil
Ans: a
88. Which of the following factors affect resistivity of metals ?
(a) Age hardening
(b) Alloying
(c) Temperature
(d) Cold work
Ans: e
89. Effect of moisture on the insulating materials is to
(a) decrease dielectric constant
(b) decrease dielectric strength
(c) decrease insulation resistance
(d) increase dielectric loss
Ans: e
90. Surface resistance of an insulating material is reduced due to the
(a) smoky and dirty atmosphere
(b) humidity in the atmosphere
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: c
91. Superconducting metal in super conducting state has relative permeability of
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) negative
(d) more than one
Ans: a
92. In conductors conduction of electricity takes place due to movement of
(a) electrons only
(b) positive ions only
(c) negative ions only
(d) positive and negative ions
Ans: a
93. The carbon percentage is least in
(a) low carbon steel
(b) wrought iron
(c) cast iron
(d) malleable iron
Ans: b
94. For a particular material the Hall coefficient was found to be zero. The material is
(a) insulator
(6) metal
(c) intrinsic semiconductor
Ans: b
95. The conductivity of an extrinsic semiconductor with temperature
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: c
96. The current due to electron flow in conduction band is the hole current in valence band.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) greater than
Ans: c
97. For a hole which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Holes can exist in certain semiconductors only
(b) Holes can exist in any material including conductors
(c) Holes may constitute an electric current
(d) Holes can be considered as a net positive charge
Ans: b
98. is an element used in semiconductors whose atoms have three valence electrons.
(a) An acceptor
(b) A donor
(c) Germanium
(d) Silicon
Ans: a
99. The minority carrier concentration is largely a function of
(a) forward biasing voltage
(b) reverse biasing voltage
(c) temperature
(d) the amount of doping
Ans: c
100. For germanium the forbidden energy gap is
(a) 0.15 eV
(b) 0.25 eV
(C) 0.5eV
(d) 0.7eV
Ans: d
RECTIFIER AND CONVERTER
1. Which of the following are the applications of D.C. system ?
(a) Battery charging work
(b) Arc welding
(c) Electrolytic and electro-chemical processes
(d) Arc lamps for search lights
Ans: e
2. Which of the following methods may be used to convert A.C. system to D.C. ?
(a) Rectifiers
(b) Motor converters
(c) Motor-generator sets
(d) Rotary converters
Ans: e
3. In a single phase rotary converter the number of slip rings will be
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six
(e) none
Ans: a
4. A synchronous converter can be started
(a) by means of a small auxiliary motor
(b) from AC. side as induction motor
(c) from D.C. side as D.C. motor
(d) any of the above methods
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: d
5. A rotary converter is a single machine with
(a) one armature and one field
(b) two armatures and one field
(c) one armature and two fields
Ans: a
6. A rotary converter combines the function of
(a) an induction motor and a D.C. generator
(b) a synchronous motor and a D.C. generator.
(c) a D.C. series motor and a D.C. generator
Ans: b
7. Which of the following is reversible in action ?
(a) Motor generator set
(b) Motor converter
(c) Rotary converter
Ans: c
8. Which of the following metals is generally manufactured by electrolysis process ?
(a) Load
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
Ans: b
9. With a motor converter it is possible to obtain D.C. voltage only upto
(a) 200-100 V
(6) 600800 V
(c) 10001200 V
(d) 17002000 V
Ans: d
10. Normally, which of the following is used, when a large-scale conversion from AC. to D.C. power is required ?
(a) Motor-generator set
(b) Motor converter
(c) Rotary converter
(d) Mercury arc rectifier
Ans: d
11. A rotary converter in general construction and design, is more or less like
(a) a transformer
(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) any D.C. machine
Ans: d
12. A rotary converter operates at a
(a) low power factor
(6) high power factor
(c) zero power factor
Ans: b
13. In which of the following appUcations, direct current is absolutely essential ?
(a) Illumination
(b) Electrolysis
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Traction
Ans: b
14. Which of the following AC. motors is usually used in large motor-generator sets?
(a) Synchronous motor
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Slip ring induction motor
Ans: a
15. In a rotary converter armature currents are
(a) d.c. only
(b) a.c. only
(c) partly a.c. and partly d.c.
Ans: c
16. In which of the following equipment direct current is needed ?
(a) Telephones
(b) Relays
(c) Time switches
Ans: d
17. In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a D.C. generator of the same size will be
(a) same
(b) less
(c) double
(d) three times
Ans: b
18. In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are attracted towards
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) shell bottom
(d) mercury pool
Ans: b
19. Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for cathode because
(a) its ionization potential is relatively low
(b) its atomic weight is quite high
(c) its boiling point and specific heat are low
(d) it remains in liquid state at ordinary temperature
Ans: e
20. The ionization potential of mercury is approximately
(a) 5.4 V
(b) 8.4 V
(c) 10.4 V
(d) 16.4 V
Ans: c
21. The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc rectifier, varies
(a) 0.05 V to 0.2 V per cm length of the arc
(b) 0.5 V to 1.5 V per cm length of the arc
(c) 2 V to 3.5 V per cm length of the arc
Ans: d
22. The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of a mercury arc rectifier comprises of the following
(a) anode drop and cathode drop
(b) anode drop and arc drop
(c) cathode drop and arc drop
(d) anode drop, cathode drop and arc drop
Ans: d
23. Glass rectifiers are usually made into units capable of D.C. output (maximum continuous rating) of
(a) 100 A at 100 V
(b) 200 A at 200 V
(c) 300 A at 300 V
(d) 400 A at 400 V
(e) 500 A at 500 V
Ans: e
24. The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc rectifier is due to
(a) self restoring property of mercury
(b) high ionization potential
(c) energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic field
(d) high temperature inside the rectifier
Ans: c
25. The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier depends on
(a) voltage only
(b) current only
(c) voltage and current
(d) r.m.s. value of current
Ans: a
26. If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc rectifier are inter changed
(a) the rectifier will not operate
(b) internal losses will be reduced
(c) both ion and electron streams will move in the same direction
(d) the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency
Ans: a
27. The cathdde voltage drop, in a mercury arc rectifier, is due to
(a) expenditure of energy in ionization
(b) surface resistance
(c) expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic field
(d) expenditure of energy in liberating electrons from the mercury
Ans: d
28. To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier
(a) anode is heated
(b) tube is evacuated
(c) an auxiliary electrode is used
(d) low mercury vapour pressures are used
Ans: c
29. The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is that
(a) it is light in weight and occupies small floor space
(b) it has high efficiency
(c) it has high overload capacity
(d) it is comparatively noiseless
Ans: e
30. In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop across its electrodes
(a) is directly proportional to load
(b) is inversely proportional to load
(c) varies exponentially with the load current
(d) is almost independent of load current
Ans: d
31. In a three-phase mercury arc rectifiers each anode conducts for
(a) one-third of a cycle
(b) one-fourth of a cycle
(c) one-half a cycle
(d) two-third of a cycle
Ans: a
32. In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity is due to
(a) colour of mercury
(b) ionization
(c) high temperature
(d) electron streams
Ans: b
33. Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will deliver least undulating current?
(a) Six-phase
(b) Three-phase
(c) Two-phase
(d) Single-phase
Ans: a
34. In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum current rating is restricted to
(a) 2000 A
(b) 1500 A
(c) 1000 A
(d) 500 A
Ans: d
35. In a mercury arc rectifier______ flow from anode to cathode
(a) ions
(b) electrons
(c) ions and electrons
Ans: a
36. When a rectifier is loaded which of the following voltage drops take place ?
(a) Voltage drop in transformer reactance
(6) Voltage drop in resistance of transformer and smoothing chokes
(c) Arc voltage drop
Ans: d
37. On which of the following factors the number of phases for which a rectifier should be designed depend ?
(a) The voltage regulation of the rectifier should be low
(b) In the output circuit there should be no harmonics
(c) The power factor of the system should be high
(d) The rectifier supply transformer should be utilized to the best ad-vantage
Ans: e
38. A mercury arc rectifier possesses ________ regulation characteristics
(a) straight line
(b) curved line
(c) exponential
Ans: d
39. It is the_______of the transformer on which the magnitude of angle of overlap depends.
(a) resistance
(b) capacitance
(c) leakage reactance
Ans: c
41. In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when the grid is made positive relative to cathode, then it the electrons on
their may to anode.
(a) accelerates
(b) decelerates
Ans: a
42. In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be struck between anode and cathode only when the grid attains a
certain potential, this potential being known as
(a) maximum grid voltage
(b) critical grid voltage
Ans: b
43. In phase-shift control method the control is carried out by varying the of grid voltage.
(a) magnitude
(b) polarity
(c) phase
Ans: c
16.44. In a phase-shift control method, the phase shift between anode and grid voltages can be achieved by means of
(a) shunt motor
(6) synchronous motor
(c) induction regulator
(d) synchronous generator
Ans: c
45. The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due to which of the following advantages ?
(a) They are mechanically strong
(b) They do not require any voltage for filament heating
Ans: c
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Copper oxide rectifier is a linear device
(b) Copper oxide rectifier is not a perfect rectifier
(c) Copper oxide rectifier has a low efficiency
(d) Copper oxide rectifier finds use in control circuits
(e) Copper oxide rectifier is not stable during early life
Ans: a
47. The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom exceeds
(a) 90 to 95%
(b) 85 to 90%
(c) 80 to 85%
(d) 65 to 75%
Ans: d
48. Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to operate above
(a) 10C
(b) 20C
(c) 30C
(d) 45C
Ans: d
49. Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as high as
(a) 25C
(b) 40C
(c) 60C
(d) 75C
Ans: d
50. In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from ______ to ______ percent are attainable
(a) 25, 35
(b) 40, 50
(c) 60, 70
(d) 75, 85
Ans: d
51. Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the output voltage by
(a) 5 to 10 per cent
(b) 15 to 20 per cent
(c) 25 to 30 per cent
Ans: a
52. The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually limited to potential of
(a) 10 V
(b) 30 V
(c) 60 V
(d) 100 V
(e) 200 V
Ans: d
53. Which of the following rectifiers have been used extensively in supplying direct current for electroplating ?
(a) Copper oxide rectifiers
(b) Selenium rectifiers
(c) Mercury arc rectifiers
(d) Mechanical rectifiers
Ans: b
54. A commutating rectifier consists of commutator driven by
(a) an induction motor
(b) a synchronous motor
(c) a D.C. series motor
(d) a D.C. shunt motor
Ans: b
55. Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for charging of low voltage batteries from AC. supply ?
(a) Mechanical rectifiers
(b) Copper oxide rectifiers
(c) Selenium rectifiers
(d) Electrolytic rectifiers
(e) Mercury arc rectifiers
Ans: d
56. The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is nearly
(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 60%
(d) 40%
Ans: c
57. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber ?
(a) Voltage drop in arc
(6) Voltage drop at the anode
(c) Voltage drop at the cathode
Ans: d
58. The metal rectifiers, as compared to mercury arc rectifiers
(a) operate on low temperatures
(b) can operate on high voltages
(c) can operate on heavy loads
(d) give poor regulation
Ans: a
59. In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually made of
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) silver
(d) graphite
(e) tungsten
Ans: d
60. The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc rectifier is made of
(a) graphite
(b) boron carbide
(c) aluminium
(d) copper
Ans: b
MEASURING INSTRUMENT
1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within laboratories as standardizing instruments.
(a) absolute
(b) indicating
(c) recording
(d) integrating
Ans: a
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being measured at the ti
me
at which it is being measured ?
(a) Absolute instruments
(b) Indicating instruments
(c) Recording instruments
(d) Integrating instruments
Ans: b
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating
Ans: d
4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?
(a) Ammeters
(b) Voltmeters
(c) Wattmeters
(d) Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
Ans: d
5. Resistances can be measured with the help of
(a) wattmeters
(b) voltmeters
(c) ammeters
(d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges
Ans: d
6 According to application, instruments are classified as
(a) switch board
(b) portable
(d) moving coil
(e) moving iron
(f) both (d) and (e)
Ans: c
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ?
(a) Deflecting device
(b) Controlling device
(c) Damping device
Ans: d
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to reach its final position quickly
(a) deflecting
(b) controlling
(c) damping
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property.
(a) Should be non-magnetic
(b) Most be of low temperature co-efficient
(c) Should have low specific resistance
(d) Should not be subjected to fatigue
Ans: e
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ?
(a) Must be a good insulator
(b) Should be non-evaporating
(c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane
(d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature
Ans: e
11. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux-meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Ans: a
12. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter
(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Ans: c
13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments ?
(a) Shunts
(b) Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
Ans: e
14. An induction meter can handle current up to
(a) 10 A
(b) 30 A
(c) 60 A
(d) 100 A
Ans: d
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjunction with
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) power transformers
(d) either of the above
Ans: b
16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR
Ans: c
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial installations are
(a) mercury motor meters
(b) commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
Ans: c
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
Ans: c
19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor meter ?
(a) An operating torque system
(b) A braking device
(c) Revolution registering device
Ans: d
20. A potentiometer may be used for
(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
Ans: e
21 is an instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth and one another,
(a) Tangent galvanometer
(b) Meggar
(c) Current transformer
Ans: b
22. The household energy meter is
(a) an indicating instrument
(b) a recording instrument
(c) an integrating instrument
Ans: c
23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be
(a) very light
(b) very heavy
Ans: a
24. The chemical effect of current is used in
(a) D.C. ammeter hour meter
(b) D.C. ammeter
(c) D.C. energy meter
Ans: a
25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by
(a) fluid friction
(b) spring
(c) eddy currents
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
(a) secondary instrument
(b) absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument
Ans: a
27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) eddy currents
Ans: a
28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping should be of
(a) conducting and magnetic material
(b) non-conducting and magnetic material
(c) conducting and non-magnetic material
Ans: c
29. The switch board instruments
(a) should be mounted in vertical position
(6) should be mounted in horizontal position
Ans: a
30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to
(a) by pass the current
(b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
(c) increase the resistance of ammeter
Ans: a
31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel
Ans: a
32. A moving iron instrument can be used for
(a) D.C. only
(b) A.C. only
(c) both D.C. and A.C.
Ans: c
33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is
(a) linear
(b) non-linear
Ans: a
34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) thermocouple instrument
Ans: c
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be
(a) almost zero
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: c
36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(b) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: a
37. An induction wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(6) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: b
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil when
(a) load impedance is high
(b) load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
Ans: a
39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is connected
(a) to the supply side of the current coil
(b) to the load side of the current coil
(c) in any of the two meters at connection
Ans: b
40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil is connected
(a) in series with current coil
(b) in parallel with current coil
(c) in series with pressure coil
(d) in parallel with pressure coil
Ans: c
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt meters had identical readings. The
power factor of the load was
(a) unity
(6) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) zero
Ans: a
42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading of one of the wattmeter was zero. The
power factor of the load must be
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is done to provide
(a) friction compensation
(b) creep compensation
(c) braking torque
Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) moving coil instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low resistance initially and then
slowly came to infinity position. This shows that capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) all right
(c) faulty
Ans: b
46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use
(a) Kelvin's double bridge
(b) Wheat stone bridge
(c) Meggar
Ans: c
47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by
(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
Ans: b
48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) coil
(d) eddy current
Ans: c
49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about
(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: d
50. Murray loop test can be used for location of
(a) ground fault on a cable
(b) short circuit fault on a cable
(c) both the ground fault and the short-circuit fault
Ans: c
51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
Ans: c
53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured
(a) directly by a D.C. potentiometer
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known resistance
Ans: b
54. A direct current can be measured by
(a) a D.C. potentiometer directly
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
Ans: b
55. To measure a resistance with the help of a potentiometer it is
(a) necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(b) not necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the potentiometer
Ans: b
56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with
(a) D.C. potentiometer
(b) Drysdale potentiometer
(c) A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer
(d) Crompton potentiometer
Ans: b
57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for
(a) comparing two voltages
(b) measuring a current
(c) comparing two currents
(d) measuring a voltage
Ans: a
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
(a) as long as possible
(b) as short as possible
(c) neither too small not too large
(d) very thick
Ans: a
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for the potentiometer in
taken
(a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
(b) from a battery
(c) from the same source as the unknown voltage
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer usually has a
(a) single-phase winding
(b) two-phase winding
(c) three-phase winding
Ans: b
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a) out of phase by 90
(6) out of phase by 60
(c) out of phase by 30
(d) out of phase by 0
(e) out of phase by 180
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses
(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De Santas bridge for measurement of capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De Santy's bridge for measurement of capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge for measurement of capacitance
(d) Any of the above.
Ans: b
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is3/9/2017
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aration for Engineering Competit
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(a) Wein bridge
(b) Modified De Santy's bridge
(c) Schering bridge
Ans: c
64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of
(a) known inductance and resistance
(b) known capacitance and resistance
(c) known resistance
(d) known inductance
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
(a) electrostatic coupling
(b) electromagnetic coupling
Ans: a
66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
(a) Anderson bridge
(b) Maxwell's bridge
(c) Heaviside bridge
Ans: c
67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use
(a) Maxwell's bridge
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge
(c) Hay's bridge
Ans: c
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle of the capacitor is
(a) 10
(b) 80
(c) 120
(d) 170
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
(a) a few volts only
(6) 1 kV
(c) 5 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
(a) magnetic screening
(b) Wagner earthing device
(c) wave filters
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three arms
(a) the bridge can always be balanced
(b) the bridge cannot be balanced
(c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific values
Ans: b
72. A power factor meter has
(a) one current circuit and two pressure circuits
(b) one current circuit and one pressure circuit
(c) two current circuits and one pressure circuit
Ans: a
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
(a) the same dimensions and the same number of turns
(b) the same dimension but different number of turns
(c) the same number of turns but different dimensions
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between the currents in the two pressure coils is
(a) exactly 0
(b) approximately 0
(c) exactly 90
(d) approximately 90
Ans: c
75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are at
(a) 0
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a difference of
(a) 0.1 Hz
(b) 0.25 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Ans: c
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils are
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at 60
(d) inclined at 120
Ans: b
78. A Weston frequency meter is
(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
Ans: b
79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
Ans: c
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across
(a) bus-bars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) a lamp
Ans: b
81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across
(a) bus-bars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) fixed coils
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
Ans: b
83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are
(a) accuracy and reproducibility
(b) accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(c) drift and dead zone
(d) static error
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation of the instrument is called
(a) static sensitivity
(b) dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
85. Systematic errors are
(a) instrumental errors
(b) environmental errors
(c) observational errors
Ans: d
86. Standard resistor is made from
(a) platinum
(b) maganin
(c) silver
(d) nichrome
Ans: b
87. Commonly used standard capacitor is
(a) spherical type
(b) concentric cylindrical type
(c) electrostatic type
(d) multilayer parallel plate type
Ans: b
88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are
(a) deflecting and control
(b) deflecting and damping
(c) deflecting, control and damping
(d) vibration and balancing
Ans: c
89. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are
(a) induction
(b) moving coil or iron
(c) rectifier
(d) electrostatic
Ans: a
90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to
(a) get first deflection large
(b) make the system oscillatory
(c) make the system critically damped
(d) get minimum overshoot
Ans: a
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
(a) square law
(b) logarithmic law
(c) uniform law
Ans: b
92. Volt box is a component to
(a) extend voltage range
(6) measure voltage
(c) compare voltage in a box
Ans: a
93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by
(a) electrostatic voltmeter
(b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) isothermal voltmeter
(d) electrodynamic voltmeter
Ans: a
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current is proportional to
(a) balancing weight
(b) deflection angle
(c) sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a
(a) small value of current
(b) large value of current
(c) large value of power
(d) large value of voltage
Ans: a
96. A multirangq instrument has
(a) multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter
(b) multicoii arrangement
(c) variable turns of coil
(d) multi range meters inside the measurement system
Ans: a
97. The rectifier instrument is not free from
(a) temperature error
(b) wave shape error
(c) frequency error
Ans: c
98. Alternating current is measured by
(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Ans: a
99. Most sensitive galvanometer is
(a) elastic galvanometer
(b) vibration galvanometer
(c) Duddlb galvanometer
(d) spot ballistic galvanometer
Ans: d
100. Instrument transformers are
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(d) power transformers
Ans: c
101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of
(a) induction instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) moving coil instrument
Ans: a
102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
(a) electrostatic instrument
(b) thermocouple instrument
(c) moving iron instrument
(d) electrodynamic instrument
Ans: c
103. In an energy meter braking torque is produced to
(a) safe guard it against creep
(b) brake the instrument
(c) bring energy meter to stand still
(d) maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque
Ans: d
104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include
(a) light load or friction
(b) lag and creep
(c) overload and voltage compensation
(d) temperature compensation
Ans: e
105. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a minimum of
(a) (n - 1) wattmeter elements
(b) n wattmeter elements
(c) (n + 1) wattmeter elements
(d) 2n wattmeter elements
Ans: a
106. Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle to
(a) improve its ventilation
(b) eliminate creeping at no load
(c) increase its deflecting torque
(d) increase its braking torque
Ans: b
107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector voltmeter ?
(a) Amplifier gain and phase shift
(b) Filler transfer functions
(c) Complex insersion loss
Ans: d
108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is
(a) that it works on the principle of complex variation
(b) that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage
(c) same as digital meter
(d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the same time measures their phase difference
Ans:

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ELECTROLYSIS

1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have

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